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AP Bio
Final Exam 2010
1. In Mendel’s time, most people believed that
a. all genetic traits bred true
b. only certain forms of domesticated plants and animals bred true
c. the characteristics of parents were blended in the offspring
d. the mother contributed all the hereditary material for the new generation
e. the father contributed all the hereditary material for the new generation
2. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Darwin did not know what mechanisms were responsible for the variation
he saw
b. The blending theory of inheritance provides excellent support for evolution
c. Darwin received Mendel’s paper but did not understand its significance
d. The explanation for genetics had no implications for evolution
e. All of these
3. In his experiments with plants, Mendel removed which part of the plant to prevent
unwanted fertilizations?
a. Flowers
b. Petals
c. Pistils
d. Stamens
e. Stigmas
4. D* Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the pea plants with which
Mendel worked?
a. They produce male and female parts
b. They exhibit blending inheritance
c. They normally self-fertilize
d. They have many different contrasting traits and exhibit some pure breeding
varieties
e. They can easily be cross fertilized by human manipulation
5. A gene locus is
a. A recessive gene
b. An unmatched allele
c. A sex chromosome
d. The location of an allele on a chromosome
e. A dominant gene
6. Various forms of a gene at a given locus are called
a. Kinetochores
b. Alleles
c. Autosomes
d. Loci
e. Chromatids
7. Diploid organisms
a. Have corresponding alleles on homologous chromosomes
b. Are usually the result of the fusion of two haploid gametes
c. Have two sets of chromosomes
d. Have pairs of homologous chromosomes
e. All of these
8. Which of the following genotypes is homozygous
a. AaBB
b. aABB
c. aaBB
d. aaBb
e. AaBb
9. The most accurate description of an organism with genotype AaBb is
a. Homozygous dominant
b. Heterozygous
c. Heterozygous dominant
d. Homozygous recessive
e. Heterozygous recessive
10. D* Gene A occurs on chromosome 5, gene B occurs on chromosome 21. Therefore,
these two portions of the chromosomes CANNOT be
a. Genes
b. Dominant
c. Loci
d. Alleles
e. Recessive
11. Creative individuals who suffered from neurobiological disorders include
a. Socrates
b. Beethoven
c. Woolf
d. Nash
e. All of these
12. Genes are
a. Located on chromosomes
b. Inherited in the same way as chromosome
c. Arranged in linear sequence on chromosomes
d. Assorted independently during meiosis
e. All of these
13. Chromosomes other than those involved in sex determination are known as
a. Nucleosomes
b. Heterosomes
c. Alleles
d. Autosomes
e. Liposomes
14. Sex chromosomes
a. Determine gender
b. Vary from one sex to another
c. Carry some genes that have nothing to do with sex
d. Were unknown to Mendel
e. All of these
15. The human X chromosome
a. Is found in males
b. Is found in males
c. Carries different genes than the Y chromosomes
d. Synapses in a small region with a Y chromosome during meiosis
e. All of these
16. A Karyotype
a. Compares one set of chromosomes to another
b. Is a visual display of chromosomes arranged according to size
c. Is a photograph of cells undergoing mitosis during anaphase
d. Of a normal human cells undergoing mitosis during anaphase
e. Cannot be used identify individual chromosomes beyond the fact that two
chromosomes are homologues
17. In Karyotyping, individual chromosomes may be distinguished from others by
a. A comparison of chromosomes lengths
b. Bands produced on chromosomes by differential staining
c. The position of centromeres
d. All of these
e. None of these
18. Karyotyping is usually done using what kind of cells?
a. Muscle
b. Blood
c. Cartilage
d. Sex
e. Epidermal
19. Which chemical is used to keep chromosomes from separating during metaphase?
a. Giemsa stain
b. Acetone
c. Colchicine
d. Alcohol
e. Formaldehyde
20. Colcichine interferes with the function of
a. Microtubules
b. Ribosomes
c. Centrioles
d. Centromeres
e. Chromosomes
21. *D Dolly the sheep was conceived by inserting
a. A nucleus from an egg cell into an unfertilized egg
b. A nucleus from a body cell into an unfertilized egg
c. A nucleus from a sperm cell into an unfertilized egg
d. Two nuclei from body cells into an enucleated egg cell
e. A nucleus from a body cell into an enucleated egg cell
22. Which of the following mammals have been successfully cloned?
a. Mice and rabbits
b. Pigs and cattle
c. Goats and mules
d. Horses and cats
e. All of these
23. D* Early on, researchers suspected that Dolly was physically older than her
chronological age because of the results from a study of her
a. Telomeres
b. Blood
c. Egg cells
d. Brain tissue
e. Teeth
24. The major challenge in using adult DNA in the cloning process is
a. Purifying the DNA
b. Inserting the DNA into cells
c. Switching on its genes in controlled ways
d. Turning of unnecessary genes
e. Determining what DNA is best to use
25. *D Fred Griffith discovered that when he injected mice with a mixture of dead
pathogenic S cells and living harmless R cells of Streptococcus pneumonia
a. The harmless dead S bacteria became pathogenic and killed the mice
b. The mice died and their bodies teemed with living pathogenic S strain cells
c. The pathogenic S strain was transformed into the harmless R strain
d. The mice lived out their bodies teemed with living harmless R strain cells,
and the pathogenic S strain cells were eliminated
e. None of these
26. Fred Griffith’s experiments with two strains of streptococcus pneumoniae
a. Resulted in a vaccine against bacterial pneumonia
b. Demonstrated that rough (R ) bacteria cause pneumonia
c. Provided evidence that genetic material fro one bacterial strain can be
transferred to that of another strain
d. Demonstrated that mice can tansform harmless bacteria into pathogenic
bacteria
e. Demonstrated that a harmless, smooth bacterial strain can be transformed
into a lethal, rough bacterial strain
27. Bacteriophages are
a. Large bacteria
b. Pathogenic bacteria
c. Viruses that infect bacteria
d. Virus-eating bacteria
e. Viruses that infect eukaryotic cells
28. DNA contains ___________ but NOT ________________
a. Sulfur; phosphorus
b. Phosphorus; sulfur
c. Potassium; sulfur
d. Sulfur; potassium
e. Proteins; phosphorus
29. *D If a mixture of bacteriophages, some labeled with radioactive sulfur and others
labeled with radioactive phosphorus, is placed in a bacterial culture, the bacteria
will eventually contain
a. Radioactive sulfur
b. Radioactive phosphorus
c. Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus
d. Neither radioactive sulfur nor radioactive phosphorus
e. Complete viruses with radioactive sulfur coats
30. James Watson and Francis Crick
a. Were both English researchers working at Cambridge University
b. Performed elegant experiments in DNA chemistry
c. Constructed an accurate model of the DNA molecule illustrating its
structural simplicity
d. Performed experiments that convinced scientists that DNA is a doublestranded molecule
e. All of these
31. Ricin is
a. A substance found in castor bean seeds
b. A polysaccharide extracted from rice
c. An ingredient in many paints and cosmetics
d. A protein that inactivates ribosomes
e. A substance found in castor beans seeds and a protein that inactivates
ribosomes
32. DNA from bacteria differs from DNA in humans in which of the following ways?
a. Base composition
b. Sugar-phosphate linkage
c. Nucleotide sequence
d. Bonding of the helix
e. All of these
33. A linear stretch of DNA that specifies the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
is called a(n)
a. Codon
b. Intron
c. Messenger
d. Gene
e. Enzyme
34. The DNA molecule usually is made up of how many strands?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
e. 12
35. The two steps of transcription followed by translation
a. Explain the structural complexity of genes
b. Describe the flow of information
c. Are based upon the role of proteins in controlling life
d. Do not explain how genes function
e. Explain evolution in terms of molecular biology
36. ________________ molecules carry protein-assembly instructions from the nucleus
to the cytoplasm
a. Template DNA
b. Messenger RNA
c. Transfer RNA
d. Ribosomal RNA
e. All of these
37. The RNA molecule is made up of how many strands?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
e. 12
38. D* The changing of a business letter from shorthand to typewritten copy is
analogous to
a. Translation of mRNA
b. Transcription of DNA
c. Protein synthesis
d. Deciphering the genetic code
e. Replication of DNA
39. All different kinds of RNA are transcribed in the
a. Mitochondria
b. Cytoplasm
c. Ribosomes
d. Nucleus
e. Endoplasmic reticulum
40. *D DNA and RNA are alike in
a. The pentose sugar
b. All the nitrogenous bases used to assemble the genetic code
c. The number of strands
d. Their function in genetics
e. None of these
41. A radical mastectomy involves the removal of
a. Any breast tumor
b. A benign tumor
c. A malignant breast tumor
d. A breast, all lymph nodes under the arm, and skeletal muscles in the chest
wall under the breast
e. Both breasts
42. Which of the following statements is false concerning breast cancer?
a. It develops in one of 10, 000 females a year
b. About 180, 000 new cases are diagnosed a year in the United States
c. It does not affect males
d. It may have many underlying causes
e. Gene mutations predispose individuals to developing certain kinds of breast
cancer
43. When cells stop responding to normal controls over growth and division they
a. Begin to form a tumor
b. Produce a malignancy
c. Start to die
d. Kill surrounding cells
e. Produce scar tissue
44. Which of the following statements concerning cancer cells is most accurate?
a. Proto-oncogenes are part of the regulatory section of a chromosome
b. Tumor cells have lost their ability to stop dividing
c. Proto-oncogenes help control runaway cell division
d. Benign tumor cells usually spread only to adjacent organs
e. Metastasis is the spread of benign cells
45. ERBB2 is a
a. Type of membrane receptor
b. Proto-oncogene
c. Gene on chromosome 17
d. Gene that mutates causing a type of breast cancer
e. Gene that may be over-exposed resulting in a type of breast cancer
46. BRACA1 and BRACA2
a. Are called cancer genes
b. Code for tumor suppressing proteins
c. Are involved in DNA repair mechanisms
d. In their mutated forms often occur in cancerous breast cells
e. All of these
47. When cancer cells infiltrate muscle cells under the breast the only treatment option
is
a. Radiation therapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. A radical mastectomy
d. Gene therapy
e. Diet modification with massive vitamin intake
48. Regulatory elements in gene control interact with
a. New polypeptide chains
b. DNA
c. RNA
d. Final proteins
e. All of these
49. Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning promoters
a. They are short sequences in DNA
b. They are locations in DNA where regulatory proteins gather
c. They control transcription
d. They are associated with specific genes
e. All of these
50. Genes on newly synthesized DNA molecules can be blocked by the addition of
__________ to the DNA
a. –CH3
b. –CH3C0c. –NH2
d. –H20
e. Any of these
51. According to the World Health Organization, approximately how many children
around the world show a vitamin A deficiency?
a. 14 million
b. 24 million
c. 124 million
d. 524 million
e. 724 million
52. Even though nature has been carrying out genetic experiments for 3.8 billion years,
what may be the unsettling aspect of biologists’ foray into this endeavor
a. That humans are now “playing god”
b. The rapid pace of developments
c. That scientists really do not know what they are doing in this area
d. The number of dangerous plants and animals that have been produced
e. The possibility of angering God
53. Bacteria use restriction enzymes to
a. Integrate viral DNA
b. Destroy viral DNA
c. Prevent mutation of their DNA
d. Copy their genes
e. Inhibit the expression of some of their genes
54. Restriction enzymes cut double-stranded DNA at specific base sequence
a. Between genes
b. Producing fragments of four to eight base pairs in length
c. Between bacterial and viral DNAs
d. Between purines and pyrimidines
e. Between promote and operator DNA sequences
55. The fragments of chromosomes split by restriction enzymes
a. Have fused ends
b. Have specific sequences of nucleotides and sticky ends
c. Each have the same number of nucleotides as the original chromosome
d. Form a circle
e. Have modified DNA nucleotides
56. Restriction enzymes
a. Work at recognition sites
b. Function only at “sticky ends”
c. Produce uniform lengths of DNA
d. Function in viruses
e. Are produced by viruses to breakdown bacterial DNA
57. Restriction enzymes
a. Produce staggered cuts in DNA that are often useful in splicing genes
b. Are very specific in their action
c. Are natural defense mechanisms in bacteria that destroy foreign DNA
introduced by viruses
d. Are used along with ligases and plasmids to produce DNA libraries
e. All of these
58. Which of the following enzymes join the paired the sticky ends of DNA fragments?
a. Reverse fragments
b. Restriction enzymes
c. DNA ligases
d. DNA polymerases
e. Polynucleotide kinases
59. Recombinant DNA is any DNA that
a. Has been cut by restriction enzymes
b. Is at least four to eight base pairs in length
c. Has had its gene sequence rearranged
d. Consists of base pairs from two or more organisms of the same or different
species
e. All of these
60. Small circular molecules of “extra” DNA in bacteria
a. Are plasmids
b. Are DNA fragments from their main chromosome
c. Result from the activity of restriction enzymes
d. Are eventually degraded
e. All of these
61. The word “evolution” as used in biology literally means
a. Natural selection
b. Genetic drift
c. Divergence
d. Change
e. Mutation
62. Which of the following statements is NOT true about asteroids?
a. They have had little influence on the history of life
b. Planets swept up most of them during formation of our solar system
c. Their impacts have produced craters visible in satellite images
d. One asteroid impacted our planet just prior to the mass extinctions at the KT boundary
e. An asteroid impact releases an enormous quantity of energy
63. The great chain of Being developed from ideas written many centuries earlier by
a. Aristotle
b. Darwin
c. Linnaeus
d. Cuvier
e. Wallace
64. *D People embracing the idea of the great Chain of Being did NOT believe in
which of the following?
a. Spiritual beings were a part of the Chain
b. All life forms were created at one time and at one center of creation
c. Organisms could appear, disappear, or move up and down the Chain
d. Each species was “fixed” at creation
e. All the “links” would eventually be discovered
65. Scientists began to question the perfection of the Chain of Being because of
a. The discovery of new organisms in new parts of the world
b. The presence of body parts with no apparent function in some organisms
c. The existence of fossil forms
d. Similarities in the structures found in different forms of life
e. All of these
66. The study of the distribution of plants and animals around the world is
a. Diversity
b. Biogeography
c. Ecology
d. Natural history
e. Environmentalism
67. The forelimbs of early mammals are similar in all features except
a. Embryonic origin
b. Position on the body
c. Number
d. Function
e. Composition
68. Fossils
a. Are found in underground layers called strata
b. Are distributed underground, with the oldest forms near the top
c. Have more complex structures the deeper they are buried
d. Are the same throughout the world no matter where they are found
e. That are most like living organisms are found deepest in the ground
69. Fossils found in the lowest geological strata are generally the most
a. Advanced
b. Complex
c. Primitive
d. Widespread
e. Specialized
70. The theory of catastrophism
a. Was proposed by Lyell
b. Indicates that a series of disasters necessitated separate acts of creation to
replace species that became extinct
c. States that one worldwide disaster led to massive extinction and subsequent
replacement by a new creation
d. Held that after a series of massive extinctions the world was repopulated by
the survivors of existing species
e. Has absolutely no basis in fact because extinctions just happen with no
apparent patterns
71. The word “evolution” as used in biology literally means
a. Natural selection
b. Genetic drift
c. Divergence
d. Heritable change
e. Mutation
72. Which of the following is a group of interbreeding individuals of the same species
that are reproductive isolated from other species?
a. Individuals
b. Species
c. Population
d. Polyploids
e. All of these
73. *D Only identical twins have the same
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
c. Traits
d. Genotype and phenotype
e. Genotype, phenotype and traits
74. All EXCEPT which of the following events shuffle existing alleles into different
combinations in sexually reproducing organisms?
a. Changes in chromosome structure
b. Mutation
c. Independent assortment of chromosomes
d. Crossing over
e. Fertilization
75. New alleles that appear by mutation
a. Are inherently disadvantageous to their beares
b. Are seldom advantageous or disadvantageous in themselves
c. Either have or lack survival value only in the context of their environment
d. Are seldom advantageous or disadvantageous in themselves and either have
or lack survival value only in the context of their environment
e. Are inherently disadvantageous to their bearers and are seldom
advantageous or disadvantageous in themselves
76. Whether a mutation is ultimately considered harmful, neutral, or lethal is often
determined by
a. Phenotype
b. The will of the individual
c. The Hardy-Weinberg
d. Environment
e. Fate
77. *D Which is Not true about gene mutations?
a. All are transmitted to the next generation
b. They are rare but their rates can be predicted
c. Those with beneficial effects will be favored by natural selection
d. Many reduce an individual’s chance of surviving and reproducing
e. Those with neutral effects neither help or hurt the individual
78. *D Which of the following statements is false?
a. Neutral mutations are not expressed
b. The effect of mutation is based upon the environment where it is found
c. Mutations are random but their frequency can be predicted
d. Mutations are more likely to be harmful because they represent a difference
from alleles that have stood the test of years of selection
e. For billions of years mutations have been used as a raw material for change
79. Of the following, which does NOT characterize a population in genetic
equilibrium?
a. Large population
b. No mutation
c. Differential reproduction
d. Absence of gene flow
e. Random mating
80. Microevolution is the result of
a. Chance variation
b. Change in gene frequency
c. Mutation
d. Natural selection
e. All of these
81. The pioneer finches that colonize the island of Kauai thrived on the
_______________ of the native plants
a. Leaves
b. Nectar
c. Seeds
d. Fruits
e. All of these
82. D*The fundamental reason that the various Hawaiian honeycreepers are vulnerable
to extinction is
a. The reduction of their habitats
b. That they are so highly specialized for life in their habitats that they cannot
live anywhere else
c. The encroachment of humans into their habitats
d. The importation of new predators and competitors into their habitats
e. The warming of their habitats, supporting mosquitoes that carry the
pathogens for avian malaria
83. The word “species” is Latin for
a. Group
b. Kind
c. Division
d. Type
e. Collection
84. Which of the following attributes is(are) included in a recent definition of species?
a. Structure
b. Function
c. Behavior
d. Common ancestor
e. All of these
85. *D Members of the same species must
a. Look alike
b. Be reproductively isolated from one another
c. Share the same gene pool
d. Resist interbreeding
e. Produce the same variations
86. Two individuals are members of the same species if they
a. Possess the same number of chromosomes
b. Breed at the same time
c. Are phenotypically indistinguishable
d. Can mate and produce fertile offspring
e. Occupy the same habitat
87. *D Which of the following does NOT promote speciation?
a. Gamete differences
b. Gene flow
c. Season of fertility
d. Natural selection
e. Genetic drift
88. *D speciation occurs
a. After populations become reproductively isolated and diverge
b. When mutations generate observable differences
c. When transitional forms develop between different populations
d. When natural selection pressures reach their maximum
e. All of these
89. D*Divergence may lead to
a. Genetic drift
b. Speciation
c. Genetic equilibrium
d. Gene flow
e. All of these
90. *D Reproductive isolating mechanisms are
a. Specific behaviors that allow males to compete against other males for
females
b. The processes by which sexual selection evolves within a population
c. The ways that gene flow is blocked between populations
d. The ways in which individuals within a species are unable to produce fertile
offspring
e. The various geographic barriers to immigration and emigration of
individuals between populations
91. After the discovery of T. aquaticus, biologists found forms of life adapted to
extraordinary levels of
a. Acidity
b. Alkanity
c. Salinity
d. Pressure
e. All of these
92. The red alga Cyanidium caldarium is unusual for a eukaryotic organism in that it
can live
a. In extremely salty lakes
b. In hot acidic springs
c. Among extremely hot rocks in the oceans
d. Under high pressure on the ocean’s floor
e. In extremely cold, high salinity lakes in the arctic
93. According to astronomers, the universe is
a. Contracting
b. Getting warmer
c. The same as it was on the day of creation
d. Collapsing
e. Expanding
94. Many organic compounds essential for life, such as amino acids and nucleotides, do
NOT assemble spontaneously in the presence of
a. High concentrations of hydrogen
b. High concentrations of oxygen
c. Low concentrations carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen
e. Hydrogen sulfide
95. The accumulation of water in oceans of the primitive Earth was essential to the
formation of
a. Amino acids
b. Land masses
c. Catalytic systems
d. Cell membranes
e. None of these
96. Proto-cells are considered to have
a. Been simple membrane-bound sacs
b. Contained enzymes
c. Contained various agents of metabolism
d. Been able to reproduce
e. All of these
97. A hypothesis currently getting a lot of attention concerning the origin of biological
molecules is that they originated
a. In hot springs
b. Near volcanoes
c. Near hydrothermal oceanic vents
d. In salt lakes
e. In tidal pools
98. The formation of amino acids under abiotic conditions was important because they
serve as
a. A supply of structural units for proteins
b. Enzymes to catalyze reactions
c. Subunits in the formation of DNA
d. Subunits in the formation of RNA
e. Subunits for the formation of lipids
99. The most likely molecules to serve as a replacement for clay as a template for
protein synthesis are
a. Conezymes
b. RNA
c. DNA
d. Proteins
e. Complex carbohydrates
100. The earth’s earliest atmosphere was likely composed mostly of gaseous
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Carbon dioxide
e. A mixture of these