Download EMT Review Test 2 - Hatzalah of Miami-Dade

Emergency Medical Technician Test 2
1. A fracture producing deformity of a limb would be considered:
Your answer:
displaced
nondisplaced
rotated
complicated
2. The most reliable sign of an underlying fracture is:
Your answer:
point tenderness
a contusion
a bruise
ecchymosis
3. A wire ladder splint is an example of a:
Your answer:
lateral splint
rigid splint
trauma splint
soft splint
4. A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as:
Your answer:
crepitus
epiphyses
deformity
costal grating
5. A sling and swathe is an example of a:
Your answer:
rigid splint
mobile splint
compound splint
soft splint
6. Signs of an underlying fracture may include:
Your answer:
deformity
swelling and dislocation
lose of use
all of the above
7. A splint that is used on a femur fracture is the:
Your answer:
colles splint
wire ladder splint
full leg air splint
hare splint
8. A colles fracture is a fracture of the:
Your answer:
proximal radius
distal tibia
proximal fibula
distal radius
9. Hip fractures are often accompanied by:
Your answer:
an outward rotation of the foot
lengthening of the injured leg
knee dislocations
associated ankle fractures
10. A frequent complication accompanying a posterior dislocation of the hip is:
Your answer:
sciatic nerve injury
an outward rotation of the thigh
loss of all distal pulses
extension of the limb
11. A strain involves:
Your answer:
tendons
muscles
ligaments
all of the above
12. The joint most commonly dislocated is the:
Your answer:
shoulder
elbow
ankle
knee
13. The most common location for strains is the:
Your answer:
back
ankle
shoulder
knee
14. A femur fracture may be accompanied by blood loss of up to:
Your answer:
250cc
100cc
1000cc
3000cc
15. Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of:
Your answer:
lumbar vertebrae 1-3
thoracic vertebrae 2-5
cervical vertebrae 3-5
cervical vertebrae 6-7
16. Clues to congestive heart failure include:
Your answer:
swelling and dyspnea
embolism
bradycardia and anxiety
pain and discomfort
17. Signs and symptoms of asthma typically include:
Your answer:
aphasia
decreased pulse rate
chest pain
wheezing sounds
18. Which of the following is a true emergency?
Your answer:
hyperventilation
tension pneumothorax
angina pectoris
spontaneous pneumothorax
19. The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often:
Your answer:
warn and dry
cold and clammy
cyanotic
red
20. The pancreas produces a hormone called:
Your answer:
progesterone
insulin
glucose
pancreatitis
21. Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases - tonic, clonic, and:
Your answer:
generalized
postictal
partial
psychomotor
22. When a patient has two or more convulsive seizures without regaining consciousness, it
is known as:
Your answer:
jacksonian seizures
status epilepticus
grand mal seizures
petit mal seizures
23. Prolonged seizure activity may cause:
Your answer:
hyperglycemia
diabetes mellitus
elipespy
hypoxia
24. A fetus grows in the mother's
Your answer:
placenta
cervix
uterus
vagina
25. If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should:
Your answer:
untie the cord
transport immediately
reclamp the cord
apply another tie or clamp
26. Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very:
Your answer:
spongy
mascular
compact
vascular
27. Which of the following is recommended to control bleeding from the socket of a dislodged
tooth?
Your answer:
gloved finger
gauze
tissues
cotton packets
28. The EMT should suspect brain damage if there is a head injury and the pupils of the eyes
are:
Your answer:
dilated
unequal
constricted
pale orange
29. Which of the following articulates to the humerus?
Your answer:
spine
sternum
ulna
mandible
30. Which of the following muscle types move bones?
Your answer:
voluntary
unstriated
involuntary
smooth
31. The amount of time it takes for blood to clot to form is?
Your answer:
6-7 minutes
15-17 minutes
23-25 minutes
2-3 minutes
32. A dressing should do all of the following EXCEPT:
Your answer:
hold a bandage in place
prevent further contamination
protect the wound from further injury
help control bleeding
33. Tarry looking stool is indicative of:
Your answer:
gastritis
an abdominal aneurysm
appendicitis
bleeding in the intestines above the sigmoid colon
34. The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic
shock is:
Your answer:
aspirin
insulin
dilantin
epinephrine
35. Neurogenic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that:
Your answer:
there is no blood pressure drop
it is not related to trauma
there is no pallor or rapid pulse
it cannot be corrected with the MAST garment
36. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
Your answer:
severe blood loss
airway obstruction
chest trauma
spinal injury
37. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to:
Your answer:
anaphylactic shock
neurogenic shock
metabolic shock
psychogenic shock
38. When body cells receive less oxygen than they need, they are said to be:
Your answer:
hyperoxic
hyperbaric
hypoxic
anabolic
39. Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates:
Your answer:
frail chest
punctured pleura
punctured lung
fractured ribs
40. Which of the following groups contain only solid abdominal organs?
Your answer:
stomach, spleen, gallbladder, pancreas
urinary bladder, gallbladder, stomach, uterus
spleen, pancreas, liver, kidney
gallbladder, pancreas, liver, small intestine
41. Transport is required for all hernia patients because:
Your answer:
a "rupture" could occur
the blood supply to the intestine could be shut off due to constriction
vomitus may be aspirated
shock is always a possibility
42. Emergency care for an inguinal hernia includes:
Your answer:
pushing the hernia back inside the abdominal wall
placing the patient on his stomach
applying an ice pack to the hernia site
all of the above
43. Since most major chest injury complications are true emergencies, provide:
Your answer:
immediate transport
100% oxygen
assistance with ventilations, if necessary
all of the above
44. A substitute for occlusive dressings that should NOT be used in the case of abdominal
injuries is:
Your answer:
an IV bag
aluminum foil
plastic wrap
all of the above
45. By lowering carbon dioxide levels and raising oxygen levels, "hyperventilating the patient"
with a head injury helps:
Your answer:
stop bleeding
clear the airway
reduce brain tissue swelling
all of the above
46. The fourteen facial bones are fused into immovable joints, EXCEPT for the:
Your answer:
molar
maxillae
septum
mandible
47. When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient
experiences a:
Your answer:
hip fracture
femur dislocation
femur fracture
hip dislocation
48. The structure within the blood that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the:
Your answer:
glucose
erythrocyte
leukocyte
isotonic
49. Which of the following represents the largest percentage of total body water?
Your answer:
intravascular fluid
interstitial fluid
intercellular fluid
extercellular fluid
50. The oxygen therapy of choice for a hypoxic pediatric patient who will not tolerate a mask
is:
Your answer:
15 lpm via blow-by
6 lpm via blow-by
2 lpm via nasal cannula
15 lpm via nasal cannula
51. Following a sudden onset of bizarre activity 35 year-old man becomes unresponsive. His
vital signs are: P= 120, R=30, and BP 13-.88. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. A Medic
Alert tag says he is diabetic. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the
patients condition?
Your answer:
cerebrovascular accident
diabetic coma
insulin shock
internal hemorrhage
52. A venturi mask with a flow rate of 4 lpm will deliver oxygen at a concentration of 24%.
The same mask with a flow rate of 8 lpm will deliver what concentration of oxygen?
Your answer:
28%
4%
48%
40%
53. A full portable D cylinder contains:
Your answer:
350 liters of oxygen
625 liters of oxygen
200 liters of oxygen
500 liters of oxygen
54. The average adult heart beats how many times per day, approximately?
Your answer:
25,000
10,000
100,000
500
55. Demand-valve resuscitators should not be used on patients:
Your answer:
without a gag reflex
<12 years old
with an EOA in place
who are breathing
56. A patient presenting with a bulging and cyanotic tongue, jugular venous distention,
bloodshot eyes, and generalized upper body cyanosis is classically indicative of:
Your answer:
narrowing pulse pressure
simple pneumothorax
traumatic asphyxia
tension pneumothorax
57. Your patient received an isolated blunt injury to the mid-axillary line of her right chest.
Position from transport should be:
Your answer:
left laterally recumbent
right laterally recumbent
semi-fowler's position
supine and secured to a long backboard
58. The ________ is the bone in the anterior leg.
Your answer:
femur
fibula
patella
tibia
59. In layman's terms, the ______________ is called the shoulder blade.
Your answer:
radius
scapula
ulna
clavicle
60. When sections of a bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called:
Your answer:
a comminuted fracture
a transverse fracture
an impacted fracture
an oblique fracture
61. The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse.
Your answer:
dorsalis pedis
medial tibial
posterior fibial
popiteal
62. An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges is called:
Your answer:
a laceration
an incision
an abrasion
a hematoma
63. Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with:
Your answer:
a third-degree burn
a fourth-degree burn
a second-degree burn
a first-degree burn
64. If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the
back and buttocks of an adult represents what percentage of body surface area burned?
Your answer:
4.5%
11%
18%
1%
65. An area equivalent to the palmar surface of the patient's hand is approsimately>
Your answer:
4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area
1 percent of the patient's body surface area
5 percent of the patient's body surface area
2 percent of the patient's body surface area
66. If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area
burned, the anterior leg represents:
Your answer:
7 percent of the patient's body surface area
1 percent of the patient's body surface area
18 percent of the patient's body surface area
4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area
67. Systemic complications associated with serious burns include all of the following
EXCEPT:
Your answer:
hypothermia
hypovolemia
plasma protein loss
hyperthermia
68. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are:
Your answer:
hypoxia and hypercarbia
hypotension and bradycardia
hypotension and hypoxia
hypotension and hypercarbia
69. Which of the following is not a component of the primary survey?
Your answer:
level of consciousness
breathing
blood pressure
airway
70. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the:
Your answer:
kidneys
stomach
liver
spleen
71. The mediatinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in:
Your answer:
ventilatory compromise
cardiovascular compromise
(a) and (b)
worsening of thoracic bleeding
72. If the endotracheal tube advances too far, it may be positioned in the:
Your answer:
esophagus
trachea
left mainstem bronchus
right mainstem bronchus
73. A hear rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as:
Your answer:
bradycardia
irregular
normocardia
tachycardia
74. A 200ml fluid challenge is to be infused over 20 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops/ml.
How fast will you run it?
Your answer:
400 drops/min
33 drops/min
1 drop/min
100 drops/min
75. The primary concern with facial fractures is:
Your answer:
airway
edema
bleeding
disfigurement
76. After blood enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the blood flow
through next?
Your answer:
tricuspid valve
aortic valve
mitral valve
pulmonary valve
77. Once nerve tissue is damaged to a certain extent:
Your answer:
new cells will replace scar tissue
function is lost, but can be restored
function is loss and cannot be restored
new cells will grow back with drug treatment
78. The thickest chamber of the heart is the:
Your answer:
left ventricle
left atria
right ventricle
right atria
79. A fracture of which bone would cause the damage of the muscle, abductor magnus?
Your answer:
ulna
scapula
ischium
femur
80. The common name "wrist bones)", has what anatomical name?
Your answer:
metacarpals
carpalges
carpals
phalanges
81. If the blood vessel the "Great Saphenous" is injured, what area of the body would need to
be injured?
Your answer:
upper arm
abdomen
neck
upper leg
82. All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin EXCEPT:
Your answer:
sabaceous gland
lesser omentum
pappilla
bulb
83. All of the following are parts of the human ear EXCEPT:
Your answer:
cochlea
vestibular nerve
stapes
none of the above
84. All of the following are part of the digestive system EXCEPT:
Your answer:
hepatic flexure
cystic duct
pyloric sphincter
ductus deferens
85. All of the following are part of the reproductive system EXCEPT:
Your answer:
seminal vesicle
labium minus
uterus
psoas muscle
86. Match the following description with one of the answers below: The systematic gathering
of information in order to determine the nature of a patient's illness or injury.
Your answer:
objective examination
secondary survey
patient assessment
primary survey
87. The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1-5 years is:
Your answer:
80-150
60-90
120-180
60-120
88. When correct CPR is done, what percentage of real heart action is realized?
Your answer:
25% - 33%
12% - 25%
25% - 50%
18% - 33%
89. A simple face mask delivers what range of oxygen?
Your answer:
35% - 60%
80% - 95%
24% - 40%
24% - 44%
90. In the following group listed below, which are possible causes of altered mental status?
1. diabetic ketoacidosis 2. stroke 3. trauma 4. renal failure 5. hypoglycemia 6. epilepsy
Your answer:
1,3,4,5,6
1,3,5,6
1,2,4,5
1,2,3,5,6
91. Place the events of a grand mal seizure chronologically as they are expected to occur. 1.
post-ictal 2. tonic phase 3. aura 4. clonic phase 5. loss of consciousness
Your answer:
4,5,2,3,1
3,5,2,4,1
3,5,4,2,1
1,3,2,4,5
92. Failure of the adrenal, thyroid, or pituitary glands may lead to what kind of shock?
Your answer:
psychogenic
cardiogenic
metabolic
neurogenic
93. When a bone is fractured, the damage to blood vessels, nerves, and other soft tissues
may be of greater significance than the fracture.
Your answer:
True
False
94. Synovial joints are highly movable.
Your answer:
True
False
95. Poisons that are swallowed are:
Your answer:
inhaled
absorbed
ingested
injected
96. Blood loss in an infant is considered serious if it is more than:
Your answer:
100 ml
500 ml
10 ml
25 ml
97. If a patient has a bleeding open head wound, the EMT should apply:
Your answer:
aluminum
loose gauze dressing
sterile pressure dressing
plastic seal
98. The membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the:
Your answer:
peritoneum
pleura
mesentery
meninges
99. In which of the following is there usually no deformity?
Your answer:
closed fracture
dislocation
angulated fracture
sprain
100.
The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are called:
Your answer:
albumins
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets
Answers: Emergency Medical Technician Test 200
1. A fracture producing deformity of a limb would be considered:
Your answer: displaced
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
CORRECT!
The most reliable sign of an underlying fracture is:
Your answer: point tenderness
CORRECT!
A wire ladder splint is an example of a:
Your answer: rigid splint
CORRECT!
A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as:
Your answer: crepitus
CORRECT!
A sling and swathe is an example of a:
Your answer: soft splint
CORRECT!
Signs of an underlying fracture may include:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
A splint that is used on a femur fracture is the:
Your answer: hare splint
CORRECT!
A colles fracture is a fracture of the:
Your answer: distal radius
CORRECT!
Hip fractures are often accompanied by:
Your answer: an outward rotation of the foot
CORRECT!
A frequent complication accompanying a posterior dislocation of the hip is:
Your answer: sciatic nerve injury
CORRECT!
A strain involves:
Your answer: muscles
CORRECT!
The joint most commonly dislocated is the:
Your answer: shoulder
CORRECT!
The most common location for strains is the:
Your answer: back
CORRECT!
A femur fracture may be accompanied by blood loss of up to:
Your answer: 1000cc
CORRECT!
Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of:
Your answer: cervical vertebrae 3-5
CORRECT!
Clues to congestive heart failure include:
Your answer: swelling and dyspnea
CORRECT!
Signs and symptoms of asthma typically include:
Your answer: wheezing sounds
CORRECT!
Which of the following is a true emergency?
Your answer: tension pneumothorax
CORRECT!
19. The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often:
Your answer: cold and clammy
CORRECT!
20. The pancreas produces a hormone called:
Your answer: insulin
CORRECT!
21. Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases - tonic, clonic, and:
Your answer: postictal
CORRECT!
22. When a patient has two or more convulsive seizures without regaining consciousness, it is known
as:
Your answer: status epilepticus
CORRECT!
23. Prolonged seizure activity may cause:
Your answer: hypoxia
CORRECT!
24. A fetus grows in the mother's
Your answer: uterus
CORRECT!
25. If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should:
Your answer: apply another tie or clamp
CORRECT!
26. Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very:
Your answer: vascular
CORRECT!
27. Which of the following is recommended to control bleeding from the socket of a dislodged tooth?
Your answer: gauze
CORRECT!
28. The EMT should suspect brain damage if there is a head injury and the pupils of the eyes are:
Your answer: unequal
CORRECT!
29. Which of the following articulates to the humerus?
Your answer: ulna
CORRECT!
30. Which of the following muscle types move bones?
Your answer: voluntary
CORRECT!
31. The amount of time it takes for blood to clot to form is?
Your answer: 6-7 minutes
CORRECT!
32. A dressing should do all of the following EXCEPT:
Your answer: hold a bandage in place
CORRECT!
33. Tarry looking stool is indicative of:
Your answer: bleeding in the intestines above the sigmoid colon
CORRECT!
34. The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic shock is:
Your answer: epinephrine
CORRECT!
35. Neurogenic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that:
Your answer: there is no pallor or rapid pulse
CORRECT!
36. Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
Your answer: severe blood loss
CORRECT!
37. Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to:
Your answer: metabolic shock
CORRECT!
38. When body cells receive less oxygen than they need, they are said to be:
Your answer: hypoxic
CORRECT!
39. Bright red frothy blood from the mouth indicates:
Your answer: punctured lung
CORRECT!
40. Which of the following groups contain only solid abdominal organs?
Your answer: spleen, pancreas, liver, kindey
CORRECT!
41. Transport is required for all hernia patients because:
Your answer: a "rupture" could occur
CORRECT!
42. Emergency care for an ingunial hernia includes:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
43. Since most major chest injury complications are true emergencies, provide:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
44. A substitute for occlusive dressings that should NOT be used in the case of abdominal injuries is:
Your answer: aluminum foil
CORRECT!
45. By lowering carbon dioxide levels and raising osygen levels, "hyperventilating the patient" with a
head injury helps:
Your answer: reduce brain tissue swelling
CORRECT!
46. The fourteen facial bones are fused into immovable joints, EXCEPT for the:
Your answer: mandible
CORRECT!
47. When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient experiences a:
Your answer: hip dislocation
CORRECT!
48. The structure within the blood that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the:
Your answer: erythrocyte
CORRECT!
49. Which of the following represents the largest percentage of total body water?
Your answer: intercellular fluid
CORRECT!
50. The oxygen therapy of choice for a hypoxic pediatric patient who will not tolerate a mask is:
Your answer: 15 lpm via blow-by
CORRECT!
51. Following a sudden onset of bizarre activity 35 year-old man becomes unresponsive. His vital
signs are: P= 120, R=30, and BP 13-.88. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. A Medic Alert tag says
he is diabetic. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patients condition?
Your answer: insulin shock
CORRECT!
52. A venturi mask with a flow rate of 4 lpm will deliver oxygen at a concentration of 24%. The same
mask with a flow rate of 8 lpm will deliver what concentration of oxygen?
Your answer: 28%
CORRECT!
53. A full portable D cylinder contains:
Your answer: 350 liters of oxygen
CORRECT!
54. The average adult heart beats how many times per day, approximately?
Your answer: 100,000
CORRECT!
55. Demand-valve resuscitators should not be used on patients:
Your answer: <12 years old
CORRECT!
56. A patient presenting with a bulging and cyanotic tongue, jugular venous distention, bloodshot
eyes, and generalized upper body cyanosis is classically indicative of:
Your answer: traumatic asphyxia
CORRECT!
57. Your patient received an isolated blunt injury to the mid-axillary line of her right chest. Position
from transport should be:
Your answer: right laterally recumbent
CORRECT!
58. The ________ is the bone in the anterior leg.
Your answer: tibia
CORRECT!
59. In layman's terms, the ______________ is called the shoulder blade.
Your answer: scapula
CORRECT!
60. When sections of a bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called:
Your answer: a comminuted fracture
CORRECT!
61. The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse.
Your answer: dorsalis pedis
CORRECT!
62. An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges is called:
Your answer: an incision
CORRECT!
63. Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with:
Your answer: a third-degree burn
CORRECT!
64. If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the back and
buttocks of an adult represents what percentage of body surface area burned?
Your answer: 18%
CORRECT!
65. An area equivalent to the palmar surface of the patient's hand is approsimately>
Your answer: 1 percent of the patient's body surface area
CORRECT!
66. If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the
anterior leg represents:
Your answer: 7 percent of the patient's body surface area
CORRECT!
67. Systemic complications associated with serious burns include all of the following EXCEPT:
Your answer: hyperthermia
CORRECT!
68. The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are:
Your answer: hypoxia and hypercarbia
CORRECT!
69. Which of the following is not a component of the primary survey?
Your answer: blood pressure
CORRECT!
70. Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the:
Your answer: stomach
CORRECT!
71. The mediatinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in:
Your answer: (a) and (b)
CORRECT!
72. If the endotracheal tube advances too far, it may be positioned in the:
Your answer: right mainstem bronchus
CORRECT!
73. A hear rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as:
Your answer: bradycardia
CORRECT!
74. A 200ml fluid challenge is to be infused over 20 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops/ml. How
fast will you run it?
Your answer: 100 drops/min
CORRECT!
75. The primary concern with facial fractures is:
Your answer: airway
CORRECT!
76. After blood enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the blood flow through
next?
Your answer: tricuspid valve
CORRECT!
77. Once nerve tissue is damaged to a certain extent:
Your answer: function is loss and cannot be restored
CORRECT!
78. The thickest chamber of the heart is the:
Your answer: left ventricle
CORRECT!
79. A fracture of which bone would cause the damage of the muscle, abductor magnus?
Your answer: femur
CORRECT!
80. The common name "wrist bones", has what anatomical name?
Your answer: carpals
CORRECT!
81. If the blood vessel the "Great Saphenous" is injured, what area of the body would need to be
injured?
Your answer: upper leg
CORRECT!
82. All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin EXCEPT:
Your answer: lesser omentum
CORRECT!
83. All of the following are parts of the human ear EXCEPT:
Your answer: none of the above
CORRECT!
84. All of the following are part of the digestive system EXCEPT:
Your answer: ductus deferens
CORRECT!
85. All of the following are part of the reproductive system EXCEPT:
Your answer: psoas muscle
CORRECT!
86. Match the following description with one of the answers below: The systematic gathering of
information in order to determine the nature of a patient's illness or injury.
Your answer: patient assessment
CORRECT!
87. The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1-5 years is:
Your answer: 80-150
CORRECT!
88. When correct CPR is done, what percentage of real heart action is realized?
Your answer: 25% - 33%
CORRECT!
89. A simple face mask delivers what range of oxygen?
Your answer: 35% - 60%
CORRECT!
90. In the following group listed below, which are possible causes of altered mental status? 1. diabetic
ketoacidosis 2. stroke 3. trauma 4. renal failure 5. hypoglycemia 6. epilepsy
Your answer: 1,3,4,5,6
CORRECT!
91. Place the events of a grand mal seizure chronologically as they are expected to occur. 1. post-ictal
2. tonic phase 3. aura 4. clonic phase 5. loss of consciousness
Your answer: 1,3,2,4,5
CORRECT!
92. Failure of the adrenal, thyroid, or pitutary glands may lead to what kind of shock?
Your answer: metabolic
CORRECT!
93. When a bone is fractured, the damage to blood vessels, nerves, and other soft tissues may be of
greater significance than the fracture.
Your answer: True
CORRECT!
94. Synovial joints are highly movable.
Your answer: True
CORRECT!
95. Poisons that are swallowed are:
Your answer: ingested
CORRECT!
96. Blood loss in an infant is considered serious if it is more than:
Your answer: 25 ml
CORRECT!
97. If a patient has a bleeding open head wound, the EMT should apply:
Your answer: loose gauze dressing
CORRECT!
98. The membrance surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the:
Your answer: meninges
CORRECT!
99. In which of the following is there usually no deformity?
Your answer: sprain
CORRECT!
100. The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are called:
Your answer: red blood cells
CORRECT!