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Tests. Module 3. Populanion-specific, biogeocenologic and biosphere’s levels of life organization 1. “Eating of the same table” would be an appropriate description of: A. Parasitism B. Symbiosis C. * Commensalism D. Predator E. All of the above 2. A “pear shaped” trophozoiite is normally seen in: A. Entamoeba histilytica B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Balantidium coli D. * Toxoplasma gondii E. Leishmania tropica 3. A host that harbors the adult stage of a parasite is known as: A. * Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Reservoir host D. Larvae’s host E. None of the above 4. A host that harbors the larval or asexual stage of a parasite is known as: A. Definitive host B. * Intermediate host C. Reservoir host D. Larvae’s host E. None of the above 5. actively feed A. Giardia Lamblia B. Entamoeba coli C. * Entamoeba histolytica D. Trichomonas vaginalis E. Entamoeba gingivalis 6. African trypanosomiasis is caused by: A. * Trypanosoma brucei B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Trichenilla spiralis D. Plasmodium vivax E. Leishmania tropica 7. After ingestion of giardia lamblia, cyst hatching takes place in the: A. stomach B. lower part of small intestine C. * upper part of small intestine D. colon E. all are correct 8. Amoebiasis can mimic in clinical presentation with: A. Appendicitis B. Diarrhoea C. Ulcerative colitis D. Bacillary dysentery E. * Any of the above 9. Amoebiasis is caused by: A. B. C. D. E. * Entamoeba histilytica Trypanosoma cruzi Entamoeba coli Entamoeba gingivalis Leishmania tropica 10. Amoebiasis prevention consists of: A. Mosquitoes extermination B. Tsetse fly extermination C. Taking measures against rodents D. Sand fly extermination E. * Water purification 11. Amoebic disentery is caused by: A. * Entamoeba histilytica B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Entamoeba coli D. Entamoeba gingivalis E. Leishmania tropica 12. Amoebic liver abscess is caused by: A. * Entamoeba histilytica B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Entamoeba coli D. Entamoeba gingivalis E. Leishmania tropica 13. Balantidiasis prevention consists of: A. B. C. D. E. Mosquitoes extermination Tsetse fly extermination Restricted contacts with cats Sand fly extermination * Washing hands before eating 14. Balantidium coli in the human body causes: A. B. C. D. E. Large liver and spleen mass Depression and sleepiness Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts Anemia * Diarrhea 15. Balantidium coli is localized in the human: A. Small intestine B. * Large intestine C. Larynx D. Liver E. Stomach 16. Balantidiun coli has: A. One nucleus B. Pseudopodia C. Flagella D. * Cillia E. A conoid 17. Bundles of crystalline ribonucleic acid in the amoeba are: A. * Chromatoidal bodies B. Karyosome C. Peripheral chromatin D. Pseudopodia E. Flagella 18. Cerebral malaria is a known complication of infection with: A. * plasmodium falciparum B. P. vivax C. P. ovale D. P. malariae E. None of above 19. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by: A. Anopheles representatives B. Culex representatives C. Aedes representatives D. * Phlebotomus resentatives E. Glossina representatives 20. Cyst of Toxoplasma: A. found in acute infection B. found in chronic infection C. free living D. * found in chronic infection E. found in stool of cats 21. Dumdum fever or black poison is the name given to: A. * Visceral leishmaniasis B. Cerebral malaria C. Cutaneus leishmaniasis D. Hepatic amoebiasis E. Balantidiasis 22. During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found: A. B. C. D. E. * Schizonts Pseudocysts Sporozoites Ookinetes Endozoites 23. During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found: A. Pseudocysts B. * Gametocytes C. Sporozoites D. Ookinetes E. Endozoites 24. ?E.histolytica and E. coli can be distinguished: A. morphologically B. by antibody detection C. geimsa staining D. localization in host E. cannot be distinguished 25. Endozoites formation is common for: A. Leishmania tropica B. Entamoeba histilytica C. * Toxoplasma gondii D. Lamblia intestinalis E. Balantidium coli 26. Entamoeba coli is example of: A. Intercellular endoparasite B. Extracellular endoparasite C. Intracellular ectoparasite D. Extracellular ectoparasite E. * Commensal 27. Entamoeba histolytica is localized in the human: A. Small intestine B. * Large intestine C. Larynx D. Liver E. Stomach 28. Entamoeba histolytica has: A. Two nuclei B. * Pseudopodia C. Flagella D. Cillia E. A conoid 29. Entamoeba histolytica in the human body causes: A. Large liver and spleen mass B. Depression and sleepiness C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts D. Anemia E. * Diarrhea 30. Entamoeba histolytica is example of: A. * Intercellular endoparasite B. Extracellular endoparasite C. Intercellular ectoparasite D. Extracellular ectoparasite E. Commensal 31. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites encyst in: A. the wall of lower part of small intestine B. the wall of the recto-sigmoid colon C. * the lumen of the colon D. the wall of duodenum E. none of the above 32. Flask shaped ulcers in the colon are caused by: A. Giardia lamblia B. Acanthamoeba C. * Entamoeba histolytica D. Naegleria fowleri E. Toxocara canis 33. Following intestinal infection, hepatic abscess is most likely to develop with: A. * Entamoeba histilytica B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Balantidium coli D. Trichomonas vaginalis E. Leishmania tropica 34. Gametocytes formation is common for: A. Leishmania tropica B. Entamoeba coli C. * Toxoplasma gondii D. Lamblia intestinalis E. Balantidium coli 35. Giardia lamblia affects mainly: A. * upper small intestine B. caecum C. colon D. rectum E. stomach 36. Giardiasis is spread through: A. * water supplies B. sexual contact C. bite of mosquito D. bite of sand fly E. all of the above 37. Human beings can catch lambliasis through: A. B. C. D. E. * Unwashed hands Unchecked pork Unchecked beef Rotten fish Unchecked crabs 38. Human beings can not catch amoebiasis through: A. B. C. D. E. Unwashed hands Unwashed vegetables * Unchecked meat Unwashed fruits Unboiled water 39. Human beings can not catch balantidiasis through: A. Unwashed hands B. Unwashed vegetables C. * Unchecked pork D. Unwashed fruits E. Unboiled water 40. In cutaneous leishmania the infective stage is: A. cyst B. leishmania form C. amastigote form D. * Leptomonas form (promastigote) E. None of the above 41. In Kala-azar the spleen is enlarged due to: A. portal hypertension B. bacterial infection C. * proliferation of reticular system D. hemolytic anemia E. none of the above 42. In trichomonas vaginalis infection: A. is caused by protozoan parasite B. the infective stage is the trophozoite C. causes vaginal discharge in females D. may infect males E. * all of the above 43. In visceral Leishmaniasis culture of the biopsy material on NNN medium results in: A. Cyst B. amastigote form C. * Leptomonas form (promastigote) D. Epimastigote form E. Leishmania form 44. Indicate the way of reproduction of Entamoeba histolytica? A. * Binary fission B. C. D. E. Endogony Shizogony Sporogony Conjugation 45. Indicate the way of reproduction of Plasmodium vivax in man? A. B. C. D. E. Binary fission Endogony * Shizogony Sporogony Conjugation 46. Indicate the way of reproduction of Toxoplasma gondii in man? A. B. C. D. E. Binary fission * Endogony Shizogony Sporogony Conjugation 47. Indicate the way of sexual reproduction of Balantidium coli? A. Binary fission B. Endogony C. Shizogony D. Sporogony E. * Conjugation 48. Infection with giardia lamblia is through: A. ingestion of the trophozoite stage B. * ingestion of the cyst stage C. ingestion of the egg D. all are correct E. none of the above 49. Kala-azar is caused by: A. Trypanosoma brucei B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Trichenilla spiralis D. Plasmodium vivax E. * Leishmania donovani 50. Lamblia intestinalis is localized in the human: A. * Small intestine B. Large intestine C. Larynx D. Liver E. Stomach 51. Leishmania tropica is example of: A. Intercellular endoparasite B. Extracellular endoparasite C. * Intracellular endoparasite D. Extracellular ectoparasite E. Commensal 52. Leishmania tropica is localized in: A. Small intestine B. Large intestine C. * Skin cells D. Liver E. Blood cells 53. Liver abscess is a known complication of infection with: A. Giardia Lamblia B. Entamoeba coli C. * Entamoeba histolytica D. Trichomonas vaginalis E. Entamoeba gingivalis 54. Malaria attacks (paroxysms) are caused by: A. * release of toxins from RBC B. invasion of RBC by Merozoites C. severe hemolytic anemia D. invasion of RBC by Spororozoites E. all of the above 55. Malaria is transmitted by: A. * Anopheles representatives B. Culex representatives C. Aedes representatives D. Phlebotomus resentatives E. Glossina representatives 56. Malaria prevention consists of: A. * Mosquitoes extermination B. Tsetse fly extermination C. Taking measures against rodents D. Personal hygiene E. Water purification 57. Merozoites produced per sporozoite in vivax malaria are about: A. 2 000 B. 6 000 C. * 10 000 D. 50 000 E. 100 000 58. Motile, reproductive stage of Entamoeba histolytica is: A. * Trophozoite B. Cyst C. Pre-cyst D. Sporozoit E. Shizont 59. Nephrotic syndrome in plasmodium malariae is due to: A. * deposition of immune-complexes in glomerular capillaries B. the sever anemia C. hypoproteinemia D. splenomegaly E. none of the above 60. Nephrotic syndrome occurs more with: A. Plasmodium vivax B. * P. Malariae C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum E. all of the above 61. Oocyst of Toxoplasma is found in: A. human tissue B. human blood C. * faeces of infected cat D. the brain of chronic patients E. all of the above 62. PAM (primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitics) is caused by: A. * Entamoeba histilytica B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Entamoeba coli D. Entamoeba gingivalis E. Leishmania tropica 63. Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious due to: A. absence of true relapse B. irregular paroxysms C. * adherence and blocking of capillaries of internal organs D. multiple infections inside the RBC’s E. hemolytic anemia 64. Plasmodium life cycle in female mosquito is named: A. gametogony B. schizogons C. * sporogony D. ovogony E. spermatogony 65. Plasmodium ovale in the human body causes: A. Inflammatory processes in the skin cells B. Depression and sleepiness C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts D. * Anemia E. Diarrhea 66. Plasmodium vivax in the human body causes: A. * Large liver and spleen mass B. Depression and sleepiness C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts D. Inflammatory processes in the nerve cells E. Diarrhea 67. Plasmodiun vivax is example of: A. Intercellular endoparasite B. Extracellular endoparasite C. * Intracellular endoparasite D. Extracellular ectoparasite E. Commensal 68. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups: A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular flagellates, ciliates B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates 69. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups: A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular flagellates, ciliates B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates 70. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups: A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular flagellates, ciliates B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates 71. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups: A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular flagellates, ciliates B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates 72. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups: A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular flagellates, ciliates B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates 73. Protozoan cysts: A. actively feed B. can divide C. are generally larger than trophozoites D. are the primary cause of pathogenesis E. * can be infective after several weeks in the environment 74. Pseudocysts formation is common for: A. Leishmania tropica B. Entamoeba coli C. * Toxoplasma gondii D. Lamblia intestinalis E. Balantidium coli 75. Regarding cutaneous Leishmaniasis: A. It is caused by leishmania major B. transmitted by sand fly C. Diagnosed by skin smear D. Endemic in Saudi Arabia E. * All of the above 76. Regarding Kala-azar: A. transmitted by bite of mosquito B. is caused y leishmania tropica C. * characterized by fever D. transmitted by direct contact with infected person E. none of the above 77. Regarding toxoplasmosis in humans: A. becomes active in immuno-compromised patients B. acute infection could be transmitted from mother to fetus C. associated with cats D. is mainly diagnosed by serological tests E. * all of the above 78. Regarding visceral Leishmaniasis: A. * it causes enlargement of liver and spleen B. is caused y leishmania tropica C. transmitted by bite of mosquito D. transmitted by direct contact with infected person E. none of the above 79. Relapse in malaria is common in: A. Plasmodium Falciprum B. * P. vivax C. Malignant malaria D. P. malaria E. all are correct 80. Relapse in malaria is common in: A. Plasmodium Falciprum B. P. malaria C. Malignant malaria D. * P. ovale E. all are correct 81. Schizont formation is common for: A. Leishmania tropica B. Entamoeba coli C. * Plasmodium vivax D. Lamblia intestinalis E. Balantidium coli 82. Schizont formation is common for: A. Leishmania tropica B. Entamoeba coli C. * Plasmodium vivax D. Lamblia intestinalis E. Balantidium coli 83. Schizonts of malaria parasite are not seen in peripheral blood in: A. P. vivax B. * P. falciparum C. P. ovale D. P. malariae E. all of the above 84. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by: A. Anopheles representatives B. Culex representatives C. Aedes representatives D. Phlebotomus resentatives E. * Glossina representatives 85. Splenomegaly is not caused by: A. schistomiasis B. malaria C. * ascariasis D. Kala-azar E. Toxoplasmosis 86. Sporogony takes place in: A. human blood B. the liver cells C. * mosquitoes D. sand fly E. other sites 87. Stained smears from organ in Kala-azar show: A. * amastigote form B. leptomonas form C. epimastigote form D. crithidia form E. cyst 88. The best test to distinguish amoebic liver abscess from a bacterial liver abscess is: A. Ultrasound examination B. Good physical examination by an expert C. CT scan D. * Serological evidence of E. histolytica E. X-ray examination 89. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium malariae lasts: A. B. C. D. E. 24 hours 48 hours * 72 hours 96 hours 12 hours 90. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium ovale lasts: A. B. C. D. E. 24 hours * 48 hours 72 hours 92 hours 12 hours 91. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium vivax lasts: A. B. C. D. E. 24 hours * 48 hours 72 hours 96 hours 12 hours 92. The final host of Toxoplasma gongii is a: A. * Cat B. Human being C. Mouse D. Hen E. Rabbit 93. The following disease is transmitted by anthropode vector: A. * Malaria B. Schistosomiasis C. Amoebiasis D. Hyadatid cyst E. Lambliosis 94. The following parasites cause fever except: A. Trichenilla spiralis B. Naegleria fowleri C. * Hymenolopis nana D. Plasmodium vivax E. Trypanosoma gambience 95. The following statements are correct regarding giardiasis: A. transmitted by ingestion of cyst B. affects mainly the upper small intestine C. diagnosed by examination of stool or duodenal contents D. most infections are asymptomatic E. * all are correct 96. The following statements are true regarding plasmodium falciparum infection: A. it causes duodenitis B. relapses occur every 3 months C. * it is characterized by severe anemia D. characteristically paroxysms occurs every 72 hours E. all are correct 97. The following statements are true regarding plasmodium falciparum infection: A. * it causes malignant tertian infection B. relapses occur every 3 months C. it is characterized by dysenteric symptoms D. characteristically paroxysms occurs every 72 hours E. all are correct 98. The host of Balantidium coli is a: A. B. C. D. E. Cat * Pig Cow Rabbit Hen 99. The host of Entamoeba histolytica is a: A. B. C. D. E. 100. Cat * Human being Mouse Hen Rabbit The host of Trichomonas vaginalis is a: A. B. C. D. E. 101. Cat * Human being Mouse Hen Rabbit The human brain and eyes can be affected by: A. B. C. D. E. 102. A. B. C. D. E. 103. A. B. C. D. E. 104. A. B. C. Leishmania tropica Trichomonas vaginalis Lamblia intestinalis Plasmodium vivax * Toxoplasma gondii The infective stage of Entamoeba coli is: Trophozoite * Cyst Pre-cyst Sporozoit Shizont The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is: Trophozoite * Cyst Pre-cyst Sporozoit Shizont The infective stage of Plasmodium vivax for man is: Trophozoite Cyst Pre-cyst 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. D. * Sporozoit E. Shizont The intermediate host of Plasmodium malaria is a: A. * Human being B. Antilope C. Mosquito D. Tsetse fly E. Sandfly The natural habitat for Balantidiun coli is in the large intestine of: A. * Pigs B. Man C. Monkeys D. Cats E. Dogs The parasite that results in symptoms of duodenitis is: A. entamoeba coli B. balantidium coli C. entamoeba histolytica D. * giardia lamblia E. trychomonas vaginalis The protozoon causing dysenteric symptoms is: A. balantidium coli B. entamoeba coli C. giardia lamblia D. trichomonas hominis E. * entamoeba histolytica The protozoon transmitted mainly by sexual contact is: A. trichomonas hominis B. dientamoeba fragilis C. * trichomonas vaginalis D. retortamonas hominis E. entamoeba histolytica The reservoir host of Leishmania donovani is a: A. Human being B. * Dog C. Mosquito D. Tsetse fly E. Sandfly The reservoir host of Trypanosoma cruzi is a: A. Human being B. * Cow C. Mosquito D. Tsetse fly E. Sandfly The reservoir host of Trypanosoma gambiense is a: A. Human being B. * Antilope C. Mosquito D. Tsetse fly E. Sandfly The temporary host of Leishmania tropica is a: A. Human being B. C. D. E. 114. A. B. C. D. E. 115. A. B. C. D. E. 116. A. B. C. D. E. 117. Toxoplasma gondii has: A. B. C. D. E. 118. A. B. C. D. E. 119. A. B. C. D. E. 120. Two nuclei * A conoid Pseudopodia A flagellum Cilia Toxoplasma gondii has: Two nuclei Pseudopodia Flagella Cillia * A conoid Toxoplasma gondii is example of: Intercellular endoparasite Extracellular endoparasite * Intracellular endoparasite Extracellular ectoparasite Commensal Toxoplasma gondii is localized in the human: A. B. C. D. E. 121. A. B. C. D. E. 122. Antilope Mosquito Tsetse fly * Sandfly The temporary host of Plasmodium ovale is a: * Human being Antilope Mosquito Tsetse fly Sandfly The temporary host of Trypanosoma gambiense is a: Human being Antilope Mosquito * Tsetse fly Sandfly There is lymphadenopathy in the following infections except: African trypanosomiasis Toxoplasmosis * Schistosomiasis Kala-azar American trypanosomiasis Small intestine Large intestine Larynx * Lungs Stomach Toxoplasma gondii is transmitted to human by: ingestion of soil contaminated by oocyst from cats ingestion of cysts in undercooked meat congenital transmission from mother with acute toxoplasmosis organ transplant and blood transfusion (infected donor) * all of the above Toxoplasmosis prevention consists of: A. B. C. D. E. Mosquitoes extermination Tsetse fly extermination * Restricted contacts with cats Sand fly extermination Personal hygiene 123. Trasformation of Entamoeba histolytica forma minuta into forma magna depends on factors such as: A. intestinal motility B. transit time C. the presence or absence of specific intestinal flora D. the host’s diet E. * Any of the above 124. Trichomonas vaginalis has: A. pseudopodia B. cilia C. * flagella D. axostyle E. none of the above 125. Trichomonas vaginalis in the human body causes: A. Large liver and spleen mass B. Depression and sleepiness C. * Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts D. Anemia E. Anemia 126. Trichomonas vaginalis may inhabit: A. the small intestine B. the large intestine C. * the prostate D. the blood E. none of the above 127. Trichomonas vaginalis may inhabit: A. the small intestine B. the large intestine C. * the vagina D. the blood E. none of the above 128. Trophozoite of Toxoplasma is: A. infective by ingestion B. in human blood C. free living D. found in chronic infection E. * obligatory intracellular parasite 129. Trypanosoma gabiense is example of: A. * Intercellular endoparasite B. Extracellular endoparasite C. Intracellular endoparasite D. Extracellular ectoparasite E. Commensal 130. Trypanosoma gambiense in the human body causes: A. Large liver and spleen mass B. * Depression and sleepiness C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. D. Anemia E. Diarrhea Trypanosomes reproduce by: A. gametocyte fusion B. blebbing C. schizogony D. * binary fission E. copulation Trypanosomes reproduce by: A. gametocyte fusion B. blebbing C. schizogony D. * binary fission E. copulation Trypanosomes reproduce by: A. gametocyte fusion B. blebbing C. schizogony D. * binary fission E. copulation Trypanosomes reproduce by: A. gametocyte fusion B. blebbing C. schizogony D. * binary fission E. copulation Trypanosomes reproduce by: A. gametocyte fusion B. blebbing C. schizogony D. * binary fission E. copulation Vaccination is the prophylaxis of: A. Lambliosis B. Trichomoniasis C. Malaria D. * Cutaneus leishmaniasis E. Toxoplasmosis 137. Visceral leishmaniasis prevention consists of: A. B. C. D. E. 138. A. B. C. D. E. 139. A. Mosquitoes extermination Tsetse fly extermination * Taking measures against rodents Personal hygiene Water purification What can be found in the feces of sick person? Trichomonas vaginalis Leishmania tropica * Lamblia intestinalis Plasmodium ovale Toxoplasma gondii What investigations should be performed to confirm a diagnosis of malaria? * Microscopy of patient’s blood smears B. C. D. E. 140. A. B. C. D. E. 141. A. B. C. D. E. 142. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells Biological tests with susceptible animals Serology of cerebrospinal fluid Microscopy of patient’s skin cells What is infective stage for human in life cycle of Plasmodium? Young trophozoite * Sporozoite Mature schizont Gametocyte Cyst What is man in the life cycle of Plasmodium malariae? * Intermediate host Definitive host External parasite Reservoir host Internal parasite What is man in the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii? A. B. C. D. E. 143. A. B. C. D. E. 144. * Intermediate host Definitive host Reservoir host Internal parasite External parasite What is the way of transmission in African trypanosomiasis? By bite of Anopheles mosquito Alimentary * By bite of Glossina palpalis By bite of bug species (family Triatomidae) Sexual What is the way of transmission of amoebiasis? A. B. C. D. E. 145. A. B. C. D. E. 146. A. B. C. D. E. 147. A. B. C. D. E. Sexual * Alimentary By blood By bite of Anopheles mosquito By bite of Glossina palpalis What is the way of transmission of toxoplasmosis? Sexual By bite of sandfly * Transplacental By bite of tsetse fly By bite of Anopheles mosquito What protozoan disease agent belong to flagellates, are common in Africa? * Plasmodium vivax Lamblia intestinalis Entamoeba coli Trypanosoma cruzi Leishmania donovani What protozoan disease agent belong to flagellates, are common in India? Plasmodium vivax Lamblia intestinalis Entamoeba coli Trypanosoma cruzi * Leishmania donovani 148. A. B. C. D. E. 149. A. B. C. D. E. 150. A. B. C. D. E. 151. A. B. C. D. E. 152. A. B. C. D. E. 153. What unicellular animal can parasitize in the bile ducts? Plasmodium vivax * Lamblia intestinalis Entamoeba coli Trypanosoma gambiense Leishmania donovani ?What unicellular animal can parasitize in the human liver? * Plasmodium vivax Balantidium coli Entamoeba coli Trypanosoma gambiense Leishmania donovani What unicellular animal can parasitize in the human skin? Plasmodium vivax Balantidium coli Entamoeba coli Trypanosoma gambiense * Leishmania donovani What unicellular animal can parasitize in the human large intestine? Plasmodium vivax * Balantidium coli Entamoeba gingivalis Trypanosoma gambiense Leishmania donovani What unicellular animal can parasitize in the small intestine? Plasmodium vivax * Lamblia intestinalis Entamoeba coli Trypanosoma gambiense Leishmania donovani Where do schistosomes lay fertilized eggs? A. B. C. D. E. 154. bronchial tubes intestine * blood vessels muscles bile duct Which of the below mentioned animals can not form cysts? A. B. C. D. E. 155. A. B. C. D. E. 156. * Leishmania tropica Entamoeba coli Entamoeba histolytica Lamblia intestinalis Balantidium coli Which of the below mentioned animals have not cysts? * Trypanosoma gambiense Entamoeba coli Entamoeba histolytica Lamblia intestinalis Balantidium coli Which of the below mentioned animals most probably can form cysts? A. B. C. D. Leishmania tropica Trichomonas vaginalis * Entamoeba histolytica Plasmodium ovale E. Trypanosoma gambiense 157. Which of the below mentioned animals most probably can have cysts? A. B. C. D. E. 158. A. B. C. D. E. 159. A. B. C. D. E. 160. A. B. C. D. E. 161. A. B. C. D. E. 162. A. B. C. D. E. 163. A. B. C. D. E. 164. A. B. C. D. E. 165. A. B. Leishmania tropica Trichomonas vaginalis * Lamblia intestinalis Plasmodium ovale Trypanosoma gambiense Which of the following have not organelles for locomotion? Cilliates Amoebae Flagellates * Sporozoa All of the above Which of the following is non-pathogenic? Entamoeba histilytica Trypanosoma cruzi * Entamoeba coli Trichomonas vaginalis Leishmania tropica Which of the following is non-pathogenic? Entamoeba histilytica Trypanosoma cruzi * Entamoeba gingivalis Trichomonas vaginalis Leishmania tropica Which of the following use pseudopodia for locomotion? Cilliates * Amoebae Flagellates Microsporidia Trematoda Which of these is mismatched? Infective stage of amoebiasis – mature cyst * Cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has 8 nuclei Cyst of Entamoeba coli has 8 nuclei Forma magna of Entamoeba histolytica – tissue form Forma minuta of Entamoeba histolytica – commensal form Which Plasmodium species causes “blackwater fever”? Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium malariae * Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium ovale Plasmodium gondii Which types of locomotive organelles does amoeba have? Cilia * Pseudopodia Flagella No locomotor organelles Ribosome For all of the following helminthes dogs are the l hosts except * Ascaris lumbricoides Echinococcus granulossus C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Toxocara canis E. No correct answer 166. For all of the following helminthes human is the final host except A. Taenia solium B. Taenia saginata C. * Echinococcus granulossus D. Opisthorchis felineus E. Dyphilobothrium latum 167. The adult Cestodes body consists in: A. * scolex, neck, strobila, consisting in proglottids B. the neck, consisting in proglottids C. a scolex, consisting in proglottids D. maryta E. non of the above 168. The general characteristics of Cestodes, are the following with an exception: A. bilateral symmetry B. flattened dorsoventrally C. band-shaped body without body cavity D. primitive or no digestive tract E. * the sexes are separately 169. . Parasitic protozoa differ from parasitic helminths in that: A. they never multiply in the intermediate host. B. they are always intracellular. C. they only infect invertebrates. D. * they multiply in their final host. E. they always have an intermediate host. 170. . The cells that form a meshwork filling the spaces between muscles and organs that develops from mesoderm is called A. * posteriorly. B. laterally. C. anteriorly. D. dorsoventrally. E. No correct answer F. parenchyma. G. rhabdite. H. a cuticle layer. I. tegument. J. No correct answer 171. The invasive for human beings stage of Schistosoma haematobium is called: A. B. C. D. E. 172. A. B. C. D. E. 173. Miracidium Sporocyst Redia Metacercaria * Cercaria All of the following statements to Cestodes are true except: Taenia solium has scolex with 4 suckers and circle of hooks * Taenia saginata has scolex with 4 suckers and 4 hooks Echinococcus granulossus has 2-3 proglottids Dyphilobothrium latum has scolex with 2 elongated sucking grooves Hymenolepis nana strobila has 100-200 proglottides All of the following statements to Cestodes are true except: A. * Taenia solium gravid proglottids have 7-35 primary uterine branches B. Taenia saginata gravid proglottids have 17-35 primary uterine branches C. Echinococcus granulossus posterior segment (mature) is the largest and contains uterus with the haustrums D. Dyphilobothrium latum gravid uterus is in the form of a rosette E. Hymenolepis nana uterus has an excretory ostium 174. All of the following trematodes parasitize the billiary duct except A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fasciola hepatica C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Dicrocelium lanceatum E. * Paragonimus ringery 175. All of the following trematodial infection occur by ingestion of infected food with larva except: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Opisthorchis felineus C. Dicrocelium lanceatum D. * Schistosoma mansoni E. Paragonimus ringery 176. All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. Taenia solium - pigs B. Taenia saginata - cattle C. * Echinococcus granulossus - dogs D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host E. Dyphilobothrium latum - small crustacean 177. All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. Taenia solium - pigs B. Taenia saginata - cattle C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans. D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host E. * Dyphilobothrium latum – human 178. All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. Taenia solium - pigs B. * Taenia saginata - human C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans. D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host E. Dyphilobothrium latum - fishes 179. All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. * Taenia solium - human B. Taenia saginata - cattle C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans. D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host E. Dyphilobothrium latum - fishes 180. All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. Taenia solium - pigs B. Taenia saginata - cattle C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans. D. * Hymenolepis nana - small crustacean E. Dyphilobothrium latum - fishes 181. All of the relation between different Cestodes and structure of their scolexes are thrue except: A. Taenia solium has scolex with 4 suckers and circle of hooks B. Taenia saginata has scolex with 4 suckers but no hooks C. Echinococcus granulossus has scolex has suckers and hooks D. Dyphilobothrium latum has scolex with 2 elongated sucking grooves E. * Hymenolepis nana has scolex with oral and ventral suckers 182. All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. Paragonimus westermani - snail B. Clonorchis sinensis - fish C. * Fasciola hepatica - cattle D. Opisthorchis felineus- snail E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum -ants 183. All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. * Paragonimus westermani - human B. Clonorchis sinensis - fish C. Fasciola hepatica - snail D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum -ants 184. All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. Paragonimus westermani – snail B. * Clonorchis sinensis - crabs or crayfish C. Fasciola hepatica - snail D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum - ants 185. All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. * Paragonimus westermani - crabs or crayfish B. Clonorchis sinensis - snail C. Fasciola hepatica - snail D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum -ants 186. All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are thrue except: A. * Paragonimus westermani - ants B. Clonorchis sinensis - snail C. Schistosoma species - snail D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum – snail 187. Autoinvasion with eggs of what Cestoda can take place during life cycle? A. B. C. D. E. 188. * Hymenolepis nana Echinococcus granulosus Echinococcus multilocularis Taenia saginata Diphyllobotrium latum Cat fluke oviposit in the: A. Bronchioles B. C. D. E. 189. egg in A. B. C. D. E. * Intestine Muscles Lungs Blood vessels Concomitant examination of stool and sputum be performed for the presence of Clonorchis sinensis Fasciola hepatica Opisthorchis felineus Dicrocelium lanceatum * Paragonimus ringery 190. During the diagnostics of urogenital schistosomiasis the eggs of haematobium can be found: Schistosoma Only in night urine (10 pm – 6 am) Only in morning urine (6 am – 10 am) * Only in day urine (10 am – 2 pm) In feces In sputum 191. Excystation of the cysticercoid of Hymenolepis occurred in the presence of the following factor: A. Bile salts, NaCl and a temperature of 37B C B. Pepsin, Trypsin and a temperature of 37 C C. HCl, bile salts and a temperature of 27H C D. Bile salts, NaCl and a temperature of 27B C E. * None of the above A. B. C. D. E. 192. Fasciola hepatica adult is localized in the liver of: A. B. C. D. E. * Human being Snail Dog Cat Fish 193. Fasciola hepatica marita is localized in the liver of: A. B. C. D. E. 194. A. B. C. D. E. 195. A. B. C. D. E. 196. A. B. C. * Cattle Snail Dog Cat Fish For all of the following helminthes human is the final host except Fasciola hepatica Clonorchis sinensis * Echinococcus granulossus Opisthorchis felineus Dyphilobothrium latum For its life cycle, Fasciola hepatica needs as vector: a sand fly * a snail a mosquito a tsetse fly non of the above For its life cycle, Schistosoma species needs as vector: a sand fly * a snail a mosquito D. a tsetse fly E. non of the above 197. For the individual prevention of the invasion of Taenia saginata it is necessary to: A. B. C. D. E. Clean the apartment Treat pork thermally before consumption Wash vegetables and fruit Wash hands before eating * Treat beef thermally before consumption 198. For the individual prevention of the invasion of Taenia solium it is necessary to: A. B. C. D. E. 199. Clean the apartment * Treat pork thermally before consumption Wash vegetables and fruit Wash hands before eating Treat beef thermally before consumption General characteristic of class Trematoda is: A. B. C. D. E. 200. * Flattened dorsoventrally Organs of fixation: suckers and hooks Cuticle covered body Body is segmented Body has scolex, neck, strobile General characteristic of class Trematoda is: A. B. C. D. E. 201. Back part of the body is twisted to the side in males * Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker Cuticle covered body Body is segmented Fluid is in the body cavity How many segments does strobila of Echinococcus granulosus have? A. B. C. D. E. * 3- 5 6- 8 50 1000 200-300 202. Human being can be invaded by Diphyllobotrium latum through: A. B. C. D. E. Consuming freshly salted caviar Unwashed vegetables Dirty hands * No enough thermal treatment of fish Water 203. Human beings’ invasion with chlonorchiasis happens through: A. B. C. D. E. Water Dirty hands Dirty vegetables and fruits * Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish Consuming raw crawfish and crabs 204. Human beings’ invasion with fascioliasis happens through: A. B. C. D. E. 205. * Water Dirty hands Dirty vegetables and fruits Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish Consuming raw crawfish and crabs Human beings’ invasion with opisthorchiasis happens through: A. Water B. Dirty hands C. Dirty vegetables and fruits D. * Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish E. Consuming raw crawfish and crabs 206. Human beings’ invasion with paragonimiasis happens through: A. B. C. D. E. 207. A. B. C. D. E. 208. Water Dirty hands Dirty vegetables and fruits Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish * Consuming raw crawfish and crabs In clonorchiasis infection, what is the mode of transmission? ingestion of metacercaria in crabs or crayfish infection through skin of larvae from snail hosts ingestion of plants with the ants * ingestion of contaminated fish ingestion of metacercaria in snail In human being Hymenolepis nana parasitizes in the: A. B. C. D. E. * Small intestine Large intestine Pancreas Liver Lungs 209. In man cysticercosis is result of autoinvasion by: A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. * Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. Echinococcus granulosus 210. In man the hydadtid cyst stage of Echinococcus granulosus can be localized in the A. Small intestine B. Large intestine C. Skin D. Pancreas E. * Lungs 211. In the trematodes, the first or invertebrate host is called the _________ and the second or final host, which is usually a vertebrate, is called the _________ host. A. molluscan, amphibian B. indirect, direct C. intermediate, complete D. * intermediate, definitive E. molluscan, reptillian 212. In the human bile ducts there can be found: A. B. C. D. E. Schistosoma haematobium * Fasciola hepatica Paragonimus westermani Taenia solium Taenia saginata 213. In the human bile ducts there can be not found: A. B. C. D. E. Cat fluke Fasciola hepatica * Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis 214. In the human blood vessels there can be found: A. B. C. D. E. * Schistosoma haematobium Fasciola hepatica Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis 215. In the human blood vessels there can be found: A. B. C. D. E. * Schistosoma japonicum Fasciola hepatica Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis 216. In the human lungs there can be found: A. B. C. D. E. Schistosoma haematobium Fasciola hepatica * Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis 217. In the human veins there can be found: A. B. C. D. E. 218. A. B. C. D. E. * Schistosoma mansoni Fasciola hepatica Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis Indicate invasive stage of Diphyllobotrium latum for crustaceans: cysticercus * coracidium procercoid plerocercoid metacercariae 219. Indicate invasive stage of Echinococcus granulosus for definitive host A. B. C. D. E. 220. cysticercus coracidium * hydatid cyst plerocercoid gravid proglottid Indicate laboratory diagnosis for Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Disease A. B. C. D. E. examination of feces examination of patient’s blood * routine X-ray examination of sternal bone marrow by sternal puncture examination of the cerebrospinal fluid 221. Indicate system of organs which parasitic flukes have no: A. B. C. D. E. digestive excretory nervous * circulatory reproductive 222. Indicate system of organs which parasitic flukes have no: A. B. C. D. E. * respiratory excretory nervous digestive reproductive 223. Indicate the infectious stage of Echinococcus granulosus for humans: A. B. C. D. E. 224. hydatid cysts * an egg oncosphere gravid proglottid cysticercus Indicate the invasive stage of Fasciola Hepatica for humans: A. B. C. D. E. metacercariae an egg * adolescariae cercariae cysticercus 225. Indicate the invasive stage of Taenia saginata for humans A. B. C. D. E. 226. A. B. C. D. E. 227. A. B. C. D. E. egg hydatid cysts gravid proglottid * cysticercus metacercariae Paragonimus westermani oviposit in the: * Bronchioles Intestine Muscles Bile ducts Blood vessels Prevention of Fasciola hepatica disease includes eating only cooked meat (especially pork) * washing plants, watercress, lettuce non-chlorinated water eating only cooked meat (especially beef) non of the above 228. Public prevention of the invasion of Echinococcus granulosus it is necessary to: A. B. C. D. E. 229. A. B. C. D. E. 230. * Treat and diagnostic of dogs Treat pork thermally before consumption Wash vegetables and fruit Wash hands before eating Treat beef thermally before consumption Schistosomiasis control depends on destruction of: * the snails the sand fly the mosquitoes tsetse fly domesticn dogs The adolescaria of which trematode is infective stage for human being? A. B. C. D. E. 231. A. B. C. D. * Schistosoma haematobium Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Fasciola hepatica Clonorchis sinensis The adult of Paragonimus westermani species inhabit: human stomach blood gallbladder * human langs E. human liver 232. The adult of Schistosoma species inhabit: A. human stomach B. blood C. gallbladder D. * urine E. human liver 233. The animals that are leaf-shaped endoparasites, have a tegument, and have complex life cycles are members of the class A. * Hirudinea. B. Turbellaria. C. Trematoda. D. Cestoda. E. Nematoda 234. The cercaria of which trematode is infective stage for human being? A. B. C. D. E. * Schistosoma haematobium Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Fasciola hepatica Clonorchis sinensis 235. The chain of proglottids is collectively called the ________, and the holdfast or attachment organ is called the A. * strobila, scolex. B. scolex, opisthaptor. C. opisthaptor, cercaria. D. cercaria, strobila. E. Metacercaria, hooks 236. The cystic stage of the tapeworm Echinoccocus granulosus is called a: A. Polycercus B. Cysticercoid C. Procercoid D. * Hydatid E. Plerocercoid 237. The diagnostics of the disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst is performed by: A. B. C. D. E. 238. A. B. C. D. E. 239. A. B. C. D. E. 240. * Serological examination and tomography Microscopic analisis of feses Microscopic analisis of blood Microscopic analisis of urine Microscopic analisis of cerebrospinal fluid The eggs of Dyphilobotrium latum hatch to give a: Miracidium onchomiracidium * coracidium acanthor planula The eggs of Dyphilobotrium latum always confused with eggs of: * Fasciola hepatica Hookworm Pinworm Whipworm Threadworm The eggs of Paragonimus westermani always confused with eggs of: A. B. C. D. E. * Dyphilobothrium latum Hookworm Pinworm Whipworm Threadworm 241. The final host of Echinococcus granulosus is a: A. B. C. D. E. * dog pig man cow * fish 242. The final host of Taenia saginata is a: A. B. C. D. E. dog * man pig fish cow 243. The final host of Taenia solium is a: A. B. C. D. E. 244. A. B. C. D. E. 245. A. B. C. D. E. 246. A. B. C. D. E. 247. A. B. C. D. E. 248. A. B. C. D. E. dog * man pig fish cow The following worm is plathelminth * Taenia solium Ancilostoma duodenale Ascaris lumbricoides Enterobius vermicularis Necator americanus The following worm is plathelminth * Taenia solium Ancilostoma duodenale Ascaris lumbricoides Enterobius vermicularis Necator americanus The following worm is plathelminth * Fasciola hepatica Ancilostoma duodenale Ascaris lumbricoides Enterobius vermicularis Necator americanus The following worm is Trematoda: * Schistosoma species Taenia saginata Echinococcus granulosus Trichinella spiralis Taenia solium The following worm is Trematoda: Taenia saginata * Fasciola hepatica Echinococcus granulosus Trichinella spiralis Taenia solium 249. The following worm is Trematoda: A. Taenia saginata B. * Dicrocelium lanceatum C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Trichinella spiralis E. Taenia solium 250. The following worm is Trematoda: A. Taenia saginata B. * Opisthorchis felineus C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Trichinella spiralis E. Taenia solium 251. The following worm is Trematoda: A. Taenia saginata B. Trichinella spiralis C. Echinococcus granulosus D. * Clonorchis sinensis E. Taenia solium 252. The following worm is Cestodae: A. * Diphyllobothrium latum B. Opisthorchis felineus C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Clonorchis sinensis E. Trichinella spiralis 253. The following worm is Cestodae: A. Opisthorchis felineus B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Clonorchis sinensis D. Trichinella spiralis E. * Taenia solium 254. The following worm is Cestodae: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Trichinella spiralis E. * Taenia saginata 255. The following worm is Cestodae: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Trichinella spiralis E. * Echinococcus granulosus 256. The following worm is Cestodae: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Trichinella spiralis E. * Hymenolepis nana 257. The human liver fluke,_________, is common in China, and can cause cirrhosis of the liver and death A. Schistosoma mansoni B. Paragonimus ringery 258. C. * Clonorchis sinensis D. Dyphilobotrium latum E. Echinoccocus granulosus The individual prevention of fascioliasis is based on: A. Individual hygiene B. Consuming well-cooked fish C. Consuming well-cooked crabs D. Consuming well-cooked beef E. * Consuming boiled water 259. The individual prevention of hepatosplenic schistosomiasis is based on: A. B. C. D. E. 260. * No swimming in endemic areas Consuming well-cooked fish Consuming well-cooked crabs Consuming well-cooked pork Consuming boiled water The individual prevention of intestinal schistosomiasis is based on: A. B. C. D. E. 261. * No swimming in endemic areas Consuming well-cooked fish Consuming well-cooked crabs Consuming well-cooked pork Consuming boiled water The individual prevention of opisthorchiasis is based on: A. B. C. D. E. 262. Individual hygiene * Consuming well-cooked fish Consuming well-cooked crabs Consuming well-cooked beef Consuming boiled water The individual prevention of paragonimiasis is based on: A. B. C. D. E. 263. Individual hygiene Consuming well-cooked fish * Consuming well-cooked crabs Consuming well-cooked beef Consuming boiled water The individual prevention of urogenital schistosomiasis is based on: A. B. C. D. E. * No swimming in endemic areas Consuming well-cooked fish Consuming well-cooked crabs Consuming well-cooked pork Consuming boiled water 264. The intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus is a: A. B. C. D. E. 265. The invasive for human beings stage of Fasciola hepatica is called: A. B. C. D. E. 266. dog * man cat fish fox Miracidium Sporocyst Redia Metacercaria * Adolescaria The invasive for human beings stage of Opisthorchis felineus is called: A. Miracidium B. C. D. E. 267. Sporocyst Redia * Metacercaria Cercaria The invasive for human beings stage of Paragonimus westermani is called: A. B. C. D. E. 268. Miracidium Sporocyst Redia * Metacercaria Adolescaria The life cycle of Clonorchis involves asexual reproduction in which animal? A. B. C. D. E. * snail and fish cattle and snail pig and fish fish and ant crab and snail 269. The life cycle of Diphyllobotrium latum involves asexual reproduction in what animal: A. B. C. D. E. 270. snail crab pig * fish cattle The life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus involves sexual reproduction in what animal A. B. C. D. E. * dog crab pig fish cattle 271. The life cycle of Taenia saginata involves asexual reproduction in what animal: A. snail B. crab C. pig D. fish E. * cattle 272. The life cycle of Taenia solium involves asexual reproduction in which animal: A. B. C. D. E. 273. A. B. C. D. E. 274. A. B. C. D. E. 275. snail crab pig * fish cow The normal definitive site for adult Schistosoma mansoni is: The mesenteric arteries * The mesenteric veins The hepatic arteries The hepatic veins All of the above The organ most commonly infected in Echinoccocus granulosus infection is Lang * Liver Brain Spleen Muscles The ova of Clonorchis sinensis inhabit: A. B. C. D. E. 276. A. B. C. D. E. 277. A. B. C. D. E. 278. A. B. C. D. E. 279. A. B. C. D. E. 280. A. B. C. D. E. 281. A. B. C. D. E. 282. A. B. C. D. E. 283. A. B. C. D. human stomach blood * gallbladder intestine human liver The ova of Fasciola hepatica inhabit: human stomach * human bile ducts blood human intestine human lung The ova of Fasciola hepatica inhabit: * gallbladder human stomach blood human intestine human lung The ova of Opisthorchis felineus inhabit: human stomach blood * gallbladder intestine human liver The ova of Schistosoma species inhabit: human stomach blood gallbladder * intestine human liver The ova of Schistosoma species inhabit: human stomach blood gallbladder * urine human liver The protonephridial system in cestodes functions in: Digestion reproduction * osmoregulation defense nervous co-ordination The segments that make up the body of a tapeworm are called: Metameres * Proglottides Bothria Tagmata Bothridia The shape and color of Fasciola hepatica ova are: Spherical and greenish * oval and yellowish greenish and round yellowish and whitish E. non-operculated, yellowish 284. The shape of the ovary & the testes & the position of the vitellaia in Clonorchis sinensis is:? A. ovary branched, testes lobed, vitellaria central B. ovary round testes lobed, vitellaria along the length of each lateral border C. ovary branched, testes round, vitellaria along the length of each lateral border D. ovary round, testes round, vitellaria central E. * Non of the above 285. The term maryta is only used when referring to the: A. Cestodes B. * Trematodes C. Nematodes D. Sporozoans E. Flagellates 286. The term proglottid is only used when referring to the: A. * Cestodes B. Trematodes C. Nematodes D. Sporozoans E. Flagellates 287. The term scolex is only used when referring to the: A. * Cestodes B. Trematodes C. Nematodes D. Sporozoans E. Flagellates 288. The term tegument is only used when referring to the: A. Arthropods B. * Trematodes C. Nematodes D. Sporozoans E. Flagellates 289. What are the sizes of the marita of Fasciola hepatica? A. B. C. D. E. 290. A. B. C. D. E. 291. What is mode of transmission of schistosomiasis? A. B. C. D. E. 292. 3-5 mm 30-50 cm * 3-5 cm 10 mm 1-2 m What is mode of transmission of dicrocoeliasis? penetration of skin by cercaria ingestion contaminated crabs ingestion contaminated snail ingestion contaminated fish * by eating plants with the ants * penetration of skin by cercaria by eating contaminated crabs by eating contaminated snail by eating contaminated fish by eating contaminated pork What is reservoir for Schistosoma haematobium A. Fish B. C. D. E. 293. A. B. C. D. E. 294. A. B. C. D. E. 295. A. B. C. D. E. Snail Cattle Pig * Human What is reservoir for Schistosoma mansoni Fish Snail Cattle Pig * Human What is the causative agent of urinary or vesical schistosomiasis Paragonimus westermani * Schistosoma haematobium Fasciola hepatica Opisthorchis felineus Dicrocoelium lanceatum What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglotid of Taenia saginata ? * 17 –35 uterine branches 7 –12 uterine branches bilobed ovary trilobed ovary gravid uterus is in the form of rosette 296. What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglottid of Taenia solium? A. B. C. D. E. 297. A. B. C. D. E. 17 –35 uterine branches * 7 –12 uterine branches bilobed ovary trilobed ovary gravid uterus is in the form of rosette What is the distinguishing feature of gravid proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum? 7 –12 uterine branches 17 –35 uterine branches bilobed ovary trilobed ovary * gravid uterus is in the form of rosette 298. What is the distinguishing feature of immature proglottid of Taenia solium? A. B. C. D. E. 17 –35 uterine branches 7 –12 uterine branches bilobed ovary * trilobed ovary gravid uterus is in the form of rosette 299. What is the distinguishing feature of scolex of Taenia solium? A. B. C. D. E. * 4 suckers and circle of hooks 4 suckers but no hooks 2 elongated sucking grooves without organs of fixation hooks 300. What kind of helminthiasis is characterized by the development of hematuria, terminal disuria, obstructed urine flow? A. B. C. D. E. fascioliasis paragonimiasis shistosomiasis japonicum * shistosomiasis haematobium dicrocoeliasis 301. What tapeworm does cause cysticercosis? A. B. C. D. E. 302. * Taenia solium Taenia saginata Diphyllobotrium latum Fasciola hepatica Echinococcus multilocularis What trematoda does have one intermediate host in its life cycle? A. B. C. D. E. 303. * Fasciola hepatica Taenia solium Taenia saginata Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis What trematoda does have two hosts in its life cycle? A. B. C. D. E. 304. * Schistosoma mansoni Taenia solium Taenia saginata Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis What trematoda does have two intermediate hosts in its life cycle? A. B. C. D. E. 305. Fasciola hepatica Taenia solium Taenia saginata * Opisthorchis felineus Paragonimus westermani What trematode is not hermaphroditic? A. B. C. D. E. 306. * Schistosoma haematobium Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Fasciola hepatica Clonorchis sinensis Where do schistosomes lay fertilized eggs? A. B. C. D. E. 307. A. B. C. D. E. 308. A. B. C. D. E. 309. A. B. C. D. bronchial tubes intestine * blood vessels muscles bile duct Which cestode does cause Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Diseases? Taenia solium Echinococcus multilocularis Diphyllobotrium latum * Echinococcus granulosus Taenia saginata Which of the following is NOT used in schistosome control? Education molluscicides chemotherapy sanitation * bed nets Which of the following organisms is a blood fluke? Worms of the genus Fasciolopsis. * Worms of the genus Schistosoma. Worms of the genus Taenia. Worms of the genus Clonorchis. E. All of them 310. Which stage of Dicrocoelium lanceatum is invasive for humans? A. B. C. D. E. 311. A. B. C. D. E. 312. A. B. C. D. E. 313. an egg adolescariae cercariae adult worm * metacercariae __________ is the part of alimentary canal of Enterobius vermicularis Heart Crop Kidney Ovary * Esophagus __________ is the part of excretory system of Ascaris lumbricoides. Heart * Excretory channels Kidney Ovary Oesophagus __________ is the part of reproductive system of female Ascaris lumbricoides. A. B. C. D. E. 314. Heart * Two ovaries Kidney One ovary Esophagus . Each of the following statements concerning loiasis is correct except: A. B. C. D. E. 315. A. B. C. D. E. 316. A. B. C. D. E. 317. A. B. C. D. E. 318. A. B. C. Loa loa causes loiasis * loiasis is caused by egg of Loa loa Deer fly is vector of Loa loa loiasis is caused by larvae of Loa loa Loa loa crawling across the conjuctiva of the eye ?1. Elephantiasis is caused by: Ascaris Necator Haemonchus Dictyocaulus * Wucheraria 14. The biological vectors of Onchocerciasis is: mosquito * blackfly a water strider a crustacean deer fly 15. The biological vectors of Loa loa is: mosquito blackfly a water strider a crustacean * deer fly 16. The biological vectors of Wuchereria bancrofti is: * mosquito blackfly a water strider 319. 320. 321. 322. 323. 324. 325. 326. 327. D. a crustacean E. deer fly 17. The biological vectors of Brugia malayi is: A. * mosquito B. blackfly C. a water strider D. a crustacean E. deer fly 18. The intermediate host of Dracunculus medinensis is: A. * a crustacean, B. a mosquito, C. a rotifer, D. a blackfly, E. a water strider 19. What is the intermediate host of Dracunculus medinensis: A. * a crustacean, B. a mosquito, C. a rotifer, D. a blackfly, E. a water strider 2. The causative agent of elephantiasis is: A. Ascaris B. Necator C. Haemonchus D. Dictyocaulus E. * Wucheraria 20. Diagnosis of Wuchereria bancrofti is best accomplished by: A. stool exam B. immunological test C. “scotch tape test” D. * blood film examination E. tissue biopsy 3. The intermediate host of Dracunculus is: A. an amphipod B. an isopod C. a mollusc D. a tick E. * a copepod 4. What is the intermediate host of Dracunculus? A. an amphipod B. an isopod C. a mollusc D. a tick E. * a copepod 5. The nematode cuticle is primarily made of: A. * keratin B. actin C. collagen D. chitin E. cellulose 6. Which of the following are NOT characteristic of nematodes? A. unsegmented B. C. D. E. 328. A. B. C. D. E. 329. A. B. C. D. E. 330. A. B. C. D. E. 331. A. B. C. D. E. 332. A. B. C. D. E. 333. A. B. C. D. E. 334. A. B. C. D. E. 335. A. B. C. no respiratory organs no circulatory system * no cilia coelomate 7. Approximately how many eggs does a female Ascaris produce per day? 100 1,000 10,000 * 100,000 1,000,000 8. Methods used for diagnosing nematode parasites: fecal exams, blood films, tissue biopsy, immunological tests, * all of these 9. Diagnosis of pinworms is best accomplished by: stool exam, immunological test, * “scotch tape test”, blood film examination, tissue biopsy A nematode worms lack a nervous system * circulatory system digestive system reproductive system mesoderm Ancylostoma is: Pork-infestation Elephantiasis Sushi worm Pin worm * Hook worm Enterobius is: Pork-infestation Elephantiasis Sushi worm * Pin worm Hook worm Enterobius vermicularis: Normally inhabits the small intestine The male is bigger than female Has an elongated whip like anterior portion It has a whip-like anterior portion * Occasionally invades the female genitourinary system Enterobius vermicularis: Normally inhabits the small intestine The male is bigger than female Has an elongated whip like anterior portion D. It has a whip-like anterior portion E. * The female migrates out of the anus to release the eggs 336. In hookworm infection, what is the mode of transmission? A. B. C. D. E. 337. A. B. C. D. E. sexual ingestion contaminated crabs ingestion contaminated snail by blood * penetration of skin by larva In onchocerciasis, damage to human eyes results from host responses to: L1 larvae, L2 larvae, L3 larvae, L4 larvae, * Adults 338. Indicate the diseases, which can’t be treated by drugs: A. B. C. D. E. 339. A. B. C. D. E. 340. Ascariasis Enterobiasis * Cysticercosis Taeniasis solium Diphyllobotriasis Indicate the invasive stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans: rhabditiform larva egg * filariform larva cercariae metacercariae Indicate the localization of adult worm of Trichinella spiralis in human A. B. C. D. E. * small intestine large intestine striated muscles lungs liver Indicate the localization of Trichinella spiralis larva’s in human 341. A. B. C. D. E. small intestine large intestine * striated muscles lungs liver 342. Indicate the organs of localization of Wuchereria bancrofti: A. B. C. D. E. 343. A. B. C. D. E. 344. A. B. skin striated muscle cells liver * lymph nodes blood Methods used for diagnosing trichinosis of human include: fecal exams blood films tissue biopsy immunological tests * tissue biopsy and immunological tests Nematode worms share all of the following features except use of fluid in the body cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton. use of the outer covering as a respiratory surface. 345. 346. 347. 348. 349. 350. 351. 352. 353. C. * presence of a closed circulatory system D. presence of an alimentary canal. E. parasitic lifestyles in some species Nematodes.. A. are only hermaphrodites B. have three tissue layers C. are only male or female D. only exist as parasites E. * Correct B and C Organisms in which of the following phyla includes the roundworms? A. Annelida B. Arthropoda C. * Nematoda D. Platyhelminthes E. None of the above The anus of the nematode is found.. A. nematodes don’t have an anus, only a mouth B. in the front C. in the back D. * in the middle E. No correct answer The following statements about Enterobius vermicularis are true: A. It has a whip-like anterior portion B. The eggs can be easily seen in feces C. Has an elongated whip like anterior portion D. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). E. * Causes pruritus anis and sleeplessness in children The following statements about Enterobius vermicularis are true: A. It has a whip-like anterior portion B. The eggs can be easily seen in feces C. Has an elongated whip like anterior portion D. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). E. * Adults are less susceptible to pinworm infections than children The General Characteristics of Nematodes are: A. flatworms B. hermaphrodites C. * with unsegmented bodies D. Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker. E. The life cycle is passed in two hosts The General Characteristics of Nematodes are: A. flatworms B. hermaphrodites C. * the sexes are separated D. Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker. E. The life cycle is passed in two hosts The General Characteristics of Nematodes are: A. flatworms B. hermaphrodites C. * complete digestive tract including mouth and anus. D. Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker. E. The life cycle is passed in two hosts The General Characteristics of Nematodes are: A. B. C. D. E. 354. A. B. C. D. E. 355. A. B. C. D. E. 356. A. B. C. D. E. 357. A. B. C. D. E. 358. A. B. C. D. E. 359. A. B. C. D. E. 360. flatworms hermaphrodites * he body is covered with a noncellular, highly resistant coating called a cuticle Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker. The life cycle is passed in two hosts The life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides: is direct * requires one host requires two intermediate hosts requires one or more paratenic hosts requires a mosquito intermediate host The life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides: * is direct requires one intermediate host, requires two intermediate hosts, requires one or more paratenic hosts, requires a mosquito intermediate host The life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides: * Does not have intermediate host requires one intermediate host requires two intermediate hosts requires one or more paratenic hosts requires a mosquito intermediate host The opening of the female reproductive system is called the: cloaca vulva * uterus amphid phasmid The opening of the female reproductive system is called the: cloaca * vulva uterus amphid phasmid The stage of Wuchereria bancrofti that is ingested by the mosquito is: L1, L2, * microfilaria, L3, “A and C” The uteri of Ascaris lumbricoides are located in between __________ A. B. C. D. E. Pharynx and oesophagus * ovaries and oviducts ovaries and vagina none of above ovaries and kidney These nematodes invade the human body when filariform larvae penetrate the 361. skin. A. Trichuris trichiura B. * Necator americanus C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Trichinella spiralis 362. These nematodes invade the human body when filariform larvae penetrate the skin. A. Trichuris trichiura B. * Ancylostoma duodenale C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Trichinella spiralis 363. These nematodes invade the human body when filariform larvae penetrate the skin. A. Trichuris trichiura B. * Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Trichinella spiralis 364. Trichinella is: A. * Pork-infestation B. Elephantiasis C. Sushi worm D. Pin worm E. Hook worm 365. Trichinella spiralis is: A. * Pork-infestation B. Elephantiasis C. Sushi worm D. Pin worm E. Hook worm 366. Trichuris trichiura adult: A. * Has an elongated whip like anterior portion B. about 1 cm in length C. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). D. female about 25-40 cm in length E. d. Has 3-5 mm in length 367. Trichuris trichiura adult: A. * Lives in cecum B. about 1 cm in length C. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). D. female about 25-40 cm in length E. d. Has 3-5 mm in length 368. Trichuris trichiura adult: A. * Lives in the large intestine B. about 1 cm in length C. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). D. female about 25-40 cm in length E. d. Has 3-5 mm in length 369. What best describes Nematodes? A. They are flat, segmented worms B. They are flat, unsegmented worms C. * They are round, unsegmented worms D. They are round, segmented worms E. All of these 370. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of ascariasis? A. B. C. D. E. 371. A. B. C. D. E. 372. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears Microscopy of patient’s liver cells * Microscopy of patient’s faeces Serologic test, muscle biopsy Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of dracunculiasis? Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night Microscopy of patient’s liver cells Biopsy of the affected skin Serologic test, muscle biopsy * Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of filariasis? A. B. C. D. E. 373. * Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night Microscopy of patient’s liver cells Biopsy of the affected skin Serologic test, muscle biopsy Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of onchocerciasis? A. B. C. D. E. 374. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night Microscopy of patient’s liver cells * Biopsy of the affected skin Serologic test, muscle biopsy Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichinosis? A. B. C. D. E. 375. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears Microscopy of patient’s liver cells Microscopy of patient’s faeces * Serologic test, muscle biopsy Microscopy of patient’s sputum What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichuriasis? A. B. C. D. E. 376. A. B. C. D. E. 377. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears Microscopy of patient’s liver cells * Microscopy of patient’s faeces Serologic test, muscle biopsy Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid What is definitive host of Toxocara canis: pig cat human being snail * dog What is definitive host of Toxocara canis: A. B. C. D. E. 378. A. B. C. D. pig cat human being snail * non correct answer What is false about Trichinella spiralis? * The infective stage for man is the egg The infective stage for man is the larva Mode of transmission: alimentary The larva is enclosed in a fibrous cyst localized within muscle cells 379. E. small intestine (adult worms) and striated muscles (larvae). What is false about Trichinella spiralis? A. * The larva has a perienteric cycle B. The infective stage for man is the larva C. Mode of transmission: alimentary D. The larva is enclosed in a fibrous cyst localized within muscle cells E. Localisation: small intestine (adult worms) and striated muscles (larvae). 380. What is infective stage for human in life cycle of Enterobius vermicularis? A. B. C. D. E. 381. A. B. C. D. E. 382. What is prevention of filariasis? A. B. C. D. E. 383. filtering or boiling of drinking water control of the deer fly by insecticides washing hands before meals * control of the mosquito by insecticides wearing shoes What is prevention of filariasis? A. B. C. D. E. 384. A. B. C. D. E. 385. A. B. C. D. E. 386. filtering or boiling of drinking water control of the deer fly by insecticides washing hands before meals * non correct answer wearing shoes What is prevention of loiasis? filtering or boiling of drinking water * control of the deer fly by insecticides washing hands before meals control of the mosquito by insecticides wearing shoes What is prevention of onchocerciasis? filtering or boiling of drinking water control of the deer fly by insecticides washing hands before meals control of the mosquito by insecticides * control of the black fly by insecticides What is prevention of strongyloidiasis? A. B. C. D. E. 387. miracidium cercaria redia * an egg cystisercus What is prevention of dracunculiasis? * filtering or boiling of drinking water control of the deer fly by insecticides washing hands before meals wearing shoes properly cooking pork filtering or boiling of drinking water control of the deer fly by insecticides washing hands before meals control of the mosquito by insecticides * wearing shoes What is prevention of trichinosis? A. filtering or boiling of drinking water B. control of the deer fly by insecticides C. washing hands before meals D. * properly cooking pork E. wearing shoes 388. What is prevention of visceral larva migrans? A. B. C. D. E. 389. A. B. C. D. E. 390. A. B. C. D. E. 391. A. B. C. D. E. 392. A. B. C. D. E. 393. A. B. C. D. E. 394. A. B. C. D. E. 395. A. B. C. D. E. 396. A. filtering or boiling of drinking water control of the deer fly by insecticides wearing shoes properly cooking pork * washing hands before meals What is the best describes Nematodes? They are flat, segmented worms They are flat, unsegmented worms * They are round, unsegmented worms They are round, segmented worms All of these what is the biological vectors of Loa loa? mosquito blackfly a water strider a crustacean * deer fly what is the biological vectors of Loa loa? mosquito blackfly a water strider a crustacean * non correct answer what is the biological vectors of Onchocerciasis? mosquito * blackfly a water strider a crustacean deer fly what is the biological vectors of Wuchereria bancrofti? * mosquito blackfly a water strider a crustacean deer fly what is the causative agent of elephantiasis? Ascaris Necator Haemonchus Dictyocaulus * Wucheraria what is the causative agent of elephantiasis? Ascaris Necator Haemonchus Dictyocaulus * non correct answer What is the cause of filariasis: Dracunculus medinensis 397. B. * Wuchereria bancrofti C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Toxocara canis What is the cause of river blindness: A. Dracunculus medinensis B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. * Onchocerca volvulus D. Toxocara canis E. Loa loa 398. What is the diagnostic stage of Trichuris trichiura? A. B. C. D. E. 399. cystisercus oncosphere redia * an egg gravid proglottid What is the diagnostic stage of Trichuris trichiura? A. B. C. D. E. 400. cystisercus oncosphere redia * non correct answer gravid proglottid what is the mode of transmission for hookworm infection? A. B. C. D. E. 401. sexual ingestion contaminated crabs ingestion contaminated snail by blood * penetration of skin by larva What is the mode of transmission in strongyloidiasis? A. B. C. D. E. 402. sexual ingestion contaminated crabs ingestion contaminated snail by blood * penetration of skin by larva What is the mode of transmission in strongyloidiasis? A. B. C. D. E. 403. sexual ingestion contaminated crabs ingestion contaminated snail by blood * penetration of skin by larva What is the mode of transmission of Trichinella spiralis in human? A. B. C. D. E. * ingestion contaminated pork ingestion contaminated crabs ingestion contaminated snail ingestion contaminated beef penetration of skin by larva 404. What is the organ through over the Ascaris lumbricoides does not migrate? A. B. C. D. E. 405. lung * brain liver heart blood What is true about Ascaris lumbricoides? A. Adult worms about 1 cm in length; B. C. D. E. 406. A. B. C. D. E. 407. A. B. C. D. E. 408. A. B. C. D. E. 409. A. B. C. D. E. 410. A. B. C. D. E. 411. A. B. C. D. E. 412. A. B. C. D. E. 413. A. B. C. D. E. * It is the largest intestinal nematode larvae penetrate the skin The eggs are embrionated when they are passed in the stools Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). What is true about Ascaris lumbricoides? Adult worms about 1 cm in length; * Its eggs have a smooth and a roughly tuberculated outer shell larvae penetrate the skin The eggs are embrionated when they are passed in the stools Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). What is true about Ascaris lumbricoides? Adult worms about 1 cm in length; * The eggs can remain viable for years in proper soil larvae penetrate the skin The eggs are embrionated when they are passed in the stools Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). what is true about Enterobius vermicularis? Normally inhabits the small intestine The male is bigger than female Has an elongated whip like anterior portion It has a whip-like anterior portion * Occasionally invades the female genitourinary system what is true about life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides? is direct * requires one host requires two intermediate hosts requires one or more paratenic hosts requires a mosquito intermediate host what is true about life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides? * Does not have intermediate host requires one intermediate host requires two intermediate hosts requires one or more paratenic hosts requires a mosquito intermediate host what is true about Nematodes? are only hermaphrodites have three tissue layers are only male or female only exist as parasites * Correct B and C what is true about Trichuris trichiura adult? * Lives in cecum about 1 cm in length Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). female about 25-40 cm in length d. Has 3-5 mm in length what is true about Trichuris trichiura? * Lives in cecum about 1 cm in length Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). female about 25-40 cm in length d. Has 3-5 mm in length 414. A. B. C. D. E. 415. A. B. C. D. E. 416. A. B. C. D. E. 417. What is true about Trichuris trichiura? * Light infections with these parasites are often asymptomatic Rectal prolapse is a frequent complication Adult worms about 1 cm in length larvae penetrate the skin Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). What is true about Trichuris trichiura? * They can cause appendicitis Rectal prolapse is a frequent complication Adult worms about 1 cm in length larvae penetrate the skin Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). What is true about Trichuris trichiura? * Heavy infections are accompanied by abdominal pain and diarrhea Rectal prolapse is a frequent complication Adult worms about 1 cm in length larvae penetrate the skin Localisation: striated muscles (larvae). What species of Nematodes is biohelminth? A. B. C. D. E. 418. * Trichinella spiralis Ancylostoma duodenale Strongyloides stercoralis Necator americanus Ascaris lumbricoides What species of Nematodes is biohelminth? A. B. C. D. E. 419. A. B. C. D. E. 420. A. B. C. D. E. 421. A. B. C. D. E. 422. A. B. C. * non correct answer Ancylostoma duodenale Strongyloides stercoralis Necator americanus Ascaris lumbricoides What species of parasites are most often involved in visceral larva migrans? Fasciola hepatica Enterobius vermicularis Dyphyllobotrium latum * Toxocara canis Paragonimus westermani What species of parasites are most often involved in visceral larva migrans? Fasciola hepatica Enterobius vermicularis Dyphyllobotrium latum * Loa loa Paragonimus westermani What types of disturbances can appear in trichinelosis? Diarrhea Muscle injury * All of these Toxemia eosinophilia What types of disturbances can not appear in trichinelosis? Diarrhea Muscle injury * Sleeping sickness 423. 424. 425. 426. 427. 428. 429. 430. 431. D. Toxemia E. eosinophilia ?Where are Nematodes found? A. * In soil B. In fresh water C. In salt water D. All of the above E. In air Where do the adults of Brugia malayi live? A. in the small intestine B. in the large intestine C. * in the lymph nodes D. in the liver E. in the heart Where do the adults of Wuchereria bancrofti live? A. in the small intestine B. in the large intestine C. * in the lymph nodes D. in the liver E. in the heart where is found the anus of the nematode ? A. nematodes don’t have an anus, only a mouth B. in the front C. in the back D. * in the middle E. No correct answer Which is the way of transmission in case of Ascaris lumbricoides? A. * Fecal-oral transmission B. Penetrating the skin C. Aerial transmission D. through infected syringes E. alimentary Which is the way of transmission in case of Enterobius vermicularis? A. * A. Fecal-oral transmission B. B. Penetrating the skin C. C. Aerial transmission D. D. through infected syringes E. E. alimentary Which is the way of transmission in case of Trichinella spiralis? A. Fecal-oral transmission B. Penetrating the skin C. Aerial transmission D. through infected syringes E. * alimentary Which is the way of transmission in case of Trichuris trichiuria? A. * Fecal-oral transmission B. Penetrating the skin C. Aerial transmission D. through infected syringes E. alimentary Which is the way of transmission in case of Ancylostoma duodenale? A. Fecal-oral transmission B. C. D. E. 432. A. B. C. D. E. 433. A. B. C. D. E. 434. A. B. C. D. E. 435. A. B. C. D. E. * Penetrating the skin Aerial transmission through infected syringes alimentary Which is the way of transmission in case of Necator americanus? Fecal-oral transmission * Penetrating the skin Aerial transmission through infected syringes alimentary Which is the way of transmission in case of Strongyloides stercoralis? Fecal-oral transmission * Penetrating the skin Aerial transmission through infected syringes alimentary which methods used for diagnosing trichinosis fecal exams blood films tissue biopsy immunological tests * tissue biopsy and immunological tests Which of the eggs have a smooth and a roughly tuberculated outer shell? The eggs of Taenia solium The eggs of Ancylostoma duodenale * The eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides The eggs of Fasciola hepatica The eggs Strongyloides stercoralis 436. Which of the female tissue nematodes release larvae into fresh water: A. B. C. D. E. * Dracunculus medinensis Wuchereria bancrofti Onchocerca volvulus Toxocara canis Loa loa 437. Which of the following BEST describes the appearance of adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms? A. Whitish-yellow; female 7-14 mm; male 2-4 mm B. Grayish-white to pink; female 9-12 mm; male 5-10 mm C. Colorless, females 2mm; males have not been described. D. * Creamy-white with a pink tint, female 22-35 cm; male up to 30 cm E. All of these 438. Which of the following is a correct species name for the giant roundworm? A. * Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Trichuris trichiura E. Enterobius vermicularis 439. Which of the following is a correct species name for the guinea fire worm? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. * Dracunculus medinensis D. Trichuris trichiura 440. 441. 442. 443. E. Enterobius vermicularis Which of the following is a correct species name for the hookworm? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. * Necator americanus D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Trichuris trichiura Which of the following is a correct species name for the hookworm? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. * Ancylostoma duodenale D. Trichuris trichiura E. Enterobius vermicularis Which of the following is a correct species name for the pinworm? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Trichuris trichiura E. * Enterobius vermicularis Which of the following is a correct species name for the whipworm? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. * Trichuris trichiura E. Necator americanus 444. Which of the following is a mismatch? A. B. C. D. E. * Ascariasis – Trematode infection Taeniasis – Cestoede infection Enterobiasis - Nematode infection Malaria - Protozoan infection Elephantiasis - Nematode infection 445. Which of the following is a mismatch? A. B. C. D. E. 446. A. B. C. D. E. 447. A. B. C. D. E. 448. A. B. C. Ascariasis – Nematode infection Taeniasis – Cestoede infection Enterobiasis - Nematode infection Malaria - Protozoan infection * Elephantiasis - Trematode infection Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Nematoda: bilateral symmetry sexual dimorphism pseudocoelomate * body segmentation 5 stages in life history Which of the larvae can penetrate the skin? The larva of Echinococcus granulosus The rhabditoid larva of Ancylostoma duodenale * The filariform larva of Ancylostoma duodenale The larva of Trichinella spiralis The larva Ascaris lumbricoides Which of the larvae can penetrate the skin? The larva of Echinococcus granulosus The rhabditoid larva of Ancylostoma duodenale * The filariform larva of Strongyloides stercoralis 449. 450. 451. 452. 453. D. The larva of Trichinella spiralis E. The larva Ascaris lumbricoides Which of the larvae can penetrate the skin? A. The larva of Echinococcus granulosus B. The rhabditoid larva of Ancylostoma duodenale C. * The filariform larva of Necator americanus D. The larva of Trichinella spiralis E. The larva Ascaris lumbricoides Which of the parasites are hookworms? A. Paragonimus westermani B. * Ancylostoma duodenale C. Dyphillobotrium latum D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Strongyloides stercoralis Which of the parasites are pinworms? A. Paragonimus westermani B. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Dyphillobotrium latum D. * Enterobius vermicularis E. Strongyloides stercoralis Which of the parasites are whipworm? A. Paragonimus westermani B. Ancylostoma duodenale C. * Trichuris trichiuria D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Strongyloides stercoralis Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of blackflies: A. Dracunculus medinensis B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. * Onchocerca volvulus D. Toxocara canis E. Loa loa 454. Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of deer fly (Chrysops): A. B. C. D. E. 455. Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of mosquito: A. B. C. D. E. 456. Dracunculus medinensis * Wuchereria bancrofti Onchocerca volvulus Toxocara canis Loa loa Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by ingestion of copepods? A. B. C. D. E. 457. * Dracunculus medinensis Wuchereria bancrofti Onchocerca volvulus Toxocara canis Loa loa * Dracunculus medinensis Wuchereria bancrofti Onchocerca volvulus Toxocara canis Loa loa Which of the tissue nematodes cause Calabar Swelling? A. Dracunculus medinensis B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. * Loa loa D. Onchocerca volvulus E. Toxocara canis 458. Which of the tissue nematodes cause visceral larva migrans A. B. C. D. E. 459. A. B. C. D. E. 460. A. B. C. D. E. 461. A. B. C. D. E. 462. A. B. C. D. E. 463. A. B. C. D. E. 464. A. B. C. D. E. 465. A. B. C. D. E. 466. Dracunculus medinensis Wuchereria bancrofti Onchocerca volvulus * Toxocara canis Loa loa Which of the tissue nematodes does cause elephantiasis? Dracunculus medinensis * Wuchereria bancrofti Onchocerca volvulus Toxocara canis Loa loa Which species of Nematoda produces an operculated egg? * Trichuris trichiura Ascaris lumbricoides Ancylostome duodenale Strongyloides stercoralis Enterobius vermicularis Which stage of Ancylostoma duodenale is invasive for humans? an egg * filariform larva rhabditiform larva adult worm encapsulated larva Wuchereria Bancrofti is: Pork-infestation * Elephantiasis Sushi worm Pin worm Hook worm A member of mites is Ornithodorus papillipes Dermacentor pictus Pediculus humanus capitis Ixodes persulcatus * Sarcoptes scabiei ?Aedes sp. of mosquito deposit eggs in: moist soil flowing water bodies * stagnant water fresh water all of these Anopheles mosquito spread * malaria Lyme disease Filaria Sleeping sickness Plague Arachnids have _________ pairs of legs. A. B. C. D. E. 467. A. B. C. D. E. 468. A. B. C. D. E. 469. A. B. C. D. E. 470. A. B. C. D. E. 471. A. B. C. D. E. 472. A. B. C. D. E. 473. A. B. C. D. E. 474. A. B. C. D. * four three six eight two At which stage of development would an insect be enclosed in a cocoon? egg larva nymph * pupa all of the above Chitin can be found in: glandular tissue the muscle tissue of vertebrates epithelial tissue of humans * exoskeleton of animals such as cockroaches and crabs. non of the above Crustaceans have _________ pairs of antennas. four three one eight * two Culex mosquito spread malaria Lyme disease * Filaria Sleeping sickness Plague Culex mosquito spread malaria Lyme disease * Wuchereria bancrofti Sleeping sickness Plague Egg of what parasite is on this picture? * Mosquito Anopheles Mosquito Culex Pulex irritans Ixodes ricinus Ornithodorus papillipes Fleas spreads: malaria Lyme disease Chagas disease Sleeping sickness * Plague Fleas , bedbugs, and beetles are considered what? * destructive or harmful insects good pets great insects for the garden funny and entertaining E. Non of the above 475. Fused cephalotorax and abdomen has A. * mites and ticks B. bees C. scorpions D. spiders E. All of the above 476. Glossina palpalis spread: A. malaria B. Lyme disease C. Chagas disease D. * Sleeping sickness E. Plague 477. Having chelicerae, a body divided into an anterior cephalothorax and posterior abdomen, and book lungs is characteristic of: A. * No correct answer B. insects C. millipedes D. crustaceans E. trilobites 478. Having chelicerae, a body divided into an anterior cephalothorax and posterior abdomen, and book lungs is characteristic of: A. * arachnids B. insects C. millipedes D. crustaceans E. trilobites 479. Haw is the immature stage of insects with wimple metamorphosis is often called? A. chrysalis B. larva C. naupilus D. * pupa E. nymph 480. Haw is the last segment of scorpions cold? A. chelicerae B. pedipalps C. mandibles D. maxillae E. * telsons 481. Haw is the molting process in arthropods cold? A. ecdysis B. tagmatization C. * metamorphosis D. paedomorphosis E. cephalization 482. How many body parts does an insect have? A. four B. * three C. six D. eight E. two 483. How many legs does an insect have? A. B. C. D. E. 484. A. B. C. D. E. 485. A. B. C. D. E. 486. A. B. C. D. E. 487. A. B. C. D. E. 488. A. B. C. D. E. 489. A. B. C. D. E. 490. A. B. C. D. E. 491. A. B. C. four two three * six eight how many pairs of antennas Insects have? four three * one eight two How many pairs of legs does an insect have? four * three six eight two Indicate medical importance of Cyclops * A Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum) and Dracunculus medinensis Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani) Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata) Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) Non of the above Indicate mode by which bloodsucking flies transmit diseases. Indirect mechanical Direct mechanical Biologic Hereditary * Both B and C Indicate mode by which nonbloodsucking flies transmit diseases. * Indirect mechanical Direct mechanical Biologic Hereditary All of the above Indicate the medically important orders of Class Insecta: Anoplura Hemiptera Diptera Siphonaptera * All of the above Indicate the place of spider’s poisonous glands location distal end of pedipalp * close to base of chelicerae the last segment of the abdomen the middle segment of abdomen All of the above Indicate the representatives of Order Hemiptera * Bugs Fleas Ants 492. 493. 494. 495. 496. 497. 498. 499. 500. D. Mosquitoes E. Lice Insects have _________ pairs of antennas. A. four B. three C. * one D. eight E. two Insects can be classified by _______. A. looking at their eyes B. * looking at their wings C. their flying patterns D. what they eat E. their behaviors Ixodes ricinus spread: A. malaria B. * Lyme disease C. Chagas disease D. Sleeping sickness E. Plague Ixodes ricinus spread: A. malaria B. * Viral diseases C. Chagas disease D. Sleeping sickness E. Plague Kissing bugs spread A. malaria B. Lyme disease C. * Chagas disease D. Sleeping sickness E. Plague Lyme disease is transmitted by: A. Kissing bugs. B. * Ixodes ricinus C. Mosquito Culex.. D. Mosquito Anopheles. E. Houseflies. Malaria is transmitted by: A. * female Anopheles B. Culex C. female Anopheles D. Housefly E. Kissing bugs Malaria is transmitted by: A. * Anopheles B. Culex C. Aedes D. Housefly E. Kissing bugs Members of the arachnid class A. crabs B. C. D. E. 501. A. B. C. D. E. 502. A. B. C. D. E. 503. A. B. C. D. E. 504. A. B. C. D. E. 505. A. B. C. D. E. 506. A. B. C. D. E. 507. A. B. C. D. E. 508. A. B. C. D. E. * brown recluse mollusks (clams) crustacea mosquito Members of the arachnid class crabs * itch mite house fly fruit fly mosquito Members of the arachnid class Black fly * Ixodes persulcatus Pediculus humanus capitis Mosquito Anopheles Glossina palpalis Members of the arachnid class * Ixodes ricinus Musca domestica Pediculus humanus capitis Pediculus humanus humanus Black fly Members of the arachnid class Musca domestica Black fly Pediculus humanus capitis sandfly * Ornithodorus papillipes Members of the arachnid class Musca domestica Black fly Pediculus humanus capitis sandfly * Sarcoptes scabiei Members of the arachnid class Musca domestica Black fly * Desmodex folliculorum sandfly Pediculus humanus capitis Members of the arachnid class crabs fruit fly house fly v * hard-bodied ticks mosquito Members of the arachnid class * tarantula crabs mollusks (clams) fruit fly mosquito 509. A. B. C. D. E. 510. A. B. C. D. E. 511. A. B. C. D. E. 512. A. B. C. D. E. 513. A. B. C. D. E. 514. A. B. C. D. E. 515. A. B. C. D. E. 516. A. B. C. D. E. 517. A. B. C. Members of the arachnid class crabs * black widow mollusks (clams) fruit fly mosquito Members of the Hard -bodied ticks Ornithodorus papillipes Desmodex folliculorum Pediculus humanus capitis Sarcoptes scabiei * Dermacentor pictus Members of the Hard -bodied ticks * Ixodes ricinus Desmodex folliculorum Pediculus humanus capitis Sarcoptes scabiei Ornithodorus papillipes Members of the Hard -bodied ticks * Ixodes persulcatus Desmodex folliculorum Pediculus humanus capitis Sarcoptes scabiei Sarcoptes scabiei Members of the insects class * mosquito itch mite crayfishes hard-bodied ticks soft-bodied ticks Members of the insects class crayfishes itch mite * house fly hard-bodied ticks soft-bodied ticks Members of the insects class hard-bodied ticks itch mite crayfishes * fleas soft-bodied ticks Members of the insects class hard-bodied ticks itch mite * lice crayfishes soft-bodied ticks Members of the insects class hard-bodied ticks itch mite * bugs 518. 519. 520. 521. 522. 523. 524. 525. 526. D. crayfishes E. soft-bodied ticks Members of the insects class A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes persulcatus C. * Pediculus humanus capitis D. Sarcoptes scabiei E. Ornithodorus papillipes Members of the insects class A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes persulcatus C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. * Pediculus humanus humanus E. Ornithodorus papillipes Members of the insects class A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes persulcatus C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Sarcoptes scabiei E. * Musca domestica Members of the insects class A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes persulcatus C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Ornithodorus papillipes E. * Deer fly Members of the insects class A. Ixodes ricinus B. * Black fly C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Ornithodorus papillipes E. Ixodes persulcatus Members of the insects class A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes persulcatus C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Ornithodorus papillipes E. * Glossina palpalis Members of the Soft bodied ticks A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes persulcatus C. Pediculus humanus capitis D. Sarcoptes scabiei E. * Ornithodorus papillipes Name characteristics that are not shared by all arthropods A. Arthropods have jointed appendages B. The arthropod body is segmented C. Arthropods have an exoskeleton D. Arthropods have a ventral nervous system, an open circulatory system, a digestive system, and specialized sensory receptors E. * Arthropods flatted dorsoventrally Name modes by which arthropods transmit disease A. B. C. D. E. 527. A. B. C. D. E. 528. A. B. C. D. E. 529. A. B. C. D. E. 530. A. B. C. D. E. 531. A. B. C. D. E. 532. A. B. C. D. E. 533. A. B. C. D. E. 534. A. B. C. D. indirect mechanical direct mechanical biologic hereditary * all of the above Name stages of Musca domestica development egg-larva-nymph * egg-larva-pupa-adult egg-pupa-adult egg-adult larva-egg-adult Plague is transmitted by: Kissing bugs. * Rat flea Mosquito Culex.. Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. Prawn belongs to: * Arthropoda Annelida Coelenterata Echinodermata No correct answer Rat flea spread: malaria Lyme disease Chagas disease Sleeping sickness * Plague Sleeping sickness is transmitted by: Kissing bugs. * tse-tse fly Mosquito Culex.. Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by: Kissing bugs. * Glossina palpalis Mosquito Culex.. Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. The _____________ goes through a complete metamorphosis mites lice * tsetse flies spiders ticks The _____________ goes through a complete metamorphosis. mites ticks spiders * mosquitoes 535. 536. 537. 538. 539. 540. 541. 542. 543. E. lice The _____________ goes through a complete metamorphosis. A. mites B. ticks C. spiders D. * fleas E. lice 1. The _____________ goes through incomplete metamorphosis. A. mites B. lice C. spiders D. ticks E. * All of the above The _____________ goes through incomplete metamorphosis. A. mosquitoes B. bugs C. fleas D. flies E. * lices The _____________ goes through incomplete metamorphosis. A. mosquitoes B. * ticks C. bugs D. fleas E. flies The body parts of an insect include _______. A. head B. thorax C. head D. * all of the above choices E. non of the above The foremost appendages on spiders are A. pedipalps B. maxillae C. antennae D. * chelicerae E. mandibles The foremost appendages on spiders are A. pedipalps B. maxillae C. antennae D. * no correct answer E. mandibles The foremost appendages on spiders are A. pedipalps B. maxillae C. antennae D. * chelicerae E. mandibles The largest group of arthropods is the: A. arachnids B. crustaceans 544. 545. 546. 547. 548. 549. 550. 551. 552. C. * insects D. millipedes E. centipedes The largest group of arthropods is the: A. arachnids B. crustaceans C. * insects D. millipedes E. centipedes The last segment of scorpion is: A. chelicerae B. pedipalps C. mandibles D. maxillae E. * telsons The member of the mites is A. Ornithodorus papillipes B. * Desmodex folliculorum C. Pediculus humanus capitis D. Ixodes persulcatus E. Dermacentor pictus The members of the arachnid class are: A. crabs B. fruit fly C. * soft-bodied ticks D. house fly E. mosquito The members of the crustacean class are A. mosquito B. itch mite C. * crayfishes D. crayfishes E. house fly The members of the crustacean class are A. * crabs B. itch mite C. house fly D. fruit fly E. mosquito The members of the crustacean class are A. mosquito B. itch mite C. house fly D. fruit fly E. * Cyclops The scorpion pincers are modified A. chelicerae B. * pedipalps C. mandibles D. maxillae E. telsons The scorpion pincers are modified A. B. C. D. E. 553. A. B. C. D. E. 554. A. B. C. D. E. 555. A. B. C. D. E. 556. A. B. C. D. E. 557. A. B. C. D. E. 558. A. B. C. D. E. 559. A. B. C. D. E. 560. A. B. C. chelicerae * pedipalps mandibles maxillae telsons Tsetse fly spread: malaria Lyme disease Chagas disease * Sleeping sickness Plague what are the foremost appendages on spiders? pedipalps maxillae antennae * no correct answer mandibles what are the members of the Arachnid class? crabs fruit fly * soft-bodied ticks house fly mosquito what are the members of the Arachnid class? crabs fruit fly * soft-bodied ticks house fly mosquito What are the three stages of incomplete metamorphosis? egg, larva, pupa egg, nymph, pupa * egg, nymph, adult egg, pupa, adult nymph, pupa, adult what is a member of mites? Ornithodorus papillipes Dermacentor pictus Pediculus humanus capitis Ixodes persulcatus * Sarcoptes scabiei What is a myiasis? Myiasis – infestation by larvae of flies * Myiasis – invasion or infestation of man’s body and/or tissues by Diptera larvae. Myiasis – infestation by larvae of mosquitoes Myiasis – invasion of man’s body by representatives of Order Anoplura All of the above 1. What is medical importance of body louse causative agent of myiasis vector of tularemia vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestisv 561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. 567. 568. D. * causative agent of pediculosis E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan 1. What is medical importance of head louse A. causative agent of myiasis B. temporary ectoparasite C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis D. * causative agent of pediculosis E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan What is medical importance of lice A. causative agents of myiasis B. mechanical vectors of helminthes C. vectors of plague caused by Yersinia pestis D. * causative agents of pediculosis E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan 1. What is medical importance of Musca domestica A. causative agent of scabies B. * mechanical vector of protozoan and helminthes C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis D. causative agent of pediculosis E. vector of encephalitis What is medical importance of Musca domestica A. causative agent of scabies B. * causative agent of accidental myiasis C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis D. causative agent of pediculosis E. vector of encephalitis What is medical importance of crabs A. Crabs are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum) and Dracunculus medinensis. B. * Crabs are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani) C. Crabs are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata) D. Crabs are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) E. All of the above What is pediculosis ? A. Pediculosis – skin disease caused by being infested with ticks. B. * Pediculosis – heavy infestation of hair with lice (Pediculus humanus capitis). C. Pediculosis – skin disease caused by being infested with fleas. D. Pediculosis – skin disease caused by being infested with itch mites E. All of the above What is prevention of pediculosis A. cleanliness and sweeping of dust from floor and carpets B. * regular body washing with simultaneous change of linen, personal hygiene C. involves protection from reduviid bite D. involves protection from mosquito bite E. mosquito nets What is the difference between simple and complete metamorphosis? A. Simple metamorphosis. 3 stages: egg-nymph.- adult. During the nymph stage, the developing organism undergoes a series of molts. B. Complete metamorphosis. 4 stages. Egg- nymph- pupa- adult C. Complete metamorphosis, the pupa, is required for the organism to accomplish the profound physiologic and structural changes between the larva and adult forms. 569. 570. 571. 572. 573. 574. 575. 576. 577. D. * All of the above What is the largest group of arthropods: A. arachnids B. crustaceans C. * insects D. millipedes E. centipedes what is the largest group of arthropods? A. arachnids B. crustaceans C. * insects D. millipedes E. centipedes What is the medical importance of bed bug A. permanent ectoparsite B. * temporary ectoparasite C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis D. causative agent of pediculosis E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan what is the medical importance of Cyclops? A. * intermediate hosts of Dracunculus medinensis B. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani) C. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata) D. Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) E. Non of the above what is the medical importance of Cyclops? A. * A Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum) and Dracunculus medinensis B. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani) C. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata) D. Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) E. Non of the above what is the medical importance of Cyclops? A. * intermediate hosts of Diphyllobothrium latum B. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani) C. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata) D. Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) E. Non of the above Members of the arachnid class A. * tarantula B. crabs C. mollusks (clams) D. fruit fly E. mosquito what is the member of the Arachnid class? A. * Ixodes ricinus B. Musca domestica C. Pediculus humanus capitis D. Pediculus humanus humanus E. Black fly what is the member of the Arachnid class? A. Black fly B. C. D. E. 578. A. B. C. D. E. 579. A. B. C. D. E. 580. A. B. C. D. E. 581. A. B. C. D. E. 582. A. B. C. D. E. 583. A. B. C. D. E. 584. A. B. C. D. E. 585. A. B. C. D. E. * Ixodes persulcatus Pediculus humanus capitis Mosquito Anopheles Glossina palpalis what is the member of the Hard -bodied ticks? * Ixodes persulcatus Desmodex folliculorum Pediculus humanus capitis Sarcoptes scabiei Sarcoptes scabiei what is the member of the insects class? crayfishes itch mite * house fly hard-bodied ticks soft-bodied ticks what is the member of the mites? Ornithodorus papillipes * Desmodex folliculorum Pediculus humanus capitis Ixodes persulcatus Dermacentor pictus what is the member of the Soft bodied ticks? Ixodes ricinus Ixodes persulcatus Pediculus humanus capitis Sarcoptes scabiei * Ornithodorus papillipes what is the members of the Arachnid class? Musca domestica Black fly * Desmodex folliculorum sandfly Pediculus humanus capitis What is the name of the last segment of scorpion: chelicerae pedipalps mandibles maxillae * telsons What is the vector for Leishmania species? * Phelebotomus Black fly Buffalo gnat Deer fly Mosquito Anopheles What is the vector for Leishmania species? * Sandfly Black fly Buffalo gnat Deer fly Mosquito Anopheles 586. A. B. C. D. E. 587. A. B. C. D. E. 588. A. B. C. D. E. 589. A. B. C. D. E. 590. A. B. C. D. E. 591. A. B. C. D. E. 592. A. B. C. D. E. 593. A. B. C. D. E. 594. A. B. C. What is the vector of Chagas’ disease Glossina palpalis * bug species of family Triatomidae sandfly of genus Phlebotomus deer fly (Chrysops) mosquito Anopheles and Culex What is the vector of Chagas’ disease Glossina palpalis * kissing bug sandfly of genus Phlebotomus deer fly (Chrysops) mosquito Anopheles and Culex What of the following arthropods transmit Chagas disease: * Kissing bugs. Fleas. Lice. Mosquitoes. Houseflies. What of the following arthropods transmit Encephalitis Kissing bugs. Fleas. * Mosquito Culex.. Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. What of the following arthropods transmit Human malaria Kissing bugs. Fleas. Mosquito Culex.. * Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. What of the following arthropods transmit Lyme disease Kissing bugs. * Ixodes ricinus Mosquito Culex.. Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. What of the following arthropods transmit Rift valley fever Kissing bugs. Fleas. * Mosquito Culex.. Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. What of the following arthropods transmit Wuchereria bancrofti Kissing bugs. Fleas. * Mosquito Culex.. Mosquito Anopheles. Houseflies. What parts of the human body are usually infested by this mite? flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms armpits groin and genitals 595. 596. 597. 598. 599. 600. 601. 602. 603. D. interdigital spaces E. * *All of the above What parts of the human body are usually infested by itch mite? A. head B. face C. ears D. nose E. * Correct is absent What parts of the human body are usually not infested by itch mite? A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms B. armpits C. groin and genitals D. * head E. interdigital spaces What the place of scorpion’s poisonous glands location: A. cephalothorax B. distal end of pedipalp C. close to base of chelicerae D. * last segment of the abdomen E. All of the above where chitin can be found? A. glandular tissue B. the muscle tissue of vertebrates C. epithelial tissue of humans D. * exoskeleton of animals such as cockroaches and crabs. E. non of the above ?Which class has respiratory and circulatory systems? A. Cestoda B. Trematoda C. * Insecta D. Nematoda E. Lobosea Which class has respiratory and circulatory systems? A. Cestoda B. Trematoda C. * Arachnida D. Nematoda E. Lobosea Which class has respiratory and circulatory systems? A. Cestoda B. Trematoda C. * Cruastacea D. Nematoda E. Lobosea which disease can Anopheles mosquito spread? A. * malaria B. Lyme disease C. Filaria D. Sleeping sickness E. Plague which disease can Culex mosquito spread? A. malaria B. C. D. E. 604. A. B. C. D. E. 605. A. B. C. D. E. 606. A. B. C. D. E. 607. A. B. C. D. E. 608. A. B. C. D. E. 609. A. B. C. D. E. 610. A. B. C. D. E. 611. A. B. C. D. E. Lyme disease * Filaria Sleeping sickness Plague which disease can Fleas spread? malaria Lyme disease Chagas disease Sleeping sickness * Plague which disease can Glossina palpalis spread? malaria Lyme disease Chagas disease * Sleeping sickness Plague which disease can Ixodes ricinus spread? malaria * Lyme disease Chagas disease Sleeping sickness Plague which disease can Kissing bugs spread? malaria Lyme disease * Chagas disease Sleeping sickness Plague which disease can Rat flea spread? malaria Lyme disease Chagas disease Sleeping sickness * Plague 1. Which insect goes through incomplete metamorphosis? bee ant butterfly * grasshoppergrasshopper flea Which insects are representatives of order Anoplura termites fleas ants mosquitoes * lice Which of the following are not arthropods? * earthworms crayfish spiders butterflies both a and c 612. Which of the following are not arthropods? A. * earthworms B. crayfish C. spiders D. butterflies E. both a and c 613. ?Which of the following is not a mechanism of asexual reproduction? A. Parthenogenesis B. Fission C. Budding D. * Hermaphroditism E. Fragmentation 614. Which of the following is not an advantage of the exoskeleton in arthropods and mollusks? A. Provides protection from predators B. Provides rigid places for muscles to insert and against which they can do work C. * Enhances sensory perception D. Permits greater range of movement than body plans without a rigid skeletal structure E. All of these 615. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods? A. jointed appendages B. exoskeleton C. * coelom D. segmented body E. All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods. 616. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods? A. jointed appendages B. exoskeleton C. presence of respiratory system D. segmented body E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods. 617. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods? A. jointed appendages B. exoskeleton C. A presence of circulatory system D. segmented body E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods. 618. which order of Class Insecta has medical important? A. Anoplura B. Hemiptera C. Diptera D. Siphonaptera E. * All of the above 619. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. * flies C. fleas D. bedbugs E. crickets 620. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. C. D. E. * mosquitous fleas bedbugs crickets 621. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. * sand flies C. fleas D. bedbugs E. crickets 622. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. * Glossina palpalis C. fleas D. bedbugs E. crickets 623. ________________ development is directly correlated with the animal's mode of locomotion, agility of limb movement, and balance A. cerebrum B. cerebral cortex C. cerebral hemispheres D. * cerebellum E. medulla 624. ______________speciation occurs when members of a single population develop a genetic difference, such as a chromosomal mutation, that prevents them reproducing with the parent type. A. Allopatric B. * Sympatric C. Behavioral D. Mechanical E. Geographic 625. 1. 12 pairs of cranial nerves appeared first at A. Fishes B. Amphibians C. * Reptiles D. Birds E. Mammals 626. A biologist is trying to infer how five closely related species of snakes are related to one another. She notices that some of the snakes have forked tongues and others do not. Which of the following would help her distinguish the ancestral state? A. She looks among snake fossils for evidence that being forked is a characteristic of the ancestor of this group, but determines no such fossils exist. B. * She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked tongue. C. She looks at a representative mammal species to see if it has a forked tongue. D. She flips a coin. E. None of the above. 627. A severe winter storm kills many chickadees. An investigation comparing the body of dead birds with that of survivors reveals that the dead birds include mainly the largest and smallest members of the population. The winter storm exemplifies A. * Stabilizing selection B. Directional selection C. Balancing selection D. Kin selection E. Disruptive selection 628. A severe winter storm kills many chickadees. An investigation comparing the body of dead birds with that of survivors reveals that the dead birds include mainly the middle sised members of the population. The winter storm exemplifies A. Stabilizing selection B. Directional selection C. Balancing selection D. Kin selection E. * Disruptive selection 629. A type of selection within a population in which one extreme is selected against is A. * directional selection B. disruptive selection C. stabilizing selection D. natural selection E. both directional selection and disruptive selection 630. Agents that consistenly produce adaptive evolution include A. Genetic drift B. Mutation C. Meiosis D. * Natural selection E. Gene flow 631. All of the animals has double circulation through the heart except A. birds B. mammals C. * fish’s D. amphibian’s E. reptilians 632. All of the following observation provides evidence for evolution except: A. Dogs and trilobites are never found in the same fossil beds B. * Athletic training can produce an increase in muscle mass C. Extinctions can be documented in the fossil record D. All organisms use a common genetic code E. Plant and animal breeders can produce new breeds of crops and animals through artificial selection 633. All of the genes that occur within a specific population refers to the term A. * gene pool B. genotype C. gene marker D. genome E. selection 634. 1. Allopatric but not sympatric speciation requires A. Reproductive isolation B. * Geographic isolation C. Hybridisation first D. Spontaneous differences in males and females E. Behavioral isolation 635. An evidence of evolutionary relationships is found in ______. A. Atmosphere B. * Fossils C. ocean beds D. rocks E. All of the above 636. An evolutionary benefit of sexual reproduction is that A. * It provides a mechanism of genetic recombination B. It requires a lower level of resource investment that asexual does C. the offspring will resemble their parents genetically D. the reproductive success rates are less variable than for variable than for asexual reproduction E. all of the above 637. An example of _______ selection is the death of extremely overweight and underweight babies. A. Disruptive B. Directiona C. * Stabilizing D. Survival of the fittest E. Non of the above 638. Behavioral isolating mechanisms may occur when two species have different A. sized and shaped copulatory organs B. * courtship displays C. habitat ranges D. chemical compatibilities of their gametes E. All of these 639. Change in the frequency of alleles occurring by chance A. Natural selection B. Genetic drift C. * Mutation D. Isolation E. Polpulation 640. Changes to the nucleotide sequence within a gene can occur through which of the following? A. * Mutation B. crossing over C. independent assortment D. Mutation and crossing over E. Mutation, crossing over , independent assortment 641. Comparing chemical makeup of organisms A. Homologous structures B. Vestigial structures C. Continental drift D. * Comparative biochemistry E. Comparative embryology 642. Comparing early developmental stages of organisms A. Homologous structures B. Vestigial structures C. Continental drift D. Comparative biochemistry E. * Comparative embryology 643. 1. Darwin formulated his theory of evolution based on all of the following facts except A. most populations are stable in size B. individual organisms in a population are not alike C. all populations have the potential to increase D. natural resources are limited E. * characteristics are inherited as genes on chromosomes 644. 1. Darwin ’s mechanism of evolution by way of natural selection is based on all of the following except A. variation exists within populations B. the fittest individuals leave the most offspring C. . there is differential reproductive success within populations D. populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support E. * use or disuse of organs during one generation causes modifications of these same organs in 645. Disruptive selection, directional selection and stabilizing selection are all examples of A. genetic equilibrium B. * natural selection C. random changes in a gene pool D. speciation E. genetic drift 646. 1. DNA nucleotide differences between organisms A. indicate how closely related organisms are B. indicate that evolution occurs C. explain why there are phenotypic differences D. * all of these E. both indicate how closely related organisms are and explain why there are phenotypic differences 647. During the evolution of humans, brain size gradually increased. This is an example of A. disruptive selection B. stabilizing selection C. * stabilizing selection D. both disruptive selection and stabilizing selection E. all of these 648. 1. Evolution occurs at the level of A. the individual genotype B. the individual phenotype C. environmentally based phenotypic variation D. * the population E. Species 649. Four chambered heart has all of the animals except A. birds B. mammals C. * fish’s D. crocodilians E. fish’s and crocodilians 650. Genetic drift can be defined as the A. distribution of variations through migration B. disruption of genetic equilibrium in large populations C. changes in a gene pool due to immigration D. * disruption of genetic equilibrium in small populations E. Both distribution of variations through migration and disruption of genetic equilibrium in large populations 651. Genetic drift is: A. * a random change in gene frequencies from one generation to the next. B. a change in an allele due to alterations in the DNA molecule. C. a change in gene frequencies due to exchange of genes between different populations. D. a product of natural selection. E. all of the above 652. How many b lood circuit the amphibian’s vascular system has A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. non of the above 653. How many b lood circuit the birds vascular system has A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. non of the above 654. How many blood circuit the fish’s vascular system has A. * 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. non of the above 655. How many b lood circuit the fish’s vascular system has A. 10 B. 12 C. 2 D. 3 E. * non of the above 656. How many b lood circuit the mammals vascular system has A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. non of the above 657. How many b lood circuit the reptilians vascular system has A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. non of the above 658. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds has evolved a larger beak size? A. Large beak size occurred as a result of mutation in each member of the population. B. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They needed to develop larger beaks in order to eat the larger seeds, and over time, they adapted to meet this need. C. * Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds. D. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average sized seeds. They discovered that by stretching their beaks, the beaks would get longer, and this increase was passed on to their offspring. Over time, the bird beaks became larger. E. None of the above. 659. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of species of salamander becomes blind after colonizing a cave? A. It is possible that in the cave there is a source of pollution that increases the mutation rate for a gene that makes salamanders blind. Over time, due to exposure to this chemical, the members of the population lose their sight. B. Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see. C. * There is no way to explain this in terms of natural selection D. The members of this salamander species no longer needed to use their eyes. Over time, due to lack of use, they lost the ability to see. E. None of the above. 660. Human being belongs to the species of_____. A. Homo erectus B. Homo habillis C. * Homo sapiens D. Hominidae E. Homo neandertalensis 661. If a population becomes isolated from other populations of the same species and then genetic divergence occurs, what happens? A. Mechanical incompatibility B. Zygote mortality C. Speciation D. Extinction E. * Genetic drifts form 662. If the alleles ‘A’ and ‘a’ conform Hardy-Weinberg expectations, and if the frequency of ‘a’ is 0.3, which of the following is the most common genotype in the population A. A B. Aa C. * AA D. Aa E. a 663. Important implications of the theory of evolution by natural selection include all except: A. All organisms, including humans, are descended from a common ancestor B. The biological word is constantly evolving C. * Natural slection leads to evolutionary progress and the appearance on Earth of superior organisms D. The characteristics of organisms are molded by an imprersonal force without a goal E. Humans are just a small part of the tree of life 664. In the biological species concept the factor that defines a species is A. Geographical separation B. * Reproductive isolation C. Hybridisation D. Cladogenesis E. Its behavior 665. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p represents the frequency of the A. * dominant allele B. homozygous dominant genotype C. homozygous recessive genotype D. recessive allele E. heterozygous genotype 666. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, q represents the frequency of the A. dominant allele B. homozygous dominant genotype C. homozygous recessive genotype D. * recessive allele E. heterozygous genotype 667. In the primitive vertebrate brain which part has concerned with hearing and balance A. prosencephalon B. mesencephalon C. * rhombencephalon D. forebrain E. midbrain 668. In the primitive vertebrate brain which part has concerned with sense of smell: A. * prosencephalon B. mesencephalon C. rhombencephalon D. midbrain E. hindbrain 669. In which animal two atria heart firstly appeared? A. * frog B. chicken C. monkey D. fish E. snake 670. In which of the following animals is the blood entering the aorta incompletely oxygenated? A. * frog B. chicken C. monkey D. fish E. elephant 671. In which of the following animals the blood on ventricle is incompletely oxygenated? A. * frog B. chicken C. monkey D. fish E. fish 672. In which of the following animals the ventricle is incompletely separated? A. frog B. chicken C. monkey D. fish E. * snake 673. In which of the following ways is natural selection not analogous to artificial selection? A. * With natural selection "picking" is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder "picks" which organisms will breed. B. Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial selection does not. C. Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not. D. There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural selection, no such limit exists for artificial selection. E. None of the above. 674. 1. Inbreeding is example of A. Random mating B. * Nonrandom mating C. Assortative mating D. both Random mating and Nonrandom mating E. all of these 675. Links between organisms that show branching pattern of evolutionary relationships are shown by_____. A. living fossils B. comparative embryology C. * phylogenetic trees D. two fossil layerss E. All of the above 676. Male moths recognize females of their species by pheromones. This is an example of A. Gamete isolation B. Habitat isolation C. * Behavioral isolation D. Mechanical isolation E. Geographic isolation 677. Match the term with their meaning: exchange of genes between populations A. Gene pool B. Allele C. Allele frequency D. Genotype E. * Gene flow 678. Match the term with their meaning: The form of gene at a particular locus A. Gene pool B. * Allele C. Allele frequency D. Genotype E. Gene flow 679. Match the term with their meaning: The genetic makeup of an organism A. Gene pool B. Allele C. Allele frequency D. * Genotype E. Gene flow 680. Match the term with their meaning: the proportion of a given form of a gene in a population: A. Gene pool B. C. D. E. Allele * Allele frequency Genotype Gene flow 681. Match the term with their meaning: The set of all alleles in a population A. * Gene pool B. Allele C. Allele frequency D. Genotype E. Gene flow 682. Name evolutionary mechanism that reduces variation between populations. A. genetic drift B. natural selection C. mutation, D. nonrandom mating; E. * gene flow 683. Natural selection is: A. Some live and some die in each generation B. Only the largest and strongest survive C. Random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following generations D. * The best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most to the next generation E. All of the above 684. Of the following biological levels of organization, which represents the smallest or lowest level? A. Organs B. Populations C. * Cells D. Organisms E. Tissues 685. Of the following biological levels of organization, which represents the largest level? A. Organs B. * Populations C. Cells D. Organisms E. Tissues 686. Order the following categories into the appropriate biological hierarhy, with the most specific category first A. Family, species, phylum, genus, class B. Phylum, genus, family, class, species C. * Species, genus, family, class, phylum D. Phylum, class, family, genus, species, E. Class, phylum, genus, family, species 687. Speciation is the evolutionary process by which _____. A. * a new gene pool is formed B. an old gene pool is formed C. evolutionary paths of species converge D. hybrids species form E. Shows up differences in physical traits 688. Speciation takes place when variation occurs with A. B. C. D. E. mood changes death of an organism changes due to accidents * geographical isolation All of the above 689. Structures that are similar due to a common evolutionary origin A. * Homologous structures B. Vestigial structures C. Continental drift D. Comparative biochemistry E. Comparative embryology 690. Structures that have the same evolutionary origin even though they may now have different structures or functions are said to be A. Endemic B. * homologous C. immutable D. analogous E. geometric 691. The average phenotype increases its frequency in a population due to: A. directional selection B. disruptive selection C. * stabilizing selection D. all of these E. E both directional selection and disruptive selection 692. The biological definition of a species depends on: A. anatomical and developmental differences between 2 groups of organisms B. the geographic distribution of 2 groups of organisms C. differences in the adaptation of 2 groups of organisms D. * reproductive isolation of 2 groups of organisms E. all of these 693. The breeding of domesticated plants and animals refers to A. * Artificial selection B. Natural selection C. Selection by chance D. Wild selection E. Non of the above 694. The comparison of chromosomes of humans and chimpanzees indicates that: A. Humans and chimps are very different B. * Humans and chimps are almost the same genetically C. Humans are superior because they have more genetic information on each of their chromosomes D. Humans are superior because they have more chromosomes E. Non of the above 695. The difference between Homo sapiens and Homo erectus was A. Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia B. Homo eructus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens. C. Homo eructus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not D. * The size of their brain of Homo eructus was smaller to homo sapiens E. None of the above 696. The discovery of _______ provided the evidence needed for natural selection to be widely accepted as the mechanism of evolution A. Methods for radiometric dating B. C. D. E. Extinctions in the fossil record Genes as the cause of disease * Genes as the units of particulate inchertance Fossil bacteria 697. The ecological isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by A. * Populations live in different environments B. Populations are separated by physical barriers C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce 698. The examples of genetic drift are A. directional selection and disruptive selection B. * Founder effect and bottleneck effect C. natural selection and stabilizing selection D. Gene flow E. Mutations 699. The gametic isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by A. Populations live in different environments B. Populations are separated by physical barriers C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year D. * Egg and sperm do not recognise one another E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce 700. The geographical isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by A. Populations live in different environments B. * Populations are separated by physical barriers C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce 701. The high frequency of the sickling trait in west Africa is explained by: A. * a the selective advantages that accrue to the heterozygotes because of resistance to malaria. B. genetic drift. C. gene flow. D. inbreeding. E. New mutation 702. The hybrid sterility works to reduce successful interbreeding by A. Populations live in different environments B. Populations are separated by physical barriers C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another E. * Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce 703. The most posterior division of the brain, is really a conical continuation of the spinal cord called A. deep primitive brain B. "new" brain C. cerebellum D. * medulla E. midbrain 704. The offspring of better-adapted individuals are expected to make up a larger proportion of the next generation. The most likely explanation is: A. gene flow B. genetic drift C. * natural selection D. mutations E. all of these 705. The phenomenon of genetic drift is most likely to occur in populations that A. are allopatric B. are undergoing gene flow C. * are small and interbreed D. have great reproductive potential E. are large and interbreed 706. The presence of a high incidence of sickle cell anemia in West Africa because of malaria resistance among individuals who are heterozygous for the trait is an example of: A. genetic drift. B. gene flow. C. * natural selection. D. the founder effect. E. mutation. 707. The presence of a high tryglicerates among French Canadians in Quebec because of a high incidence in the early population of the provinces is an example of: A. genetic drift. B. gene flow. C. natural selection. D. * the founder effect. E. mutation. 708. The science that studies humans, their biology, behavior, and variations is A. * anthropology B. cultural linguistics C. sociology. D. biological anthropology E. human genetic 709. The seated intellect, reason, and integration of sensory information stays under control of A. deep primitive brain B. * "new" brain C. cerebellum D. cerebellum E. midbrain 710. The smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is A. A community B. * A population C. A species D. An ecosystem E. A biosphere 711. The species A and species B live at same locale, but occupy different habitats . This is an example of A. sexual selection B. * Habitat isolation C. postzygotic isolating mechanism D. Temporal isilation E. Behavioural 712. The species A and species B live at same locale, but occupy different habitats . This is an example of A. sexual selection B. C. D. E. * a prezygotic isolating mechanism a postzygotic isolating mechanism parthenogenesis polyploidy 713. The species A reproduce on may and species B reproduce on April. This is an example of A. sexual selection B. Habitat isolation C. postzygotic isolating mechanism D. * Temporal isolation E. Behavioural 714. The sperm of species A dies when it comes in contact with the female reproductive tract of species B. This is an example of A. sexual selection B. * a prezygotic isolating mechanism C. a postzygotic isolating mechanism D. parthenogenesis E. polyploidy 715. The temporal isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by A. Populations live in different environments B. Populations are separated by physical barriers C. * Mating occurs at different times of day or year D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce 716. The unit of life in which evolution actually occurs is usually considered to be the A. Whole organism B. * Population C. Species D. Community E. Cell 717. The unit upon which evolution acts most directly is a(n): A. individual. B. * population. C. race. D. species. E. cell. 718. The variation natural selection operates on is due to random mutations. What does this imply about natural selection? A. Natural selection is also a random process. B. * Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process- the likelihood one variant will be favored in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the origin is not. C. There is no possibility God could be involved in this process. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. 719. Were functual in an ancestor, but reduced in size and non-functioned in a descendent A. Homologous structures B. * Vestigial structures C. Continental drift D. Comparative biochemistry E. Comparative embryology 720. 1. What does natural selection act upon? A. * The gene pool of the species B. The genotype C. The phenotype. D. Multiple gene inheritance systems E. Non of the above 721. What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat? A. They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor (forelimbs). B. They are analogous because while each carries out the same function (flight), this trait has arisen independently as a result of convergence (i.e. the common ancestor of both did not have a forelimb that allowed it to fly). C. * They are homologous and analogous D. They represent derived homologies. E. None of the above. 722. What's the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection? A. Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation. B. * Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species. C. Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does. D. There is no difference. E. None of the above. 723. When a population is small, there is a greater chance of A. gene flow B. * genetic drift C. natural selection D. mutations E. all of these 724. When evolution occurs A. adaptation to the environment always occurs B. gene frequencies always change C. phenotype changes are obvious D. all of these E. * both gene frequencies always change and phenotype changes are obvious 725. When we use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to characterize a population, "2pq" represents the frequency of: A. Homozygous dominant individuals B. * Heterozygous individuals C. Homozygous recessive individuals D. Recessive alleles E. Dominant alleles 726. Which animal has two –chambered heart A. * Fishes B. Amphibians C. Reptiles D. Birds E. Mammals 727. Which of the following are difficult to explain in terms of natural selection? A. Male peacocks evolve tail feathers that would appear to make them more rather than less vulnerable to predators. B. Male deer evolve antlers that are not used to defend themselves against predators. C. A bird issues a warning cry that puts it at greater risk of being noticed by a predator. D. Some traits appear to have no adaptive value. E. * All of the above. 728. Which of the following are the most distantly related to one another? A. * Sunfish and dolphins. B. Tree frogs and snakes. C. Vampire bats and birds. D. Bears and whales. E. Robins and turtles. 729. Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an evolutionary standpoint? A. Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population. B. Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the population. C. * Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an individual's ability to survive and reproduce. D. All of these E. one of the above. 730. Which of the following is a prezygotic isolating mechanism? A. * 4. Which of the following is a prezygotic isolating mechanism? B. Hybrid dies before maturity C. production of sterile hybrids D. geographical isolation E. all of the above are prezygotic isolating mechanisms 731. Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology? A. * Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians. B. The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is unknown in any other group. C. Humans and many insect species have eyes. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. 732. Which of the following is an example of environmental variation? A. Apu is a tongue roller, but his brother Sanjay is not. B. * Marge dies her hair blue. C. Homer inherited baldness from his father's side of the family. D. Patti and Selma have hanging ear lobes. E. Bart is a boy because he has both an X and a Y chromosome. 733. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation? A. * Two children have different eye colors. B. One person is older than another. C. One person has a scar, but her friend does not. D. Todd eats meat, but his brother Rod is a vegetarian. E. None of the above. 734. Which of the following is evidence for Darwin's theory of common descent? A. There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest other species have diverged from a single ancestor species. B. There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution of species, for instance distinct bird species on an island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a common ancestor. C. There are common stages in the early embryological development of organisms representing several distinct vertebrate groups. D. Anatomical structures, such as forelimbs, in different groups appear to be modified versions of structures that might have been present in a common ancestor . E. * All of the above. 735. Which of the following is most modern in its characteristics? A. Homo erectus B. Neanderthal C. Australopithecines D. * Cro-Magnon E. They are all the samev 736. Which of the following is NOT a morphological characteristic? A. * color of the skin B. length of the femur C. thickness of the skull D. shape of the foot E. All of the above 737. Which of the following is NOT a morphological characteristic? A. * color of the hair B. length of the femur C. thickness of the skull D. shape of the foot E. All of the above 738. Which of the following is not a requirement for maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A. * an increasing mutation rate B. random mating C. large population size D. no migration E. no natural selection 739. Which of the following is not a source of variation in a population? A. Inherited genetic differences. B. Differences due to health. C. Differences due to age. D. Differences due to accident. E. * None of the above. 740. Which of the following is not an example of a macroevolutionary process? A. One lion species splits to form two lion species over geological time. B. The same trait evolves independently in two different taxa (e.g. wings in birds and in insects). C. As a result of their activities, humans drive Dodos (a bird species) extinct. D. * Over a short period of time, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%. E. All of the above. 741. Which of the following is not an example of microevolutionary change? A. The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by pollution. B. Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of antibiotics. C. The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains roughly 50:50. D. * The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species. E. All of the above. 742. Which of the following is NOT an instance of evolutionary change? A. Mutation B. gene flow C. natural selection D. * Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium E. genetic drift 743. Which of the following is phylum? A. Monera . B. Protista. C. Animalae. D. Plantae. E. * All of the above. F. Monera. G. Protista. H. Animalae. I. Plantae. J. Nemathelminthes 744. Which of the following is specie? A. Monera. B. * Ascaris lumbricoides C. Animalae. D. Plantae. E. Nemathelminthes 745. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense? A. A lion who is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs. B. * A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood. C. A lion who overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs. D. A lion who cares for his cubs, two of who live to adulthood. E. A lion who has a harem of many lionesses and one cub. 746. Which of the following is true about evolutionary process? A. * There is no real 'progress' in the idea of evolution. B. humans are unique, a totally new type of organism C. progress is nature's religion. D. Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages E. All of the above 747. Which of the following must increase over geological time according to evolutionary biologists? A. Size . B. Complexity . C. Speed of evolutionary processes such as mutation. D. Social interactions. E. * None of the above. 748. Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating? A. Habitat isolation B. Temporal isolation C. Mechanical isolation D. * Gamete isolation E. Behavioural isolation 749. Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating? A. Habitat isolation B. Temporal isolation C. Mechanical isolation D. Behavioural isolation E. * F2 fitness 750. Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating? A. Habitat isolation B. Temporal isolation C. Mechanical isolation D. Behavioural isolation E. * F2 fitness 751. Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating? A. Habitat isolation B. Temporal isolation C. Mechanical isolation D. * Hybrid sterility E. Behavioural isolation 752. Which of the following species migrated out of Africa? A. Homo sapiens B. * Homo erectus C. Homo habilis D. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus E. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus 753. 1. Which of the following would not be considered an example of a prezygotic reproductive isolating mechanism? A. One bird species forages in the tops of trees for flying insects while another forages on the ground for worms and grubs B. The males of one species of moth cannot detect and respond to the sex attractant chemicals produced by the females of another species C. * Sperm of one species of sea urchin are unable to penetrate the egg plasma membrane of another species. D. Mosquitoes of one species are active in foraging and searching for mates at dusk, whereas those of another species are active at dawn. E. all of the above 754. Which of these are necessary to natural selection? A. variation B. differential reproduction C. inheritance of differences D. accumulation of adaptive traits E. * all of these 755. Which of these is a premating isolating mechanism? A. habitat isolation B. temporal isolation C. gamete isolation D. Hybrid sterility E. * both habitat isolation and temporal isolation 756. Which of these is best considered the raw material of evolution? A. Non-random mating B. Natural selection C. Small populations with massive migrations D. * Mutation E. Isolation 757. Which of these is mismatched? A. Australopithecines-walked erect B. * Homo habilis - large brain C. Homo erectus – had fire D. Homo sapiens – flat face E. Non of the above 758. 1. Which of these is mismatched? A. cerebrum-consciousness B. * thalamus-motor and sensory centers C. hypothalamus-internal environment regulator D. cerebellum-motor coordination E. Non of the above 759. Which of these is not one of the conditions of a Hardy-Weinberg population? A. Random mating B. * Migration C. Large population. D. No mutation E. All of these 760. Which of these is not one of the conditions of a Hardy-Weinberg population? A. Random mating B. No migration C. Large population. D. * Mutation E. All of these 761. Which phrase does not belong with the others? A. cerebrum B. cerebral cortex C. cerebral hemispheres D. * cerebellum E. Both cerebral cortex and cerebral hemispheres 762. Which region of the brain can be divided into two anatomically distinct areas, the paleocortex and neocortex? A. * cerebrum B. midbrain C. pons D. cerebellum E. medulla 763. Which term refers to populations of animals that are capable of interbreeding? A. * species B. genus C. kingdom D. primate E. phylum 764. Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint? A. If all organisms were the same, the entire population would be vulnerable to particular pathogens, like viruses. B. All evolutionary adaptations (e.g. the origin of forelimbs) are the result of the gradual build up of genetic differences between organisms over geologic time. C. Evolution (at the population level) refers to changes in the frequencies of genes in the population over time. D. * All of the above. E. None of the above. 765. Why is the advent of reproductive isolation important from an evolutionary standpoint? A. * When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops. B. It is not important from an evolutionary standpoint. The question is based on a false assumption. C. Reproductive isolation increases the mutation rate. D. Reproductive isolation may slow reproduction. E. None of the above. 766. Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species? A. Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned from his voyage on the Beagle. B. It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory. C. Darwin suffered from a number of illnesses. D. * Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory. E. All of the above. 767. A dung beetle is an example of a A. * detritivore B. omnivore C. carnivore D. authotroph E. homeotherm 768. A natural food web A. contains only grazing food chains B. * contains several trophic levels C. is usually unstable D. both contains only grazing food chains and contains several trophic levels E. All of these 769. Abiotic factors in an ecosystem can include A. plants B. * sunlight C. animals D. microorganisms E. bacteria 770. ?Abiotic factors include: A. * Soil, water, light, inorganic matters, weather B. Plants and animals C. Producers, consumers, herbivores, carnivores D. Inorganic matters E. All of these 771. Acid deposition causes? A. * lakes and forests to die B. acid indigestion in humans C. the greenhouse effect to lessen D. All of these E. Non of the above 772. Acid rain is caused by precipitation of A. * Sulfuric acid. B. Carbonic acid C. Acetic acid D. Hydrochloric acid E. Carbonic acid and hydrochloric acid 773. A. B. C. D. E. 774. A. B. C. D. E. 775. A. B. C. D. E. 776. A. B. C. D. E. 777. A. B. C. D. E. 778. A. B. C. D. E. 779. A. B. C. D. E. 780. A. B. C. D. E. 781. A. B. C. Air pollution reduces visibility. corrodes buildings. causes various human diseases. damages plants. * all of these All of the following are components of the global carbon cycle except Reduction of atmospheric carbon by cyanobacteria Production of sugar by plants Liberation of CO2 by respiration * Uptake of groundwater by roots Transfer of carbon up the food chain An ecosystems includes: all the members of the species * the living and nonliving factors in an environment all parts of the earth where life exists all members of a species in the same area all of the above Atmospheric disruptions included everything except Greenhouse effect ozone depletion acid precipitation air pollution * groundwater pollution Biologists distinguish three main types of symbiosis: * Parasitism, mutualism and commensalisms Parasitism, mutualism and predation Commensalisms, mutualism and predation Commensalisms, parasitism and predation Predation, mutualism and commensalisms Biologists distinguish three main types of symbiosis: * None of these Parasitism, mutualism and predation Commensalisms, mutualism and predation Commensalisms, parasitism and predation Predation, mutualism and commensalisms Biosphere has 3 phases of substances: * Liquid, solid, gas First, second, third Plants, animals, microorganisms Water, oxigen, earth None of these Biotic factors in an ecosystem can include sunlight temperature * animals air pressure wind Decomposers benefit an ecosystem by Manufacturing energy * Returning nutrients to the soil Controlling the population D. D Removing toxic substances E. Manufacturing energy and controlling the population 782. Determine the type of interrelations between organisms of different species; which is beneficial for both partners? A. * Mutualism B. Parasitism C. Commensalism D. Competition E. Non of the above 783. Detritivores are A. bacteria. B. plants. C. fungi. D. animals. E. * both bacteria and fungi. 784. Detritivores include A. Photosynthetic plants B. Carnivores C. Herbivores D. Omnivores E. * Bacteria 785. Ecosystem consists of 2 components: A. * living and nonliving components B. plants and animals C. physical surrounding and animals D. cycling of nutrients E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms 786. Ecosystem consists of 2 components: A. * biotic and abiotic components B. plants and animals C. physical surrounding and animals D. cycling of nutrients E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms 787. Ecosystem consists of 2 components: A. * none of these B. plants and animals C. physical surrounding and animals D. cycling of nutrients E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms 788. Ecosystem consists of 2 components: A. * none of these B. plants and animals C. physical surrounding and animals D. cycling of nutrients E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms 789. Ecosystems are classified into A. Primary and natural B. Primary and anthropogenic C. * Natural and anthropogenic D. Primary and secondary E. Primary, secondary and tertiary 790. How do nitrogen fixing bacteria contribute to the nitrogen cycle A. B. C. D. E. 791. A. B. C. D. E. 792. A. B. C. D. E. 793. A. B. C. D. E. 794. A. B. C. D. E. 795. A. B. C. D. E. 796. A. B. C. D. E. 797. A. B. C. D. E. 798. A. B. C. They return N2 to the atmosphere They change ammonia to nitrate * They change N2 to ammonia They withdraw nitrate from the soil All of these How do plants contribute to the carbon cycle? When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere When they photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere They do not contribute to the carbon cycle * When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere and when they photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere All of these How does high temperature affect the life processes of warm-blooded animals? * Increases heat emission processes Decreases heat emission processes Decreases thermogenesis Increases thermogenesis Changes day activity How does low temperature affect the life processes of warm-blooded animals? Increases heat emission processes * Decreases heat emission processes Decreases thermogenesis Increases thermogenesis Changes day activity How is a first-order consumer like a second-order consumer? * Both pass on less energy to the next tropic level than they received Both pass on the same amount of energy to the next trophic level Both tend to be herbivores that produce nutrients for plants Both are able to convert organic compounds to ATP without the loss of energy All of these How many % of the energy are incorporated into the tissues of the next level: 1% 100 % * 10 % 0% 20% Human ecology is connected with many sciences: immunology; hygiene of environment; ecotoxicology; medical geography * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: mathematical statistical biochemical physiological * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: statistical biochemical physical 799. 800. 801. 802. 803. 804. 805. 806. 807. D. clinical E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. statistical B. biochemical C. physical D. physiological E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. biochemical B. physical C. bacteriological D. physiological E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. mathematical B. statistical C. biochemical D. bacteriological E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. mathematical B. statistical C. biochemical D. clinical E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. mathematical B. statistical C. biochemical D. physical E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. statistical B. biochemical C. physical D. bacteriological E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. biochemical B. physical C. bacteriological D. clinical E. * all of these Human ecology uses many methods of investigation: A. physical B. bacteriological C. clinical D. physiological E. * all of these If you measure the biomass of an ecosystem, you are measuring the: A. Amount of energy produced B. C. D. E. Amount of nutrients * Dry weight of organic material Dry weight of all organisms in the given area All of these 808. In a natural community, the primary consumers are A. * herbivores. B. carnivores. C. scavengers. D. decomposers. E. all of these 809. In contrast to a predator, a parasite usually A. * does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives. B. kills its host. C. is a short-term visitor. D. is a short-term visitor. E. does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives and is larger than its host. 810. In nature, it is ________ that are primarily responsible for converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that living things can use A. plants B. algae C. * bacteria D. animals E. fungi 811. In what way are decomposers like producers? A. Either one may be the first member of a grazing food chain B. Both produce oxygen for other forms of life C. * Both require a source of nutrient molecules and energy. D. Both supply organic food for the biosphere. E. All of these 812. Intermediate position of the somatic indexes and the level of cholesterol are characterized for A. adaptive mountain human B. adaptive tropical human C. * adaptive temperate human type D. adaptive arctic human type E. non of the above 813. It is a relationship where both species benefit . What is this? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. * Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 814. It is a relationship where both species benefit . What is this? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. * None of these D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 815. It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed. What is this? A. Predation B. * Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 816. It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed. What is this? A. Predation B. * None of these C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 817. It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected. What is this? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. * Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 818. It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected. What is this? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. * None of these E. Symbiosis 819. It is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface. What is this? A. * Biosphere B. Ecosystem C. Lithosphere D. Hydrosphere E. Atmosphere 820. It is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface. What is this? A. * None of these B. Ecosystem C. Lithosphere D. Hydrosphere E. Atmosphere 821. Name the element of biosphere A. * Atmosphere B. Hydrosphere C. Lithosphere D. Ecosphere E. Anroposphere 822. Name the major characteristics of adaptive mountain human type A. High development of musculsceletal system, large thorax, high blood hemoglobin and cholesterol level B. The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference of thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level C. Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity lengthening, increase of the number of RBC D. * Intermediate position of the somatic indexes and the level of cholesterol E. all of the above 823. Name the major characteristics of adaptive temperate human type 824. 825. 826. 827. 828. 829. 830. of: A. High development of musculoskeletal system, large thorax, high blood hemoglobin and cholesterol level B. The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference of thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level C. Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity lengthening, increase of the number of RBC D. * Intermediate position between of the somatic indexes and the level of cholesterol at arctic and tropical adaptive human types E. all of the above Name the major characteristics of adaptive tropical human type A. High development of musculoskeletal system, large thorax, high blood hemoglobin and cholesterol level B. * The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference of thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level C. Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity lengthening, increase of the number of RBC D. Intermediate position of the somatic indexes and the level of cholesterol E. all of the above Name the organism condition, in which the vital activity processes are decreased; A. Death B. * Anabiosis C. Thermoregulation D. Photoperiodism E. All of the above Name the process drown on this picture A. * Movement of energy thru the ecosystem B. Food web C. Chemical cycling D. Competition E. Non of the above Name the reaction of plants and animals to the duration of daylight hours: A. Cryptobiosis B. Anabiosis C. Thermoregulation D. * Photoperiodism E. All of the above Name this picture A. Terrestrial food chain B. * Marine food chain C. Trophic cycle D. Pyramid of energy E. Chemical cycle Nitrogen cycle include everything except A. nitrogen fixation B. nitrification C. ammonification D. denitrification E. * evaporation Plants and animals become adapted to life in particular biomass through a process A. Symbiosis B. Competition C. Growth D. * Evolution by natural selection E. Competition and Growth 831. Primary producers are A. * Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Mixotrophs D. Saprotrophs E. Coprophages 832. Secondary production refers to the processing and storage of energy by A. * Herbivores B. Carnivores C. Plants D. Fungi E. Bacteria 833. The amount of dry organic substance, created in an ecosystem or its part for certain time on a certain area, is called: A. Biomass B. * Bioproductivity C. Biotransformation D. Biocenosis E. Ecosystem 834. The atmosphere above which region is known to have a hole in the ozone layer? A. * Antarctica B. eastern North America C. northern Europe D. the western Pacific E. the eastern Pacific 835. The biomass of a community is the weight of the A. material decomposed in a year. B. producers. C. * living organisms. D. consumers. E. decomposers. 836. The biosphere includes: A. all the members of the species B. the living and nonliving factors in an environment C. * all parts of the earth where life exists D. all members of a species in the same area E. all of the above 837. The community of plants on a certain area, is called: A. Biomass B. Bioproductivity C. * Biotop D. Biocenosis E. Ecosystem 838. The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference of thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level are characterized for A. adaptive mountain human B. * adaptive tropical human C. adaptive temperate human type D. adaptive arctic human type E. non of the above 839. The greatest amount of energy in an ecosystem is available to: A. * Producers B. Primary consumers C. Secondary consumers D. Decomposers E. Tertiary consumers 840. The interaction between two species in which both species may be harmed is known as A. mutualism. B. parasitism. C. commensalism. D. * competition. E. predation. 841. The interaction between two species in which one specie may be harmed is known as A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Symbiosis 842. The interaction between two species in which one specie may be harmed is known as A. mutualism. B. symbiosis. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. * predation 843. The interaction between two species in which one species benefits and the other species is harmed is A. mutualism. B. commensalism. C. competition. D. predation. E. * none of these 844. The main tasks of human ecology: A. the investigation of human health condition B. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development C. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and environmental pollution E. * all of these 845. The main tasks of human ecology: A. the investigation of human health condition B. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development C. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations D. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial differentiation of human diseases E. * all of these 846. A. B. C. D. E. 847. A. B. C. D. E. 848. A. B. C. D. E. 849. A. B. C. D. E. 850. A. B. C. D. E. 851. A. B. C. D. E. 852. A. B. C. D. E. 853. A. B. The main tasks of human ecology: the investigation of human health condition the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development the forecast of the health condition of the future generations the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: the investigation of human health condition the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development the forecast of the health condition of the future generations the research of influence of environmental factors to human health * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: the investigation of human health condition the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development the forecast of the health condition of the future generations the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: the investigation of the processes of human health protection the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology the research of influence of environmental factors to human health the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology; the research of influence of environmental factors to human health; the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial differentiation of human diseases the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: the forecast of the health condition of the future generations the investigation of the processes of human health protection the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial differentiation of human diseases * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: the forecast of the health condition of the future generations the investigation of the processes of human health protection the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and environmental pollution * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: the forecast of the health condition of the future generations the investigation of the processes of human health protection 854. 855. 856. 857. 858. 859. 860. C. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology D. the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism E. * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: A. the investigation of the processes of human health protection B. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology C. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and environmental pollution E. * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection D. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health E. * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection D. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial differentiation of human diseases E. * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and environmental pollution E. * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection D. the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism E. * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: A. the investigation of human health condition B. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development C. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations D. the investigation of the processes of human health protection E. * all of these The main tasks of human ecology: A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical and social-economical development B. C. D. E. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations the investigation of the processes of human health protection the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology * all of these 861. The main tasks of human ecology: A. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations B. the investigation of the processes of human health protection C. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology D. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health E. * all of these 862. The main tasks of human ecology: A. the investigation of the processes of human health protection B. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology C. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health D. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial differentiation of human diseases E. * all of these 863. The main tasks of human ecology: A. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology B. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health C. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial differentiation of human diseases D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and environmental pollution E. * all of these 864. The main tasks of human ecology: A. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health B. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial differentiation of human diseases C. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and environmental pollution D. the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism E. * all of these 865. The major component of air is A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. * Nitrogen D. Carbon monoxide E. Minor gases 866. The parts of biosphere where the organisms live: A. * hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere B. hydrosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere C. atmosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere D. hydrosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere E. lithosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere 867. The pathways by which chemicals circulate through ecosystems involve both the living and nonliving areas, known as A. Movement of energy thru the ecosystem B. Food web C. * Biogeochemical cycles 868. 869. 870. 871. 872. 873. 874. 875. 876. D. Competition E. Non of the above The relationship between man and malaria plasmodium is named A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Ascaris lumbricoides is named A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Entamoeba histolytica forma magna is named A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Entamoeba histolytica forma minuta is named A. mutualism. B. parasitism. C. * commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Leishmania tropica is named A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Taenia solium is named A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Trichinela spiralis is named A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Trichomonas hominis is named A. mutualism. B. parasitism. C. * commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation The relationship between man and Trichomonas vaginalis is named A. mutualism. B. C. D. E. * parasitism. commensalism. competition. Predation 877. The relationship between man and Trypanosoma cruzi is named A. mutualism. B. * parasitism. C. commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation 878. The relationship between two species in both members of the association benefit is known as A. mutualism. B. symbiosis. C. * commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation 879. The relationship between two species in which one specie may is benefited and the other is neither benefited or harmed A. mutualism. B. symbiosis. C. * commensalism. D. competition. E. Predation 880. The results of air pollution: A. Photochemical smog B. Acid deposition C. Global warming D. Destruction of the ozone shield E. * All of these 881. The sequence of organisms through which energy may move in a community is called ______ . A. * food chain B. chemical cycling C. ecosystem D. ecological pyramid E. energy flow 882. The sequence of organisms through which energy may move in a community is called ______ . A. * none of these B. chemical cycling C. ecosystem D. ecological pyramid E. energy flow 883. The smallest amount of energy in an ecosystem is available to: A. Producers B. Primary consumers C. Secondary consumers D. Decomposers E. * Tertiary consumers 884. There are 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors: A. * Predation and symbiosis B. C. D. E. 885. A. B. C. D. E. 886. A. B. C. D. E. 887. A. B. C. D. E. 888. A. B. C. D. E. 889. cycle? A. B. C. D. E. 890. A. B. C. D. E. 891. A. B. C. D. E. 892. A. B. C. Plants and animals Parasitism and commensalisms Parasitism and mutualism Commensalisms and mutualism There are 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors: * None of these Plants and animals Parasitism and commensalisms Parasitism and mutualism Commensalisms and mutualism Tropical rain forest destruction is extremely serious because It will lead to a severe reduction in biological diversity Tropical soils cannot support agriculture for long Large tracts of forest absorb carbon dioxide, reducing the threat of global warming Non of the above * All of these Water cycle include everything except condensation precipitation evaporation * ammonification All of the above Water is a renewable resource, and there will always be a plentiful supply the oceans can never become polluted * it is still subject to pollution primary sewage treatment plants assure clean drinking water Non of these Water molecules reside for the longest time in which phase of the hydrologic detention evaporation precipitation * Transportation Evaporation and detention What 2 components belong to ecosystem? * living and nonliving components plants and animals physical surrounding and animals cycling of nutrients plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms What 2 components belong to ecosystem? * biotic and abiotic components plants and animals physical surrounding and animals cycling of nutrients plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms What 2 components belong to ecosystem? * none of these plants and animals physical surrounding and animals D. cycling of nutrients E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms 893. What 2 components belong to ecosystem? A. * none of these B. plants and animals C. physical surrounding and animals D. cycling of nutrients E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms 894. What 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors do you know? A. * Predation and symbiosis B. Plants and animals C. Parasitism and commensalisms D. Parasitism and mutualism E. Commensalisms and mutualism 895. What 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors do you know? A. * None of these B. Plants and animals C. Parasitism and commensalisms D. Parasitism and mutualism E. Commensalisms and mutualism 896. What are the living organisms, which eat tiny particles of organic remains, called? A. Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. * Detritophages D. Necrophages E. Coprophages 897. What are the parts of biosphere where the organisms live? A. * hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere B. hydrosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere C. atmosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere D. hydrosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere E. lithosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere 898. What is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together in a close association? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. * Symbiosis 899. What is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together in a close association? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. * None of these 900. What is a complex of parasitic species, which inhibit the host body, called? A. Biotop B. Biocenosis C. Ecosystem D. Phytocenosis E. * Parasitocenosis 901. What is a relationship where both species benefit? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. * Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 902. What is a relationship where both species benefit? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. * None of these D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 903. What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed? A. Predation B. * Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 904. What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed? A. Predation B. * None of these C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 905. What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. * Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 906. What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. * None of these E. Symbiosis 907. What is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface? A. * Biosphere B. Ecosystem C. Lithosphere D. Hydrosphere E. Atmosphere 908. What is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface? A. * None of these B. Ecosystem C. Lithosphere D. Hydrosphere E. Atmosphere 909. What is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their physical surrounding? A. * None of these B. Biology 910. 911. 912. 913. 914. 915. 916. 917. C. Biosphere D. Ecosystem E. Zoology What three main types of symbiosis do you know? A. * Parasitism, mutualism and commensalisms B. Parasitism, mutualism and predation C. Commensalisms, mutualism and predation D. Commensalisms, parasitism and predation E. Predation, mutualism and commensalisms What three main types of symbiosis do you know? A. * None of these B. Parasitism, mutualism and predation C. Commensalisms, mutualism and predation D. Commensalisms, parasitism and predation E. Predation, mutualism and commensalisms What trophic level in the food chain do coprophages occupy? A. Producers B. * Consumers C. Autotrophs D. Decomposers E. Mixotrophs What trophic level in the food chain do detritophages occupy? A. Producers B. Primary consumers C. Secondary consumers D. * Decomposers E. Tertiary consumers What trophic level in the food chain do necrophages occupy? A. Producers B. * Consumers C. Autotrophs D. Decomposers E. Mixotrophs When ultraviolet sunlight strikes O2 it can put in form of A. CO2 B. * O3 C. SO2 D. CO E. N3 Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle? A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Fossil fuel combustion D. * All of these E. Only photosynthesis and fossil fuel combustion Which of these is a true statement? A. More developed countries do not contribute to the destruction of tropical rain forests B. * Carbon dioxide from fossil fuel combustion is the primary greenhouse gas C. Water from underground sources is never subject to contamination D. Sulfur dioxide is given off to the same degree by burning of all fossil fuels E. All of these 918. 919. 920. 921. 922. 923. Which of these is mismatched? A. .fossil fuel burning – carbon dioxide given off B. nuclear power-radioactive wastes C. * solar energy-greenhouse effect D. biomass burning-carbon dioxide given off E. All of these Who are heterotrophic organisms that use preformed food? A. Producers B. * Consumers C. Herbivores D. Carnivores E. Decomposers Who are heterotrophic organisms that use preformed food? A. Producers B. * None of these C. Herbivores D. Carnivores E. Decomposers ?Who coined the term “ecocyctem” at the first time? A. * Arthur Tansley B. Eduard Suess C. Vladimir Vernadsky D. Gregor Mendel E. Devid Morgan ?Who coined the term "biosphere" in 1875? A. * Eduard Suess B. Vladimir Vernadsky C. Arthur Tansley D. Gregor Mendel E. None of these ?Where do schistosomes lay fertilized eggs? A. bronchial tubes B. intestine C. muscles D. bile duct E. * blood vessels 924. What is infective stage of Enterobius vermicularis for human? A. miracidium B. cercaria C. redia D. cystisercus E. * an egg 925. What are the organs through over Ascaris lumbricoides larvae do not migrate? A. lungs B. liver C. heart D. pharynx E. * brain 926. What is the diagnostic stage of Trichuris trichiura? A. cystisercus B. oncosphere C. redia D. gravid proglottid E. * an egg 927. Indicate the diseases, which can be treated by drugs: A. Ascariasis B. Enterobiasis C. Taeniasis solium D. Diphyllobotriasis E. * All of these 928. In what time do Ascaris lumbricoides eggs become invasive? A. 4 - 6 hours B. 7 days C. an hour D. 3-5 month E. * 24 days 929. At what time do Enterobius vermicularis eggs become invasive? A. 24 days B. 7 days C. an hour D. 3-5 month E. * 4 - 6 hours 930. The larvae were found during the sputum microscopy of one patient with pneumonia, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable diagnosis? A. Enterobiasis B. Trichuriasis C. Cysticercosis D. Diphyllobotriasis E. * Ascariasis 931. Ascariasis was diagnosed in 8-years old child. Is this child epidemically dangerous for other members of the family? A. yes, because child spreads embryonated eggs B. no, because child spreads mature eggs C. yes, because child can pass larva to the other members of the family D. both A and D E. * no, because child spreads unembryonated eggs 932. A. B. C. D. E. What animals does the life cycle of Clonorchis with asexual reproduction involve? cattle and snail pig and fish fish and ant crab and snail *snail and fish 933. The eggs (oval with an irregular surface) were found during the feces microscopy of one patient with nausea, vomiting, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable diagnosis. A. Trichuriasis B. Enterobiasis C. Cysticercosis D. Dicrocoeliasis E. * Ascariasis 934. The eggs (brovn, barrel-shaped with a plug at each end) were found during the feces microscopy of one patient with diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea. Indicate the most probable diagnosis. A. Enterobiasis B. Ascariasis C. Cysticercosis D. Diphyllobotriasis E. * Trichuriasis 935. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “enterobiasis”. What method should be performed for laboratory examination? A. blood microscopy B. urine microscopy C. feces microscopy D. examination of the cerebrospinal fluid E. * “scotch tape” technique 936. Indicate the invasive stage of Fasciola Hepatica for humans. A. metacercariae B. an egg C. cercariae D. cysticercus E. * adolescariae 937. What species of Nematodes is biohelminth? A. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Necator americanus D. Ascaris lumbricoides E. * Trichinella spiralis 938. Indicate the helminth of class Nematoda which life cycle does not have migration of larvae. A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Necator americanus E. * Trichuris trichiura 939. What kind of helminthiasis is characterized by the development of hematuria, terminal disuria, obstructed urine flow? A. fascioliasis B. paragonimiasis C. shistosomiasis japonicum D. dicrocoeliasis E. * shistosomiasis haematobium 940. Which stage of Ancylostoma duodenale is invasive for humans? A. an egg B. rhabditiform larva C. adult worm D. encapsulated larva E. * filariform larva 941. What is the mode of transmission of hookworm infection? A. sexual B. ingestion contaminated crabs C. ingestion contaminated snail D. by blood E. * penetration of skin by larvae 942. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichinosis? A. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells C. Microscopy of patient’s faeces D. None E. * Serologic test, muscle biopsy 943. Indicate the invasive stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans. A. rhabditiform larva B. egg C. cercariae D. metacercariae E. * filariform larva 944. A. B. C. D. E. Indicate the invasive stage of Fasciola Hepatica for humans. metacercariae an egg cercariae cysticercus *adolescariae 945. A patient was admitted to the hospital and complained of muscle pain, fever, per orbital edema. This patient ate undercooked pork some time before illness. Blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Ascariasis B. Trichuriasis C. Strongyloidiasis D. hookworm infection E. * Trichinosis 946. Which stage of Dicrocoelium lanceatum is invasive for humans? A. an egg B. adolescariae C. cercariae D. adult worm E. * metacercariae 947. Indicate the infective stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans: A. rhabditiform larva B. egg C. cercariae D. gravid proglottid E. * filariform larva 948. Indicate the localization of Trichinella spiralis larvae in human organism. A. small intestine B. large intestine C. lungs D. liver E. * striated muscles 949. What is the mode of transmission of strongyloidiasis? A. sexual B. ingestion contaminated crabs C. ingestion contaminated snail D. by blood E. * penetration of skin by larvae 950. Indicate the localization of Trichinella spiralis adult worms in human organism. A. large intestine B. striated muscles C. lungs D. liver E. * small intestine 951. What is mode of transmission of schistosomiasis? A. by eating contaminated crabs B. by eating contaminated snail C. by eating contaminated pork D. by eating contaminated fish E. * penetration of skin 952. A family has a cat with opisthorchiasis. Can children be infected from this cat? A. yes, by fascioliasis B. yes, by paragonimiasis C. yes, by shistosomiasis D. yes, by opisthorchiasis E. * no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae 953. A. B. C. D. E. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of filariasis? Microscopy of patient’s liver cells Biopsy of the affected skin Serologic test, muscle biopsy Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer *Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night 954. What parts of the human body are usually not infected by itch mite? A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms B. armpits C. groin and genitals D. interdigital spaces E. * head 955. A man, who came from Far East, passed a medical examination. Eggs (0,1 mm, oval, golden-brownish, operculated) were found in sputum. Indicate the most probable diagnosis. A. fascioliasis B. chlonorchiasis C. shistosomiasis D. dicrocoeloasis E. * paragonimiasis 956. Mites and ticks differ from other arachnids by having ... A. mandibles B. two pairs of antennae C. two pairs of legs D. All of the above E. * a fused cephalotorax and abdomen 957. Indicate the place of scorpion’s poisonous glands location: A. cephalothorax B. distal end of pedipalp C. close to base of chelicerae D. All of the above E. * last segment of the abdomen 958. Name a species which lives in the hair follicles and wax glands of the human forehead, nose, and chin, but usually cause no symptoms: A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. Ornithodorus papillipes C. Acarus siro D. Ixodes persulcatus E. * Desmodex folliculorum 959. Indicate the place of spider’s poisonous glands location: A. distal end of pedipalp B. the last segment of the abdomen C. the middle segment of abdomen D. All of the above E. * close to base of chelicerae 960. A man eat an undercooked beef (liver contained fascioles). Can this person be infected? A. yes, by fascioliasis B. yes, by paragonimiasis C. yes, by shistosomiasis japonicum D. yes, by opisthorchiasis E. * no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae 961. What is mode of transmission of dicrocoeliasis? A. penetration of skin B. ingestion contaminated crabs C. ingestion contaminated snail D. ingestion contaminated fish E. * by eating plants with the ants 962. A. B. C. D. E. What parts of the human body are usually infected by itch mite? flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms armpits groin and genitals interdigital spaces *All of the above 963. Indicate the medically important orders of Class Insecta: A. Anoplura B. Hemiptera C. Diptera D. Siphonaptera E. * All of the above 964. Which insects are representatives of order Anoplura: A. termites B. fleas C. ants D. mosquitoes E. * lice 965. A man, who came from Africa, passed a medical examination. Eggs with lateral spine were found in feces. Indicate the most probable diagnosis. A. fascioliasis B. paragonimiasis C. chlonorchiasis D. opisthorchiasis E. * shistosomiasis 966. How would you characterize the medical importance of Fleas? A. either temporary or permanent ectoparasites B. causative agent of pediculosis C. mechanical transmitters of protozoan infections D. non of the above E. * vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis 967. What is the vector of Chagas’ disease? A. Glossina palpalis B. sandfly of genus Phlebotomus C. deer fly (Chrysops) D. mosquito Anopheles and Culex E. * bug species of family Triatomidae 968. The immature form of an insect that undergoes incomplete metamorphosis is a A. larva B. pupa C. caterpillar D. both A and B E. * nymph 969. What kind of helminthiasis is characterised by the development of anemia? A. Teniasis solium B. Cysticercosis C. Taeniasis saginata D. Fascioliasis E. * Diphyllobothriasis 970. A. B. C. D. E. Indicate the representatives of Order Hemiptera. Fleas Ants Mosquitoes Lice *Bugs 971. What is prevention of pediculosis? A. cleanliness and sweeping of dust from floor and carpets B. involves protection from reduviid bite C. involves protection from mosquito bite D. mosquito nets E. * regular body washing with simultaneous change of linen, personal hygiene 972. Which cestode causes cysticercosis? A. Taenia saginata B. Diphyllobotrium latum C. Fasciola hepatica D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. * Taenia solium 973. In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur? A. America B. Europe C. Asia D. Australia E. * Equatorial Africa 974. Indicate mode by which nonbloodsucking flies transmit diseases. A. Direct mechanical B. Biologic C. Hereditary D. All of the above E. * Indirect mechanical 975. What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglottid of Taenia solium? A. 17 -35 uterine branches B. bilobed ovary C. trilobed ovary D. gravid uterus is in the form of rosette E. * 7 -12 uterine branches 976. Indicate mode by which bloodsucking flies transmit diseases to humans. A. Indirect mechanical B. Direct mechanical C. Biologic D. Hereditary E. * Both direct and indirect mechanical 977. Indicate the invasive stage of Taenia saginata for humans. A. an egg B. hydatid cysts C. gravid proglottid D. metacercariae E. * cysticercus 978. Order Diptera is characterized by having: A. 1 pair of wings B. 3 pairs of wings C. Mouthparts are sucking or piercing and sucking D. both B and D E. * 2 pairs of wings 979. What disease can be transmitted by Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans? A. American trypanosomiasis B. Leishmaniasis C. Tularemia D. Onchocerciasis E. * African trypanosomiasis 980. What is the distinguishing feature of immature proglottid of Taenia solium? A. 17 -35 uterine branches B. 7 -12 uterine branches C. bilobed ovary D. gravid uterus is in the form of rosette E. * trilobed ovary 981. What is the vector for Leishmania species? A. Black fly B. Buffalo gnat C. Deer fly D. Mosquito Anopheles E. * Sandfly 982. What is a myiasis? A. Myiasis - infestation by larvae of flies. B. Myiasis - infestation by larvae of mosquitoes. C. Myiasis - invasion of man’s body by representatives of Order Anoplura D. All of the above E. * Myiasis - invasion or infestation of man’s body and/or tissues by Diptera larvae. 983. What is the distinguishing feature of gravid proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum? A. 17 -35 uterine branches B. 7 -12 uterine branches C. bilobed ovary D. trilobed ovary E. * gravid uterus is in the form of rosette 984. Name modes by which arthropods transmit disease. A. indirect mechanical B. direct mechanical C. biologic D. hereditary E. * all of the above 985. What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglottid of Taenia saginata ? A. 7 -12 uterine branches B. bilobed ovary C. trilobed ovary D. gravid uterus is in the form of rosette E. * 17 -35 uterine branches 986. An ecosystems includes: A. all the members of the species B. all parts of the earth where life exists C. all members of a species in the same area D. all of the above E. * the living and nonliving factors in an environment 987. What is the distinguishing feature of scolex of Taenia solium? A. scolex with 4 suckers but no hooklets B. scolex with 2 elongated sucking grooves C. scolex without organs of fixation D. both B and C E. * scolex with 4 suckers and circle of hooks 988. How many % of the energy are incorporated into the tissues of the next level: A. 1% B. 100 % C. 0% D. 20% E. * 10 % 989. Indicate invasive stage of Diphyllobotrium latum for crustaceans. A. cysticercus B. procercoid C. plerocercoid D. metacercariae E. * coracidium 990. The biosphere includes: A. all the members of the species B. the living and nonliving factors in an environment C. all members of a species in the same area D. all of the above E. * all parts of the earth where life exists 991. Consider the components of a food chain: producers > herbivores > carnivores > top carnivores. Eventually what happens to all the energy passed from one element to the next? A. It recycles back to the producers B. It results is a much larger decomposer population C. It is recaptured by another food chain D. Both A and B E. * It is dissipated into the environment 992. Which statement is true concerning this food chain: grass > rabbits > snakes > hawks? A. Each predator population has a greater biomass than its prey population B. Each population is omnivorous C. Both A and C D. All of the above E. * Each prey population has a greater biomass than its predator population 993. The life cycle of Taenia solium involves asexual reproduction in ... A. snail B. crab C. fish D. cattle E. * pig 994. The greatest amount of energy in an ecosystem is available to: A. Primary consumers B. Secondary consumers C. Decomposers D. all of the above E. * Producers 995. The life cycle of Taenia saginata involves asexual reproduction in ... A. snail B. crab C. pig D. fish E. * cattle 996. The life cycle of Diphyllobotrium latum involves asexual reproduction in ... A. snail B. crab C. pig D. cattle E. * fish 997. Abiotic factors in an ecosystem can include ... A. plants B. animals C. microorganisms D. bacteria E. * sunlight 998. How many segments does strobila of Echinococcus granulosus have? A. 6- 8 B. 100 C. more than 100 D. 200-300 E. * 3- 5 999. An interaction between two species in which one species benefits while the other is neither harmed or helped is called... A. parasitism B. mutualism C. mimicry D. cooperation E. * commensalism 1000. Indicate the infective stage of E.granulosus for humans. A. hydatid cysts B. oncosphere C. gravid proglottid D. cysticercus E. * an egg 1001. Autoinvasion is characteristic for ... A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Echinococcus multilocularis C. Taenia saginata D. Diphyllobotrium latum E. * Hymenolepis nana 1002. How is a first-order consumer like a second-order consumer? A. Both pass on the same amount of energy to the next trophic level B. Both tend to be herbivores that produce nutrients for plants C. Both are able to convert organic compounds to ATP without the loss of energy D. All of these E. * Both pass on less energy to the next tropic level than they received 1003. The life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus involves sexual reproduction in ... A. crab B. pig C. fish D. cattle E. * dog 1004. A. B. C. D. Which cestode can cause Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Diseases? Taenia solium Echinococcus multilocularis Diphyllobotrium latum Taenia saginata E. * Echinococcus granulosus 1005. What is the way of transmission of amoebiasis? A. sexual B. by bite of Anopheles mosquito C. by bite of bug species (family Triatomidae) D. by bite of sandfly (genus Phlebotomus) E. * alimentary 1006. What stage in life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica is pathogenic for human? A. forma minuta B. mature cyst C. immature cyst D. all of these E. * forma magna 1007. Indicate the way of reproduction of Entamoeba histolytica? A. endogony B. shizogony C. sporogony D. conjugation E. * binary fission 1008. What stage in life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica is commensal for human? A. forma magna B. cyst C. pathogenic form D. tissue form E. * forma minuta 1009. What type of host is man in the life cycle of Plasmodium malariae? A. Definitive host B. Reservoir host C. Facultative host D. all of these E. * Intermediate host 1010. What type of host is man in the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii? A. Definitive host B. Reservoir host C. noone of these D. all of these E. * Intermediate host 1011. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis “malaria”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. urine B. feces C. material from breast bone puncture D. material from lymph node puncture E. * blood 1012. A child with multiple abnormalities of development was born. Examination of the family members has not found a hereditary pathology: karyotypes of the parents and the child are normal. What protozoan disease could cause such abnormalities of development? A. Amoeba B. Volvox C. Plasmodium D. Trypanosoma brucei E. * Toxoplasma gondii 1013. A fever has developed in a patient two weeks after blood transfusion. What protozoan disease should be considered? A. Amoebiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Balantidiasis D. Lambliosis E. * Malaria 1014. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of malaria? A. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells B. Biological tests with susceptible animals C. Serology of cerebrospinal fluid. D. both B and C E. * Microscopy of patient’s blood smears 1015. What is infective stage of Plasmodium for human? A. young trophozoites B. mature schizonts C. gametocytes D. growing trophozoites E. * sporozoites 1016. What is infective stage of Plasmodium for mosquito? A. young trophozoites B. sporozoites C. mature schizonts D. merozoites E. * gametocytes 1017. Which types of locomotor organelles does lamblia have? A. cilia B. pseudopodia C. no locomotor organelles D. both A and C E. * flagella 1018. Which Plasmodium species can cause “blackwater fever”? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. All of these E. * Plasmodium falciparum 1019. Smears from the skin ulcer of a patient with the initial diagnosis of cutaneous leishmaniasis have been taken. Which protozoa could be found in these smears? A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma b.gambiense C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Leishmania donovani E. * Leishmania tropica minor A. B. C. D. E. 1020. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis Urogenital trichomoniasis. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination ? the cerebrospinal fluid and blood urine feces duodenal contents *vaginal fluid 1021. Antelope has been brought to the Ukrainian zoo. Trypanosomes have been found in its blood smears. What prophylactics measures shoud be performed? A. isolation of animal B. extermination of animal C. boiling of water D. both A and C E. * any prophylactics measures 1022. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis "sleeping sickness". Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. duodenal contents B. urine C. feces D. material from breastbone puncture E. * cerebrospinal fluid and matherial obtained by puncture of the enlarged lymph nodes 1023. What is causative agent of Kala-asar? A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma b.gambiense C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Leishmania tropica minor E. * Leishmania donovani 1024. Which types of locomotor organelles does Balantidium coli have? A. pseudopodia B. flagella C. no locomotor organelles D. 4 flagella E. * cilia 1025. Indicate the ways of reprodaction of Balantidium coli? A. endogony B. shizogony C. sporogony D. copulation E. * binary fission 1026. What is the way of transmission of balantidiasis? A. sexual B. by bite of Anopheles mosquito C. by bite of bug species (family Triatomidae) D. by bite of sandfly (genus Phlebotomus) E. * alimentary 1027. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis “balantidiasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. duodenal contents B. urine C. material from breastbone puncture D. cerebrospinal fluid and matherial obtained by puncture of the enlarged E. * stool (feces) 1028. A protozoa with cilia were revealed during laboratory analysis of feces smear of patient with frequent stool, containing mucus and blood. What diagnosis can be made? A. amoebiasis B. malaria C. kala-azar D. Chagas’ disease E. * balantidiasis 1029. A human population has a higher-than-usual percentage of individuals with a genetic disease. The most likely explanation is: A. gene flow B. natural selection C. variation D. all of these E. * genetic drift 1030. The average phenotype increases its frequency in a population due to: A. directional selection B. disruptive selection C. all of these D. none of these E. * stabilizing selection 1031. Disruptive selection, directional selection and stabilizing selection are all examples of ... A. genetic equilibrium B. random changes in a gene pool C. speciation D. gene pool E. * natural selection 1032. Human beings can not catch amoebiasis through: A. Unwashed hands B. Unwashed vegetables C. Unwashed fruits D. Unboiled water E. * Unchecked meat 1033. Human beings can catch balantidiasis through: A. Unwashed hands B. Unwashed vegetables C. Unwashed fruits D. Unboiled water E. * Unchecked pork 1034. The human brain and eyes can be affected by: A. Leishmania tropica B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Plasmodium vivax E. * Toxoplasma gondii 1035. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by: A. Anopheles representatives B. Culex representatives C. Aedes representatives D. Glossina representatives E. * Phlebotomus resentatives 1036. Human beings can catch lambliasis through: A. Unchecked pork B. Unchecked beef C. Rotten fish D. Unchecked crabs E. * Unwashed hands 1037. Malaria is transmitted by: A. Culex representatives B. Aedes representatives C. Phlebotomus resentatives D. Glossina representatives E. * Anopheles representatives 1038. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by: A. Anopheles representatives B. Culex representatives C. Aedes representatives D. Phlebotomus resentatives E. * Glossina representatives 1039. A. B. C. D. E. Leishmania tropica is localized in: Small intestine Large intestine Liver Blood cells *Skin cells 1040. Trichomonas vaginalis in the human body causes: A. Large liver and spleen mass B. Depression and sleepiness C. Anemia D. Diarrhea E. * Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts 1041. Entamoeba histolytica in the human body causes: A. Large liver and spleen mass B. Depression and sleepiness C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts D. Anemia E. * Diarrhea 1042. Balantidium coli in the human body causes: A. Large liver and spleen mass B. Depression and sleepiness C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts D. Anemia E. * Diarrhea 1043. Trypanosoma gambiense in the human body causes: A. Large liver and spleen mass B. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts C. Anemia D. Diarrhea E. * Depression and sleepiness 1044. Plasmodium ovale in the human body causes: Inflammatory processes in the skin cells Depression and sleepiness Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts Diarrhea *Anemia A. B. C. D. E. 1045. Plasmodium vivax in the human body causes: A. Depression and sleepiness B. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts C. Inflammatory processes in the nerve cells D. Diarrhea E. * Large liver and spleen mass 1046. A. B. C. D. E. 1047. During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found: Pseudocysts Sporozoites Ookinetes Endozoites *Schizonts During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found: A. Pseudocysts B. Sporozoites C. Ookinetes D. Endozoites E. * Gametocytes 1048. A. B. C. D. E. Pseudocysts formation is common for: Leishmania tropica Entamoeba coli Lamblia intestinalis Balantidium coli *Toxoplasma gondii 1049. Endozoites formation is common for: A. Leishmania tropica B. Entamoeba histilytica C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Balantidium coli E. * Toxoplasma gondii 1050. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium malariae lasts: A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. 96 hours D. 12 hours E. * 72 hours 1051. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium vivax lasts: A. 24 hours B. 72 hours C. 96 hours D. 12 hours E. * 48 hours 1052. A. B. C. D. E. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium ovale lasts: 24 hours 72 hours 96 hours 12 hours *48 hours A. B. C. D. E. Schizont formation is common for: Leishmania tropica Entamoeba coli Lamblia intestinalis Balantidium coli *Plasmodium vivax A. B. C. D. Ookinetes formation is common for: Leishmania tropica Entamoeba coli Lamblia intestinalis Balantidium coli 1053. 1054. E. *Plasmodium vivax 1055. Gametocytes formation is common for: A. Leishmania tropica B. Entamoeba coli C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Balantidium coli E. *Plasmodium vivax 1056. Vaccination is the prophylaxis of: A. Lambliosis B. Trichomoniasis C. Malaria D. Toxoplasmosis E. * Cutaneus leishmaniasis 1057. The final host of Toxoplasma gondii is a: A. Human being B. Mouse C. Hen D. Rabbit E. * Cat 1058. The host of Trichomonas vaginalis is a: A. Cat B. Mouse C. Hen D. Rabbit E. * Human being 1059. The host of Entamoeba histolytica is a: A. Dog B. Mouse C. Cat D. Rabbit E. * Human being 1060. The host of Balantidium coli is a: A. Cat B. Cow C. Hen D. Rabbit E. * Pig 1061. Visceral leishmaniasis prevention consists of: A. Mosquitoes extermination B. Tsetse fly extermination C. Personal hygiene D. Water purification E. * Taking measures against rodents 1062. Malaria prevention consists of: A. Tsetse fly extermination B. Taking measures against rodents C. Personal hygiene D. Water boiling E. * Mosquitoes extermination 1063. Amoebiasis prevention consists of: A. Mosquitoes extermination B. Tsetse fly extermination C. Taking measures against rodents D. Sand fly extermination E. * Water purification 1064. Balantidiasis prevention consists of: A. Mosquitoes extermination B. Tsetse fly extermination C. Restricted contacts with cats D. Sand fly extermination E. * Washing hands before eating 1065. Toxoplasmosis prevention consists of: A. Mosquitoes extermination B. Tsetse fly extermination C. Sand fly extermination D. Personal hygiene E. * Restricted contacts with cats 1066. The intermediate host of Plasmodium malaria is a: A. Antelope B. Mosquito C. Tsetse fly D. Sand fly E. * Human being 1067. The reservoir host of Trypanosoma gambiense is a: A. Human being B. Mosquito C. Tsetse fly D. Sand fly E. * Antelope 1068. The reservoir host of Leishmania donovani is a: A. Human being B. Mosquito C. Tsetse fly D. Sand fly E. * Dog 1069. The reservoir host of Trypanosoma cruzi is a: A. Human being B. Mosquito C. Tsetse fly D. Sand fly E. * Cow 1070. Fasciola hepatica marita is localized in the liver of: A. Snail B. Dog C. Cat D. Fish E. * Cattle 1071. Fasciola hepatica adult is localized in the liver of: A. Snail B. Dog C. Cat D. Fish E. * Human being A. B. C. D. E. Human beings’ invasion with fascioliasis happens through: Dirty hands Dirty fruits Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish Consuming raw crawfish and crabs *Water A. B. C. D. E. Human beings’ invasion with paragonimiasis happens through: Water Dirty hands Dirty vegetables and fruits Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish *Consuming raw crawfish and crabs A. B. C. D. E. Human beings’ invasion with chlonorchiasis happens through: Water Dirty hands Dirty vegetables and fruits Consuming raw crawfish and crabs *Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish 1072. 1073. 1074. 1075. Human beings’ invasion with opisthorchiasis happens through: A. Water B. Dirty hands C. Dirty vegetables and fruits D. Consuming raw crawfish and crabs E. * Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish 1076. Human beings’ invasion with dicrocoeliosis happens through: A. Water B. Dirty hands C. Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish D. Consuming raw crawfish and crabs E. * Dirty vegetables 1077. In the human bile ducts there can be found: A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Paragonimus westermani C. Taenia solium D. Taenia saginata E. * Fasciola hepatica 1078. In the human bile ducts there can be not found: A. Cat fluke B. Fasciola hepatica C. Clonorchis sinensis D. Opisthorchis felineus E. * Paragonimus westermani 1079. In the human lungs there can be found: A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Fasciola hepatica C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Clonorchis sinensis E. * Paragonimus westermani 1080. In the human blood vessels there can be found: A. Fasciola hepatica B. Paragonimus westermani C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Clonorchis sinensis E. * Schistosoma haematobium 1081. In the human blood vessels there can be found: A. Fasciola hepatica B. Paragonimus westermani C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Clonorchis sinensis E. * Schistosoma japonicum 1082. In the human veins there can be found: A. Fasciola hepatica B. Paragonimus westermani C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Clonorchis sinensis E. * Schistosoma mansoni 1083. The invasive for human beings stage of Fasciola hepatica is called: A. Miracidium B. Sporocyst C. Redia D. egg E. * Adolescaria 1084. The invasive stage of Schistosoma haematobium for human beings is called: A. Miracidium B. Sporocyst C. Redia D. Metacercaria E. *Cercaria 1085. A. B. C. D. E. The invasive for human beings stage of Paragonimus westermani is called: Miracidium Sporocyst Redia Cercaria *Metacercaria 1086. The invasive for human beings stage of Opisthorchis felineus is called: A. Miracidium B. Sporocyst C. Redia D. Cercaria E. * Metacercaria 1087. What is the size of the marita of Fasciola hepatica? A. 3-5 mm B. 30-50 cm C. 10 mm D. 1-2 m E. * 3-5 cm 1088. A. B. C. D. E. What is the size of adult of Fasciola hepatica? 3-5 mm 30-50 cm 10 mm 1-2 m *3-5 cm 1089. The final host of Taenia saginata is a: A. dog B. pig C. fish D. cow E. * man 1090. The final host of Echinococcus granulosus is a: A. man B. pig C. fish D. cow E. *dog 1091. In human organism the hydadtid cyst stage of Echinococcus granulosus can be localized in the: A. Large intestine B. Skin C. Pancreas D. Small intestine E. * Lungs 1092. The diagnostics of the disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst is performed by: A. Microscopic analisis of blood B. Microscopic analisis of urine C. Microscopic analisis of cerebrospinal fluid D. Microscopic analisis of feses E. * Serological examination and tomography 1093. In human organism cysticercosis is result of autoinvasion by: A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. Taenia saginata C. Echinococcus multilocularis D. Echinococcus granulosus E. * Taenia solium 1094. The individual prevention of opisthorchiasis is based on: A. Individual hygiene B. Consuming well-cooked crabs C. Consuming well-cooked beef D. Consuming boiled water E. * Consuming well-cooked fish 1095. The individual prevention of paragonimiasis is based on: A. Individual hygiene B. Consuming well-cooked fish C. Consuming well-cooked beef D. Consuming boiled water E. * Consuming well-cooked crabs 1096. The individual prevention of fascioliasis is based on: A. Individual hygiene B. Consuming well-cooked fish C. Consuming well-cooked crabs D. Consuming well-cooked beef E. * Consuming boiled water 1097. The individual prevention of urogenital schistosomiasis is based on: A. Consuming well-cooked fish B. Consuming well-cooked crabs C. Consuming well-cooked pork D. Consuming boiled water E. * No swimming in endemic areas 1098. The individual prevention of hepatosplenic schistosomiasis is based on: A. Consuming well-cooked fish B. Consuming well-cooked crabs C. Consuming well-cooked pork D. Consuming boiled water E. * No swimming in endemic areas 1099. The individual prevention of intestinal schistosomiasis is based on: A. Consuming well-cooked fish B. Consuming well-cooked crabs C. Consuming well-cooked pork D. Consuming boiled water E. * No swimming in endemic areas 1100. The intermediate host of Taenia solium is a: A. dog B. man C. fish D. cow E. * pig 1101. The diagnostics of the disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst is performed by: A. Microscopic analisis of feses B. Microscopic analisis of blood C. Microscopic analisis of urine D. Microscopic analisis of cerebrospinal fluid E. * Serological examination and X-ray 1102. In human organism the multilocular cyst stage of Echinococcus multilocularis can be localized in the: A. Small intestine B. Large intestine C. Skin D. Pancreas E. * Liver 1103. Human being can be invaded by Diphyllobotrium latum through: A. Consuming freshly salted caviar B. Unwashed vegetables C. Dirty hands D. Water E. * No enough thermal treatment of fish 1104. Public prevention of the invasion of Echinococcus granulosus it is necessary to: A. Treat pork thermally before consumption B. Wash vegetables and fruit C. Wash hands before eating D. Treat beef thermally before consumption E. * Treat and diagnostic of dogs 1105. The intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus is a: A. dog B. cat C. fish D. fox E. * man 1106. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of ascariasis? A. B. C. D. E. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears Microscopy of patient’s liver cells Serologic test, muscle biopsy Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid *Microscopy of patient’s faeces 1107. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichuriasis? A. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells C. Serologic test, muscle biopsy D. Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid E. * Microscopy of patient’s faeces 1108. What is the mode of transmission of Trichinella spiralis in human? A. ingestion contaminated crabs B. ingestion contaminated snail C. ingestion contaminated beef D. penetration of skin by larva E. * ingestion contaminated pork 1109. A. B. C. D. E. 1110. What is prevention of filariasis? A. filtering or boiling of drinking water B. control of the deer fly by insecticides C. washing hands before meals D. wearing shoes E. * control of the mosquito by insecticides 1111. A. B. C. D. E. What is prevention of dracunculiasis? control of the deer fly by insecticides washing hands before meals properly cooking pork wearing shoes *filtering or boiling of drinking water A. B. C. D. E. What is prevention of loiasis? filtering or boiling of drinking water washing hands before meals control of the mosquito by insecticides wearing shoes *control of the deer fly by insecticides 1112. 1113. What is the cause of filariasis: Dracunculus medinensis Onchocerca volvulus Toxocara canis Loa loa *Wuchereria bancrofti What is prevention of trichinosis? A. filtering or boiling of drinking water B. control of the deer fly by insecticides C. washing hands before meals D. wearing shoes E. *properly cooking pork 1114. What is prevention of onchocerciasis? A. filtering or boiling of drinking water B. control of the deer fly by insecticides C. washing hands before meals D. control of the mosquito by insecticides E. * control of the black fly by insecticides 1115. What is prevention of strongyloidiasis? A. properly cooking pork B. control of the deer fly by insecticides C. washing hands before meals D. control of the mosquito by insecticides E. * wearing shoes 1116. Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of blackflies: A. Dracunculus medinensis B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Toxocara canis D. Loa loa E. * Onchocerca volvulus 1117. Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of mosquito? A. Dracunculus medinensis B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Toxocara canis D. Loa loa E. * Wuchereria bancrofti 1118. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of dracunculiasis? A. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells C. Biopsy of the affected skin D. Serologic test, muscle biopsy E. * Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer 1119. What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of onchocerciasis? A.* Microscopy of patient’s blood smears B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells C. Serologic test, muscle biopsy D. Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer E. Biopsy of the affected skin 1120. In Eastern countries crayfish and crabs are intermediate hosts for: A. Schistosomes B. Fasciola hepatica C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Dicrocoelium lanceatum E. * Paragonimus westermani 1121. The agent of scabies is: A. Dermacentor pictus B. Ornithodoros papillipes C. Demodex folliculorum D. Ixodes ricinus E. * Sarcoptes scabiei 1122. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts for: A. Fasciola hepatica B. Paragonimus westermani C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Wuchereria bancrofti E. * Dracunculus medinensis 1123. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts for: A. Fasciola hepatica B. Paragonimus westermani C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Wuchereria bancrofti E. * Diphyllobotrium latum 1124. Ixodes ricinus is a vector of the causative agents for: A. Plugue B. Scabies C. Demodecosis D. Pediculosis E. * Tularemia 1125. Ixodes persulcatus is a vector of the causative agents for: A. Plugue B. Scabies C. Demodecosis D. Pediculosis E. * Taiga encephalitis 1126. Pulex irritans is a vector of the causative agents for: A. Taiga encephalitis B. Scabies C. Demodecosis D. Pediculosis E. * Plugue 1127. Pediculus humanus humanus is a vector of the causative agents for: A. Plugue B. Taiga encephalitis C. Scabies D. Pediculosis E. * Epidemic typhus 1128. Pediculus humanus capitis is a causative agent of: A. Plugue B. Epidemic typhus C. Scabies D. Demodecosis E. * Pediculosis 1129. The vector of malaria agent is: A. Mosquito Culex B. Pediculus humanus C. Tsetse fly Glossina palpalis D. Sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii E. * Mosquito Anopheles 1130. The black fly of genus Simulium is a specific vector of the agent of: A. Plugue B. Tularemia C. Scabies D. Loiasis E. * Onchocerciasis 1131. The infection of human beings with plague happens due to: A. Mosquito bite B. Bedbugs bite C. Sand fly bite D. Lice bite E. * Flea bite 1132. The human flea Pulex irritans larva ... A. Has legs B. Has wings C. Looks like an imago D. Looks like a pupa E. * Doesn’t have legs 1133. A. B. C. D. E. 1134. 1135. During the day period a Pediculus humanus capitis female lays up to: 50 eggs 100 eggs 200 eggs 300 eggs *10 eggs The life period of Pediculus humanus capitis is: A. 7-17 days B. 17-27 days C. 37-47 days D. 47-57 days E. * 27-37 days A trench fever causative agent gets into the human body during: A. Mosquito bites B. Crushing lice and getting its hemolymph into the wound, which appears on the skin during biting or scratching C. Contact with clothes of sick people D. Crushing hemolymph with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or respiratory tract E. * Crushing feces with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or respiratory tract 1136. A pediculosis causative agent gets into the human body during: A. Insect bites B. Crushing lice and getting its hemolymph into the wound, which appears on the skin during biting or scratching C. Crushing feces with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or respiratory tract D. Crushing hemolymph with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or respiratory tract E. * Contact with clothes of sick people 1137. A scabies causative agent gets into the human body during: A. Insect bites B. Crushing lice and getting its hemolymph into the wound, which appears on the skin during biting or scratching C. Crushing feces with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or respiratory tract D. Crushing hemolymph with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or respiratory tract E. * Contact with clothes of sick people 1138. All of the genes that occur within a specific population refers to the term A. genotype B. gene marker C. genome D. selection E. * gene pool 1139. How many blood circuit does the amphybians vascular system have? A. 12 B. 3 C. non of the above D. 10 E. * 2 1140. All of the animals has double circulation through the heart except A. birds B. mammals C. amphibian’s D. reptilians E. * fish’s 1141. Four chambered heart all of the animals have except A. birds B. mammals C. crocodilians D. humans E. *fish 1142. In which of the following animals the blood on ventricle is incompletely oxygenated? A. chicken B. monkey C. fish D. man E. * frog 1143. In which of the following animals the ventricle is incompletely separated? A. frog B. chicken C. monkey D. fish E. * snake 1144. Arachnids have _________ pairs of legs. A. three B. six C. eight D. two E. * four 1145. Crustaceans have _________ pairs of antennae A. four B. three C. one D. eight E. * two 1146. Insects have _________ pairs of antennae: A. four B. three C. eight D. two E. * one 1147. A. B. C. D. E. The members of the crustacean class are: itch mite house fly fruit fly mosquito *crabs A. B. C. D. E. The representatives of the crustacean class are: mosquito itch mite house fly fruit fly *cyclops 1148. 1149. The members of the crustacean class are: A. mosquito B. itch mite C. fruit fly D. house fly E. * crayfishes 1150. Members of the insects class are: A. itch mite B. crayfishes C. hard-bodied ticks D. soft-bodied ticks E. * mosquitoes 1151. The _____________ go through a complete metamorphosis. A. mites B. ticks C. spiders D. lice E. * mosquitoes 1152. The _____________ go through a complete metamorphosis. A. mites B. ticks C. spiders D. lice E. * fleas 1153. The _____________ go through a complete metamorphosis. A. mites B. spiders C. ticks D. lice E. * tsetse flies 1154. The _____________ go through complete metamorphosis. A. mites B. lice C. spiders D. ticks E. * flies 1155. The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis. A. mosquitoes B. butterflies C. fleas D. flies E. * lices 1156. The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis. A. mosquitoes B. fleas C. flies D. butterflies E. * ticks 1157. During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through four stages. A. incomplete B. simple C. immature D. non of the above E. * complete 1158. Chitin can be found in: A. glandular tissue B. the muscle tissue of vertebrates C. epithelial tissue of humans D. non of the above E. * exoskeleton of animals such as cockroaches and crabs 1159. During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through three stages. A. complete B. full C. mature D. immature E. * incomplete 1160. The representatives of the arachnid class are: A. crabs B. mollusks (clams) C. flies D. mosquito E. * spiders 1161. The representatives of the arachnid class are: A. crabs B. house fly C. fruit fly D. mosquito E. * itch mite 1162. Members of the arachnid class are: A. Black fly B. Pediculus humanus capitis C. Mosquito Anopheles D. Glossina palpalis E. * Ixodes persulcatus 1163. Members of the insects class are: A. hard-bodied ticks B. itch mite C. crayfishes D. soft-bodied ticks E. * fleas 1164. Members of the insects class are: A. hard-bodied ticks B. itch mite C. crayfishes D. soft-bodied ticks E. * lice 1165. Members of the insects class are: A. hard-bodied ticks B. itch mite C. crayfishes D. soft-bodied ticks E. * bugs 1166. Representatives of the insects class are: A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes ricinus C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Ornithodorus papillipes E. * Pediculus humanus capitis 1167. Members of the insects class are: A. Ixodes ricinus B. Ixodes persulcatus C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Ornithodorus papillipes E. * Pediculus humanus humanus 1168. How many legs does an insect have? A. four B. three C. eight D. two E. * six 1169. How many pairs of legs does an insect have? A. four B. six C. eight D. two E. * three 1170. The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis. A. mosquitoes B. scorpions C. fleas D. flies E. * lice 1171. The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis. A. mosquitoes B. fleas C. flies D. bugs E. * ticks 1172. A. B. C. D. E. Biotic factors in an ecosystem can include sunlight temperature air pressure wind *animals 1173. The interaction between two species in which one species benefits and the other species is harmed is called: A. mutualism B. commensalism C. competition D. none of these E. * parasitism 1174. In a natural community, the primary consumers are: A. carnivores B. scavengers C. decomposers D. all of these E. * herbivores 1175. In contrast to a predator, a parasite usually ... A. kills its host B. is a short-term visitor C. is larger than its host D. does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives and is larger than its host. E. * does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives 1176. Air pollution ... A. reduces visibility B. corrodes buildings C. causes various human diseases D. damages plants E. * all of these 1177. The biomass of a community is the weight of the ... A. material decomposed in a year B. producers. C. consumers. D. decomposers E. * living organisms 1178. The interaction between two species in which both species may be harmed is known as ... A. mutualism B. parasitism C. commensalism D. predation E. * competition 1179. The interaction between two species in which one species may be harmed is known as ... A. mutualism B. commensalism C. competition D. symbiosis E. * parasitism 1180. The interaction between two species in which one specie may be harmed is known as ... A. mutualism B. symbiosis C. commensalism D. competition. E. * predation 1181. The relationship between two species in which one species may is benefited and the other is neither benefited or harmed is called: A. mutualism B. symbiosis C. competition D. predation E. * commensalism 1182. The relationship between two species in both members of the association benefit is known as ... A. symbiosis. B. commensalism C. competition D. predation E. * mutualism 1183. A natural food web ... A. contains only grazing food chains B. is usually unstable C. contains only grazing food chains and D. All of these E. * contains several trophic levels contains several trophic levels 1184. How do plants contribute to the carbon cycle? A. When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere B. When they photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere C. They do not contribute to the carbon cycle D. All of these E. * When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere and when they photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere 1185. How do nitrogen fixing bacteria contribute to the nitrogen cycle? A. They return N2 to the atmosphere B. They change ammonia to nitrate C. They withdraw nitrate from the soil D. All of these E. * They change N2 to ammonia 1186. Detritivores are: A. bacteria B. plants C. fungi D. animals E. * both bacteria and fungi 1187. The relationship between man and Plasmodium vivax is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1188. The relationship between man and Toxoplasma gondii is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism. 1189. The relationship between man and Plasmodium ovale is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1190. The relationship between man and Plasmodium malariae is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1191. The relationship between man and Plasmodium falciparum is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1192. The relationship between man and Entamoeba hystolitica (forma magna) is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1193. The relationship between man and Entamoeba hystolitica (forma minuta) is named: A. mutualism B. parasitism. C. competition D. predation E. * commensalism 1194. The relationship between man and Entamoeba coli is named: A. mutualism B. parasitism. C. competition D. predation E. * commensalism 1195. The relationship between man and Trypanosoma brucei is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1196. A. B. C. D. E. The relationship between man and Entamoeba gingivalis is named: mutualism parasitism. competition predation *commensalism 1197. The relationship between man and Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1198. The relationship between man and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1199. The relationship between man and Trypanosoma cruzi is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1200. The relationship between man and Leishmania donovani is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1201. The relationship between man and Leishmania infantum is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1202. The relationship between man and Leishmania tropica major is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1203. The relationship between man and Leishmania tropica minor is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1204. The relationship between man and Leishmania mexicana is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1205. The relationship between man and Leishmania peruviana is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1206. The relationship between man and Leishmania brasiliense is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1207. The relationship between man and Leishmania aethiopia is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1208. The relationship between man and Trichomonas vaginalis is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1209. The relationship between man and Lamblia intestinalis is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1210. The relationship between man and Giardia lamblia is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism 1211. The relationship between man and Balantidium coli is named: A. mutualism B. commensalism. C. competition D. predation E. * parasitism Situational tasks. Module 3. Populanion-specific, biogeocenologic and biosphere’s levels of life organization 1. 2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recipient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it be? A. * Malaria B. Amebiasis C. Trypanosomiasis D. Leishmaniasis E. Toxoplasmosis 2. A 19-year old student has diarrhea with a mucous and blood. A protozoa with cilia were revealed during laboratory analysis of feces. Indicate the most probable diagnosis. A. B. C. D. E. Amoebiasis Toxoplasmosis Cutaneus leishmaniasis Malaria * Balantidiasis 3. A 30-years-old male who is anaemic, cachexic and has hepatosplenomegaly accompanied with fever, shows on a bone marrow smear many organisms within macrophages. These organisms have a nucleus and a smaller but distinct kinetoplast. The likely diagnosis is: A. African trypanosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Chagas’ disease D. * Viasceral leishmaniasis E. Malaria 4. ?A 4 year old child from South America has an erythematous nodule at the face, high fever, unilateral swelling of the face whith edema of the eyelid, regional lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly. What protozoan diseases can be possibility? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. * Chagas’ disease D. Kala-azar E. Malaria 5. A fever has developed in a patient two weeks after blood transfusion. What protozoan disease should be considered? A. Amoebiasis B. * Malaria C. Trichomoniasis D. Toxoplasmosis E. Lambliosis 6. A man, who came from Africa, with anemia and high temperature, passed a medical examination. Young trophozoites were found in blood smears. What stage in life cycle of plasmodium occurs in human body? A. Exoerythrocytic schizogony B. * Erythrocytic schizogony C. Sporogony D. Sporulation E. Endohepatocytic schizogony 7. A patient with prolonged diarrhea undergoes esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Biopsy of the small intestine demonstrates numerous crescent-shaped protozoa adjacent to the epithelial brush border. Which of the following organisms is the most likely pathogen? A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Escherichia coli C. * Giardia lamblia D. Trypanosoma gambiense E. Trichomonas vaginalis 8. After initiation of specific treatment in malaria, how soon the patient’s symptoms abate: A. Within 6 hours B. * Within 24-48 hours C. Within a week D. Within a month E. After one more febrile attack 9. Antelope has been brought to the Ukrainian zoo. Trypanosomes have been found in its blood smears. What prophylactics measures shout be performed? A. * Any prophylactics measures B. Use insecticide C. Isolation of animal D. Extermination of animal E. Boiling of water 10. Blood smears for suspected malaria should first be taken: A. Just after the fever B. Before the chills C. * When the diagnosis is first suspected D. At night E. After splenomegaly 11. Entamoeba histolytica gains abscess to the liver via: A. Limphatics B. * Portal system C. Arteria hepatica D. Direct invation E. Through perineural space 12. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. * Blood B. Urine C. Feces D. Material from breastbone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 13. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis “malaria”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. * Blood B. Urine C. Feces D. Material from breast bone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 14. The partner of a patient who suffers from urogenital trichomoniasis be treated: A. Only if symptomatic B. Only if examination is positive C. Only if asymptomatic D. * Always be treatment E. No need of treatment 15. What protozoan diseases is occurring widely in Central and South America, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi and transmitted by the bites of bugs of the genus Triatoma? A. African trypanosomiasis B. Toxoplasmosis C. * Chagas’ disease D. Kala-azar E. Malaria 16. Which of the following is not true about common symptoms of malaria: A. Anemia B. Splenomegaly C. Hepatomegaly D. Fever E. * Chorioretinitis 17. Which of the following is not true about falciparum malaria: A. Central nervous system involvement is maximum B. Duration of primary disease is 2-3 weeks C. * Relapses are common D. Periodicity of febrile paroxysms is 48 hours E. It is tropical malaria 18. Which of the following is not true about West African trypanosomiasis: A. Human are primary reservoirs B. Minimal lymphadenopathy C. * Low parasitemia D. Fever E. Illness is usually chronic 19. A man, who came from Africa, passed a medical examination. Eggs with lateral spine were found in urine. Indicate the most probable diagnosis: A. fascioliasis B. paragonimiasis C. chlonorchiasis D. * shistosomiasis E. opisthorchiasis 20. A patient complained about the weakness of decline of appetite, head pain, nausea, and pain in a stomach. In blood found out anemia. A patient likes to use the dried fish. Oval, gray (75-50mcm) eggs with an operculum (lid like opening) at one end, was finding in the stool. What the most probable diagnosis: A. Ascariasis B. Paragonimiasis C. Taeniasis D. * Diphyllobothriasis. E. Hydatid cyst disease 21. A family has a cat with Cat fluke. Can children be infected from this cat? A. B. C. D. E. yes, by fascioliasis yes, by paragonimiasis yes, by shistosomiasis yes, by opisthorchiasis * no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae 22. A man has eaten an undercooked beef (liver contained Fasciola hepatica). Can this person be infected? A. B. C. D. E. yes, by fascioliasis no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae no, because infective stage for humans is cercariae yes, by opisthorchiasis * no, because infective stage for humans is adolescariae 23. A man, who came from Africa, passed a medical examination. Eggs with lateral spine were found in feces Indicate the most probable diagnosis: A. B. C. D. E. fascioliasis paragonimiasis chlonorchiasis * shistosomiasis opisthorchiasis 24. A man, who came from Far East, passed a medical examination. Eggs (0,1 mm, oval, goldenbrownish, operculated) were found in sputum. Indicate the most probable diagnosis: A. fascioliasis B. * paragonimiasis C. chlonorchiasis D. shistosomiasis E. dicrocoeloasis 25. A man, who came from Siberia, passed a medical examination. Oval, yellow eggs 15-30 mcm in sizes,were found in stool. The outer membrane is thick, and there is a cover in the front of the egg. The internal structure of the egg is microgranularl. Indicate the most probable diagnosis: A. fascioliasis B. paragonimiasis C. * opisthorhiasis D. diphyllobothriasis. E. Dicrocoeloasis 26. A patient complained about the weakness of decline of appetite, head pain, nausea, and pain in a stomach. In blood found out anemia. A patient likes to use the dried fish. Proglottids was finding in the stool. They are wider than they are long, and uterus is in the form of a rosette. What the most probable diagnosis: A. Ascariasis B. Paragonimiasis C. Taeniasis D. * Diphyllobothriasis. E. Hydatid cyst disease 27. ?A patient with anaemia, who came from Far East, passed a medical examination. Eggs, oval, yellow-brown with an operculum (lidlike opening) at one end were found in stool. Indicate the most probable diagnosis: A. fascioliasis B. paragonimiasis C. chlonorchiasis D. * diphyllobothriasis. E. Dicrocoeloasis 28. A patient, passed a medical examination. Eggs 100-150mcm, with thin membrane, yellow color and small cover in one pole were found in stool. Indicate the most probable diagnosis A. * fascioliasis B. paragonimiasis C. ascariasis D. diphyllobothriasis. E. taeniasis 29. A patient, with chronic cough and bloody sputum, passed a medical examination. Eggs, oval, yellow-brown with an operculum (lid like opening) at one end were found in stool. Indicate the most probable diagnosis: A. fascioliasis B. paragonimiasis C. chlonorchiasis D. * diphyllobothriasis. E. Dicrocoeloasis 30. At microscopic research of feaces after degelmentisation found out the helmints of white color with the segmented body, that have the appearance of filament long 1-2 sm. On a scolex noticeable 4 suckers and circle of hooks. The width of segments exceeds length. Name a possible helmint. A. * Hymenolepis nana B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Taenia saginata D. Taenia solium E. Echinococcus granulosus 31. At microscopic research of feaces after degelmentisation found out the helmintsof white color with the segmented body, that have the appearance of filament long 1-2 sm. On a scolex noticeable 4 suckers and circle of hooks. The width of segments exceeds length. What the most probable diagnosis? A. Taeniasis solium B. Taeniasis saginata C. Diphyllobothriasis. D. * Hymenolepiasis E. Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Disease 32. At microscopic research of feaces after degelmentisation found out the helmints of white color with the segmented body, that have the appearance of filament 1-2 sm long. On a scolex noticeable 4 suckers and circle of hooks. The width of segments exceeds length. Name a possible helmint. A. dog tapeworm B. * dwarf tapeworm C. fish tapeworm D. beef tapeworm E. pig tapeworm 33. At puncture cyst of liver of patient a transparent barely rather yellow matter is got. It contains shallow as grains of sand educations. What the most probable diagnosis: A. Ascariasis B. Paragonimiasis C. Taeniasis D. Diphyllobothriasis. E. * Hydatid cyst disease 34. During a medical examination patient’s feces, eggs with the 8-10 polar filaments lying between the membrane of the 6-hooked larva and the outer shell were found. Indicate the most probable diagnosis: A. B. C. D. E. Taeniasis solium * Hymenolepiasis Diphyllobotriasis Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Disease Fascioliasis 35. Indicate parasites which exist as separate sexes but live attached to each other (female resides in a groove in the male, where he continuously fertilizes her eggs): A. B. C. D. E. * Schistosoma haematobium Fasciola hepatica Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis 36. Indicate parasites which exist as separate sexes but live attached to each other (female resides in a groove in the male, where he continuously fertilizes her eggs): A. B. C. D. E. * Schistosoma japonicum Fasciola hepatica Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Dicrocoelium lanceatum 37. Indicate parasites which exist as separate sexes but live attached to each other (female resides in a groove in the male, where he continuously fertilizes her eggs): A. B. C. D. E. * Schistosoma mansoni Fasciola hepatica Paragonimus westermani Opisthorchis felineus Clonorchis sinensis 38. Mature proglottids of what cestodes can actively crawl out of the human anus? A. B. C. D. Taenia solium * Taenia saginata Diphyllobotrium latum Hymenolepis nana E. Echinococcus multilocularis 39. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “urogenital shistosomiasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. Blood B. * Urine C. Faeces D. Material from breastbone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 40. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “hepatosplenicshistosomiasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. Blood B. Urine C. * Faeces D. Material from breastbone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 41. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “taeniasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. Blood B. Urine C. * Faeces D. Material from breastbone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 42. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “fascioliasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. Blood B. Urine C. * Faeces D. Material from breastbone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 43. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “opisthorchiasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. Blood B. Urine C. * Faeces D. Material from breastbone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 44. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “diphyllobotriasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination? A. Blood B. Urine C. * Faeces D. Material from breastbone puncture E. Material from lymph node puncture 45. Opistorchiasis diagnosed in a patient from Siberia. Usage of what food causes Biliary fluke infection? A. B. C. D. E. * fish crabs snail fruit pork 46. Paragonimiasis was diagnosed in a patient from China. Usage of what food causes lung fluke infection: A. fish B. * crabs C. snail D. fruit E. pork 47. Sick woman, 26 years old, admited to the hospital with complaints about a weakness, nausea, swelling of stomach, semi-fluid emptying once or twice on days. It is known from anamnesis, that the sick must habit estimate taste qualities of the raw meat stuffing. Put a previous diagnosis A. Ascariasis B. Paragonimiasis C. * Taeniasis D. Diphyllobothriasis. E. Hydatid cyst disease 48. Sick woman, 26 years old, admited to the hospital with complaints about a weakness, nausea, swelling of stomach, semi-fluid emptying once or twice on days. It is known from anamnesis, that the sick must habit estimate taste qualities of the raw meat stuffing. Name a helmint that entailed these symptoms A. Hymenolepis nana B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. * Taenia solium D. Echinococcus granulosus E. Fasciola hepatica 49. Sick woman, 26 years old, admited to the hospital with complaints about a weakness, nausea, swelling of stomach, semi-fluid emptying once or twice on days. It is known from anamnesis, that the sick must habit estimate taste qualities of the raw meat stuffing. Name a helmint that entailed these symptoms A. Hymenolepis nana B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. * Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus granulosus E. Fasciola hepatica 50. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a cysticercus in the brain tissue. Indicate the most probable diagnosis A. * Taeniasis B. Opisthorchiasis C. Diphyllobotriasis D. Hymenolepiasis E. Fascioliasis 51. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a hydatid cyst in the brain tissue. Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism? A. Fasciola hepatica B. Taenia saginata C. Diphyllobotrium latum D. Hymenolepis nana E. * Echinococcus granulosus 52. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a hydatid cyst in the lung tissue. Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism? A. Fasciola hepatica B. Taenia saginata C. Diphyllobotrium latum D. Hymenolepis nana E. * Echinococcus granulosus 53. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a hydatid cyst in the liver tissue. Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism? A. Fasciola hepatica B. Taenia saginata C. Diphyllobotrium latum D. Hymenolepis nana E. * Echinococcus granulosus 54. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a cysticercus in the brain tissue. Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism? A. * Taenia solium B. Taenia saginata C. Diphyllobotrium latum D. Hymenolepis nana E. Echinococcus multilocularis 55. ?To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Fasciolasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. Plerocercoid D. Methacercaria E. * Adult warm 56. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Taeniasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. * Plerocercoid D. Cysticercus E. Adult warm 57. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Diphyllobothriasis.. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. * Plerocercoid D. Cysticercus E. Adult warm 58. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Opisthorchiasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. Plerocercoid D. Cercaria E. * Adult warm 59. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Dicrocoeloasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. Plerocercoid D. Cercaria E. * Adult warm 60. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Paragonimiasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. Plerocercoid D. Cercaria E. * Adult warm 61. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Shysthosomiasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. Plerocercoid D. Methacercaria E. * Adult warm 62. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Clonorchiasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. Plerocercoid D. Methacercaria E. * Adult warm 63. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Hymenolepiasis. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. Plerocercoid D. Methacercaria E. * Adult warm 64. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Multilocular Hydatid Cyst. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. * Larva D. Methacercaria E. Adult warm 65. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Unilocular Hydatid Cyst. What stage of development of parasite entailed this disease? A. Egg B. Procercoid C. * Larva D. Methacercaria E. Adult warm 66. What kind of helminthiasis is characterised by the development of anemia? A. * Teniasis solium B. Cysticercosis C. Taeniasis saginata D. * Diphyllobothriasis E. Fascioliasis 67. 10. Diagnosis of Enterobius vermicularis is best accomplished by: A. stool exam B. immunological test, C. * “scotch tape test”, D. blood film examination, E. tissue biopsy 68. 11. Diagnosis of Trichinella spiralis is best accomplished by: A. stool exam, B. immunological test, C. “scotch tape test”, D. blood film examination, E. * tissue biopsy 69. 12. Diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides is best accomplished by: A. * stool exam B. immunological test C. “scotch tape test” D. blood film examination E. tissue biopsy 70. 13. Diagnosis of Trichuris trichiura is best accomplished by: A. * stool exam B. immunological test C. “scotch tape test” D. blood film examination E. tissue biopsy 71. A host within which a parasite (such as a nematode) reaches sexual maturity and reproduces is known as: A. paratenic host B. intermediate host C. heteroxenous host D. * definitive host E. monoxenous host 72. A patient was admitted to the hospital and complained of muscle pain, fever, per orbital edema. This patient ate undercooked pork some time before illness. Blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E. Ascariasis * Trichinosis Trichuriasis Strongyloidiasis Hookworm infection 73. Ascariasis was diagnosed in 8-years old child. Is this child epidemically dangerous for other members of the family? A. yes, because child spreads embryonated eggs B. * no, because child spreads unembryonated eggs C. yes, because child can pass adult worm to the other members of the family D. yes, because child can pass larva to the other members of the family E. no, because infected stage is larvae 74. Diagnosis of Enterobius vermicularis is best accomplished by: A. stool exam B. immunological test, C. * non correct answer D. blood film examination, E. tissue biopsy 75. Diagnosis of pinworms is best accomplished by: A. stool exam B. immunological test C. * “scotch tape test” D. blood film examination E. tissue biopsy 76. Diagnosis of Trichinella spiralis is best accomplished by: A. stool exam, B. finding of the parasite in the tunnels by a needle C. “scotch tape test”, D. blood film examination, E. * serologic test 77. Diagnosis of Trichuris trichiura is best accomplished by: A. * feces exam B. immunological test C. “scotch tape test” D. blood film examination E. tissue biopsy 78. Diagnosis of Trichuris trichiura is best accomplished by: A. * non correct answer B. immunological test C. “scotch tape test” D. blood film examination E. tissue biopsy 79. In male nematodes, the alimentary and reproductive tracts join to form a: A. cloaca B. spicule C. * bursa D. amphid E. no correct responses 80. In male nematodes, the alimentary and reproductive tracts join to form a: A. cloaca B. spicule C. * bursa D. no correct responses E. amphid 81. In what time Ascaris lumbricoides eggs become invasive? A. B. C. D. E. * 24 days 4 - 6 hours 7 days an hour 3-5 month 82. In what time Enterobius vermicularis eggs become invasive? A. B. C. D. E. 24 days * 4 - 6 hours 7 days an hour 5-6 months 83. Indicate the diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans: A. B. C. D. E. * rhabditiform larva egg filariform larva cercariae gravid proglottid 84. Indicate the disease in which humans are accidental, dead-end hosts: A. B. C. D. E. ascariasis filariasis loiasis * visceral larva migrans dracunculiasis 85. Indicate the helminth of class Nematoda which life cycle does not have migration of larvae? A. B. C. D. E. Ascaris lumbricoides Strongyloides stercoralis Ancylostoma duodenale * Trichuris trichiura Necator americanus 86. Indicate the helminthes in life cycle of which free-living form can be present? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. * Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Trichuris trichiura E. Trichinella spiralis 87. Infection with which parasite would cause elasticity in human skeletal muscles? A. * trichinella worm B. tapeworm C. copepod D. blood fluke E. whipworm 88. Infection with which parasite would cause elasticity in human skeletal muscles? A. * trichinella spiralis B. tapeworm C. copepod D. blood fluke E. whipworm 89. Methods used for diagnosing ascariasis of human include: A. urine exams B. blood films C. tissue biopsy D. immunological tests E. * fecal exams and immunological tests 90. Methods used for diagnosing ascariasis of human include: A. urine exams B. blood films C. tissue biopsy D. immunological tests E. * finding larva in sputum 91. Of the following, which adult round worm is most frequently found in stool specimens? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. * Necator americanus D. Strongyloides stercoralis E. Enterobius vermicularis 92. Of the following, which adult round worm is most frequently found in stool specimens? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. * Ancylostome duodenale D. Strongyloides stercoralis E. Enterobius vermicularis 93. Of the following, which rhabditiform larvae is most frequently found in stool specimens? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. * Ancylostome duodenale D. Strongyloides stercoralis E. Enterobius vermicularis 94. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “enterobiasis”. What method should be performed for laboratory examination? A. blood microscopy B. urine microscopy C. feces microscopy D. * “scotch tape” technique E. examination of the cerebrospinal fluid 95. Organisms in which of the following phyla includes the flatworms? A. Annelida B. Arthropoda C. Nematoda D. * Platyhelminthes E. None of the above 96. The eggs (brown, barrel-shaped with a plug at each end) were found during the feces microscopy of one patient with diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea. Indicate the most probable diagnosis. A. B. C. D. E. Cysticercosis * Trichuriasis Enterobiasis Ascariasis Diphyllobotriasis 97. The eggs (oval with an irregular surface) were found during the feces microscopy of one patient with nausea, vomiting, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable diagnosis? A. Trichuriasis B. Enterobiasis C. * Ascariasis D. Cysticercosis E. Dicrocoeliasis 98. The human hookworm that consumes the most blood on a per nematode basis is: A. * Ancylostoma duodenale B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura E. Trichinella spiralis 99. The larvae were found during the sputum microscopy of one patient with pneumonia, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E. * Ascariasis Enterobiasis Trichuriasis Cysticercosis Diphyllobotriasis 100. The larvae were found during the sputum microscopy of one patient with pneumonia, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable diagnosis? A. B. C. D. E. * non correct answer Enterobiasis Trichuriasis Cysticercosis Diphyllobotriasis 101. The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must * consume the nematode’s eggs. walk barefoot on infested soil. sit on an infested toilet seat. drink water with cyclopes All of the above 102. The ova of this worm are described as being barrel-shaped with a hyaline plug at each pole. They are 20-25 ?m in width by 50-55 ?m in length. They have a thick, yellowbrown shell containing an undeveloped embryo. They are: A. * Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Ancylostome duodenale D. Strongyloides stercoralis E. Enterobius vermicularis 103. The ova of this worm are described as being barrel-shaped with a hyaline plug at each pole. They are 20-25 ?m in width by 50-55 ?m in length. They have a thick, yellowbrown shell containing an undeveloped embryo. They are: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Ancylostome duodenale C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Enterobius vermicularis E. * No correct answer 104. Which of the following diseases is caused by nematodes of the superfamily Ascaridoidea: A. B. C. D. E. A. B. C. D. E. anisakiasis lymphatic filariasis * ascariasis onchocerciasis enterobiosis 105. Which of the following diseases is caused by nematodes of the superfamily Ascaridoidea: A. anisakiasis B. lymphatic filariasis C. * non correct answer D. onchocerciasis E. enterobiosis 106. You have a 6 years old patient, with cough, fever, chest pain, dispnea. He complains also about abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting and anorexia. You consider it, as beeing a parasitosis. What parasite are you thinking at? A. Leishmania tropica B. * Ascaris lumbricoides C. Plasmodium malariae D. Fasciola hepatica E. Enterobius vermicularis 107. You have a 6 years old patient, with cough, fever, chest pain, dispnea. He complains also about abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting and anorexia. You consider it, as beeing a parasitosis. What parasite are you thinking at? A. Leishmania tropica B. * Strongyloides stercoralis C. Plasmodium malariae D. Fasciola hepatica E. Enterobius vermicularis 108. You have a patient with dermatitis, nonspecific respiratory and abdominal symptoms. You consider a parasitic etiology can be suspected. What parasite are you thinking at? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. * Ancylostoma duodenale C. Necator americanus D. d Taenia solium E. Fasciola hepatica 109. You have a patient with dermatitis, nonspecific respiratory and abdominal symptoms. You consider a parasitic etiology can be suspected. What parasite are you thinking at? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. * Strongyloides stercoralis C. Necator americanus D. Taenia solium E. Fasciola hepatica 110. ?You have a patient with edema, lymphangitis, lymphadenitis and elephantiasis. What parasite can be the etiological agent? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. * Wuchereria bancrofti E. Loa loa 111. You have a patient with edema, lymphangitis, lymphadenitis and elephantiasis. What parasite can be the etiological agent? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. * Brugia malayi E. Loa loa 112. You see a spindle-shaped worm that is smooth, covered by striated cuticle. What phylum would you place it in? A. B. C. D. E. 113. A. B. C. D. E. 114. A. B. C. D. E. Platyhelminthes * Nematoda Cestoda Trematoda Insecta A presence of respiratory and circulatory systems distinguish the class Cestoda Trematoda * Insecta Nematoda Lobosea A presence of respiratory and circulatory systems distinguish the class Cestoda Trematoda * Arachnida Nematoda Lobosea 115. A presence of respiratory and circulatory systems distinguish in the class A. Cestoda B. Trematoda C. * Cruastacea D. Nematoda E. Lobosea 116. Adult make angle 45 ° to the surface, have yellowish brown color, one lobe with continuous row of hairs, wings spotted specially the anterior margin A. * Mosquito Anopheles B. Mosquito Culex C. Mosquito Aedes D. Glossina palpalis E. Deer fly 117. Adult make angle 45 ° to the surface, have yellowish brown color, one lobe with continuous row of hairs, wings spotted specially the anterior margin A. * female Anopheles B. Mosquito Culex C. Mosquito Aedes D. male Anopheles E. Deer fly 118. African trypanosomiasis can be transmitted through bite of A. * Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans B. Sand fly C. bugs of genus Phlebotomus D. Mosquito Anopheles E. Musca domestica 119. American trypanosomiasis can be transmitted through bite of A. Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans B. bugs of genus Phlebotomus C. * bugs of genus Phlebotomus D. Mosquito Anopheles E. Musca domestica 120. American trypanosomiasis can be transmitted through bite of A. Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans B. bugs of genus Phlebotomus C. * non correct answer D. Mosquito Anopheles E. Musca domestica 121. An insect’s legs and wings are attached to it’s A. head B. * thorax C. abdomen D. spiracles E. both A and B 122. Body (clothes) louse and crablouse are the members of order________ A. Siphonaptera. B. Isoptera C. * Anoplura D. Hemiptera E. Diptera 123. crablouse are the members of order________ A. Siphonaptera. B. C. D. E. Isoptera * Anoplura Hemiptera Diptera 124. crablouse are the members of order________ A. Siphonaptera. B. Isoptera C. * Anoplura D. Hemiptera E. Diptera 125. During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through four stages A. * complete B. incomplete C. all of the above D. non of the above E. simple 126. During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through three stages A. complete B. incomplete C. * simple D. non of the above E. full 127. A. Eggs of ________ dark brown, slipper-shaped with air cells on either side, laid singly, making geometric patterns B. * Mosquito Anopheles C. Mosquito Culex D. Mosquito Aedes E. Glossina palpalis F. Deer fly 128. Eggs of ________ yellowish, ovoid with one end broader laid in groups of 50 – 350 (egg raft) A. Mosquito Anopheles B. * Mosquito Culex C. Mosquito Aedes D. Glossina palpalis E. Black fly 129. Having chelicerae, a body divided into an anterior cephalothorax and posterior abdomen, and book lungs is characteristic of: A. * arachnids B. insects C. millipedes D. crustaceans E. trilobites 130. Head louse is the members of order________ A. Siphonaptera. B. Isoptera C. * non correct answer D. Hemiptera E. Diptera 131. Head louse, body (clothes) louse and crablouse are the members of order________ A. B. C. D. E. Siphonaptera. Isoptera * Anoplura Hemiptera Diptera 132. Head louse, body (clothes) louse and crablouse are the members of order________ A. Siphonaptera. B. Isoptera C. * non correct answer D. Hemiptera E. Diptera 133. How would you characterize the medical importance of Fleas? A. B. C. D. E. 134. A. B. C. D. E. 135. A. B. C. D. E. 136. A. B. C. D. E. 137. A. B. C. D. E. 138. A. B. C. D. E. either temporary or permanent ectoparasites * vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis causative agent of pediculosis mechanical transmitters of protozoan infections non of the above In which class present respiratory and circulatory systems? Cestoda Trematoda * Insecta Nematoda Lobosea In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur? America * Equatorial Africa Europe Asia Australia In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur? America * Equatorial Africa Europe Asia Australia In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur? America * Africa Europe Asia Australia Kissing and bedbugs are a part of which group? dragonfly group bee/ant group beetle group * bug group mosquito group 139. Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent, respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts, respiratory spiracles at the end of respiratory siphon A. Mosquito Anopheles B. * Mosquito Culex C. Glossina palpalis D. Deer fly E. Black fly 140. Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent, respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts, respiratory spiracles at the end of respiratory siphon A. Mosquito Anopheles B. * non correct answer C. Glossina palpalis D. Deer fly E. Black fly 141. Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent, respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts, respiratory spiracles at the end of respiratory siphon A. Mosquito Anopheles B. * non correct answer C. Glossina palpalis D. Deer fly E. Black fly 142. Mites and ticks differ from other arachnids by having A. mandibles B. two pairs of antennae C. * a fused cephalotorax and abdomen D. two pairs of legs E. All of the above 143. Name a species which lives in the hair follicles and wax glands of the human forehead, nose, and chin, but usually cause no symptoms: A. * Desmodex folliculorum B. Sarcoptes scabiei C. Ornithodorus papillipes D. Acarus siro E. Ixodes persulcatus 144. Order Diptera is characterized by having: A. 1 pair of wings B. 2 pairs of wings C. 3 pairs of wings D. Mouthparts are sucking or piercing and sucking E. * both B and D 145. Paragonimiasis was diagnosed in a patient from China. Usage of what food causes lung fluke infection: A. fish B. * crabs C. mollusks (clams) D. fruit E. pork 146. Paragonimiasis was diagnosed in a patient from China. Usage of what food causes lung fluke infection: A. B. C. D. E. fish * non correct answer mollusks (clams) fruit pork 147. The immature form of an insect that undergoes incomplete metamorphosis is a A. larva B. pupa C. caterpillar D. * nymph E. both A and B 148. The immature form of an insect that undergoes incomplete metamorphosis is a A. larva B. pupa C. caterpillar D. * non correct answer E. both A and B 149. The immature stage of insects with wimple metamorphosis is often called a A. chrysalis B. larva C. naupilus D. * pupa E. nymph 150. The molting process in arthropods is known as A. ecdysis B. tagmatization C. * metamorphosis D. paedomorphosis E. cephalization 151. What diseases can be transmitted through bugs of genus Phlebotomus ? A. * American trypanosomiasis B. African trypanosomiasis C. Leishmaniasis D. Onchocerciasis E. Tularemia 152. What diseases can be transmitted through Glossina morsitans? A. American trypanosomiasis B. African trypanosomiasis C. * African trypanosomiasis D. Tularemia E. Onchocerciasis 153. What diseases can be transmitted through Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans? A. American trypanosomiasis B. African trypanosomiasis C. * African trypanosomiasis D. Tularemia E. Onchocerciasis 154. What parts of the human body are usually infested by itch mite? A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms B. armpits C. groin and genitals D. interdigital spaces E. * All of the above 155. What parts of the human body are usually not infested by follicular mite? A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms B. armpits C. groin and genitals D. interdigital spaces E. * All of the above 156. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods? A. jointed appendages B. exoskeleton C. * coelom D. segmented body E. All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods. 157. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods? A. jointed appendages B. exoskeleton C. presence of respiratory system D. segmented body E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods. 158. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods? A. jointed appendages B. exoskeleton C. A presence of circulatory system D. segmented body E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods. 159. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. * flies C. fleas D. bedbugs E. crickets 160. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. * mosquitous C. fleas D. bedbugs E. crickets 161. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. * sand flies C. fleas D. bedbugs E. crickets 162. While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two. A. termites B. * Glossina palpalis C. fleas D. bedbugs E. crickets 163. A human population has a higher-than-usual percentage of individuals with a genetic disease. The most likely explanation is A. B. C. D. E. gene flow natural selection * genetic drift variation all of these 164. 1. A plant breeder wishes to develop a variety of tomato in which most of the fruit ripens in August. She selects against plants in her tomato population whose fruit ripens in July and in September. This is a type of selection which is said to be A. disruptive B. directional C. * stabilizing D. sexual E. natural 165. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the dominant allele in this population? A. 0.3 B. * 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 166. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the recessive allele in this population? A. 0.3 B. * 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 167. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the heterozygote in this population? A. 0.3 B. * 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 168. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the dominant individuals in this population? A. 0.3 B. 0.5 C. * 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 169. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the dominant allele in this population? A. 0.3 B. * 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 170. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the recessive allele in this population? A. 0.3 B. * 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 171. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the heterozygote in this population? A. 0.3 B. * 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 172. Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the concentration of the dominant individuals in this population? A. 0.3 B. 0.5 C. * 0.25 D. 0.0025 E. 0.75 173. During a storm, two white-colored males and two white-colored females seagull are blown 300 miles due West, to an isolated island. They reproduce and found a new population. They cannot disperse back to the original habitat, nor can any new seagulls cross to the new island. What is the new frequency of the recessive (m) allele? A. * 1.0 B. 0.19 C. 0.0 D. 0.81 E. can’t tell from this data 174. During a storm, two white-colored males and two white-colored females seagull are blown 300 miles due West, to an isolated island. They reproduce and found a new population. They cannot disperse back to the original habitat, nor can any new seagulls cross to the new island. What is the new frequency of the recessive (m) allele? A. * 1.0 B. 0.19 C. 0.0 D. 0.81 E. can’t tell from this data 175. For a woman living in the United States, which genotype would be the most advantageous to have? A. homozygous for the sickle cell allele B. heterozygous for the sickle cell allele C. * homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele D. it doesn’t matter; all are equally advantageous E. Non of the above 176. frequency of the melanic (M) allele in each population? A. 0.81 B. C. D. E. 0.19 0.90 * 0.10 0.044 177. frequency of the melanic (M) allele in each population? A. 0.81 B. 0.19 C. 0.90 D. * 0.10 E. 0.044 178. If evolution occurs, we would expect different biogeographical regions with similar environments to A. all contain the same mix of plants and animals B. each have its own specific mix of plants and animals C. have plants and animals that have similar adaptations D. all of these E. * each have its own specific mix of plants and animals and plants and animals that have similar adaptations 179. If gene frequencies in a gene pool remain the same generation after generation, then the population is A. not increasing in number B. not undergoing migration C. * in genetic equilibrium D. very small in number E. very large in number 180. If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and there is random mating with a large population. What is p for generation 0? A. 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. * 0.6 E. 0.36 181. If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and there is random mating with a large population. What is q for generation 0? A. 0.16 B. * 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.6 E. 0.36 182. If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and there is random mating with a large population. What is p for generation 0? A. 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. * 0.6 E. 0.36 183. If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and there is random mating with a large population. What is q for generation 0? A. 0.16 B. * 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.6 E. 0.36 184. 10. If the incidence of sickle cell anemia (a recessive trait) in a population is 0.09, what is the frequency of the gene for the trait? A. 0.91 B. 0.18 C. 0.0009 D. 0.09 E. * 0.3 185. If the incidence of sickle cell anemia (a recessive trait) in a population is 0.09, what is the frequency of the gene for the trait? A. 0.91 B. 0.18 C. 0.0009 D. 0.09 E. * 0.3 186. If you know that the frequency of allele M is 0.2, according to the HardyWeinberg rule, the frequency of the genotype MN in the population should be A. 0.16 B. * 0.32 C. 1 D. 0.64 E. 0.8 187. In a hypothetical population of birds, the dominant beak colour is yellow. A recessive allele for white beak colour occurs in a frequency of 0.35. What is the genotypic frequency of the heterozygous condition? A. 0. 65 B. * 0.46 C. 0.42 D. 0.13 E. 0.25 188. In a hypothetical population of mice, the dominant fur colour is black. A recessive allele for grey fur colour occurs with a frequency of 0.23. What is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype? A. * 0.59 B. 0.35 C. 0.05 D. 0.77 E. 0.25 189. In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If 16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to be heterozygous for this trait? ... A. 0.6 B. 0.4 C. * 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.75 190. In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If 16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to be homozygous dominant for this trait? ... A. 0.6 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. * 0.36 191. In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If 16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to be heterozygous for this trait? ... A. 0.6 B. 0.4 C. * 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.75 192. In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If 16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to be homozygous dominant for this trait? ... A. 0.6 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. * 0.36 193. In seedcracker finches in which small and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate? A. diversifying B. * directional C. stabilizing D. sexual E. no selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium 194. In the upper side of the _______________ is the rounded tectum, which contains nuclei that serve as centers for visual and auditory reflexes A. deep primitive brain B. "new" brain C. cerebellum D. medulla E. * midbrain 195. Over the course of the next 200 years, these Survivor Island gulls evolved mating displays that differ from those of the parent population. When television producers introduce the original Azores archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find each other’s mating behavior objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of isolation mechanism keeps the two species of gulls from interbreeding? A. Mechanical Isolation B. Temporal Isolation C. Ecological Isolation D. * Behavioral Isolation E. None of the above 196. Over the course of the next 200 years, these Survivor Island gulls evolved mating displays that differ from those of the parent population. When television producers introduce the original Azores archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find each other’s mating behavior objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of isolation mechanism keeps the two species of gulls from interbreeding? A. Mechanical Isolation B. Temporal Isolation C. Ecological Isolation D. * Behavioral Isolation E. None of the above 197. Over the time, Survivor Island gulls evolved mating displays that differ from those of the parent population. When television producers introduce the original Azores archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find each other’s mating behavior objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of evolutionary event has occurred? A. * allopatric speciation B. cladogenesis C. sympatric speciation D. artificial selection E. Non of the above 198. Over the time, Survivor Island gulls evolved mating displays that differ from those of the parent population. When television producers introduce the original Azores archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find each other’s mating behavior objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of evolutionary event has occurred? A. * allopatric speciation B. cladogenesis C. sympatric speciation D. artificial selection E. Non of the above 199. populations is due to which evolutionary phenomenon? A. Stabilizing selection B. Mutation C. * Founder Effect D. Allopatric speciation E. None of the Above 200. populations is due to which evolutionary phenomenon? A. Stabilizing selection B. Mutation C. * Founder Effect D. Allopatric speciation E. None of the Above 201. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease in humans. Individuals homozygous for the sickle cell allele (HbsHbs) generally do not survive to adulthood. In areas where malaria is present, individuals heterozygous for the sickle cell (Hb+Hbs) allele have higher fitness than individuals with normal hemoglobin (Hb+Hb+). What type of evolutionary mechanism it is displays? A. behavioral isolation B. Temporal isolation C. * balancing selection D. allopatric speciation E. Bottleneck Effect 202. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease in humans. Individuals homozygous for the sickle cell allele (HbsHbs) generally do not survive to adulthood. In areas where malaria is present, individuals heterozygous for the sickle cell (Hb+Hbs) allele have higher fitness than individuals with normal hemoglobin (Hb+Hb+). What type of evolutionary mechanism it is displays? A. behavioral isolation B. Temporal isolation C. * balancing selection D. allopatric speciation E. Bottleneck Effect 203. Suppose a population of lemmings has a dominant gene for cliff-jumping, while the recessive trait was watch-and-laugh. If 72 lemmings in a population of 450 have the recessive trait, what is the frequency of the dominant allele? A. 0.36 B. 0.40 C. * 0.6 D. 0.16 E. 0.25 204. Suppose that in a population of rabbits there is a dominant gene for coarse fur and a recessive gene for fine fur. If 1526 rabbits in a population of 6104 have the recessive trait, what is the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype? A. 0.05 B. 0.50 C. 0.75 D. 0.27 E. * 0.25 205. The ability to taste the (phenylthiocarbamide) is determined -T, If you discover that tt-36 %of the members of a population cannot taste PTC, then according to the Hardy-Weinberg rule, the frequency of the T allele should be A. * 0.4 B. 0.6 C. 0.6 D. 0.8 E. 0.25 206. The continued occurrence of sickle-cell disease in parts of Africa with malaria is due to A. continual mutation B. gene flow between populations C. * fitness of the heterozygote D. disruptive selection E. All of these 207. The genitalia of female species A unsuitable for male of species B. This is an example of A. sexual selection B. * a prezygotic isolating mechanism C. a postzygotic isolating mechanism D. parthenogenesis E. polyploidy 208. The numerous vi r al and largely subconscious activities, such as heartbeat, respiration, vasomotor tone, and swallowing are controlled by A. deep primitive brain B. "new" brain C. cerebellum D. * medulla E. midbrain 209. Two species of tree crickets live in a Costa Rican dry forest. Their habitats and ranges overlap. The two species never interbreed because the calls of the males are different and do not attract females of the other species. What type of isolation mechanism it is displays? A. * Behavioral B. Temporal C. Mechanical D. Habitat E. Hybrid sterility 210. Two species of tree crickets live in a Costa Rican dry forest. Their habitats and ranges overlap. The two species never interbreed because the calls of the males are different and do not attract females of the other species. What type of isolation mechanism it is displays? A. * Behavioral B. Temporal C. Mechanical D. Habitat E. Hybrid sterility 211. Use the following to answer this question 1.p 2.q 3.p2 4.q2 5.2pq Which terms represent frequencies of genotypes? A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2,4 and 5 D. * 3,4 and 5 E. 2,3 and 5 212. Vital functions that are rem oved from conscious control: respiration, blood pressure, heart rate, hunger, thirst, temperature balance, salt balance, sexual drive, and basic (sometimes irrational) emotions are controlled by A. * deep primitive brain B. "new" brain C. cerebellum D. medulla E. midbrain v 213. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency? A. * 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.36 214. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the dominant genotype frequency? A. 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. * 0.36 215. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the heterozygote genotype frequency? A. 0.16 B. 0.4 C. * 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.36 216. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency? A. * 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.36 217. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency? A. * 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.36 218. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the dominant genotype frequency? A. 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. * 0.36 219. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the heterozygote genotype frequency? A. 0.16 B. 0.4 C. * 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.36 220. We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency? A. * 0.16 B. 0.4 C. 0.48 D. 0.52 E. 0.36 221. What is the concentration of the dominant allele in the population, which consists of 36% homozygotes AA, 16% homozygotes aa, and 48% heterozygotes Aa A. 0.4 B. * 0.6 C. 0.48 D. 0.69 E. 0.1 222. What is the concentration of the dominant allele in the population, which consists of 36% homozygotes AA, 16% homozygotes aa, and 48% heterozygotes Aa A. 0.4 B. * 0.6 C. 0.48 D. 0.69 E. 0.1 223. What is the percentage of people with curly hair on the head in the population, where the concentration of the allele determining the straight hair on the head is 0.6? A. 36 B. 84 C. * 48 D. 16 E. 100 224. What is the percentage of people with curly hair on the head in the population, where the concentration of the allele determining the straight hair on the head is 0.6? A. 36 B. 84 C. * 48 D. 16 E. 100 225. A process in which nitrogenous waste products or organic remains of organisms are decomposed by soil bacteria and fungi that use the amino acids being released for their own growth and release the excess as NH3 or NH4+ is A. nitrification B. * ammonification. C. denitrification. D. nitrogen fixation. E. hydrogenation. 226. ?A student picked up 19 scallop shells on a Florida beach. She observed the following numbers of ridges, from the lowest to the highest: 6, 6, 7, 7, 8, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11, 11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 12, 12, 13, 14. What is the median number of ridges? A. 7 B. * 10 C. 11 D. 12 E. 9 227. A student picked up 19 scallop shells on a Florida beach. She observed the following numbers of ridges, from the lowest to the highest: 6, 6, 7, 7, 8, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11, 11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 12, 12, 13, 14. What is the mean number of ridges? A. 9.0 B. 9.4 C. 9.7 D. 9.9 E. * 10.1 228. A student picked up 19 scallop shells on a Florida beach. She observed the following numbers of ridges, from the lowest to the highest: 6, 6, 7, 7, 8, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11, 11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 12, 12, 13, 14. What is the mean number of ridges? A. 9.0 B. 9.4 C. 9.7 D. 9.9 E. * none of these 229. Applying the ecological pyramid rule, detect how mach fox mass increased if every day she eats 20 mouse’s (mass of one mouse is 10g). Mass of water in organisms is 70% A. 2g B. * 6g C. 10g D. 20g E. 30g 230. Consider the components of a food chain: producers > herbivores > carnivores > top carnivores. Eventually what happens to all the energy passed from one element to the next? A. It recycles back to the producers B. It results is a much larger decomposer population C. * It is dissipated into the environment D. It is recaptured by another food chain E. It recycles back to the producers and It results is a much larger decomposer population 231. Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity lengthening, increasing of the number of RBC are characterized for A. * adaptive mountain human type B. adaptive tropical human type C. adaptive temperate human type D. adaptive arctic human type E. non of the above 232. Foxes, frogs, snakes, hawks, and spiders are: A. herbivores B. * carnivores C. decomposers D. omnivores E. producers 233. Foxes, frogs, snakes, hawks, and spiders are: A. herbivores B. * secondary and tertiary consumers C. decomposers D. omnivores E. producers 234. Foxes, frogs, snakes, hawks, and spiders are: A. herbivores B. * none of these C. decomposers D. omnivores E. producers 235. Grasshoppers, mice, rabbits, deer, beavers, moose, cows, sheep, goats and groundhogs are: A. * herbivores B. carnivores C. decomposers D. omnivores E. producers 236. Grasshoppers, mice, rabbits, deer, beavers, moose, cows, sheep, goats and groundhogs are: A. * primary consumers B. carnivores C. decomposers D. omnivores E. producers 237. Grasshoppers, mice, rabbits, deer, beavers, moose, cows, sheep, goats and groundhogs are: A. * none of these B. carnivores C. decomposers D. omnivores E. producers 238. ?Herbivores are: A. * primary consumers B. C. D. E. secondary consumers tertiary consumers carnivores decomposers 239. High development of musculoskeletal system, large thorax, high blood hemoglobin and cholesterol level are characterized for A. adaptive mountain human B. adaptive tropical human C. adaptive temperate human type D. * adaptive arctic human type E. non of the above 240. ?In recent years there has been substantial concern about global warming, which is caused to a great extent by the build-up of the heat-trapping gas A. oxygen B. nitrogen dioxide C. sulfur dioxide D. * carbon dioxide E. Neon 241. It is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together in a close association. What is this? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. * Symbiosis 242. It is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together in a close association. What is this? A. Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. * None of these 243. It is pictorial graph representing the biomass, organism number, or energy content of each trophic level in a food web from the producer to the final consumer populations. What is this? A. food chain B. chemical cycling C. ecosystem D. * ecological pyramid E. energy flow 244. It is pictorial graph representing the biomass, organism number, or energy content of each trophic level in a food web from the producer to the final consumer populations. What is this? A. food chain B. chemical cycling C. ecosystem D. * none of these E. energy flow 245. It is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms that interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy through them and the cycling of nutrients within them. What is this? A. Ecology B. C. D. E. Living component Biosphere * Ecosystem physical surrounding 246. It is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms that interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy through them and the cycling of nutrients within them. What is this? A. Ecology B. Living component C. Biosphere D. * None of these E. physical surrounding 247. It is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their physical surrounding. What is this? A. * Ecology B. Biology C. Biosphere D. Ecosystem E. Zoology 248. It is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their physical surrounding. What is this? A. * None of these B. Biology C. Biosphere D. Ecosystem E. Zoology 249. It occurs because all the energy content of organic food is eventually lost to the environment as heat. It begins when producers absorb solar energy. What is this? A. * energy flow B. chemical cycling C. ecosystem D. ecological pyramid E. food chain 250. It occurs because all the energy content of organic food is eventually lost to the environment as heat. It begins when producers absorb solar energy. What is this? A. * none of these B. chemical cycling C. ecosystem D. ecological pyramid E. food chain 251. Most of the carbon now present in the earth's atmosphere will eventually end up in what two "holding stations"? A. plants and animals B. plants and decomposers C. plants and soil D. * plants and oceans E. plants and fossil fuels 252. One animal, the predator kills and eats another animal, the prey. What form of interaction of biotic factors is this? A. * Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 253. One animal, the predator kills and eats another animal, the prey. What form of interaction of biotic factors is this? A. * None of these B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 254. Primary consumers are: A. * herbivores B. secondary consumers C. tertiary consumers D. carnivores E. decomposers 255. There is a simple grassland food chain: mice-snakes-hawks. The hawk is a ________ and occupies the ________ trophic level A. * tertiary consumer, fourth B. secondary consumer, fourth C. tertiary consumer, third D. secondary consumer, third E. primary consumer, third 256. There is a simple grassland food chain: mosquito (male)-frog-snake-hawks. The hawks is a ________ and occupies the ________ trophic level A. tertiary consumer, fourth B. * quatrain consumer, fifth C. tertiary consumer, third D. secondary consumer, third E. primary consumer, third 257. There is a simple grassland food chain: mosquito(male)-frog-snake-hawks. The frog is a ________ and occupies the ________ trophic level A. tertiary consumer, fourth B. quatrain consumer, fifth C. tertiary consumer, third D. * secondary consumer, third E. primary consumer, third 258. There is a simple grassland food chain: mosquito(male)-frogs-snake-hawks. The snail is a ________ and occupies the ________ trophic level A. * tertiary consumer, fourth B. secondary consumer, fourth C. tertiary consumer, third D. secondary consumer, third E. primary consumer, third 259. They are substances added to the environment, particularly by human activities, that lead to undesirable effects for all living things. What are they? A. * Pollutants B. Land, water and air C. Populations D. Natural ecosystems E. Industry and agriculture 260. This is an academic discipline that deals with the association between humans and their natural environment. What is this? A. B. C. D. E. * Human ecology Ecology Biology Medical biology Medicine 261. This is an academic discipline that deals with the association between humans and their natural environment. What is this? A. * None of these B. Ecology C. Biology D. Medical biology E. Medicine 262. This is maximum amount of toxic substance in unit of volume or mass of water, air or soil which does not have any influence to human health. What is this? A. Hygiene standard B. * Maximum permissible concentration C. Maximum permissible level D. Maximum permissible dose E. None of these 263. This is periodical or permanent influence of the environmental factor to human organism which can not cause any diseases or changes in human health condition. What is this? A. Hygiene standard B. Maximum permissible concentration C. * Maximum permissible level D. Maximum permissible dose E. None of these 264. This is the amount of toxic substance which penetrating in human organism does not hurt it. What is this? A. Hygiene standard B. Maximum permissible concentration C. Maximum permissible level D. * Maximum permissible dose E. None of these 265. ?This is the definite range of values of the environmental factor which is optimal or is not dangerous for human health, activity and life. What is this? A. * Hygiene standard B. Maximum permissible concentration C. Maximum permissible level D. Maximum permissible dose E. None of these 266. What form of interaction of biotic factors is this when one animal, the predator kills and eats another animal, the prey? A. * Predation B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 267. What form of interaction of biotic factors is this when one animal, the predator kills and eats another animal, the prey? A. * None of these B. Parasitism C. Mutualism D. Commensalisms E. Symbiosis 268. What is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms that interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy through them and the cycling of nutrients within them? A. Ecology B. Living component C. Biosphere D. * Ecosystem E. physical surrounding 269. What is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms that interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy through them and the cycling of nutrients within them? A. Ecology B. Living component C. Biosphere D. * None of these E. physical surrounding 270. What is the importance of acid rains? A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. * they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them 271. What is the importance of acid rains? A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. * none of these D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them 272. What is the importance of greenhouse effect? A. it can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. * it is the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them 273. What is the importance of greenhouse effect? A. it can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. * none of these 274. 275. 276. 277. 278. C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them What is the importance of heavy metals? A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. * lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them What is the importance of heavy metals? A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. * none of these What is the importance of ozone hole? A. * it can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. it is the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them What is the importance of ozone hole? A. * none of these B. it is the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them What is the importance of photochemical fogs? A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. * it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them 279. What is the importance of photochemical fogs? A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer) B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative influence to human organism C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables D. * none of these E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological changes in them 280. What is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their physical surrounding? A. * Ecology B. Biology C. Biosphere D. Ecosystem E. Zoology 281. Which of the following combinations of organisms could be expected to survive in isolation from other forms of life available? A. * producers and decomposers B. producers and carnivores C. carnivores and decomposers D. herbivores, carnivores, and decomposers E. producers and omnivores 282. Which statement is true concerning this food chain: grass > rabbits > snakes > hawks? A. Each predator population has a greater biomass than its prey population B. * Each prey population has a greater biomass than its predator population C. Each population is omnivorous D. Each predator population has a greater biomass than its prey population and each population is omnivorous E. All of the above 283. Who are autotrophic organisms with the capability of carrying on photosynthesis and making food for themselves (green plants on land and algae in water). A. * Producers B. Consumers C. Herbivores D. Carnivores E. Decomposers 284. Who are autotrophic organisms with the capability of carrying on photosynthesis and making food for themselves (green plants on land and algae in water). A. * None of these B. Consumers C. Herbivores D. Carnivores E. Decomposers Tests. Module 3. Populanion-specific, biogeocenologic and biosphere’s levels of life organization 1.What parasite is on this picture? Рис.Fig.10 A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Entamoeba histolytica C. *Balantidium coli D. Lamblia intestinalis E. Entаmoeba coli 2.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.11 A. Lamblia intestinalis B. Balantidium coli C. Plasmodium falciparum D. * Entamoeba histolytica E. Trypanosoma cruzi 3.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.11 A. *Entamoeba histolytica forma magna B. Entamoeba histolytica forma minuta C. Entаmoeba coli D. Entamoeba histolytica cyst E. Entаmoeba coli cyst 4.What parasite cyst is on this picture? рис.Fig.7. A. *Lamblia intestinalis B. Balantidium coli C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Entamoeba histolytica E. Entаmoeba coli 5.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.12. A. *Leishmania donovani B. Balantidium coli C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Entamoeba histolytica E. Entаmoeba coli 6.What parasite can cause skin ulcer? рис.Fig.9. A. Leishmania donovani B. *Leishmania tropica major C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Entamoeba histolytica E. Entаmoeba coli 7.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.12. A. Entаmoeba coli B. Balantidium coli C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Entamoeba histolytica E. *no correct answer 8.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.13. A. Entаmoeba coli B. Balantidium coli C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Entamoeba histolytica E. *no correct answer 9.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.13. A. Entаmoeba coli B. Balantidium coli C. *Plasmodium falciparum D. Entamoeba histolytica E. Lamblia intestinalis 10.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.14. A. Entаmoeba coli B. Balantidium coli C. *Toxoplasma gondii D. Leishmania donovani E. Lamblia intestinalis 11.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.15. A. *Trichomonas vaginalis B. Leishmania donovani C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Trypanosoma infantum E. Toxoplasma gondii 12.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.16. A. Leishmania donovani B. *Trypanosoma brucei gambiense C. Lamblia intestinalis D. Toxoplasma gondii E. no correct answer 13.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 1: рис.Fig.5 A. undulating membrane B. *flagellum C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. nucleus 14.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 2: рис.Fig.5 A. *undulating membrane B. flagellum C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. nucleus 15.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 1: рис.Fig.5 A. undulating membrane B. *flagellum C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. nucleus 16.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 2: рис.Fig.5 A. *undulating membrane B. flagellum C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. nucleus 17.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 3: рис.Fig.5 A. no correct answer B. flagellum C. *axostyle D. endoplasm E. nucleus 18.Using the picture of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense determine what is marked № 1: рис.Fig.4 A. undulating membrane B. nucleus C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. *flagellum 19.Using the picture of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense determine what is marked № 2: рис.Fig.4 A. undulating membrane B. *nucleus C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. flagellum 20.Using the picture of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense determine what is marked № 3 рис.Fig.4: A. *undulating membrane B. nucleus C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. no correct answer 21.Using the picture of Lamblia intestinalis determine what is marked № 1: рис.Fig.62 A. cilia B. *nuclei C. axostyle D. ectoplasm E. no correct answer 22.Using the picture of Lamblia intestinalis determine what is marked by number 2 on Fig.3? A. cilia B. food vacuoles C. *nucleus D. ectoplasm E. no correct answer 23.Using the picture of Lamblia intestinalis determine what is marked № 3: : рис.Fig.3 A. cilia B. pseudopodia C. *flagella D. nucleus E. no correct answer 24.Using the picture of Leishmania tropica determine what is marked № 1: рис.Fig.2 A. cilia B. pseudopodia C. food vacuoles D. *nucleus E. no correct answer 25.Using the picture of Leishmania tropica determine what is marked № 3: рис.Fig.2 A. cilia B. pseudopodia C. *flagellum D. no correct answer E. axostyle 26.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.52. A. mosquitoe B. *tick C. flea D. flays E. bug 27.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.52 A. *Ixodes ricinus B. Desmodex folliculorum C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Ornithodorus papillipes E. Mosquito Anopheles 28.Which memmber of archinid class is on this picture? рис.Fig.55 A. Tick B. Desmodex folliculorum C. Sarcoptes scabiei D. *Cyclop E. Mosquito Anopheles 29.How many body parts does this insect have? рис.Fig.51 A. four B. three C. *six D. eight E. two 30.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.52. A. Ornithodorus papillipes B. Dermacentor pictus C. Pediculus humanus capitis D. Ixodes persulcatus E. *Pulex irritans 31.Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent, respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts. What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.49 A. Mosquito Anopheles B. *Mosquito Culex C. Glossina palpalis D. Deer fly E. Black fly 32.Life cycle of which insecta can you see on this picture? рис.Fig.54 A. Mosquito Anopheles B. *Mosquito Culex C. Glossina palpalis D. Ixodes ricinus E. Ornithodorus papillipes 33.Life cycle of which insecta can you see on this picture? рис.Fig.53 A. Mosquito Anopheles B. Mosquito Culex C. Glossina palpalis D. *Ixodes ricinus E. Ornithodorus papillipes 34.Life cycle of which insecta can you see on this picture? рис.Fig.59 A. Mosquito Anopheles B. *Pulex irritans C. Mosquito Culex D. Ixodes ricinus E. Ornithodorus papillipes 35.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.60. A. Ornithodorus papillipes B. *Sarcoptes scabiei C. Pediculus humanus capitis D. Ixodes persulcatus E. Pulex irritans 36.What is medical importance of this mite рис.Fig.60 A. causative agent of myiasis B. temporary ectoparasite C. *causative agent of scabies D. causative agent of pediculosis E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan 37.What parts of the human body are usually infested by this mite? рис.Fig.60. A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms B. armpits C. groin and genitals D. interdigital spaces E. *All of the above 38.Egg of what parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.56. A. *Mosquito Anopheles B. Mosquito Culex C. Pulex irritans D. Ixodes ricinus E. Ornithodorus papillipes 39.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.57. A. *Cimex lectularius B. Sarcoptes scabiei C. Pediculus humanus capitis D. Ixodes persulcatus E. Pulex irritans 40.Indicate medical importance of this Crustacea. рис.Fig.57 A. *They are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum) and Dracunculus medinensis. B. They are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani) C. They are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata) D. They are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) E. Non of the above 41.Using the picture of life cycle of Ixodes ricinus determine what is marked № 4: рис.Fig.53 A. *adult tick B. cysticercy C. nymph D. pupa E. egg 42.Using the picture of life cycle of Ixodes ricinus determine what is marked № 3: рис.Fig.53 A. adult tick B. mite C. *nymph D. pupa E. egg 43.Using the picture of life cycle of Mosquito Culex determine what is marked № 3: рис.Fig.54 A. adult mosquito B. larva C. nymph D. *pupa E. egg 44.Using the picture of life cycle of Mosquito Culex determine what is marked № 2: рис.Fig.54 A. adult mosquito B. *larva C. nymph D. pupa E. egg 45.What is medical importance of this bug рис.Fig.57 A. permanent ectoparsite B. *temporary ectoparasite C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis D. causative agent of pediculosis E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan 46.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.25 A. Schistosoma mansoni B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Opisthorchis felineus E. *Clonorchis sinensis 47.What parasite scolex is on this picture? рис.Fig.28 A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. *Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Fasciola hepatica E. Clonorchis sinensis 48.What do you see on this picture? рис.Fig.24 A. Mature proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum B. Mature proglottid of Taenia solium C. Immature proglottid of Taenia saginata D. Immature proglottid of Taenia solium E. *Mature proglottid of Taenia saginata 49.What do you see on this picture? рис.Fig.19 A. Mature proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum B. Mature proglottid of Taenia solium C. Immature proglottid of Taenia saginata D. Immature proglottid of Taenia solium E. *Mature proglottid of Taenia saginata 50.What do you see on this picture? рис.Fig.20 A. Mature proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum B. *Mature proglottid of Taenia solium C. Immature proglottid of Taenia saginata D. Immature proglottid of Taenia solium E. Mature proglottid of Taenia saginata 51.What parasite proglottids are on this picture? рис.Fig.23 A. *Diphyllobotrium latum B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. Echinococcus granulosus 52.Using this picture of types helminthes csolexes determine what parasite scolex is marked A? рис. Fig.27 A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. *Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. Echinococcus granulosus 53.Using this picture of types helminthes csolexes determine what parasite scolex is marked Б ? рис.Fig.27 A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. Taenia solium C. *Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. Echinococcus granulosus 54.Using this picture of types helminthes scolexes determine what parasite scolex is marked B (Fig.27)? A. *Diphyllobotrium latum B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. Echinococcus granulosus 55.Using this picture of types helminthes proglottids determine what parasite segment is marked Б ? рис.Fig.18 A. *Diphyllobotrium latum B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. Echinococcus granulosus 56.Using this picture of types helminthes proglottids determine what parasite segment is marked A ? рис.Fig.18 A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. *Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus multilocularis E. Echinococcus granulosus 57.What parasite proglottids are on this picture? рис.Fig.21 A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. *Hymenolepis nana E. Echinococcus granulosus 58.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.26 A. Diphyllobotrium latum B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. *Hymenolepis nana E. Echinococcus granulosus 59.What parasite life cycle is on this picture? рис.Fig.32 A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. *Fasciola hepatica E. Clonorchis sinensis 60.What parasite life cycle is on this picture? рис.Fig.30 A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Fasciola hepatica E. *Opisthorchis felineus 61.What parasite life cycle is on this picture? рис.Fig.33 A. *Hymenolepis nana B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Fasciola hepatica E. Clonorchis sinensis 62.What parasite mouth cavity is on this picture? рис.Fig.40 A. Necator americanus B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. *Ancylostoma duodenale D. Loa loa E. Trichinella spiralis 63.What parasite mouth cavity is on this picture? рис.Fig.47 A. *Necator americanus B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Loa loa E. Trichinella spiralis 64.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.38 A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. *Loa loa E. Trichinella spiralis 65.What parasite egg is on this picture? рис.Fig.45 A. *Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Trichuris trichiura E. Trichinella spiralis 66.What parasite egg is on this picture? рис.Fig.46 A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. *Trichuris trichiura E. Trichinella spiralis 67.What parasite does cause of disease on this picture? рис.Fig.36 A. Dracunculus medinensis B. *Wuchereria bancrofti C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Loa loa E. Trichinella spiralis 68.What parasite does cause of disease on this picture? рис.Fig.37 A. *Dracunculus medinensis B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Loa loa E. Trichinella spiralis 69.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.42 A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. *Enterobius vermicularis E. Trichinella spiralis 70.What parasite larva is on this picture? рис.Fig.43 A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Trichuris trichiura E. *Trichinella spiralis