Download Nutrition - Athens Academy

Nutrition
Student:
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1. The picture depicts heat exchange. What does "D" represent?
A. evaporation
B. conduction from hot sand
C. radiation from sand
D. radiation from sun and water
E. convection from cool breeze
2. The diagram illustrates ATP coupling of catabolic and anabolic reactions. What does
"C" represent?
A. ATP breakdown
B. anabolism
C. catabolism
D. ATP production
3. The diagram illustrates ATP coupling of catabolic and anabolic reactions. What does
"D" represent?
A. ATP breakdown
B. anabolism
C. catabolism
D. ATP production
4. The diagram illustrates ATP coupling of catabolic and anabolic reactions. What does
"B" represent?
A. ATP breakdown
B. anabolism
C. catabolism
D. ATP production
5. The diagram illustrates ATP coupling of catabolic and anabolic reactions. What does
"A" represent?
A. ATP breakdown
B. anabolism
C. catabolism
D. ATP production
6. Which of the following food groups does Level "A" of the Food Guide Pyramid
represent?
A. bread, cereal, rice, and pasta group
B. fruit and vegetable group
C. fats, sweets, oils
D. milk, yogurt, cheese, meat, poultry, fish, dry beans, eggs, nuts
7. Which of the following food groups does Level "B" of the Food Guide Pyramid
represent?
A. bread, cereal, rice, and pasta group
B. fruit and vegetable group
C. fats, sweets, oils
D. milk, yogurt, cheese, meat, poultry, fish, dry beans, eggs, nuts
8. Which of the following is least likely to occur late in the postabsorptive state?
A. hydrolysis of triglycerides
B. use of acetyl-CoA and ketones for energy
C. formation of glycogen
D. use of proteins as an energy source
E. reduced removal of glucose from the blood
9. Excessive bleeding due to slowed blood clotting is a symptom of vitamin _____
deficiency.
A. A
B. D
C. E
D. K
E. C
10. Eicosanoids are involved in
A. inflammation.
B. blood clotting.
C. tissue repair.
D. smooth muscle contraction.
E. All of these choices are correct.
11. A molecule that moves electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport
chain
is
A. pyruvic acid.
B. CO2.
C. ADP.
D. NADH.
E. H2O.
12. Each NADH molecule fed into the electron transport chain produces _____ ATPs.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
13. The process that uses amino acids and glycerol to form glucose is
A. ketogenesis.
B. glycogenesis.
C. lipogenesis.
D. gluconeogenesis.
E. glycolysis.
14. Polyunsaturated vegetable oils can be changed from liquids to solids by
A. adding more unsaturated fatty acids to the molecules.
B. removing the glycerol portion of the molecules.
C. decreasing the number of double covalent bonds in their fatty acids.
D. removing hydrogens from the molecules.
E. None of these choices is correct.
15. The name of the process that couples the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner
mitochondrial membrane to ATP production is the
A. citric acid cycle.
B. glycolytic pathway.
C. chemiosmotic model.
D. Cori cycle.
E. hydrosmotic model.
16. Why is it important that glucose be converted to glucose-6-phosphate once glucose
enters
a cell?
A. This form is easier for cells to metabolize.
B. Glucose can't diffuse out of the cell if it is in this form.
C. The cells can easily excrete this molecule.
D. It becomes a long-term storage molecule for glucose.
E. It can now cross the plasma membrane.
17. Which of the following are energy nutrients?
A. carbohydrates, proteins, and fat
B. proteins, water, and minerals
C. fats, minerals, and vitamins
D. vitamins, fats, and carbohydrates
E. water, minerals, and vitamins
18. If your daily diet is deficient in carbohydrates, the result might be
A. obesity.
B. increased subcutaneous fat.
C. decrease of muscle mass.
D. constipation.
E. sensation of thirst.
19. The correct sequence of events that occurs when fatty acids are used to generate ATP
is
A. beta oxidation, electron transport chain, deamination.
B. electron transport chain, beta oxidation, glycolysis.
C. beta oxidation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain.
D. glycolysis, beta oxidation, citric acid cycle.
E. citric acid cycle, glycolysis, beta oxidation.
20. The energy currency of the cell is a molecule called
A. glucose.
B. pyruvate.
C. fat.
D. ADP.
E. ATP.
21. When glucose is metabolized in the absence of oxygen, one of the end products is
A. pyruvic acid.
B. ketone bodies.
C. lactic acid.
D. citric acid.
E. nitric acid.
22. During the postabsorptive state, the first source of glucose is
A. fat.
B. sugars.
C. glycogen.
D. amino acids.
E. carbohydrates.
23. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The primary role of carbohydrates is to serve as an energy source.
B. Carbohydrates include sugars, starches, and amino acids.
C. Maltose is a complex carbohydrate.
D. Sucrose is the primary source of energy for most cells.
E. Most carbohydrates come from animal products.
24. Transamination
A. results in free fatty acids.
B. requires glucose.
C. can be used to synthesize essential amino acids.
D. involves moving an amine group.
E. produces ammonia.
25. Which of the following statements about the citric acid cycle is false?
A. The process occurs in the mitochondria.
B. The major end product of the cycle is lactic acid.
C. At several steps, NADH molecules are formed.
D. Carbon dioxide is produced at several steps in the cycle.
E. Water is formed at the end of the chain.
26. The energy cost for assimilation of food is called
A. the thermic effect of food.
B. the basal metabolic rate.
C. the caloric intake.
D. homeothermy.
E. free energy.
27. The events that occur in the postabsorptive state collectively
A. decrease fat metabolism.
B. maintain blood glucose levels.
C. interconvert proteins to fats.
D. assure adequate lipogenesis.
E. maintain protein levels.
28. Functions of proteins include
A. providing structural strength in connective tissue.
B. serving as a part of the cholesterol molecule.
C. serving as the primary energy source of cells.
D. transport of nitrogen gas in the blood.
E. padding and insulation.
29. Which of the following vitamins is mismatched with its function?
A. vitamin D - bone growth
B. vitamin A - rhodopsin synthesis
C. folate - synthesis of clotting factors
D. vitamin C - collagen synthesis
E. vitamin B12 - red blood cell production
30. Vitamin E and vitamin C
A. both release free radicals.
B. are needed in RBC production.
C. are both antioxidants.
D. are formed from provitamins.
E. are required for blood clotting.
31. Excess glucose is stored as ___________.
A. glucagon.
B. sucrose.
C. glycogen.
D. galactose.
E. glycoprotein.
32. If oxygen is present, how many molecules (net) of ATP are produced by the oxidation
of one molecule of glucose?
A. 4
B. 18
C. 32
D. 38
E. 40
33. Glycolysis is best defined as the breakdown of
A. glucose to carbon dioxide and water.
B. glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid.
C. pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
D. glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate.
E. glucose to glycogen.
34. The formation of glycogen from glucose is called _____.
A. glycolysis
B. glycogenesis
C. glycogenolysis
D. gluconeogenesis
E. glucogenesis
35. A food guide pyramid suggests that
A. you eat as many sweets as you want.
B. your diet should contain a variety of foods.
C. meats are the most important part of your diet.
D. milk and cheese should be the main part of your diet.
E. you should only eat one or two servings of bread, cereal, rice, or pasta per day.
36. Metabolic rate is the total amount of
A. glucose absorbed by the small intestine each hour.
B. heat produced by body cells in an hour.
C. energy produced and used by the body per unit of time.
D. carbon dioxide exhaled per unit of time.
E. kilocalories consumed.
37. Proteins regulate the acid-base balance of the blood by
A. acting as buffers.
B. releasing nitrogen.
C. transporting iron.
D. binding sodium ions.
E. removing carbon dioxide from the blood.
38. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Hydrogen ions are pumped across the cell membrane.
B. Electrons pass from one electron carrier to another in the electron transport chain.
C. Water serves as the final electron acceptor.
D. Chemiosmosis forms carbon dioxide.
E. The chemiosmosis model refers to movement of water.
39. Starches and sugars are examples of
A. carbohydrates.
B. lipids.
C. proteins.
D. vitamins.
E. minerals.
40. Fat soluble vitamins can be toxic in large doses because they
A. do not dissolve in water.
B. can be stored and accumulate in body tissues.
C. are rapidly excreted.
D. release free radicals.
E. are flushed out of the body.
41. If the fatty acid portion of a fat molecule has ten double covalent bonds, the fat is said
to
be
A. hydrogenated.
B. polyunsaturated.
C. monounsaturated.
D. saturated.
E. disaturated.
42. One gram of carbohydrate, one gram of fat, and one gram of protein yield ____,
____, and ____ kilocalories respectively.
A. 4, 4, 4
B. 9, 9, 9
C. 4, 9, 4
D. 4, 9, 9
E. 9, 9, 4
43. When the amine (NH2) group is stripped off of an amino acid, this amine group is
converted to
A. lactic acid.
B. glucose.
C. ammonia.
D. glycerol.
E. urea.
44. Phospholipids
A. are found in cell membranes.
B. are used as an energy source by cells.
C. can be modified to form cholesterol.
D. are involved in the process of inflammation.
E. are found inside organelles.
45. There is a need for glucose in the body. Which of the following reactions will yield
glucose?
A. beta oxidation
B. glycogenolysis
C. glycolysis
D. deamination
E. glucogenesis.
46. The body's main energy storage molecules are
A. sugars.
B. proteins.
C. lipids.
D. vitamins.
E. carbohydrates.
47. Which of the following minerals is important in acid-base balance?
A. calcium
B. chlorine
C. iron
D. manganese
E. sodium
48. The result of five turns of the citric acid cycle would be
A. 5 ATP, 5 NADH, 5 FADH2, 5 carbon dioxide.
B. 5 ATP, 15 NADH, 5 FADH2, 10 carbon dioxide.
C. 10 ATP, 30 NADH, 10 FADH2, 20 carbon dioxide.
D. 10 ATP, 10 NADH, 5 FADH2, 10 carbon dioxide.
E. 15 ATP, 15 NADH, 15 FADH2, 15 carbon dioxide
49. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
A. lecithin
B. linoleic acid
C. stearic acid
D. butyric acid
E. hydrochloric acid
50. Glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids can be metabolized within the cell to liberate
_____.
A. oxygen
B. energy
C. carbon dioxide
D. hydrogen
E. nitrogen
51. The most common monosaccharides in the diet are
A. glucose and fructose.
B. galactose and fructose.
C. glucose and glycerol.
D. glycogen and glucose.
E. lactose and maltose.
52. Which of the following has the highest basal metabolic rate?
A. older individuals
B. young, active males
C. middle age females
D. young, active female
E. They all have the same rates.
53. Olive and peanut oils are both
A. solid fats.
B. polyunsaturated fats.
C. monounsaturated fats.
D. fatty acids.
E. hydrogenated.
54. The portion of the brain that regulates body temperature is the
A. cerebral cortex.
B. hypothalamus.
C. medulla oblongata.
D. pons.
E. hypophysis.
55. Which of the following events would occur when the environmental temperature is
considerably lower than body temperature?
A. sweating
B. vasoconstriction of the blood vessels of the skin
C. increased heat loss through the skin
D. decreased muscular activity to maintain heat
E. vasodilation of the blood vessels of the skin
56. Which of the following events takes place during the absorptive state?
A. Protein is converted into glucose in the process of deamination.
B. Glucose is converted into energy, glycogen, or fats.
C. Ketones are produced from fatty acids.
D. Fats are converted into glucose via beta oxidation.
E. Glycogen is converted to glucose.
57. High ATP concentrations would be found in
A. active cells.
B. resting cells.
C. exhausted cells.
D. dead cells.
E. None of these choices is correct.
58. Excess triglycerides are stored in adipose tissue. Adipose tissue functions
A. to assist the body in temperature homeostasis.
B. pads and protects.
C. energy storage.
D. insulates.
E. All of these choices are correct.
59. The formation of triglycerides is called
A. glycogenesis.
B. lipogenesis.
C. gluconeogenesis.
D. ketogenesis.
E. beta-oxidation.
60. Which of the following will increase metabolic rate?
A. exercise
B. fasting
C. malnutrition
D. reduced caloric intake
E. dieting
61. Which of the following is the correct sequence?
A. acetyl-CoA formation, glycolysis, electron-transport chain, citric acid cycle
B. acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis
C. citric acid cycle, glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain
D. glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain
E. glycolysis, citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain
62. A compound composed of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol molecule would be
a
A. monoglyceride.
B. diglyceride.
C. triglyceride.
D. phospholipid.
E. cholesterol.
63. The citric acid cycle begins by combining
A. carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid.
B. pyruvic acid and acetic acid to form acetoacetic acid.
C. pyruvic acid and carbon dioxide to form lactic acid.
D. oxaloacetic acid and acetyl-CoA to form citric acid.
E. pyruvic acid and citric acid.
64. Which of the following recommendations regarding daily requirements is correct?
A. Fats should account for 45% of total caloric intake.
B. Carbohydrate intake should be around 500 grams daily.
C. Protein consumption should be 0.8 gram per kilogram of body weight.
D. Cholesterol intake should be about 300 milligrams per day.
E. Protein consumption should be about 25% of total kilocalorie intake.
65. Oxidative deamination is a chemical process in which
A. protein is synthesized.
B. amino acids are buffered in the kidney.
C. the amine group is removed from an amino acid.
D. fatty acids are broken down to yield acetyl CoA.
E. glutamic acid is produced.
66. The electron transport chain
A. results in the formation of ATP.
B. converts acetate to ketone bodies.
C. converts glucose to fatty acids.
D. converts fatty acids to glucose.
E. removes a phosphate from ATP.
67. Essential nutrients
A. are important in the diet but not necessary for life.
B. are the only nutrients required by the body.
C. cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body.
D. are needed to make food taste good.
E. are manufactured by the body.
68. An example of an incomplete protein food is
A. eggs.
B. meat.
C. milk.
D. leafy green vegetables.
E. cheese.
69. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Catabolic reactions are synthesis reactions.
B. Anabolic reactions are involved in the production of proteins from amino acids.
C. The energy derived from anabolism is used to drive catabolism.
D. Anabolic reactions release energy.
E. Catabolic reactions consume energy.
70. Minerals
A. are organic nutrients.
B. can be manufactured by the body if the diet does not supply enough.
C. can serve as buffers and components of enzymes.
D. are found in high concentrations in refined cereals and breads.
E. are not necessary for normal metabolic function.
71. Which of the following events occurs last?
A. Hydrogen ions diffuse into inner mitochondrial compartment.
B. Hydrogen ions are moved from inner to outer mitochondrial compartment.
C. The movement of hydrogen ions through special channels is coupled to ATP
production.
D. A hydrogen ion concentration gradient is established.
E. NADH transfer electrons to the electron-transport chain.
72. A kilocalorie (kcal) is a measure of the
A. protein content of food.
B. acidity of food.
C. fat content of food.
D. energy content of food.
E. heat content of food.
73. A student's dietary intake includes 100 grams of fat and a total of 2000 kilocalories.
What percentage of the total kilocalories in this student's diet comes from fat?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 37%
D. 45%
E. 50%
74. Arrange the following in correct sequence:
1 Ammonia is converted to urea in the liver.
2 Oxidative deamination of an amino acid.
3 Urea is eliminated by the kidney.
4 Ammonia and keto acids are formed.
A. 1, 3, 4, 2
B. 2, 4, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 4, 2
D. 4, 1, 3, 2
E. 2, 3, 1, 4
75. The digestion of complex carbohydrates is an example of
A. anabolism.
B. catabolism.
C. absorption.
D. excretion.
E. metabolism.
Digestion
Student:
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1. The figure illustrates bile drainage. What does "B" represent?
A. hepatopancreatic ampulla
B. pancreatic duct
C. common hepatic duct
D. common bile duct
E. cystic duct
2. The figure illustrates bile drainage. What does "E" represent?
A. hepatopancreatic ampulla
B. pancreatic duct
C. common hepatic duct
D. common bile duct
E. cystic duct
3. The figure illustrates bile drainage. What does "C" represent?
A. hepatopancreatic ampulla
B. pancreatic duct
C. common hepatic duct
D. common bile duct
E. cystic duct
4. The diagram illustrates an absorptive structure in the duodenum. What does "E"
represent?
A. microvilli
B. epithelial cell
C. capillary
D. lacteal
E. villus
5. The diagram illustrates an absorptive structure in the duodenum. What does "C"
represent?
A. microvilli
B. epithelial cell
C. capillary
D. lacteal
E. villus
6. The diagram illustrates the anatomy of the stomach. What does "C" represent?
A. muscularis
B. duodenum
C. esophagus
D. pyloric sphincter
E. cardiac region
7. The diagram illustrates the anatomy of the stomach. What does "A" represent?
A. muscularis
B. duodenum
C. esophagus
D. pyloric sphincter
E. cardiac region
8. What does "D" represent on the diagram?
A. small intestine
B. large intestine
C. esophagus
D. stomach
E. liver
9. What does "A" represent on the diagram?
A. small intestine
B. large intestine
C. esophagus
D. stomach
E. liver
10. Mastication
A. increases the surface area of food particles.
B. decreases the efficiency of digestion.
C. occurs in both the mouth and stomach.
D. is never under voluntary control.
E. decreases the surface area of food particles.
11. The muscularis layer in the wall of the digestive tract is
A. skeletal muscle throughout the tract, especially in the large intestine.
B. the layer of the digestive tract wall that contains capillaries.
C. in direct contact with the food that is consumed.
D. composed of a layer of circular smooth muscle fibers and a layer of longitudinal
smooth muscle fibers.
E. connective tissue and the peritoneum.
12. Which of the following enzymes is found in inactive form in pancreatic juice?
A. bile
B. trypsin
C. sucrase
D. pepsin
E. lipase
13. A man had a gunshot wound in his abdomen. The bullet passed through his anterior
body and lodged inside the transverse colon. What layers did the bullet pass through to
arrive at the location?
1) parietal peritoneum
2) visceral peritoneum
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2, 1, 2
C. 1, 2, 2, 1
D. 1, 2, 2, 2
E. 2, 1, 1, 1
14. Serum cholesterol levels are solely dependent on a person's dietary intake of
cholesterol.
A. true
B. false
15. Chylomicrons
A. are synthesized in intestinal epithelial cells.
B. enter capillaries in the small intestine.
C. help emulsify fats.
D. are a rich source of carbohydrate.
E. are synthesized in the lumen of the small intestines.
16. Trypsin can activate
A. pepsinogen.
B. chymotrypsinogen.
C. angiotensinogen.
D. endopeptidase.
E. lipase.
17. Duodenal gland secretion prevents
A. digestive enzyme release.
B. release of bile from the liver.
C. irritation of the duodenal mucosa by acidic chyme and digestive enzymes.
D. the release of insulin.
E. peristalsis.
18. The digestive juice that contains enzymes capable of digesting all major food groups
is
A. gastric.
B. biliary.
C. salivary.
D. pancreatic.
E. hepatic.
19. Lipid-soluble drugs placed under the tongue
A. are more easily swallowed.
B. can be detected by taste buds.
C. are quickly dissolved and absorbed.
D. are then easy to chew.
E. are not readily absorbed.
20. Enzymes that digest carbohydrates include
A. peptidases.
B. amylase, maltase, and sucrase.
C. lipase.
D. maltase and lipase.
E. trypsin and chymotrypsin.
21. The epiglottis covers the opening into the larynx during
A. the voluntary phase of swallowing.
B. the pharyngeal phase of swallowing.
C. the esophageal phase of swallowing.
D. the gastric phase of swallowing.
E. the oral phase of swallowing.
22. In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein (LDL), a high density lipoprotein (HDL)
contains
A. less lipid.
B. less protein.
C. more cholesterol.
D. more carbohydrate.
E. more amino acids.
23. The liver
A. has two major lobes - caudate and quadrate.
B. is located on the superior surface of the diaphragm.
C. is not vascular.
D. is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen.
E. consists of two major lobes and two minor lobes.
24. Bile
A. digests proteins in the small intestine.
B. emulsifies fats in the small intestine.
C. is made by the gallbladder and stored by the liver.
D. activates trypsin in the small intestine.
E. activates the pancreas.
25. The pyloric pump
A. mixes stomach contents for digestion.
B. causes hunger contractions.
C. moves chyme through a partially closed pyloric opening.
D. causes rugae to flatten.
E. opens the pyloric sphincter completely.
26. Which layer of the digestive tract is in direct contact with the food consumed?
A. mucosa
B. muscularis
C. submucosa
D. serosa
E. peritoneum
27. The longitudinal layer of smooth muscle in the large intestinal wall forms three bands
called the
A. teniae coli.
B. haustra.
C. coli longitudini.
D. epiploic appendages.
E. rugae.
28. A cell needs a receptor in order to absorb LDL's. A disease that interferes with the
functioning of these LDL receptors would
A. increase serum cholesterol levels.
B. decrease serum cholesterol levels.
C. halt endocytosis.
D. promote endocytosis.
E. have no effect on serum cholesterol or endocytosis.
29. Which of the following organs is retroperitoneal?
A. pancreas
B. ascending colon
C. duodenum
D. descending colon
E. All of these choices are correct.
30. If the thoracic duct were tied off, which of the following classes of nutrients would
not enter the circulatory system at their normal rate?
A. amino acids
B. glucose
C. lipids
D. disaccharides
E. monosaccharides
31. The major secretion of the large intestine is
A. bile.
B. hormones.
C. mucus.
D. vitamins.
E. bacteria.
32. Intrinsic factor
A. increases gastric motility.
B. causes the release of stomach acid.
C. facilitates the absorption of vitamin B12.
D. protects the stomach lining from the effects of stomach acid.
E. stimulates the synthesis of DNA.
33. Which of the following might happen if a person begins laughing while swallowing a
liquid?
A. laryngeal constriction forcing liquid through the pharynx
B. relaxation of the soft palate allowing liquid to enter the nasal cavity
C. the tongue might be swallowed
D. nothing - swallowing will be normal
E. peristalsis will not begin
34. The oral cavity
A. opens into the nasopharynx.
B. directly connects with the esophagus.
C. contains the parotid salivary glands.
D. has boundaries that include the lips, palate and cheeks.
E. is lined with cuboidal epithelium.
35. The lips, cheek, and tongue all aid in
A. speech and swallowing.
B. mastication, speech, and swallowing.
C. mastication and swallowing.
D. mastication and sense of taste.
E. deglutition and peristalsis.
36. One of the major functions of the large intestine is to
A. produce vitamin C.
B. regulate the release of bile.
C. break down hemoglobin to release bilirubin.
D. convert chyme to feces.
E. absorb nutrients.
37. Functions of the liver include
A. production of many blood proteins.
B. interconversion of nutrients.
C. detoxification of harmful chemicals.
D. bile production.
E. All of these choices are correct.
38. Which of the following organs is part of the digestive tract or alimentary canal?
A. salivary gland
B. liver
C. gallbladder
D. stomach
E. pancreas
39. The distention of the stomach by food is the primary stimulus to begin the
A. cephalic phase of gastric secretion.
B. gastric phase of gastric secretion.
C. intestinal phase of gastric secretion.
D. cystic phase of gastric secretion.
E. hepatic phase of gastric secretion.
40. The gastric phase of gastric secretion
A. decreases the release of gastrin in the stomach.
B. is triggered by taste, sight, thought, or smell of food.
C. is mediated by impulses on sympathetic nerves.
D. leads to the greatest volume of gastric secretion.
E. leads to the least volume of gastric secretion.
41. Which of the following is true?
A. Peptidases are made in the large intestine.
B. Intestinal epithelial cells absorb more dipeptides and tripeptides than single amino
acids.
C. The hepatic artery transports amino acids from the small intestine to the liver.
D. Amino acids leave intestinal epithelial cells and enter the lacteals.
E. Protein digestion starts in the duodenum.
42. Which of the following is a function of the hepatocytes?
A. produce digestive enzymes
B. synthesize hormones
C. produce hydrochloric acid
D. synthesize bile
E. regulate pH
43. Assume we could alter the conditions in the duodenum. If we inserted a large volume
of highly acidic chyme which contained a large amount of fat, which of the following
responses are consistent with that?
1) decreased gastric acid secretion
2) increased bile production
3) increased pancreatic bicarbonate production and pancreatic enzyme secretion
4) increased secretin and cholecystokinin
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 3, 4
E. 1, 2, 4
44. Which of the following are secreted by the stomach?
A. amylase and lipase
B. pepsinogen and intrinsic factor
C. bile and lipase
D. trypsin and amylase
E. bicarbonate and secretin
45. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. crown - enamel
B. root - root canal
C. alveoli - periodontal ligament
D. pulp cavity - cementum
E. apical foramen - blood supply
46. Which of the following are effects of aging on the digestive system?
A. blood supply decreases
B. more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers
C. enamel on teeth becomes thinner
D. blood supply decreases and more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers.
E. blood supply decreases, more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers and enamel on
teeth becomes thinner.
47. Which of the following enzymes digests protein?
A. bile
B. pepsin
C. isomaltose
D. sucrase
E. lipase
48. In order to remove a tumor in the muscular tunic of the stomach, a surgeon must cut
through the
A. lamina propria.
B. submucosa.
C. serosa.
D. mucosa.
E. lamina propria.
49. Which of the following statements regarding the pancreas is true?
A. The head of the pancreas lies in the curvature of the ileum.
B. The pancreatic duct carries both enzymes and hormones.
C. The pancreatic acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes.
D. The pancreas assists the stomach in the absorption of digested food.
E. The pancreas digests sugar.
50. Arrange the following in order from largest to smallest:
1) dipeptide
2) protein
3) amino acid
4) polypeptide
A. 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 4, 1, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. 2, 4, 3, 1
51. When part of the stomach extends through the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity, this
condition is called
A. esophagitis.
B. an ulcer.
C. a hiatal hernia.
D. pyloric stenosis.
E. pyrosis.
52. Which of the following is a function performed by the digestive system?
A. cellular respiration
B. food selection
C. elimination of undigested food
D. regulation of blood pH
E. integration and coordination of other systems
53. Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest percentage of cholesterol?
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. VLDL
D. chylomicron
E. CDL
54. Which of the following components of saliva is mismatched with its function?
A. mucin - lubricant
B. lysozyme - antibacterial properties
C. salivary amylase - digestive enzyme
D. IgA - increases ulceration in the mouth
E. salivary amylase - breaks covalent bonds in glucose
55. Inability of the pyloric sphincter to open would prevent
A. food from entering the stomach.
B. stomach acid from being released.
C. digestive enzymes from being released.
D. food from entering the small intestine.
E. the making of chyme.
56. Strong peristaltic contractions in the large intestine are called
A. segmental contractions.
B. churning contractions.
C. mass movements.
D. rectal propulsions.
E. defecation.
57. Arrange the following structures in order from the small intestine to the rectum.
1) ascending colon
2) descending colon
3) sigmoid colon
4) transverse colon
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 4, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1, 4
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
E. 1, 4, 3, 2
58. Which of the following enzymes is mismatched with its substrate?
A. pepsin - protein
B. amylase - starch
C. trypsin - nucleic acids
D. lipase - fat
E. deoxyribonucleases - DNA
59. Teeth in adults
A. are replaced by osteoblast activity if they are extracted.
B. are distributed so that there is one canine tooth in each half jaw.
C. are all of the same type - molars.
D. are composed of living cells called enamel cells.
E. do not play a role in speech.
60. Blockage of the ileocecal valve would prevent
A. pancreatic juice from entering the duodenum.
B. bile from entering the duodenum.
C. lymph from entering the jejunum.
D. chyme from entering the ileum.
E. chyme from entering the large intestine.
61. Inflammation of the stomach mucosa in the area superior to the pyloric sphincter is
most appropriately referred to as
A. esophagitis.
B. a duodenal ulcer.
C. a hiatal hernia.
D. gastric ulcer.
E. indigestion.
62. The hepatopancreatic ampulla is formed by the union of the
A. pancreatic duct with the lacteals.
B. greater duodenal papilla with the lesser duodenal papilla.
C. common bile duct and pancreatic duct.
D. cystic duct and interlobular duct.
E. hepatic ducts and cystic ducts.
63. Emulsification
A. converts small lipid droplets into larger droplets.
B. occurs in the gallbladder.
C. chemically digests lipids.
D. increases surface area for lipid digestion.
E. involves enzymes.
64. The anal canal
A. begins at the sigmoid colon and ends at the rectum.
B. has an internal sphincter composed of smooth muscle.
C. contains many goblet cells.
D. contains tubular glands called crypts.
E. has an external sphincter composed of smooth muscle.
65. Damage to the liver would hamper digestion of
A. carbohydrates.
B. lipids.
C. proteins.
D. disaccharides.
E. All of these choices are correct.
66. A blockage in the colon where the ascending colon turns to become the transverse
colon would occur at the
A. ileocecal valve.
B. hepatic flexure.
C. splenic flexure.
D. cardiac sphincter.
E. gastric flexure.
67. Which of the following cell types is correctly matched with its function?
A. mucous cells - produce intrinsic factor
B. parietal cells - produce hydrochloric acid
C. chief cells - produce mucous
D. endocrine cells - produce enzymes
E. chief cells - produce hormones
68. Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. mucosa - controls peristalsis
B. serosa - contains an extensive supply of nerves and blood vessels
C. submucosa - lamina propria
D. serosa - increased surface area
E. muscularis - responsible for peristalsis
69. Enterokinase
A. is a hormone.
B. triggers the release of bile from the gallbladder.
C. activates trypsinogen.
D. increases duodenal motility.
E. digests proteins.
70. Nutrient-rich blood from the digestive tract comes to the liver by way of the
A. hepatic artery.
B. hepatic portal vein.
C. hepatic vein.
D. inferior vena cava.
E. celiac trunk.
71. The hepatic sinusoids
A. transport bile.
B. have phagocytic cells in their lining.
C. are part of the portal triad.
D. connect to the gallbladder.
E. do not have a function.
72. When intestinal chyme is highly concentrated,
A. water moves by osmosis into the lumen of the small intestine.
B. water moves by osmosis from the intestinal lumen into the blood.
C. water moves by endocytosis from intestinal lumen into interstitial spaces.
D. water moves by exocytosis from interstitial spaces into the stomach.
E. water does not move.
73. Bile would flow directly from the
A. gallbladder into the hepatic duct.
B. hepatic ducts into the common hepatic duct.
C. bile canaliculus into the cystic duct.
D. common bile duct into the gallbladder.
E. cystic duct into the hepatic ducts.
74. Why doesn't the stomach digest itself?
A. The stomach wall lacks proteins so enzymes won't attack it.
B. The digestive enzymes in the stomach aren't efficient enough.
C. The stomach lining is too tough to be digested.
D. The stomach wall is protected by large amounts of mucus.
E. The stomach is protected by HCl.
75. Beginning at the lumen, the sequence of layers of the digestive tract wall is
A. submucosa, mucosa, serous membrane, muscularis.
B. muscularis, lamina propria, submucosa, mucosa.
C. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa.
D. peritoneum, submucosa, mucosa, lamina propria.
E. submucosa, mucosa, adventitia, muscularis.