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Tests. Module 3. Populanion-specific, biogeocenologic and biosphere’s levels of life
organization
1. “Eating of the same table” would be an appropriate description of:
A. Parasitism
B. Symbiosis
C. * Commensalism
D. Predator
E. All of the above
2. A “pear shaped” trophozoiite is normally seen in:
A. Entamoeba histilytica
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Balantidium coli
D. * Toxoplasma gondii
E. Leishmania tropica
3. A host that harbors the adult stage of a parasite is known as:
A. * Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. Reservoir host
D. Larvae’s host
E. None of the above
4. A host that harbors the larval or asexual stage of a parasite is known as:
A. Definitive host
B. * Intermediate host
C. Reservoir host
D. Larvae’s host
E. None of the above
5. actively feed
A. Giardia Lamblia
B. Entamoeba coli
C. * Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Entamoeba gingivalis
6. African trypanosomiasis is caused by:
A. * Trypanosoma brucei
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Trichenilla spiralis
D. Plasmodium vivax
E. Leishmania tropica
7. After ingestion of giardia lamblia, cyst hatching takes place in the:
A. stomach
B. lower part of small intestine
C. * upper part of small intestine
D. colon
E. all are correct
8. Amoebiasis can mimic in clinical presentation with:
A. Appendicitis
B. Diarrhoea
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Bacillary dysentery
E. * Any of the above
9. Amoebiasis is caused by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Entamoeba histilytica
Trypanosoma cruzi
Entamoeba coli
Entamoeba gingivalis
Leishmania tropica
10. Amoebiasis prevention consists of:
A. Mosquitoes extermination
B. Tsetse fly extermination
C. Taking measures against rodents
D. Sand fly extermination
E. * Water purification
11. Amoebic disentery is caused by:
A. * Entamoeba histilytica
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Entamoeba gingivalis
E. Leishmania tropica
12. Amoebic liver abscess is caused by:
A. * Entamoeba histilytica
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Entamoeba gingivalis
E. Leishmania tropica
13. Balantidiasis prevention consists of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mosquitoes extermination
Tsetse fly extermination
Restricted contacts with cats
Sand fly extermination
* Washing hands before eating
14. Balantidium coli in the human body causes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Large liver and spleen mass
Depression and sleepiness
Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
Anemia
* Diarrhea
15. Balantidium coli is localized in the human:
A. Small intestine
B. * Large intestine
C. Larynx
D. Liver
E. Stomach
16. Balantidiun coli has:
A. One nucleus
B. Pseudopodia
C. Flagella
D. * Cillia
E. A conoid
17. Bundles of crystalline ribonucleic acid in the amoeba are:
A. * Chromatoidal bodies
B. Karyosome
C. Peripheral chromatin
D. Pseudopodia
E. Flagella
18. Cerebral malaria is a known complication of infection with:
A. * plasmodium falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae
E. None of above
19. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by:
A. Anopheles representatives
B. Culex representatives
C. Aedes representatives
D. * Phlebotomus resentatives
E. Glossina representatives
20. Cyst of Toxoplasma:
A. found in acute infection
B. found in chronic infection
C. free living
D. * found in chronic infection
E. found in stool of cats
21. Dumdum fever or black poison is the name given to:
A. * Visceral leishmaniasis
B. Cerebral malaria
C. Cutaneus leishmaniasis
D. Hepatic amoebiasis
E. Balantidiasis
22. During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schizonts
Pseudocysts
Sporozoites
Ookinetes
Endozoites
23. During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found:
A. Pseudocysts
B. * Gametocytes
C. Sporozoites
D. Ookinetes
E. Endozoites
24. ?E.histolytica and E. coli can be distinguished:
A. morphologically
B. by antibody detection
C. geimsa staining
D. localization in host
E. cannot be distinguished
25. Endozoites formation is common for:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Entamoeba histilytica
C. * Toxoplasma gondii
D. Lamblia intestinalis
E. Balantidium coli
26. Entamoeba coli is example of:
A. Intercellular endoparasite
B. Extracellular endoparasite
C. Intracellular ectoparasite
D. Extracellular ectoparasite
E. * Commensal
27. Entamoeba histolytica is localized in the human:
A. Small intestine
B. * Large intestine
C. Larynx
D. Liver
E. Stomach
28. Entamoeba histolytica has:
A. Two nuclei
B. * Pseudopodia
C. Flagella
D. Cillia
E. A conoid
29. Entamoeba histolytica in the human body causes:
A. Large liver and spleen mass
B. Depression and sleepiness
C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
D. Anemia
E. * Diarrhea
30. Entamoeba histolytica is example of:
A. * Intercellular endoparasite
B. Extracellular endoparasite
C. Intercellular ectoparasite
D. Extracellular ectoparasite
E. Commensal
31. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites encyst in:
A. the wall of lower part of small intestine
B. the wall of the recto-sigmoid colon
C. * the lumen of the colon
D. the wall of duodenum
E. none of the above
32. Flask shaped ulcers in the colon are caused by:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Acanthamoeba
C. * Entamoeba histolytica
D. Naegleria fowleri
E. Toxocara canis
33. Following intestinal infection, hepatic abscess is most likely to develop with:
A. * Entamoeba histilytica
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Balantidium coli
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Leishmania tropica
34. Gametocytes formation is common for:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Entamoeba coli
C. * Toxoplasma gondii
D. Lamblia intestinalis
E. Balantidium coli
35. Giardia lamblia affects mainly:
A. * upper small intestine
B. caecum
C. colon
D. rectum
E. stomach
36. Giardiasis is spread through:
A. * water supplies
B. sexual contact
C. bite of mosquito
D. bite of sand fly
E. all of the above
37. Human beings can catch lambliasis through:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Unwashed hands
Unchecked pork
Unchecked beef
Rotten fish
Unchecked crabs
38. Human beings can not catch amoebiasis through:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Unwashed hands
Unwashed vegetables
* Unchecked meat
Unwashed fruits
Unboiled water
39. Human beings can not catch balantidiasis through:
A. Unwashed hands
B. Unwashed vegetables
C. * Unchecked pork
D. Unwashed fruits
E. Unboiled water
40. In cutaneous leishmania the infective stage is:
A. cyst
B. leishmania form
C. amastigote form
D. * Leptomonas form (promastigote)
E. None of the above
41. In Kala-azar the spleen is enlarged due to:
A. portal hypertension
B. bacterial infection
C. * proliferation of reticular system
D. hemolytic anemia
E. none of the above
42. In trichomonas vaginalis infection:
A. is caused by protozoan parasite
B. the infective stage is the trophozoite
C. causes vaginal discharge in females
D. may infect males
E. * all of the above
43. In visceral Leishmaniasis culture of the biopsy material on NNN medium results in:
A. Cyst
B. amastigote form
C. * Leptomonas form (promastigote)
D. Epimastigote form
E. Leishmania form
44. Indicate the way of reproduction of Entamoeba histolytica?
A. * Binary fission
B.
C.
D.
E.
Endogony
Shizogony
Sporogony
Conjugation
45. Indicate the way of reproduction of Plasmodium vivax in man?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Binary fission
Endogony
* Shizogony
Sporogony
Conjugation
46. Indicate the way of reproduction of Toxoplasma gondii in man?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Binary fission
* Endogony
Shizogony
Sporogony
Conjugation
47. Indicate the way of sexual reproduction of Balantidium coli?
A. Binary fission
B. Endogony
C. Shizogony
D. Sporogony
E. * Conjugation
48. Infection with giardia lamblia is through:
A. ingestion of the trophozoite stage
B. * ingestion of the cyst stage
C. ingestion of the egg
D. all are correct
E. none of the above
49. Kala-azar is caused by:
A. Trypanosoma brucei
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Trichenilla spiralis
D. Plasmodium vivax
E. * Leishmania donovani
50. Lamblia intestinalis is localized in the human:
A. * Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Larynx
D. Liver
E. Stomach
51. Leishmania tropica is example of:
A. Intercellular endoparasite
B. Extracellular endoparasite
C. * Intracellular endoparasite
D. Extracellular ectoparasite
E. Commensal
52. Leishmania tropica is localized in:
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. * Skin cells
D. Liver
E. Blood cells
53. Liver abscess is a known complication of infection with:
A. Giardia Lamblia
B. Entamoeba coli
C. * Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Entamoeba gingivalis
54. Malaria attacks (paroxysms) are caused by:
A. * release of toxins from RBC
B. invasion of RBC by Merozoites
C. severe hemolytic anemia
D. invasion of RBC by Spororozoites
E. all of the above
55. Malaria is transmitted by:
A. * Anopheles representatives
B. Culex representatives
C. Aedes representatives
D. Phlebotomus resentatives
E. Glossina representatives
56. Malaria prevention consists of:
A. * Mosquitoes extermination
B. Tsetse fly extermination
C. Taking measures against rodents
D. Personal hygiene
E. Water purification
57. Merozoites produced per sporozoite in vivax malaria are about:
A. 2 000
B. 6 000
C. * 10 000
D. 50 000
E. 100 000
58. Motile, reproductive stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:
A. * Trophozoite
B. Cyst
C. Pre-cyst
D. Sporozoit
E. Shizont
59. Nephrotic syndrome in plasmodium malariae is due to:
A. * deposition of immune-complexes in glomerular capillaries
B. the sever anemia
C. hypoproteinemia
D. splenomegaly
E. none of the above
60. Nephrotic syndrome occurs more with:
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. * P. Malariae
C. P. ovale
D. P. falciparum
E. all of the above
61. Oocyst of Toxoplasma is found in:
A. human tissue
B. human blood
C. * faeces of infected cat
D. the brain of chronic patients
E. all of the above
62. PAM (primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitics) is caused by:
A. * Entamoeba histilytica
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Entamoeba gingivalis
E. Leishmania tropica
63. Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious due to:
A. absence of true relapse
B. irregular paroxysms
C. * adherence and blocking of capillaries of internal organs
D. multiple infections inside the RBC’s
E. hemolytic anemia
64. Plasmodium life cycle in female mosquito is named:
A. gametogony
B. schizogons
C. * sporogony
D. ovogony
E. spermatogony
65. Plasmodium ovale in the human body causes:
A. Inflammatory processes in the skin cells
B. Depression and sleepiness
C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
D. * Anemia
E. Diarrhea
66. Plasmodium vivax in the human body causes:
A. * Large liver and spleen mass
B. Depression and sleepiness
C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
D. Inflammatory processes in the nerve cells
E. Diarrhea
67. Plasmodiun vivax is example of:
A. Intercellular endoparasite
B. Extracellular endoparasite
C. * Intracellular endoparasite
D. Extracellular ectoparasite
E. Commensal
68. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups:
A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular
flagellates, ciliates
B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates
C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa
D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians
E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates
69. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups:
A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular
flagellates, ciliates
B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates
C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa
D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians
E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates
70. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups:
A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular
flagellates, ciliates
B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates
C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa
D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians
E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates
71. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups:
A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular
flagellates, ciliates
B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates
C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa
D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians
E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates
72. ?Protozoa can be divided into five groups:
A. amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, multicellular
flagellates, ciliates
B. * amoebae, intestinal flagellates, blood and tissue flagellates, sporozoa, ciliates
C. multicellular flagellates, unicellular flagellates, ciliates, sporozoa
D. coccidians, piroplasms, cytoplasms, haemosporidians
E. Trematoda, Cestoda, Nematoda, Sporozoa, Ciliates
73. Protozoan cysts:
A. actively feed
B. can divide
C. are generally larger than trophozoites
D. are the primary cause of pathogenesis
E. * can be infective after several weeks in the environment
74. Pseudocysts formation is common for:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Entamoeba coli
C. * Toxoplasma gondii
D. Lamblia intestinalis
E. Balantidium coli
75. Regarding cutaneous Leishmaniasis:
A. It is caused by leishmania major
B. transmitted by sand fly
C. Diagnosed by skin smear
D. Endemic in Saudi Arabia
E. * All of the above
76. Regarding Kala-azar:
A. transmitted by bite of mosquito
B. is caused y leishmania tropica
C. * characterized by fever
D. transmitted by direct contact with infected person
E. none of the above
77. Regarding toxoplasmosis in humans:
A. becomes active in immuno-compromised patients
B. acute infection could be transmitted from mother to fetus
C. associated with cats
D. is mainly diagnosed by serological tests
E. * all of the above
78. Regarding visceral Leishmaniasis:
A. * it causes enlargement of liver and spleen
B. is caused y leishmania tropica
C. transmitted by bite of mosquito
D. transmitted by direct contact with infected person
E. none of the above
79. Relapse in malaria is common in:
A. Plasmodium Falciprum
B. * P. vivax
C. Malignant malaria
D. P. malaria
E. all are correct
80. Relapse in malaria is common in:
A. Plasmodium Falciprum
B. P. malaria
C. Malignant malaria
D. * P. ovale
E. all are correct
81. Schizont formation is common for:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Entamoeba coli
C. * Plasmodium vivax
D. Lamblia intestinalis
E. Balantidium coli
82. Schizont formation is common for:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Entamoeba coli
C. * Plasmodium vivax
D. Lamblia intestinalis
E. Balantidium coli
83. Schizonts of malaria parasite are not seen in peripheral blood in:
A. P. vivax
B. * P. falciparum
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae
E. all of the above
84. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by:
A. Anopheles representatives
B. Culex representatives
C. Aedes representatives
D. Phlebotomus resentatives
E. * Glossina representatives
85. Splenomegaly is not caused by:
A. schistomiasis
B. malaria
C. * ascariasis
D. Kala-azar
E. Toxoplasmosis
86. Sporogony takes place in:
A. human blood
B. the liver cells
C. * mosquitoes
D. sand fly
E. other sites
87. Stained smears from organ in Kala-azar show:
A. * amastigote form
B. leptomonas form
C. epimastigote form
D. crithidia form
E. cyst
88. The best test to distinguish amoebic liver abscess from a bacterial liver abscess is:
A. Ultrasound examination
B. Good physical examination by an expert
C. CT scan
D. * Serological evidence of E. histolytica
E. X-ray examination
89. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium malariae lasts:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
24 hours
48 hours
* 72 hours
96 hours
12 hours
90. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium ovale lasts:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
24 hours
* 48 hours
72 hours
92 hours
12 hours
91. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium vivax lasts:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
24 hours
* 48 hours
72 hours
96 hours
12 hours
92. The final host of Toxoplasma gongii is a:
A. * Cat
B. Human being
C. Mouse
D. Hen
E. Rabbit
93. The following disease is transmitted by anthropode vector:
A. * Malaria
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Amoebiasis
D. Hyadatid cyst
E. Lambliosis
94. The following parasites cause fever except:
A. Trichenilla spiralis
B. Naegleria fowleri
C. * Hymenolopis nana
D. Plasmodium vivax
E. Trypanosoma gambience
95. The following statements are correct regarding giardiasis:
A. transmitted by ingestion of cyst
B. affects mainly the upper small intestine
C. diagnosed by examination of stool or duodenal contents
D. most infections are asymptomatic
E. * all are correct
96. The following statements are true regarding plasmodium falciparum infection:
A. it causes duodenitis
B. relapses occur every 3 months
C. * it is characterized by severe anemia
D. characteristically paroxysms occurs every 72 hours
E. all are correct
97. The following statements are true regarding plasmodium falciparum infection:
A. * it causes malignant tertian infection
B. relapses occur every 3 months
C. it is characterized by dysenteric symptoms
D. characteristically paroxysms occurs every 72 hours
E. all are correct
98. The host of Balantidium coli is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cat
* Pig
Cow
Rabbit
Hen
99. The host of Entamoeba histolytica is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
100.
Cat
* Human being
Mouse
Hen
Rabbit
The host of Trichomonas vaginalis is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
101.
Cat
* Human being
Mouse
Hen
Rabbit
The human brain and eyes can be affected by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
103.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
104.
A.
B.
C.
Leishmania tropica
Trichomonas vaginalis
Lamblia intestinalis
Plasmodium vivax
* Toxoplasma gondii
The infective stage of Entamoeba coli is:
Trophozoite
* Cyst
Pre-cyst
Sporozoit
Shizont
The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:
Trophozoite
* Cyst
Pre-cyst
Sporozoit
Shizont
The infective stage of Plasmodium vivax for man is:
Trophozoite
Cyst
Pre-cyst
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
D. * Sporozoit
E. Shizont
The intermediate host of Plasmodium malaria is a:
A. * Human being
B. Antilope
C. Mosquito
D. Tsetse fly
E. Sandfly
The natural habitat for Balantidiun coli is in the large intestine of:
A. * Pigs
B. Man
C. Monkeys
D. Cats
E. Dogs
The parasite that results in symptoms of duodenitis is:
A. entamoeba coli
B. balantidium coli
C. entamoeba histolytica
D. * giardia lamblia
E. trychomonas vaginalis
The protozoon causing dysenteric symptoms is:
A. balantidium coli
B. entamoeba coli
C. giardia lamblia
D. trichomonas hominis
E. * entamoeba histolytica
The protozoon transmitted mainly by sexual contact is:
A. trichomonas hominis
B. dientamoeba fragilis
C. * trichomonas vaginalis
D. retortamonas hominis
E. entamoeba histolytica
The reservoir host of Leishmania donovani is a:
A. Human being
B. * Dog
C. Mosquito
D. Tsetse fly
E. Sandfly
The reservoir host of Trypanosoma cruzi is a:
A. Human being
B. * Cow
C. Mosquito
D. Tsetse fly
E. Sandfly
The reservoir host of Trypanosoma gambiense is a:
A. Human being
B. * Antilope
C. Mosquito
D. Tsetse fly
E. Sandfly
The temporary host of Leishmania tropica is a:
A. Human being
B.
C.
D.
E.
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
115.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
116.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
117.
Toxoplasma gondii has:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
118.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
119.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
120.
Two nuclei
* A conoid
Pseudopodia
A flagellum
Cilia
Toxoplasma gondii has:
Two nuclei
Pseudopodia
Flagella
Cillia
* A conoid
Toxoplasma gondii is example of:
Intercellular endoparasite
Extracellular endoparasite
* Intracellular endoparasite
Extracellular ectoparasite
Commensal
Toxoplasma gondii is localized in the human:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
121.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
122.
Antilope
Mosquito
Tsetse fly
* Sandfly
The temporary host of Plasmodium ovale is a:
* Human being
Antilope
Mosquito
Tsetse fly
Sandfly
The temporary host of Trypanosoma gambiense is a:
Human being
Antilope
Mosquito
* Tsetse fly
Sandfly
There is lymphadenopathy in the following infections except:
African trypanosomiasis
Toxoplasmosis
* Schistosomiasis
Kala-azar
American trypanosomiasis
Small intestine
Large intestine
Larynx
* Lungs
Stomach
Toxoplasma gondii is transmitted to human by:
ingestion of soil contaminated by oocyst from cats
ingestion of cysts in undercooked meat
congenital transmission from mother with acute toxoplasmosis
organ transplant and blood transfusion (infected donor)
* all of the above
Toxoplasmosis prevention consists of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mosquitoes extermination
Tsetse fly extermination
* Restricted contacts with cats
Sand fly extermination
Personal hygiene
123.
Trasformation of Entamoeba histolytica forma minuta into forma magna depends
on factors such as:
A. intestinal motility
B. transit time
C. the presence or absence of specific intestinal flora
D. the host’s diet
E. * Any of the above
124.
Trichomonas vaginalis has:
A. pseudopodia
B. cilia
C. * flagella
D. axostyle
E. none of the above
125.
Trichomonas vaginalis in the human body causes:
A. Large liver and spleen mass
B. Depression and sleepiness
C. * Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
D. Anemia
E. Anemia
126.
Trichomonas vaginalis may inhabit:
A. the small intestine
B. the large intestine
C. * the prostate
D. the blood
E. none of the above
127.
Trichomonas vaginalis may inhabit:
A. the small intestine
B. the large intestine
C. * the vagina
D. the blood
E. none of the above
128.
Trophozoite of Toxoplasma is:
A. infective by ingestion
B. in human blood
C. free living
D. found in chronic infection
E. * obligatory intracellular parasite
129.
Trypanosoma gabiense is example of:
A. * Intercellular endoparasite
B. Extracellular endoparasite
C. Intracellular endoparasite
D. Extracellular ectoparasite
E. Commensal
130.
Trypanosoma gambiense in the human body causes:
A. Large liver and spleen mass
B. * Depression and sleepiness
C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
D. Anemia
E. Diarrhea
Trypanosomes reproduce by:
A. gametocyte fusion
B. blebbing
C. schizogony
D. * binary fission
E. copulation
Trypanosomes reproduce by:
A. gametocyte fusion
B. blebbing
C. schizogony
D. * binary fission
E. copulation
Trypanosomes reproduce by:
A. gametocyte fusion
B. blebbing
C. schizogony
D. * binary fission
E. copulation
Trypanosomes reproduce by:
A. gametocyte fusion
B. blebbing
C. schizogony
D. * binary fission
E. copulation
Trypanosomes reproduce by:
A. gametocyte fusion
B. blebbing
C. schizogony
D. * binary fission
E. copulation
Vaccination is the prophylaxis of:
A. Lambliosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Malaria
D. * Cutaneus leishmaniasis
E. Toxoplasmosis
137.
Visceral leishmaniasis prevention consists of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
139.
A.
Mosquitoes extermination
Tsetse fly extermination
* Taking measures against rodents
Personal hygiene
Water purification
What can be found in the feces of sick person?
Trichomonas vaginalis
Leishmania tropica
* Lamblia intestinalis
Plasmodium ovale
Toxoplasma gondii
What investigations should be performed to confirm a diagnosis of malaria?
* Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
B.
C.
D.
E.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
141.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
142.
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
Biological tests with susceptible animals
Serology of cerebrospinal fluid
Microscopy of patient’s skin cells
What is infective stage for human in life cycle of Plasmodium?
Young trophozoite
* Sporozoite
Mature schizont
Gametocyte
Cyst
What is man in the life cycle of Plasmodium malariae?
* Intermediate host
Definitive host
External parasite
Reservoir host
Internal parasite
What is man in the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
143.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
144.
* Intermediate host
Definitive host
Reservoir host
Internal parasite
External parasite
What is the way of transmission in African trypanosomiasis?
By bite of Anopheles mosquito
Alimentary
* By bite of Glossina palpalis
By bite of bug species (family Triatomidae)
Sexual
What is the way of transmission of amoebiasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
146.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sexual
* Alimentary
By blood
By bite of Anopheles mosquito
By bite of Glossina palpalis
What is the way of transmission of toxoplasmosis?
Sexual
By bite of sandfly
* Transplacental
By bite of tsetse fly
By bite of Anopheles mosquito
What protozoan disease agent belong to flagellates, are common in Africa?
* Plasmodium vivax
Lamblia intestinalis
Entamoeba coli
Trypanosoma cruzi
Leishmania donovani
What protozoan disease agent belong to flagellates, are common in India?
Plasmodium vivax
Lamblia intestinalis
Entamoeba coli
Trypanosoma cruzi
* Leishmania donovani
148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
149.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
151.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
152.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
153.
What unicellular animal can parasitize in the bile ducts?
Plasmodium vivax
* Lamblia intestinalis
Entamoeba coli
Trypanosoma gambiense
Leishmania donovani
?What unicellular animal can parasitize in the human liver?
* Plasmodium vivax
Balantidium coli
Entamoeba coli
Trypanosoma gambiense
Leishmania donovani
What unicellular animal can parasitize in the human skin?
Plasmodium vivax
Balantidium coli
Entamoeba coli
Trypanosoma gambiense
* Leishmania donovani
What unicellular animal can parasitize in the human large intestine?
Plasmodium vivax
* Balantidium coli
Entamoeba gingivalis
Trypanosoma gambiense
Leishmania donovani
What unicellular animal can parasitize in the small intestine?
Plasmodium vivax
* Lamblia intestinalis
Entamoeba coli
Trypanosoma gambiense
Leishmania donovani
Where do schistosomes lay fertilized eggs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
154.
bronchial tubes
intestine
* blood vessels
muscles
bile duct
Which of the below mentioned animals can not form cysts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
155.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
156.
* Leishmania tropica
Entamoeba coli
Entamoeba histolytica
Lamblia intestinalis
Balantidium coli
Which of the below mentioned animals have not cysts?
* Trypanosoma gambiense
Entamoeba coli
Entamoeba histolytica
Lamblia intestinalis
Balantidium coli
Which of the below mentioned animals most probably can form cysts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Leishmania tropica
Trichomonas vaginalis
* Entamoeba histolytica
Plasmodium ovale
E. Trypanosoma gambiense
157.
Which of the below mentioned animals most probably can have cysts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
158.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
161.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
162.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
163.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
164.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
165.
A.
B.
Leishmania tropica
Trichomonas vaginalis
* Lamblia intestinalis
Plasmodium ovale
Trypanosoma gambiense
Which of the following have not organelles for locomotion?
Cilliates
Amoebae
Flagellates
* Sporozoa
All of the above
Which of the following is non-pathogenic?
Entamoeba histilytica
Trypanosoma cruzi
* Entamoeba coli
Trichomonas vaginalis
Leishmania tropica
Which of the following is non-pathogenic?
Entamoeba histilytica
Trypanosoma cruzi
* Entamoeba gingivalis
Trichomonas vaginalis
Leishmania tropica
Which of the following use pseudopodia for locomotion?
Cilliates
* Amoebae
Flagellates
Microsporidia
Trematoda
Which of these is mismatched?
Infective stage of amoebiasis – mature cyst
* Cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has 8 nuclei
Cyst of Entamoeba coli has 8 nuclei
Forma magna of Entamoeba histolytica – tissue form
Forma minuta of Entamoeba histolytica – commensal form
Which Plasmodium species causes “blackwater fever”?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
* Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium gondii
Which types of locomotive organelles does amoeba have?
Cilia
* Pseudopodia
Flagella
No locomotor organelles
Ribosome
For all of the following helminthes dogs are the l hosts except
* Ascaris lumbricoides
Echinococcus granulossus
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Toxocara canis
E. No correct answer
166.
For all of the following helminthes human is the final host except
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. * Echinococcus granulossus
D. Opisthorchis felineus
E. Dyphilobothrium latum
167.
The adult Cestodes body consists in:
A. * scolex, neck, strobila, consisting in proglottids
B. the neck, consisting in proglottids
C. a scolex, consisting in proglottids
D. maryta
E. non of the above
168.
The general characteristics of Cestodes, are the following with an exception:
A. bilateral symmetry
B. flattened dorsoventrally
C. band-shaped body without body cavity
D. primitive or no digestive tract
E. * the sexes are separately
169.
. Parasitic protozoa differ from parasitic helminths in that:
A. they never multiply in the intermediate host.
B. they are always intracellular.
C. they only infect invertebrates.
D. * they multiply in their final host.
E. they always have an intermediate host.
170.
. The cells that form a meshwork filling the spaces between muscles and organs
that develops from mesoderm is called
A. * posteriorly.
B. laterally.
C. anteriorly.
D. dorsoventrally.
E. No correct answer
F. parenchyma.
G. rhabdite.
H. a cuticle layer.
I. tegument.
J. No correct answer
171.
The invasive for human beings stage of Schistosoma haematobium is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
173.
Miracidium
Sporocyst
Redia
Metacercaria
* Cercaria
All of the following statements to Cestodes are true except:
Taenia solium has scolex with 4 suckers and circle of hooks
* Taenia saginata has scolex with 4 suckers and 4 hooks
Echinococcus granulossus has 2-3 proglottids
Dyphilobothrium latum has scolex with 2 elongated sucking grooves
Hymenolepis nana strobila has 100-200 proglottides
All of the following statements to Cestodes are true except:
A. * Taenia solium gravid proglottids have 7-35 primary uterine branches
B. Taenia saginata gravid proglottids have 17-35 primary uterine branches
C. Echinococcus granulossus posterior segment (mature) is the largest and contains
uterus with the haustrums
D. Dyphilobothrium latum gravid uterus is in the form of a rosette
E. Hymenolepis nana uterus has an excretory ostium
174.
All of the following trematodes parasitize the billiary duct except
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Dicrocelium lanceatum
E. * Paragonimus ringery
175.
All of the following trematodial infection occur by ingestion of infected food with
larva except:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Opisthorchis felineus
C. Dicrocelium lanceatum
D. * Schistosoma mansoni
E. Paragonimus ringery
176.
All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. Taenia solium - pigs
B. Taenia saginata - cattle
C. * Echinococcus granulossus - dogs
D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host
E. Dyphilobothrium latum - small crustacean
177.
All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. Taenia solium - pigs
B. Taenia saginata - cattle
C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans.
D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host
E. * Dyphilobothrium latum – human
178.
All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. Taenia solium - pigs
B. * Taenia saginata - human
C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans.
D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host
E. Dyphilobothrium latum - fishes
179.
All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. * Taenia solium - human
B. Taenia saginata - cattle
C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans.
D. Hymenolepis nana - no intermediate host
E. Dyphilobothrium latum - fishes
180.
All of the relation between different Cestodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. Taenia solium - pigs
B. Taenia saginata - cattle
C. Echinococcus granulossus - sheep, cattle, humans.
D. * Hymenolepis nana - small crustacean
E. Dyphilobothrium latum - fishes
181.
All of the relation between different Cestodes and structure of their scolexes are
thrue except:
A. Taenia solium has scolex with 4 suckers and circle of hooks
B. Taenia saginata has scolex with 4 suckers but no hooks
C. Echinococcus granulossus has scolex has suckers and hooks
D. Dyphilobothrium latum has scolex with 2 elongated sucking grooves
E. * Hymenolepis nana has scolex with oral and ventral suckers
182.
All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. Paragonimus westermani - snail
B. Clonorchis sinensis - fish
C. * Fasciola hepatica - cattle
D. Opisthorchis felineus- snail
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum -ants
183.
All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. * Paragonimus westermani - human
B. Clonorchis sinensis - fish
C. Fasciola hepatica - snail
D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum -ants
184.
All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. Paragonimus westermani – snail
B. * Clonorchis sinensis - crabs or crayfish
C. Fasciola hepatica - snail
D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum - ants
185.
All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. * Paragonimus westermani - crabs or crayfish
B. Clonorchis sinensis - snail
C. Fasciola hepatica - snail
D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum -ants
186.
All of the relation between different Trematodes and their intermediate hosts are
thrue except:
A. * Paragonimus westermani - ants
B. Clonorchis sinensis - snail
C. Schistosoma species - snail
D. Opisthorchis felineus- fish
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum – snail
187.
Autoinvasion with eggs of what Cestoda can take place during life cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
188.
* Hymenolepis nana
Echinococcus granulosus
Echinococcus multilocularis
Taenia saginata
Diphyllobotrium latum
Cat fluke oviposit in the:
A. Bronchioles
B.
C.
D.
E.
189.
egg in
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Intestine
Muscles
Lungs
Blood vessels
Concomitant examination of stool and sputum be performed for the presence of
Clonorchis sinensis
Fasciola hepatica
Opisthorchis felineus
Dicrocelium lanceatum
* Paragonimus ringery
190.
During the diagnostics of urogenital schistosomiasis the eggs of
haematobium can be found:
Schistosoma
Only in night urine (10 pm – 6 am)
Only in morning urine (6 am – 10 am)
* Only in day urine (10 am – 2 pm)
In feces
In sputum
191.
Excystation of the cysticercoid of Hymenolepis occurred in the presence of the
following factor:
A. Bile salts, NaCl and a temperature of 37B C
B. Pepsin, Trypsin and a temperature of 37 C
C. HCl, bile salts and a temperature of 27H C
D. Bile salts, NaCl and a temperature of 27B C
E. * None of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
192. Fasciola hepatica adult is localized in the liver of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Human being
Snail
Dog
Cat
Fish
193. Fasciola hepatica marita is localized in the liver of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
B.
C.
* Cattle
Snail
Dog
Cat
Fish
For all of the following helminthes human is the final host except
Fasciola hepatica
Clonorchis sinensis
* Echinococcus granulossus
Opisthorchis felineus
Dyphilobothrium latum
For its life cycle, Fasciola hepatica needs as vector:
a sand fly
* a snail
a mosquito
a tsetse fly
non of the above
For its life cycle, Schistosoma species needs as vector:
a sand fly
* a snail
a mosquito
D. a tsetse fly
E. non of the above
197. For the individual prevention of the invasion of Taenia saginata it is necessary to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Clean the apartment
Treat pork thermally before consumption
Wash vegetables and fruit
Wash hands before eating
* Treat beef thermally before consumption
198. For the individual prevention of the invasion of Taenia solium it is necessary to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
199.
Clean the apartment
* Treat pork thermally before consumption
Wash vegetables and fruit
Wash hands before eating
Treat beef thermally before consumption
General characteristic of class Trematoda is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
200.
* Flattened dorsoventrally
Organs of fixation: suckers and hooks
Cuticle covered body
Body is segmented
Body has scolex, neck, strobile
General characteristic of class Trematoda is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
201.
Back part of the body is twisted to the side in males
* Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker
Cuticle covered body
Body is segmented
Fluid is in the body cavity
How many segments does strobila of Echinococcus granulosus have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* 3- 5
6- 8
50
1000
200-300
202. Human being can be invaded by Diphyllobotrium latum through:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Consuming freshly salted caviar
Unwashed vegetables
Dirty hands
* No enough thermal treatment of fish
Water
203. Human beings’ invasion with chlonorchiasis happens through:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Water
Dirty hands
Dirty vegetables and fruits
* Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
204. Human beings’ invasion with fascioliasis happens through:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
205.
* Water
Dirty hands
Dirty vegetables and fruits
Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
Human beings’ invasion with opisthorchiasis happens through:
A. Water
B. Dirty hands
C. Dirty vegetables and fruits
D. * Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
E. Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
206. Human beings’ invasion with paragonimiasis happens through:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
207.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
208.
Water
Dirty hands
Dirty vegetables and fruits
Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
* Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
In clonorchiasis infection, what is the mode of transmission?
ingestion of metacercaria in crabs or crayfish
infection through skin of larvae from snail hosts
ingestion of plants with the ants
* ingestion of contaminated fish
ingestion of metacercaria in snail
In human being Hymenolepis nana parasitizes in the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Small intestine
Large intestine
Pancreas
Liver
Lungs
209.
In man cysticercosis is result of autoinvasion by:
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. * Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. Echinococcus granulosus
210.
In man the hydadtid cyst stage of Echinococcus granulosus can be localized in the
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Skin
D. Pancreas
E. * Lungs
211.
In the trematodes, the first or invertebrate host is called the _________ and the
second or final host, which is usually a vertebrate, is called the _________ host.
A. molluscan, amphibian
B. indirect, direct
C. intermediate, complete
D. * intermediate, definitive
E. molluscan, reptillian
212. In the human bile ducts there can be found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Schistosoma haematobium
* Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus westermani
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
213. In the human bile ducts there can be not found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cat fluke
Fasciola hepatica
* Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
214. In the human blood vessels there can be found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schistosoma haematobium
Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
215. In the human blood vessels there can be found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schistosoma japonicum
Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
216. In the human lungs there can be found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Schistosoma haematobium
Fasciola hepatica
* Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
217. In the human veins there can be found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
218.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schistosoma mansoni
Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
Indicate invasive stage of Diphyllobotrium latum for crustaceans:
cysticercus
* coracidium
procercoid
plerocercoid
metacercariae
219. Indicate invasive stage of Echinococcus granulosus for definitive host
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
220.
cysticercus
coracidium
* hydatid cyst
plerocercoid
gravid proglottid
Indicate laboratory diagnosis for Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Disease
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
examination of feces
examination of patient’s blood
* routine X-ray
examination of sternal bone marrow by sternal puncture
examination of the cerebrospinal fluid
221. Indicate system of organs which parasitic flukes have no:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
digestive
excretory
nervous
* circulatory
reproductive
222. Indicate system of organs which parasitic flukes have no:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* respiratory
excretory
nervous
digestive
reproductive
223.
Indicate the infectious stage of Echinococcus granulosus for humans:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
224.
hydatid cysts
* an egg
oncosphere
gravid proglottid
cysticercus
Indicate the invasive stage of Fasciola Hepatica for humans:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
metacercariae
an egg
* adolescariae
cercariae
cysticercus
225. Indicate the invasive stage of Taenia saginata for humans
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
226.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
227.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
egg
hydatid cysts
gravid proglottid
* cysticercus
metacercariae
Paragonimus westermani oviposit in the:
* Bronchioles
Intestine
Muscles
Bile ducts
Blood vessels
Prevention of Fasciola hepatica disease includes
eating only cooked meat (especially pork)
* washing plants, watercress, lettuce
non-chlorinated water
eating only cooked meat (especially beef)
non of the above
228. Public prevention of the invasion of Echinococcus granulosus it is necessary to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
229.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
230.
* Treat and diagnostic of dogs
Treat pork thermally before consumption
Wash vegetables and fruit
Wash hands before eating
Treat beef thermally before consumption
Schistosomiasis control depends on destruction of:
* the snails
the sand fly
the mosquitoes
tsetse fly
domesticn dogs
The adolescaria of which trematode is infective stage for human being?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
231.
A.
B.
C.
D.
* Schistosoma haematobium
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Fasciola hepatica
Clonorchis sinensis
The adult of Paragonimus westermani species inhabit:
human stomach
blood
gallbladder
* human langs
E. human liver
232.
The adult of Schistosoma species inhabit:
A. human stomach
B. blood
C. gallbladder
D. * urine
E. human liver
233.
The animals that are leaf-shaped endoparasites, have a tegument, and have
complex life cycles are members of the class
A. * Hirudinea.
B. Turbellaria.
C. Trematoda.
D. Cestoda.
E. Nematoda
234.
The cercaria of which trematode is infective stage for human being?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schistosoma haematobium
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Fasciola hepatica
Clonorchis sinensis
235.
The chain of proglottids is collectively called the ________, and the holdfast or
attachment organ is called the
A. * strobila, scolex.
B. scolex, opisthaptor.
C. opisthaptor, cercaria.
D. cercaria, strobila.
E. Metacercaria, hooks
236.
The cystic stage of the tapeworm Echinoccocus granulosus is called a:
A. Polycercus
B. Cysticercoid
C. Procercoid
D. * Hydatid
E. Plerocercoid
237. The diagnostics of the disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst is performed by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
238.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
239.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
240.
* Serological examination and tomography
Microscopic analisis of feses
Microscopic analisis of blood
Microscopic analisis of urine
Microscopic analisis of cerebrospinal fluid
The eggs of Dyphilobotrium latum hatch to give a:
Miracidium
onchomiracidium
* coracidium
acanthor
planula
The eggs of Dyphilobotrium latum always confused with eggs of:
* Fasciola hepatica
Hookworm
Pinworm
Whipworm
Threadworm
The eggs of Paragonimus westermani always confused with eggs of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Dyphilobothrium latum
Hookworm
Pinworm
Whipworm
Threadworm
241. The final host of Echinococcus granulosus is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* dog
pig
man
cow
* fish
242. The final host of Taenia saginata is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
dog
* man
pig
fish
cow
243. The final host of Taenia solium is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
244.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
245.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
246.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
247.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
248.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
dog
* man
pig
fish
cow
The following worm is plathelminth
* Taenia solium
Ancilostoma duodenale
Ascaris lumbricoides
Enterobius vermicularis
Necator americanus
The following worm is plathelminth
* Taenia solium
Ancilostoma duodenale
Ascaris lumbricoides
Enterobius vermicularis
Necator americanus
The following worm is plathelminth
* Fasciola hepatica
Ancilostoma duodenale
Ascaris lumbricoides
Enterobius vermicularis
Necator americanus
The following worm is Trematoda:
* Schistosoma species
Taenia saginata
Echinococcus granulosus
Trichinella spiralis
Taenia solium
The following worm is Trematoda:
Taenia saginata
* Fasciola hepatica
Echinococcus granulosus
Trichinella spiralis
Taenia solium
249.
The following worm is Trematoda:
A. Taenia saginata
B. * Dicrocelium lanceatum
C. Echinococcus granulosus
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. Taenia solium
250.
The following worm is Trematoda:
A. Taenia saginata
B. * Opisthorchis felineus
C. Echinococcus granulosus
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. Taenia solium
251.
The following worm is Trematoda:
A. Taenia saginata
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Echinococcus granulosus
D. * Clonorchis sinensis
E. Taenia solium
252.
The following worm is Cestodae:
A. * Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Opisthorchis felineus
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. Trichinella spiralis
253.
The following worm is Cestodae:
A. Opisthorchis felineus
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. * Taenia solium
254.
The following worm is Cestodae:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. * Taenia saginata
255.
The following worm is Cestodae:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. * Echinococcus granulosus
256.
The following worm is Cestodae:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. * Hymenolepis nana
257.
The human liver fluke,_________, is common in China, and can cause cirrhosis of
the liver and death
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Paragonimus ringery
258.
C. * Clonorchis sinensis
D. Dyphilobotrium latum
E. Echinoccocus granulosus
The individual prevention of fascioliasis is based on:
A. Individual hygiene
B. Consuming well-cooked fish
C. Consuming well-cooked crabs
D. Consuming well-cooked beef
E. * Consuming boiled water
259.
The individual prevention of hepatosplenic schistosomiasis is based on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
260.
* No swimming in endemic areas
Consuming well-cooked fish
Consuming well-cooked crabs
Consuming well-cooked pork
Consuming boiled water
The individual prevention of intestinal schistosomiasis is based on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
261.
* No swimming in endemic areas
Consuming well-cooked fish
Consuming well-cooked crabs
Consuming well-cooked pork
Consuming boiled water
The individual prevention of opisthorchiasis is based on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
262.
Individual hygiene
* Consuming well-cooked fish
Consuming well-cooked crabs
Consuming well-cooked beef
Consuming boiled water
The individual prevention of paragonimiasis is based on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
263.
Individual hygiene
Consuming well-cooked fish
* Consuming well-cooked crabs
Consuming well-cooked beef
Consuming boiled water
The individual prevention of urogenital schistosomiasis is based on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* No swimming in endemic areas
Consuming well-cooked fish
Consuming well-cooked crabs
Consuming well-cooked pork
Consuming boiled water
264. The intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
265.
The invasive for human beings stage of Fasciola hepatica is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
dog
* man
cat
fish
fox
Miracidium
Sporocyst
Redia
Metacercaria
* Adolescaria
The invasive for human beings stage of Opisthorchis felineus is called:
A. Miracidium
B.
C.
D.
E.
267.
Sporocyst
Redia
* Metacercaria
Cercaria
The invasive for human beings stage of Paragonimus westermani is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
268.
Miracidium
Sporocyst
Redia
* Metacercaria
Adolescaria
The life cycle of Clonorchis involves asexual reproduction in which animal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* snail and fish
cattle and snail
pig and fish
fish and ant
crab and snail
269. The life cycle of Diphyllobotrium latum involves asexual reproduction in what animal:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
270.
snail
crab
pig
* fish
cattle
The life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus involves sexual reproduction in what animal
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* dog
crab
pig
fish
cattle
271. The life cycle of Taenia saginata involves asexual reproduction in what animal:
A. snail
B. crab
C. pig
D. fish
E. * cattle
272. The life cycle of Taenia solium involves asexual reproduction in which animal:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
273.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
274.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
275.
snail
crab
pig
* fish
cow
The normal definitive site for adult Schistosoma mansoni is:
The mesenteric arteries
* The mesenteric veins
The hepatic arteries
The hepatic veins
All of the above
The organ most commonly infected in Echinoccocus granulosus infection is
Lang
* Liver
Brain
Spleen
Muscles
The ova of Clonorchis sinensis inhabit:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
276.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
277.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
278.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
279.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
280.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
281.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
282.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
283.
A.
B.
C.
D.
human stomach
blood
* gallbladder
intestine
human liver
The ova of Fasciola hepatica inhabit:
human stomach
* human bile ducts
blood
human intestine
human lung
The ova of Fasciola hepatica inhabit:
* gallbladder
human stomach
blood
human intestine
human lung
The ova of Opisthorchis felineus inhabit:
human stomach
blood
* gallbladder
intestine
human liver
The ova of Schistosoma species inhabit:
human stomach
blood
gallbladder
* intestine
human liver
The ova of Schistosoma species inhabit:
human stomach
blood
gallbladder
* urine
human liver
The protonephridial system in cestodes functions in:
Digestion
reproduction
* osmoregulation
defense
nervous co-ordination
The segments that make up the body of a tapeworm are called:
Metameres
* Proglottides
Bothria
Tagmata
Bothridia
The shape and color of Fasciola hepatica ova are:
Spherical and greenish
* oval and yellowish
greenish and round
yellowish and whitish
E. non-operculated, yellowish
284.
The shape of the ovary & the testes & the position of the vitellaia in Clonorchis
sinensis is:?
A. ovary branched, testes lobed, vitellaria central
B. ovary round testes lobed, vitellaria along the length of each lateral border
C. ovary branched, testes round, vitellaria along the length of each lateral border
D. ovary round, testes round, vitellaria central
E. * Non of the above
285.
The term maryta is only used when referring to the:
A. Cestodes
B. * Trematodes
C. Nematodes
D. Sporozoans
E. Flagellates
286.
The term proglottid is only used when referring to the:
A. * Cestodes
B. Trematodes
C. Nematodes
D. Sporozoans
E. Flagellates
287.
The term scolex is only used when referring to the:
A. * Cestodes
B. Trematodes
C. Nematodes
D. Sporozoans
E. Flagellates
288.
The term tegument is only used when referring to the:
A. Arthropods
B. * Trematodes
C. Nematodes
D. Sporozoans
E. Flagellates
289.
What are the sizes of the marita of Fasciola hepatica?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
290.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
291.
What is mode of transmission of schistosomiasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
292.
3-5 mm
30-50 cm
* 3-5 cm
10 mm
1-2 m
What is mode of transmission of dicrocoeliasis?
penetration of skin by cercaria
ingestion contaminated crabs
ingestion contaminated snail
ingestion contaminated fish
* by eating plants with the ants
* penetration of skin by cercaria
by eating contaminated crabs
by eating contaminated snail
by eating contaminated fish
by eating contaminated pork
What is reservoir for Schistosoma haematobium
A. Fish
B.
C.
D.
E.
293.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
294.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
295.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Snail
Cattle
Pig
* Human
What is reservoir for Schistosoma mansoni
Fish
Snail
Cattle
Pig
* Human
What is the causative agent of urinary or vesical schistosomiasis
Paragonimus westermani
* Schistosoma haematobium
Fasciola hepatica
Opisthorchis felineus
Dicrocoelium lanceatum
What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglotid of Taenia saginata ?
* 17 –35 uterine branches
7 –12 uterine branches
bilobed ovary
trilobed ovary
gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
296. What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglottid of Taenia solium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
297.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
17 –35 uterine branches
* 7 –12 uterine branches
bilobed ovary
trilobed ovary
gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
What is the distinguishing feature of gravid proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum?
7 –12 uterine branches
17 –35 uterine branches
bilobed ovary
trilobed ovary
* gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
298. What is the distinguishing feature of immature proglottid of Taenia solium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
17 –35 uterine branches
7 –12 uterine branches
bilobed ovary
* trilobed ovary
gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
299. What is the distinguishing feature of scolex of Taenia solium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* 4 suckers and circle of hooks
4 suckers but no hooks
2 elongated sucking grooves
without organs of fixation
hooks
300. What kind of helminthiasis is characterized by the development of hematuria, terminal disuria,
obstructed urine flow?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fascioliasis
paragonimiasis
shistosomiasis japonicum
* shistosomiasis haematobium
dicrocoeliasis
301. What tapeworm does cause cysticercosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
302.
* Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
Diphyllobotrium latum
Fasciola hepatica
Echinococcus multilocularis
What trematoda does have one intermediate host in its life cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
303.
* Fasciola hepatica
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
What trematoda does have two hosts in its life cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
304.
* Schistosoma mansoni
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
What trematoda does have two intermediate hosts in its life cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
305.
Fasciola hepatica
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
* Opisthorchis felineus
Paragonimus westermani
What trematode is not hermaphroditic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
306.
* Schistosoma haematobium
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Fasciola hepatica
Clonorchis sinensis
Where do schistosomes lay fertilized eggs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
307.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
308.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
309.
A.
B.
C.
D.
bronchial tubes
intestine
* blood vessels
muscles
bile duct
Which cestode does cause Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Diseases?
Taenia solium
Echinococcus multilocularis
Diphyllobotrium latum
* Echinococcus granulosus
Taenia saginata
Which of the following is NOT used in schistosome control?
Education
molluscicides
chemotherapy
sanitation
* bed nets
Which of the following organisms is a blood fluke?
Worms of the genus Fasciolopsis.
* Worms of the genus Schistosoma.
Worms of the genus Taenia.
Worms of the genus Clonorchis.
E. All of them
310.
Which stage of Dicrocoelium lanceatum is invasive for humans?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
311.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
312.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
313.
an egg
adolescariae
cercariae
adult worm
* metacercariae
__________ is the part of alimentary canal of Enterobius vermicularis
Heart
Crop
Kidney
Ovary
* Esophagus
__________ is the part of excretory system of Ascaris lumbricoides.
Heart
* Excretory channels
Kidney
Ovary
Oesophagus
__________ is the part of reproductive system of female Ascaris lumbricoides.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
314.
Heart
* Two ovaries
Kidney
One ovary
Esophagus
. Each of the following statements concerning loiasis is correct except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
315.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
316.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
317.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
318.
A.
B.
C.
Loa loa causes loiasis
* loiasis is caused by egg of Loa loa
Deer fly is vector of Loa loa
loiasis is caused by larvae of Loa loa
Loa loa crawling across the conjuctiva of the eye
?1. Elephantiasis is caused by:
Ascaris
Necator
Haemonchus
Dictyocaulus
* Wucheraria
14. The biological vectors of Onchocerciasis is:
mosquito
* blackfly
a water strider
a crustacean
deer fly
15. The biological vectors of Loa loa is:
mosquito
blackfly
a water strider
a crustacean
* deer fly
16. The biological vectors of Wuchereria bancrofti is:
* mosquito
blackfly
a water strider
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
D. a crustacean
E. deer fly
17. The biological vectors of Brugia malayi is:
A. * mosquito
B. blackfly
C. a water strider
D. a crustacean
E. deer fly
18. The intermediate host of Dracunculus medinensis is:
A. * a crustacean,
B. a mosquito,
C. a rotifer,
D. a blackfly,
E. a water strider
19. What is the intermediate host of Dracunculus medinensis:
A. * a crustacean,
B. a mosquito,
C. a rotifer,
D. a blackfly,
E. a water strider
2. The causative agent of elephantiasis is:
A. Ascaris
B. Necator
C. Haemonchus
D. Dictyocaulus
E. * Wucheraria
20. Diagnosis of Wuchereria bancrofti is best accomplished by:
A. stool exam
B. immunological test
C. “scotch tape test”
D. * blood film examination
E. tissue biopsy
3. The intermediate host of Dracunculus is:
A. an amphipod
B. an isopod
C. a mollusc
D. a tick
E. * a copepod
4. What is the intermediate host of Dracunculus?
A. an amphipod
B. an isopod
C. a mollusc
D. a tick
E. * a copepod
5. The nematode cuticle is primarily made of:
A. * keratin
B. actin
C. collagen
D. chitin
E. cellulose
6. Which of the following are NOT characteristic of nematodes?
A. unsegmented
B.
C.
D.
E.
328.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
329.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
330.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
331.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
332.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
333.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
334.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
335.
A.
B.
C.
no respiratory organs
no circulatory system
* no cilia
coelomate
7. Approximately how many eggs does a female Ascaris produce per day?
100
1,000
10,000
* 100,000
1,000,000
8. Methods used for diagnosing nematode parasites:
fecal exams,
blood films,
tissue biopsy,
immunological tests,
* all of these
9. Diagnosis of pinworms is best accomplished by:
stool exam,
immunological test,
* “scotch tape test”,
blood film examination,
tissue biopsy
A nematode worms lack a
nervous system
* circulatory system
digestive system
reproductive system
mesoderm
Ancylostoma is:
Pork-infestation
Elephantiasis
Sushi worm
Pin worm
* Hook worm
Enterobius is:
Pork-infestation
Elephantiasis
Sushi worm
* Pin worm
Hook worm
Enterobius vermicularis:
Normally inhabits the small intestine
The male is bigger than female
Has an elongated whip like anterior portion
It has a whip-like anterior portion
* Occasionally invades the female genitourinary system
Enterobius vermicularis:
Normally inhabits the small intestine
The male is bigger than female
Has an elongated whip like anterior portion
D. It has a whip-like anterior portion
E. * The female migrates out of the anus to release the eggs
336.
In hookworm infection, what is the mode of transmission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
337.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
sexual
ingestion contaminated crabs
ingestion contaminated snail
by blood
* penetration of skin by larva
In onchocerciasis, damage to human eyes results from host responses to:
L1 larvae,
L2 larvae,
L3 larvae,
L4 larvae,
* Adults
338. Indicate the diseases, which can’t be treated by drugs:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
339.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
340.
Ascariasis
Enterobiasis
* Cysticercosis
Taeniasis solium
Diphyllobotriasis
Indicate the invasive stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans:
rhabditiform larva
egg
* filariform larva
cercariae
metacercariae
Indicate the localization of adult worm of Trichinella spiralis in human
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* small intestine
large intestine
striated muscles
lungs
liver
Indicate the localization of Trichinella spiralis larva’s in human
341.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
small intestine
large intestine
* striated muscles
lungs
liver
342. Indicate the organs of localization of Wuchereria bancrofti:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
343.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
344.
A.
B.
skin
striated muscle cells
liver
* lymph nodes
blood
Methods used for diagnosing trichinosis of human include:
fecal exams
blood films
tissue biopsy
immunological tests
* tissue biopsy and immunological tests
Nematode worms share all of the following features except
use of fluid in the body cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton.
use of the outer covering as a respiratory surface.
345.
346.
347.
348.
349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
C. * presence of a closed circulatory system
D. presence of an alimentary canal.
E. parasitic lifestyles in some species
Nematodes..
A. are only hermaphrodites
B. have three tissue layers
C. are only male or female
D. only exist as parasites
E. * Correct B and C
Organisms in which of the following phyla includes the roundworms?
A. Annelida
B. Arthropoda
C. * Nematoda
D. Platyhelminthes
E. None of the above
The anus of the nematode is found..
A. nematodes don’t have an anus, only a mouth
B. in the front
C. in the back
D. * in the middle
E. No correct answer
The following statements about Enterobius vermicularis are true:
A. It has a whip-like anterior portion
B. The eggs can be easily seen in feces
C. Has an elongated whip like anterior portion
D. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
E. * Causes pruritus anis and sleeplessness in children
The following statements about Enterobius vermicularis are true:
A. It has a whip-like anterior portion
B. The eggs can be easily seen in feces
C. Has an elongated whip like anterior portion
D. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
E. * Adults are less susceptible to pinworm infections than children
The General Characteristics of Nematodes are:
A. flatworms
B. hermaphrodites
C. * with unsegmented bodies
D. Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker.
E. The life cycle is passed in two hosts
The General Characteristics of Nematodes are:
A. flatworms
B. hermaphrodites
C. * the sexes are separated
D. Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker.
E. The life cycle is passed in two hosts
The General Characteristics of Nematodes are:
A. flatworms
B. hermaphrodites
C. * complete digestive tract including mouth and anus.
D. Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker.
E. The life cycle is passed in two hosts
The General Characteristics of Nematodes are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
354.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
355.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
356.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
357.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
358.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
359.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
360.
flatworms
hermaphrodites
* he body is covered with a noncellular, highly resistant coating called a cuticle
Organs of fixation: oral sucker, ventral sucker.
The life cycle is passed in two hosts
The life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides:
is direct
* requires one host
requires two intermediate hosts
requires one or more paratenic hosts
requires a mosquito intermediate host
The life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides:
* is direct
requires one intermediate host,
requires two intermediate hosts,
requires one or more paratenic hosts,
requires a mosquito intermediate host
The life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides:
* Does not have intermediate host
requires one intermediate host
requires two intermediate hosts
requires one or more paratenic hosts
requires a mosquito intermediate host
The opening of the female reproductive system is called the:
cloaca
vulva
* uterus
amphid
phasmid
The opening of the female reproductive system is called the:
cloaca
* vulva
uterus
amphid
phasmid
The stage of Wuchereria bancrofti that is ingested by the mosquito is:
L1,
L2,
* microfilaria,
L3,
“A and C”
The uteri of Ascaris lumbricoides are located in between __________
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pharynx and oesophagus
* ovaries and oviducts
ovaries and vagina
none of above
ovaries and kidney
These nematodes invade the human body when filariform larvae penetrate the
361.
skin.
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. * Necator americanus
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Trichinella spiralis
362.
These nematodes invade the human body when filariform larvae penetrate the
skin.
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. * Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Trichinella spiralis
363.
These nematodes invade the human body when filariform larvae penetrate the
skin.
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. * Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Trichinella spiralis
364.
Trichinella is:
A. * Pork-infestation
B. Elephantiasis
C. Sushi worm
D. Pin worm
E. Hook worm
365.
Trichinella spiralis is:
A. * Pork-infestation
B. Elephantiasis
C. Sushi worm
D. Pin worm
E. Hook worm
366.
Trichuris trichiura adult:
A. * Has an elongated whip like anterior portion
B. about 1 cm in length
C. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
D. female about 25-40 cm in length
E. d. Has 3-5 mm in length
367.
Trichuris trichiura adult:
A. * Lives in cecum
B. about 1 cm in length
C. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
D. female about 25-40 cm in length
E. d. Has 3-5 mm in length
368.
Trichuris trichiura adult:
A. * Lives in the large intestine
B. about 1 cm in length
C. Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
D. female about 25-40 cm in length
E. d. Has 3-5 mm in length
369.
What best describes Nematodes?
A. They are flat, segmented worms
B. They are flat, unsegmented worms
C. * They are round, unsegmented worms
D. They are round, segmented worms
E. All of these
370.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of ascariasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
371.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
372.
Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
* Microscopy of patient’s faeces
Serologic test, muscle biopsy
Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of dracunculiasis?
Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
Biopsy of the affected skin
Serologic test, muscle biopsy
* Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of filariasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
373.
* Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
Biopsy of the affected skin
Serologic test, muscle biopsy
Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of onchocerciasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
374.
Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
* Biopsy of the affected skin
Serologic test, muscle biopsy
Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichinosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
375.
Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
Microscopy of patient’s faeces
* Serologic test, muscle biopsy
Microscopy of patient’s sputum
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichuriasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
376.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
377.
Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
* Microscopy of patient’s faeces
Serologic test, muscle biopsy
Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid
What is definitive host of Toxocara canis:
pig
cat
human being
snail
* dog
What is definitive host of Toxocara canis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
378.
A.
B.
C.
D.
pig
cat
human being
snail
* non correct answer
What is false about Trichinella spiralis?
* The infective stage for man is the egg
The infective stage for man is the larva
Mode of transmission: alimentary
The larva is enclosed in a fibrous cyst localized within muscle cells
379.
E. small intestine (adult worms) and striated muscles (larvae).
What is false about Trichinella spiralis?
A. * The larva has a perienteric cycle
B. The infective stage for man is the larva
C. Mode of transmission: alimentary
D. The larva is enclosed in a fibrous cyst localized within muscle cells
E. Localisation: small intestine (adult worms) and striated muscles (larvae).
380. What is infective stage for human in life cycle of Enterobius vermicularis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
381.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
382.
What is prevention of filariasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
383.
filtering or boiling of drinking water
control of the deer fly by insecticides
washing hands before meals
* control of the mosquito by insecticides
wearing shoes
What is prevention of filariasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
384.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
385.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
386.
filtering or boiling of drinking water
control of the deer fly by insecticides
washing hands before meals
* non correct answer
wearing shoes
What is prevention of loiasis?
filtering or boiling of drinking water
* control of the deer fly by insecticides
washing hands before meals
control of the mosquito by insecticides
wearing shoes
What is prevention of onchocerciasis?
filtering or boiling of drinking water
control of the deer fly by insecticides
washing hands before meals
control of the mosquito by insecticides
* control of the black fly by insecticides
What is prevention of strongyloidiasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
387.
miracidium
cercaria
redia
* an egg
cystisercus
What is prevention of dracunculiasis?
* filtering or boiling of drinking water
control of the deer fly by insecticides
washing hands before meals
wearing shoes
properly cooking pork
filtering or boiling of drinking water
control of the deer fly by insecticides
washing hands before meals
control of the mosquito by insecticides
* wearing shoes
What is prevention of trichinosis?
A. filtering or boiling of drinking water
B. control of the deer fly by insecticides
C. washing hands before meals
D. * properly cooking pork
E. wearing shoes
388.
What is prevention of visceral larva migrans?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
389.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
390.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
391.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
392.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
393.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
394.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
395.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
396.
A.
filtering or boiling of drinking water
control of the deer fly by insecticides
wearing shoes
properly cooking pork
* washing hands before meals
What is the best describes Nematodes?
They are flat, segmented worms
They are flat, unsegmented worms
* They are round, unsegmented worms
They are round, segmented worms
All of these
what is the biological vectors of Loa loa?
mosquito
blackfly
a water strider
a crustacean
* deer fly
what is the biological vectors of Loa loa?
mosquito
blackfly
a water strider
a crustacean
* non correct answer
what is the biological vectors of Onchocerciasis?
mosquito
* blackfly
a water strider
a crustacean
deer fly
what is the biological vectors of Wuchereria bancrofti?
* mosquito
blackfly
a water strider
a crustacean
deer fly
what is the causative agent of elephantiasis?
Ascaris
Necator
Haemonchus
Dictyocaulus
* Wucheraria
what is the causative agent of elephantiasis?
Ascaris
Necator
Haemonchus
Dictyocaulus
* non correct answer
What is the cause of filariasis:
Dracunculus medinensis
397.
B. * Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Toxocara canis
What is the cause of river blindness:
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. * Onchocerca volvulus
D. Toxocara canis
E. Loa loa
398.
What is the diagnostic stage of Trichuris trichiura?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
399.
cystisercus
oncosphere
redia
* an egg
gravid proglottid
What is the diagnostic stage of Trichuris trichiura?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
400.
cystisercus
oncosphere
redia
* non correct answer
gravid proglottid
what is the mode of transmission for hookworm infection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
401.
sexual
ingestion contaminated crabs
ingestion contaminated snail
by blood
* penetration of skin by larva
What is the mode of transmission in strongyloidiasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
402.
sexual
ingestion contaminated crabs
ingestion contaminated snail
by blood
* penetration of skin by larva
What is the mode of transmission in strongyloidiasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
403.
sexual
ingestion contaminated crabs
ingestion contaminated snail
by blood
* penetration of skin by larva
What is the mode of transmission of Trichinella spiralis in human?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* ingestion contaminated pork
ingestion contaminated crabs
ingestion contaminated snail
ingestion contaminated beef
penetration of skin by larva
404. What is the organ through over the Ascaris lumbricoides does not migrate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
405.
lung
* brain
liver
heart
blood
What is true about Ascaris lumbricoides?
A. Adult worms about 1 cm in length;
B.
C.
D.
E.
406.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
407.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
408.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
409.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
410.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
411.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
412.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
413.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* It is the largest intestinal nematode
larvae penetrate the skin
The eggs are embrionated when they are passed in the stools
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
What is true about Ascaris lumbricoides?
Adult worms about 1 cm in length;
* Its eggs have a smooth and a roughly tuberculated outer shell
larvae penetrate the skin
The eggs are embrionated when they are passed in the stools
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
What is true about Ascaris lumbricoides?
Adult worms about 1 cm in length;
* The eggs can remain viable for years in proper soil
larvae penetrate the skin
The eggs are embrionated when they are passed in the stools
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
what is true about Enterobius vermicularis?
Normally inhabits the small intestine
The male is bigger than female
Has an elongated whip like anterior portion
It has a whip-like anterior portion
* Occasionally invades the female genitourinary system
what is true about life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides?
is direct
* requires one host
requires two intermediate hosts
requires one or more paratenic hosts
requires a mosquito intermediate host
what is true about life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides?
* Does not have intermediate host
requires one intermediate host
requires two intermediate hosts
requires one or more paratenic hosts
requires a mosquito intermediate host
what is true about Nematodes?
are only hermaphrodites
have three tissue layers
are only male or female
only exist as parasites
* Correct B and C
what is true about Trichuris trichiura adult?
* Lives in cecum
about 1 cm in length
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
female about 25-40 cm in length
d. Has 3-5 mm in length
what is true about Trichuris trichiura?
* Lives in cecum
about 1 cm in length
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
female about 25-40 cm in length
d. Has 3-5 mm in length
414.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
415.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
417.
What is true about Trichuris trichiura?
* Light infections with these parasites are often asymptomatic
Rectal prolapse is a frequent complication
Adult worms about 1 cm in length
larvae penetrate the skin
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
What is true about Trichuris trichiura?
* They can cause appendicitis
Rectal prolapse is a frequent complication
Adult worms about 1 cm in length
larvae penetrate the skin
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
What is true about Trichuris trichiura?
* Heavy infections are accompanied by abdominal pain and diarrhea
Rectal prolapse is a frequent complication
Adult worms about 1 cm in length
larvae penetrate the skin
Localisation: striated muscles (larvae).
What species of Nematodes is biohelminth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
418.
* Trichinella spiralis
Ancylostoma duodenale
Strongyloides stercoralis
Necator americanus
Ascaris lumbricoides
What species of Nematodes is biohelminth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
419.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
420.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
421.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
422.
A.
B.
C.
* non correct answer
Ancylostoma duodenale
Strongyloides stercoralis
Necator americanus
Ascaris lumbricoides
What species of parasites are most often involved in visceral larva migrans?
Fasciola hepatica
Enterobius vermicularis
Dyphyllobotrium latum
* Toxocara canis
Paragonimus westermani
What species of parasites are most often involved in visceral larva migrans?
Fasciola hepatica
Enterobius vermicularis
Dyphyllobotrium latum
* Loa loa
Paragonimus westermani
What types of disturbances can appear in trichinelosis?
Diarrhea
Muscle injury
* All of these
Toxemia
eosinophilia
What types of disturbances can not appear in trichinelosis?
Diarrhea
Muscle injury
* Sleeping sickness
423.
424.
425.
426.
427.
428.
429.
430.
431.
D. Toxemia
E. eosinophilia
?Where are Nematodes found?
A. * In soil
B. In fresh water
C. In salt water
D. All of the above
E. In air
Where do the adults of Brugia malayi live?
A. in the small intestine
B. in the large intestine
C. * in the lymph nodes
D. in the liver
E. in the heart
Where do the adults of Wuchereria bancrofti live?
A. in the small intestine
B. in the large intestine
C. * in the lymph nodes
D. in the liver
E. in the heart
where is found the anus of the nematode ?
A. nematodes don’t have an anus, only a mouth
B. in the front
C. in the back
D. * in the middle
E. No correct answer
Which is the way of transmission in case of Ascaris lumbricoides?
A. * Fecal-oral transmission
B. Penetrating the skin
C. Aerial transmission
D. through infected syringes
E. alimentary
Which is the way of transmission in case of Enterobius vermicularis?
A. * A. Fecal-oral transmission
B. B. Penetrating the skin
C. C. Aerial transmission
D. D. through infected syringes
E. E. alimentary
Which is the way of transmission in case of Trichinella spiralis?
A. Fecal-oral transmission
B. Penetrating the skin
C. Aerial transmission
D. through infected syringes
E. * alimentary
Which is the way of transmission in case of Trichuris trichiuria?
A. * Fecal-oral transmission
B. Penetrating the skin
C. Aerial transmission
D. through infected syringes
E. alimentary
Which is the way of transmission in case of Ancylostoma duodenale?
A. Fecal-oral transmission
B.
C.
D.
E.
432.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
433.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
434.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
435.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Penetrating the skin
Aerial transmission
through infected syringes
alimentary
Which is the way of transmission in case of Necator americanus?
Fecal-oral transmission
* Penetrating the skin
Aerial transmission
through infected syringes
alimentary
Which is the way of transmission in case of Strongyloides stercoralis?
Fecal-oral transmission
* Penetrating the skin
Aerial transmission
through infected syringes
alimentary
which methods used for diagnosing trichinosis
fecal exams
blood films
tissue biopsy
immunological tests
* tissue biopsy and immunological tests
Which of the eggs have a smooth and a roughly tuberculated outer shell?
The eggs of Taenia solium
The eggs of Ancylostoma duodenale
* The eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides
The eggs of Fasciola hepatica
The eggs Strongyloides stercoralis
436. Which of the female tissue nematodes release larvae into fresh water:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Dracunculus medinensis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
Toxocara canis
Loa loa
437.
Which of the following BEST describes the appearance of adult Ascaris
lumbricoides worms?
A. Whitish-yellow; female 7-14 mm; male 2-4 mm
B. Grayish-white to pink; female 9-12 mm; male 5-10 mm
C. Colorless, females 2mm; males have not been described.
D. * Creamy-white with a pink tint, female 22-35 cm; male up to 30 cm
E. All of these
438.
Which of the following is a correct species name for the giant roundworm?
A. * Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Enterobius vermicularis
439.
Which of the following is a correct species name for the guinea fire worm?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. * Dracunculus medinensis
D. Trichuris trichiura
440.
441.
442.
443.
E. Enterobius vermicularis
Which of the following is a correct species name for the hookworm?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. * Necator americanus
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Trichuris trichiura
Which of the following is a correct species name for the hookworm?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. * Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Enterobius vermicularis
Which of the following is a correct species name for the pinworm?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. * Enterobius vermicularis
Which of the following is a correct species name for the whipworm?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. * Trichuris trichiura
E. Necator americanus
444. Which of the following is a mismatch?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Ascariasis – Trematode infection
Taeniasis – Cestoede infection
Enterobiasis - Nematode infection
Malaria - Protozoan infection
Elephantiasis - Nematode infection
445. Which of the following is a mismatch?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
446.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
447.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
448.
A.
B.
C.
Ascariasis – Nematode infection
Taeniasis – Cestoede infection
Enterobiasis - Nematode infection
Malaria - Protozoan infection
* Elephantiasis - Trematode infection
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Nematoda:
bilateral symmetry
sexual dimorphism
pseudocoelomate
* body segmentation
5 stages in life history
Which of the larvae can penetrate the skin?
The larva of Echinococcus granulosus
The rhabditoid larva of Ancylostoma duodenale
* The filariform larva of Ancylostoma duodenale
The larva of Trichinella spiralis
The larva Ascaris lumbricoides
Which of the larvae can penetrate the skin?
The larva of Echinococcus granulosus
The rhabditoid larva of Ancylostoma duodenale
* The filariform larva of Strongyloides stercoralis
449.
450.
451.
452.
453.
D. The larva of Trichinella spiralis
E. The larva Ascaris lumbricoides
Which of the larvae can penetrate the skin?
A. The larva of Echinococcus granulosus
B. The rhabditoid larva of Ancylostoma duodenale
C. * The filariform larva of Necator americanus
D. The larva of Trichinella spiralis
E. The larva Ascaris lumbricoides
Which of the parasites are hookworms?
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. * Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Dyphillobotrium latum
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Strongyloides stercoralis
Which of the parasites are pinworms?
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Dyphillobotrium latum
D. * Enterobius vermicularis
E. Strongyloides stercoralis
Which of the parasites are whipworm?
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. * Trichuris trichiuria
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. Strongyloides stercoralis
Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of blackflies:
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. * Onchocerca volvulus
D. Toxocara canis
E. Loa loa
454.
Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of deer fly (Chrysops):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
455.
Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of mosquito:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
456.
Dracunculus medinensis
* Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
Toxocara canis
Loa loa
Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by ingestion of copepods?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
457.
* Dracunculus medinensis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
Toxocara canis
Loa loa
* Dracunculus medinensis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
Toxocara canis
Loa loa
Which of the tissue nematodes cause Calabar Swelling?
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. * Loa loa
D. Onchocerca volvulus
E. Toxocara canis
458.
Which of the tissue nematodes cause visceral larva migrans
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
459.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
460.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
461.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
462.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
463.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
464.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
465.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
466.
Dracunculus medinensis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
* Toxocara canis
Loa loa
Which of the tissue nematodes does cause elephantiasis?
Dracunculus medinensis
* Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
Toxocara canis
Loa loa
Which species of Nematoda produces an operculated egg?
* Trichuris trichiura
Ascaris lumbricoides
Ancylostome duodenale
Strongyloides stercoralis
Enterobius vermicularis
Which stage of Ancylostoma duodenale is invasive for humans?
an egg
* filariform larva
rhabditiform larva
adult worm
encapsulated larva
Wuchereria Bancrofti is:
Pork-infestation
* Elephantiasis
Sushi worm
Pin worm
Hook worm
A member of mites is
Ornithodorus papillipes
Dermacentor pictus
Pediculus humanus capitis
Ixodes persulcatus
* Sarcoptes scabiei
?Aedes sp. of mosquito deposit eggs in:
moist soil
flowing water bodies
* stagnant water
fresh water
all of these
Anopheles mosquito spread
* malaria
Lyme disease
Filaria
Sleeping sickness
Plague
Arachnids have _________ pairs of legs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
467.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
468.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
469.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
470.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
471.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
472.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
473.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
474.
A.
B.
C.
D.
* four
three
six
eight
two
At which stage of development would an insect be enclosed in a cocoon?
egg
larva
nymph
* pupa
all of the above
Chitin can be found in:
glandular tissue
the muscle tissue of vertebrates
epithelial tissue of humans
* exoskeleton of animals such as cockroaches and crabs.
non of the above
Crustaceans have _________ pairs of antennas.
four
three
one
eight
* two
Culex mosquito spread
malaria
Lyme disease
* Filaria
Sleeping sickness
Plague
Culex mosquito spread
malaria
Lyme disease
* Wuchereria bancrofti
Sleeping sickness
Plague
Egg of what parasite is on this picture?
* Mosquito Anopheles
Mosquito Culex
Pulex irritans
Ixodes ricinus
Ornithodorus papillipes
Fleas spreads:
malaria
Lyme disease
Chagas disease
Sleeping sickness
* Plague
Fleas , bedbugs, and beetles are considered what?
* destructive or harmful insects
good pets
great insects for the garden
funny and entertaining
E. Non of the above
475.
Fused cephalotorax and abdomen has
A. * mites and ticks
B. bees
C. scorpions
D. spiders
E. All of the above
476.
Glossina palpalis spread:
A. malaria
B. Lyme disease
C. Chagas disease
D. * Sleeping sickness
E. Plague
477.
Having chelicerae, a body divided into an anterior cephalothorax and posterior
abdomen, and book lungs is characteristic of:
A. * No correct answer
B. insects
C. millipedes
D. crustaceans
E. trilobites
478.
Having chelicerae, a body divided into an anterior cephalothorax and posterior
abdomen, and book lungs is characteristic of:
A. * arachnids
B. insects
C. millipedes
D. crustaceans
E. trilobites
479.
Haw is the immature stage of insects with wimple metamorphosis is often called?
A. chrysalis
B. larva
C. naupilus
D. * pupa
E. nymph
480.
Haw is the last segment of scorpions cold?
A. chelicerae
B. pedipalps
C. mandibles
D. maxillae
E. * telsons
481.
Haw is the molting process in arthropods cold?
A. ecdysis
B. tagmatization
C. * metamorphosis
D. paedomorphosis
E. cephalization
482.
How many body parts does an insect have?
A. four
B. * three
C. six
D. eight
E. two
483.
How many legs does an insect have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
484.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
485.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
486.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
487.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
488.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
489.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
490.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
491.
A.
B.
C.
four
two
three
* six
eight
how many pairs of antennas Insects have?
four
three
* one
eight
two
How many pairs of legs does an insect have?
four
* three
six
eight
two
Indicate medical importance of Cyclops
* A Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium
latum) and Dracunculus medinensis
Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani)
Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata)
Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium)
Non of the above
Indicate mode by which bloodsucking flies transmit diseases.
Indirect mechanical
Direct mechanical
Biologic
Hereditary
* Both B and C
Indicate mode by which nonbloodsucking flies transmit diseases.
* Indirect mechanical
Direct mechanical
Biologic
Hereditary
All of the above
Indicate the medically important orders of Class Insecta:
Anoplura
Hemiptera
Diptera
Siphonaptera
* All of the above
Indicate the place of spider’s poisonous glands location
distal end of pedipalp
* close to base of chelicerae
the last segment of the abdomen
the middle segment of abdomen
All of the above
Indicate the representatives of Order Hemiptera
* Bugs
Fleas
Ants
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
497.
498.
499.
500.
D. Mosquitoes
E. Lice
Insects have _________ pairs of antennas.
A. four
B. three
C. * one
D. eight
E. two
Insects can be classified by _______.
A. looking at their eyes
B. * looking at their wings
C. their flying patterns
D. what they eat
E. their behaviors
Ixodes ricinus spread:
A. malaria
B. * Lyme disease
C. Chagas disease
D. Sleeping sickness
E. Plague
Ixodes ricinus spread:
A. malaria
B. * Viral diseases
C. Chagas disease
D. Sleeping sickness
E. Plague
Kissing bugs spread
A. malaria
B. Lyme disease
C. * Chagas disease
D. Sleeping sickness
E. Plague
Lyme disease is transmitted by:
A. Kissing bugs.
B. * Ixodes ricinus
C. Mosquito Culex..
D. Mosquito Anopheles.
E. Houseflies.
Malaria is transmitted by:
A. * female Anopheles
B. Culex
C. female Anopheles
D. Housefly
E. Kissing bugs
Malaria is transmitted by:
A. * Anopheles
B. Culex
C. Aedes
D. Housefly
E. Kissing bugs
Members of the arachnid class
A. crabs
B.
C.
D.
E.
501.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
502.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
503.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
504.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
505.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
506.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
507.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
508.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* brown recluse
mollusks (clams)
crustacea
mosquito
Members of the arachnid class
crabs
* itch mite
house fly
fruit fly
mosquito
Members of the arachnid class
Black fly
* Ixodes persulcatus
Pediculus humanus capitis
Mosquito Anopheles
Glossina palpalis
Members of the arachnid class
* Ixodes ricinus
Musca domestica
Pediculus humanus capitis
Pediculus humanus humanus
Black fly
Members of the arachnid class
Musca domestica
Black fly
Pediculus humanus capitis
sandfly
* Ornithodorus papillipes
Members of the arachnid class
Musca domestica
Black fly
Pediculus humanus capitis
sandfly
* Sarcoptes scabiei
Members of the arachnid class
Musca domestica
Black fly
* Desmodex folliculorum
sandfly
Pediculus humanus capitis
Members of the arachnid class
crabs
fruit fly
house fly v
* hard-bodied ticks
mosquito
Members of the arachnid class
* tarantula
crabs
mollusks (clams)
fruit fly
mosquito
509.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
510.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
511.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
512.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
513.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
514.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
515.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
516.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
517.
A.
B.
C.
Members of the arachnid class
crabs
* black widow
mollusks (clams)
fruit fly
mosquito
Members of the Hard -bodied ticks
Ornithodorus papillipes
Desmodex folliculorum
Pediculus humanus capitis
Sarcoptes scabiei
* Dermacentor pictus
Members of the Hard -bodied ticks
* Ixodes ricinus
Desmodex folliculorum
Pediculus humanus capitis
Sarcoptes scabiei
Ornithodorus papillipes
Members of the Hard -bodied ticks
* Ixodes persulcatus
Desmodex folliculorum
Pediculus humanus capitis
Sarcoptes scabiei
Sarcoptes scabiei
Members of the insects class
* mosquito
itch mite
crayfishes
hard-bodied ticks
soft-bodied ticks
Members of the insects class
crayfishes
itch mite
* house fly
hard-bodied ticks
soft-bodied ticks
Members of the insects class
hard-bodied ticks
itch mite
crayfishes
* fleas
soft-bodied ticks
Members of the insects class
hard-bodied ticks
itch mite
* lice
crayfishes
soft-bodied ticks
Members of the insects class
hard-bodied ticks
itch mite
* bugs
518.
519.
520.
521.
522.
523.
524.
525.
526.
D. crayfishes
E. soft-bodied ticks
Members of the insects class
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes persulcatus
C. * Pediculus humanus capitis
D. Sarcoptes scabiei
E. Ornithodorus papillipes
Members of the insects class
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes persulcatus
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. * Pediculus humanus humanus
E. Ornithodorus papillipes
Members of the insects class
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes persulcatus
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Sarcoptes scabiei
E. * Musca domestica
Members of the insects class
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes persulcatus
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Ornithodorus papillipes
E. * Deer fly
Members of the insects class
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. * Black fly
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Ornithodorus papillipes
E. Ixodes persulcatus
Members of the insects class
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes persulcatus
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Ornithodorus papillipes
E. * Glossina palpalis
Members of the Soft bodied ticks
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes persulcatus
C. Pediculus humanus capitis
D. Sarcoptes scabiei
E. * Ornithodorus papillipes
Name characteristics that are not shared by all arthropods
A. Arthropods have jointed appendages
B. The arthropod body is segmented
C. Arthropods have an exoskeleton
D. Arthropods have a ventral nervous system, an open circulatory system, a digestive
system, and specialized sensory receptors
E. * Arthropods flatted dorsoventrally
Name modes by which arthropods transmit disease
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
527.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
528.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
529.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
530.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
531.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
532.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
533.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
534.
A.
B.
C.
D.
indirect mechanical
direct mechanical
biologic
hereditary
* all of the above
Name stages of Musca domestica development
egg-larva-nymph
* egg-larva-pupa-adult
egg-pupa-adult
egg-adult
larva-egg-adult
Plague is transmitted by:
Kissing bugs.
* Rat flea
Mosquito Culex..
Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
Prawn belongs to:
* Arthropoda
Annelida
Coelenterata
Echinodermata
No correct answer
Rat flea spread:
malaria
Lyme disease
Chagas disease
Sleeping sickness
* Plague
Sleeping sickness is transmitted by:
Kissing bugs.
* tse-tse fly
Mosquito Culex..
Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
Sleeping sickness is transmitted by:
Kissing bugs.
* Glossina palpalis
Mosquito Culex..
Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
The _____________ goes through a complete metamorphosis
mites
lice
* tsetse flies
spiders
ticks
The _____________ goes through a complete metamorphosis.
mites
ticks
spiders
* mosquitoes
535.
536.
537.
538.
539.
540.
541.
542.
543.
E. lice
The _____________ goes through a complete metamorphosis.
A. mites
B. ticks
C. spiders
D. * fleas
E. lice
1. The _____________ goes through incomplete metamorphosis.
A. mites
B. lice
C. spiders
D. ticks
E. * All of the above
The _____________ goes through incomplete metamorphosis.
A. mosquitoes
B. bugs
C. fleas
D. flies
E. * lices
The _____________ goes through incomplete metamorphosis.
A. mosquitoes
B. * ticks
C. bugs
D. fleas
E. flies
The body parts of an insect include _______.
A. head
B. thorax
C. head
D. * all of the above choices
E. non of the above
The foremost appendages on spiders are
A. pedipalps
B. maxillae
C. antennae
D. * chelicerae
E. mandibles
The foremost appendages on spiders are
A. pedipalps
B. maxillae
C. antennae
D. * no correct answer
E. mandibles
The foremost appendages on spiders are
A. pedipalps
B. maxillae
C. antennae
D. * chelicerae
E. mandibles
The largest group of arthropods is the:
A. arachnids
B. crustaceans
544.
545.
546.
547.
548.
549.
550.
551.
552.
C. * insects
D. millipedes
E. centipedes
The largest group of arthropods is the:
A. arachnids
B. crustaceans
C. * insects
D. millipedes
E. centipedes
The last segment of scorpion is:
A. chelicerae
B. pedipalps
C. mandibles
D. maxillae
E. * telsons
The member of the mites is
A. Ornithodorus papillipes
B. * Desmodex folliculorum
C. Pediculus humanus capitis
D. Ixodes persulcatus
E. Dermacentor pictus
The members of the arachnid class are:
A. crabs
B. fruit fly
C. * soft-bodied ticks
D. house fly
E. mosquito
The members of the crustacean class are
A. mosquito
B. itch mite
C. * crayfishes
D. crayfishes
E. house fly
The members of the crustacean class are
A. * crabs
B. itch mite
C. house fly
D. fruit fly
E. mosquito
The members of the crustacean class are
A. mosquito
B. itch mite
C. house fly
D. fruit fly
E. * Cyclops
The scorpion pincers are modified
A. chelicerae
B. * pedipalps
C. mandibles
D. maxillae
E. telsons
The scorpion pincers are modified
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
553.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
554.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
555.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
556.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
557.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
558.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
559.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
560.
A.
B.
C.
chelicerae
* pedipalps
mandibles
maxillae
telsons
Tsetse fly spread:
malaria
Lyme disease
Chagas disease
* Sleeping sickness
Plague
what are the foremost appendages on spiders?
pedipalps
maxillae
antennae
* no correct answer
mandibles
what are the members of the Arachnid class?
crabs
fruit fly
* soft-bodied ticks
house fly
mosquito
what are the members of the Arachnid class?
crabs
fruit fly
* soft-bodied ticks
house fly
mosquito
What are the three stages of incomplete metamorphosis?
egg, larva, pupa
egg, nymph, pupa
* egg, nymph, adult
egg, pupa, adult
nymph, pupa, adult
what is a member of mites?
Ornithodorus papillipes
Dermacentor pictus
Pediculus humanus capitis
Ixodes persulcatus
* Sarcoptes scabiei
What is a myiasis?
Myiasis – infestation by larvae of flies
* Myiasis – invasion or infestation of man’s body and/or tissues by Diptera
larvae.
Myiasis – infestation by larvae of mosquitoes
Myiasis – invasion of man’s body by representatives of Order Anoplura
All of the above
1. What is medical importance of body louse
causative agent of myiasis
vector of tularemia
vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestisv
561.
562.
563.
564.
565.
566.
567.
568.
D. * causative agent of pediculosis
E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan
1. What is medical importance of head louse
A. causative agent of myiasis
B. temporary ectoparasite
C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
D. * causative agent of pediculosis
E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan
What is medical importance of lice
A. causative agents of myiasis
B. mechanical vectors of helminthes
C. vectors of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
D. * causative agents of pediculosis
E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan
1. What is medical importance of Musca domestica
A. causative agent of scabies
B. * mechanical vector of protozoan and helminthes
C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
D. causative agent of pediculosis
E. vector of encephalitis
What is medical importance of Musca domestica
A. causative agent of scabies
B. * causative agent of accidental myiasis
C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
D. causative agent of pediculosis
E. vector of encephalitis
What is medical importance of crabs
A. Crabs are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum) and
Dracunculus medinensis.
B. * Crabs are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani)
C. Crabs are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata)
D. Crabs are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium)
E. All of the above
What is pediculosis ?
A. Pediculosis – skin disease caused by being infested with ticks.
B. * Pediculosis – heavy infestation of hair with lice (Pediculus humanus capitis).
C. Pediculosis – skin disease caused by being infested with fleas.
D. Pediculosis – skin disease caused by being infested with itch mites
E. All of the above
What is prevention of pediculosis
A. cleanliness and sweeping of dust from floor and carpets
B. * regular body washing with simultaneous change of linen, personal hygiene
C. involves protection from reduviid bite
D. involves protection from mosquito bite
E. mosquito nets
What is the difference between simple and complete metamorphosis?
A. Simple metamorphosis. 3 stages: egg-nymph.- adult. During the nymph stage, the
developing organism undergoes a series of molts.
B. Complete metamorphosis. 4 stages. Egg- nymph- pupa- adult
C. Complete metamorphosis, the pupa, is required for the organism to accomplish
the profound physiologic and structural changes between the larva and adult
forms.
569.
570.
571.
572.
573.
574.
575.
576.
577.
D. * All of the above
What is the largest group of arthropods:
A. arachnids
B. crustaceans
C. * insects
D. millipedes
E. centipedes
what is the largest group of arthropods?
A. arachnids
B. crustaceans
C. * insects
D. millipedes
E. centipedes
What is the medical importance of bed bug
A. permanent ectoparsite
B. * temporary ectoparasite
C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
D. causative agent of pediculosis
E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan
what is the medical importance of Cyclops?
A. * intermediate hosts of Dracunculus medinensis
B. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani)
C. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata)
D. Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium)
E. Non of the above
what is the medical importance of Cyclops?
A. * A Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium
latum) and Dracunculus medinensis
B. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani)
C. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata)
D. Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium)
E. Non of the above
what is the medical importance of Cyclops?
A. * intermediate hosts of Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani)
C. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata)
D. Cyclopes are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium)
E. Non of the above
Members of the arachnid class
A. * tarantula
B. crabs
C. mollusks (clams)
D. fruit fly
E. mosquito
what is the member of the Arachnid class?
A. * Ixodes ricinus
B. Musca domestica
C. Pediculus humanus capitis
D. Pediculus humanus humanus
E. Black fly
what is the member of the Arachnid class?
A. Black fly
B.
C.
D.
E.
578.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
579.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
580.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
581.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
582.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
583.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
584.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
585.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Ixodes persulcatus
Pediculus humanus capitis
Mosquito Anopheles
Glossina palpalis
what is the member of the Hard -bodied ticks?
* Ixodes persulcatus
Desmodex folliculorum
Pediculus humanus capitis
Sarcoptes scabiei
Sarcoptes scabiei
what is the member of the insects class?
crayfishes
itch mite
* house fly
hard-bodied ticks
soft-bodied ticks
what is the member of the mites?
Ornithodorus papillipes
* Desmodex folliculorum
Pediculus humanus capitis
Ixodes persulcatus
Dermacentor pictus
what is the member of the Soft bodied ticks?
Ixodes ricinus
Ixodes persulcatus
Pediculus humanus capitis
Sarcoptes scabiei
* Ornithodorus papillipes
what is the members of the Arachnid class?
Musca domestica
Black fly
* Desmodex folliculorum
sandfly
Pediculus humanus capitis
What is the name of the last segment of scorpion:
chelicerae
pedipalps
mandibles
maxillae
* telsons
What is the vector for Leishmania species?
* Phelebotomus
Black fly
Buffalo gnat
Deer fly
Mosquito Anopheles
What is the vector for Leishmania species?
* Sandfly
Black fly
Buffalo gnat
Deer fly
Mosquito Anopheles
586.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
587.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
588.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
589.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
590.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
591.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
592.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
593.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
594.
A.
B.
C.
What is the vector of Chagas’ disease
Glossina palpalis
* bug species of family Triatomidae
sandfly of genus Phlebotomus
deer fly (Chrysops)
mosquito Anopheles and Culex
What is the vector of Chagas’ disease
Glossina palpalis
* kissing bug
sandfly of genus Phlebotomus
deer fly (Chrysops)
mosquito Anopheles and Culex
What of the following arthropods transmit Chagas disease:
* Kissing bugs.
Fleas.
Lice.
Mosquitoes.
Houseflies.
What of the following arthropods transmit Encephalitis
Kissing bugs.
Fleas.
* Mosquito Culex..
Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
What of the following arthropods transmit Human malaria
Kissing bugs.
Fleas.
Mosquito Culex..
* Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
What of the following arthropods transmit Lyme disease
Kissing bugs.
* Ixodes ricinus
Mosquito Culex..
Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
What of the following arthropods transmit Rift valley fever
Kissing bugs.
Fleas.
* Mosquito Culex..
Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
What of the following arthropods transmit Wuchereria bancrofti
Kissing bugs.
Fleas.
* Mosquito Culex..
Mosquito Anopheles.
Houseflies.
What parts of the human body are usually infested by this mite?
flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms
armpits
groin and genitals
595.
596.
597.
598.
599.
600.
601.
602.
603.
D. interdigital spaces
E. * *All of the above
What parts of the human body are usually infested by itch mite?
A. head
B. face
C. ears
D. nose
E. * Correct is absent
What parts of the human body are usually not infested by itch mite?
A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms
B. armpits
C. groin and genitals
D. * head
E. interdigital spaces
What the place of scorpion’s poisonous glands location:
A. cephalothorax
B. distal end of pedipalp
C. close to base of chelicerae
D. * last segment of the abdomen
E. All of the above
where chitin can be found?
A. glandular tissue
B. the muscle tissue of vertebrates
C. epithelial tissue of humans
D. * exoskeleton of animals such as cockroaches and crabs.
E. non of the above
?Which class has respiratory and circulatory systems?
A. Cestoda
B. Trematoda
C. * Insecta
D. Nematoda
E. Lobosea
Which class has respiratory and circulatory systems?
A. Cestoda
B. Trematoda
C. * Arachnida
D. Nematoda
E. Lobosea
Which class has respiratory and circulatory systems?
A. Cestoda
B. Trematoda
C. * Cruastacea
D. Nematoda
E. Lobosea
which disease can Anopheles mosquito spread?
A. * malaria
B. Lyme disease
C. Filaria
D. Sleeping sickness
E. Plague
which disease can Culex mosquito spread?
A. malaria
B.
C.
D.
E.
604.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
605.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
606.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
607.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
608.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
609.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
610.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
611.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lyme disease
* Filaria
Sleeping sickness
Plague
which disease can Fleas spread?
malaria
Lyme disease
Chagas disease
Sleeping sickness
* Plague
which disease can Glossina palpalis spread?
malaria
Lyme disease
Chagas disease
* Sleeping sickness
Plague
which disease can Ixodes ricinus spread?
malaria
* Lyme disease
Chagas disease
Sleeping sickness
Plague
which disease can Kissing bugs spread?
malaria
Lyme disease
* Chagas disease
Sleeping sickness
Plague
which disease can Rat flea spread?
malaria
Lyme disease
Chagas disease
Sleeping sickness
* Plague
1. Which insect goes through incomplete metamorphosis?
bee
ant
butterfly
* grasshoppergrasshopper
flea
Which insects are representatives of order Anoplura
termites
fleas
ants
mosquitoes
* lice
Which of the following are not arthropods?
* earthworms
crayfish
spiders
butterflies
both a and c
612.
Which of the following are not arthropods?
A. * earthworms
B. crayfish
C. spiders
D. butterflies
E. both a and c
613.
?Which of the following is not a mechanism of asexual reproduction?
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Fission
C. Budding
D. * Hermaphroditism
E. Fragmentation
614.
Which of the following is not an advantage of the exoskeleton in arthropods and
mollusks?
A. Provides protection from predators
B. Provides rigid places for muscles to insert and against which they can do work
C. * Enhances sensory perception
D. Permits greater range of movement than body plans without a rigid skeletal
structure
E. All of these
615.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods?
A. jointed appendages
B. exoskeleton
C. * coelom
D. segmented body
E. All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods.
616.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods?
A. jointed appendages
B. exoskeleton
C. presence of respiratory system
D. segmented body
E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods.
617.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods?
A. jointed appendages
B. exoskeleton
C. A presence of circulatory system
D. segmented body
E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods.
618.
which order of Class Insecta has medical important?
A. Anoplura
B. Hemiptera
C. Diptera
D. Siphonaptera
E. * All of the above
619.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B. * flies
C. fleas
D. bedbugs
E. crickets
620.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B.
C.
D.
E.
* mosquitous
fleas
bedbugs
crickets
621.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B. * sand flies
C. fleas
D. bedbugs
E. crickets
622.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B. * Glossina palpalis
C. fleas
D. bedbugs
E. crickets
623.
________________ development is directly correlated with the animal's mode of
locomotion, agility of limb movement, and balance
A. cerebrum
B. cerebral cortex
C. cerebral hemispheres
D. * cerebellum
E. medulla
624.
______________speciation occurs when members of a single population develop
a genetic difference, such as a chromosomal mutation, that prevents them reproducing
with the parent type.
A. Allopatric
B. * Sympatric
C. Behavioral
D. Mechanical
E. Geographic
625.
1. 12 pairs of cranial nerves appeared first at
A. Fishes
B. Amphibians
C. * Reptiles
D. Birds
E. Mammals
626.
A biologist is trying to infer how five closely related species of snakes are related
to one another. She notices that some of the snakes have forked tongues and others do
not. Which of the following would help her distinguish the ancestral state?
A. She looks among snake fossils for evidence that being forked is a characteristic of
the ancestor of this group, but determines no such fossils exist.
B. * She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked
tongue.
C. She looks at a representative mammal species to see if it has a forked tongue.
D. She flips a coin.
E. None of the above.
627.
A severe winter storm kills many chickadees. An investigation comparing the
body of dead birds with that of survivors reveals that the dead birds include mainly the
largest and smallest members of the population. The winter storm exemplifies
A. * Stabilizing selection
B. Directional selection
C. Balancing selection
D. Kin selection
E. Disruptive selection
628.
A severe winter storm kills many chickadees. An investigation comparing the
body of dead birds with that of survivors reveals that the dead birds include mainly the
middle sised members of the population. The winter storm exemplifies
A. Stabilizing selection
B. Directional selection
C. Balancing selection
D. Kin selection
E. * Disruptive selection
629.
A type of selection within a population in which one extreme is selected against is
A. * directional selection
B. disruptive selection
C. stabilizing selection
D. natural selection
E. both directional selection and disruptive selection
630.
Agents that consistenly produce adaptive evolution include
A. Genetic drift
B. Mutation
C. Meiosis
D. * Natural selection
E. Gene flow
631.
All of the animals has double circulation through the heart except
A. birds
B. mammals
C. * fish’s
D. amphibian’s
E. reptilians
632.
All of the following observation provides evidence for evolution except:
A. Dogs and trilobites are never found in the same fossil beds
B. * Athletic training can produce an increase in muscle mass
C. Extinctions can be documented in the fossil record
D. All organisms use a common genetic code
E. Plant and animal breeders can produce new breeds of crops and animals through
artificial selection
633.
All of the genes that occur within a specific population refers to the term
A. * gene pool
B. genotype
C. gene marker
D. genome
E. selection
634.
1. Allopatric but not sympatric speciation requires
A. Reproductive isolation
B. * Geographic isolation
C. Hybridisation first
D. Spontaneous differences in males and females
E. Behavioral isolation
635.
An evidence of evolutionary relationships is found in ______.
A. Atmosphere
B. * Fossils
C. ocean beds
D. rocks
E. All of the above
636.
An evolutionary benefit of sexual reproduction is that
A. * It provides a mechanism of genetic recombination
B. It requires a lower level of resource investment that asexual does
C. the offspring will resemble their parents genetically
D. the reproductive success rates are less variable than for variable than for asexual
reproduction
E. all of the above
637.
An example of _______ selection is the death of extremely overweight and
underweight babies.
A. Disruptive
B. Directiona
C. * Stabilizing
D. Survival of the fittest
E. Non of the above
638.
Behavioral isolating mechanisms may occur when two species have different
A. sized and shaped copulatory organs
B. * courtship displays
C. habitat ranges
D. chemical compatibilities of their gametes
E. All of these
639.
Change in the frequency of alleles occurring by chance
A. Natural selection
B. Genetic drift
C. * Mutation
D. Isolation
E. Polpulation
640.
Changes to the nucleotide sequence within a gene can occur through which of the
following?
A. * Mutation
B. crossing over
C. independent assortment
D. Mutation and crossing over
E. Mutation, crossing over , independent assortment
641.
Comparing chemical makeup of organisms
A. Homologous structures
B. Vestigial structures
C. Continental drift
D. * Comparative biochemistry
E. Comparative embryology
642.
Comparing early developmental stages of organisms
A. Homologous structures
B. Vestigial structures
C. Continental drift
D. Comparative biochemistry
E. * Comparative embryology
643.
1. Darwin formulated his theory of evolution based on all of the following facts
except
A. most populations are stable in size
B. individual organisms in a population are not alike
C. all populations have the potential to increase
D. natural resources are limited
E. * characteristics are inherited as genes on chromosomes
644.
1. Darwin ’s mechanism of evolution by way of natural selection is based on all of
the following except
A. variation exists within populations
B. the fittest individuals leave the most offspring
C. . there is differential reproductive success within populations
D. populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support
E. * use or disuse of organs during one generation causes modifications of these
same organs in
645.
Disruptive selection, directional selection and stabilizing selection are all
examples of
A. genetic equilibrium
B. * natural selection
C. random changes in a gene pool
D. speciation
E. genetic drift
646.
1. DNA nucleotide differences between organisms
A. indicate how closely related organisms are
B. indicate that evolution occurs
C. explain why there are phenotypic differences
D. * all of these
E. both indicate how closely related organisms are and explain why there are
phenotypic differences
647.
During the evolution of humans, brain size gradually increased. This is an
example of
A. disruptive selection
B. stabilizing selection
C. * stabilizing selection
D. both disruptive selection and stabilizing selection
E. all of these
648.
1. Evolution occurs at the level of
A. the individual genotype
B. the individual phenotype
C. environmentally based phenotypic variation
D. * the population
E. Species
649.
Four chambered heart has all of the animals except
A. birds
B. mammals
C. * fish’s
D. crocodilians
E. fish’s and crocodilians
650.
Genetic drift can be defined as the
A. distribution of variations through migration
B. disruption of genetic equilibrium in large populations
C. changes in a gene pool due to immigration
D. * disruption of genetic equilibrium in small populations
E. Both distribution of variations through migration and disruption of genetic
equilibrium in large populations
651.
Genetic drift is:
A. * a random change in gene frequencies from one generation to the next.
B. a change in an allele due to alterations in the DNA molecule.
C. a change in gene frequencies due to exchange of genes between different
populations.
D. a product of natural selection.
E. all of the above
652.
How many b lood circuit the amphibian’s vascular system has
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. non of the above
653.
How many b lood circuit the birds vascular system has
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. non of the above
654.
How many blood circuit the fish’s vascular system has
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. non of the above
655.
How many b lood circuit the fish’s vascular system has
A. 10
B. 12
C. 2
D. 3
E. * non of the above
656.
How many b lood circuit the mammals vascular system has
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. non of the above
657.
How many b lood circuit the reptilians vascular system has
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. non of the above
658.
How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds has evolved a
larger beak size?
A. Large beak size occurred as a result of mutation in each member of the
population.
B. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average
sized seeds. They needed to develop larger beaks in order to eat the larger seeds,
and over time, they adapted to meet this need.
C. * Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If
larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and
reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small
beaked birds.
D. The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than average
sized seeds. They discovered that by stretching their beaks, the beaks would get
longer, and this increase was passed on to their offspring. Over time, the bird
beaks became larger.
E. None of the above.
659.
How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of species of
salamander becomes blind after colonizing a cave?
A. It is possible that in the cave there is a source of pollution that increases the
mutation rate for a gene that makes salamanders blind. Over time, due to exposure
to this chemical, the members of the population lose their sight.
B. Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their
ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy,
blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see.
C. * There is no way to explain this in terms of natural selection
D. The members of this salamander species no longer needed to use their eyes. Over
time, due to lack of use, they lost the ability to see.
E. None of the above.
660.
Human being belongs to the species of_____.
A. Homo erectus
B. Homo habillis
C. * Homo sapiens
D. Hominidae
E. Homo neandertalensis
661.
If a population becomes isolated from other populations of the same species and
then genetic divergence occurs, what happens?
A. Mechanical incompatibility
B. Zygote mortality
C. Speciation
D. Extinction
E. * Genetic drifts form
662.
If the alleles ‘A’ and ‘a’ conform Hardy-Weinberg expectations, and if the
frequency of ‘a’ is 0.3, which of the following is the most common genotype in the
population
A. A
B. Aa
C. * AA
D. Aa
E. a
663.
Important implications of the theory of evolution by natural selection include all
except:
A. All organisms, including humans, are descended from a common ancestor
B. The biological word is constantly evolving
C. * Natural slection leads to evolutionary progress and the appearance on Earth of
superior organisms
D. The characteristics of organisms are molded by an imprersonal force without a
goal
E. Humans are just a small part of the tree of life
664.
In the biological species concept the factor that defines a species is
A. Geographical separation
B. * Reproductive isolation
C. Hybridisation
D. Cladogenesis
E. Its behavior
665.
In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p represents the frequency of the
A. * dominant allele
B. homozygous dominant genotype
C. homozygous recessive genotype
D. recessive allele
E. heterozygous genotype
666.
In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, q represents the frequency of the
A. dominant allele
B. homozygous dominant genotype
C. homozygous recessive genotype
D. * recessive allele
E. heterozygous genotype
667.
In the primitive vertebrate brain which part has concerned with hearing and
balance
A. prosencephalon
B. mesencephalon
C. * rhombencephalon
D. forebrain
E. midbrain
668.
In the primitive vertebrate brain which part has concerned with sense of smell:
A. * prosencephalon
B. mesencephalon
C. rhombencephalon
D. midbrain
E. hindbrain
669.
In which animal two atria heart firstly appeared?
A. * frog
B. chicken
C. monkey
D. fish
E. snake
670.
In which of the following animals is the blood entering the aorta incompletely
oxygenated?
A. * frog
B. chicken
C. monkey
D. fish
E. elephant
671.
In which of the following animals the blood on ventricle is incompletely
oxygenated?
A. * frog
B. chicken
C. monkey
D. fish
E. fish
672.
In which of the following animals the ventricle is incompletely separated?
A. frog
B. chicken
C. monkey
D. fish
E. * snake
673.
In which of the following ways is natural selection not analogous to artificial
selection?
A. * With natural selection "picking" is due to the fit of an organism with its
environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder "picks" which organisms
will breed.
B. Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial selection does
not.
C. Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not.
D. There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural selection, no
such limit exists for artificial selection.
E. None of the above.
674.
1. Inbreeding is example of
A. Random mating
B. * Nonrandom mating
C. Assortative mating
D. both Random mating and Nonrandom mating
E. all of these
675.
Links between organisms that show branching pattern of evolutionary
relationships are shown by_____.
A. living fossils
B. comparative embryology
C. * phylogenetic trees
D. two fossil layerss
E. All of the above
676.
Male moths recognize females of their species by pheromones. This is an example
of
A. Gamete isolation
B. Habitat isolation
C. * Behavioral isolation
D. Mechanical isolation
E. Geographic isolation
677.
Match the term with their meaning: exchange of genes between populations
A. Gene pool
B. Allele
C. Allele frequency
D. Genotype
E. * Gene flow
678.
Match the term with their meaning: The form of gene at a particular locus
A. Gene pool
B. * Allele
C. Allele frequency
D. Genotype
E. Gene flow
679.
Match the term with their meaning: The genetic makeup of an organism
A. Gene pool
B. Allele
C. Allele frequency
D. * Genotype
E. Gene flow
680.
Match the term with their meaning: the proportion of a given form of a gene in a
population:
A. Gene pool
B.
C.
D.
E.
Allele
* Allele frequency
Genotype
Gene flow
681.
Match the term with their meaning: The set of all alleles in a population
A. * Gene pool
B. Allele
C. Allele frequency
D. Genotype
E. Gene flow
682.
Name evolutionary mechanism that reduces variation between populations.
A. genetic drift
B. natural selection
C. mutation,
D. nonrandom mating;
E. * gene flow
683.
Natural selection is:
A. Some live and some die in each generation
B. Only the largest and strongest survive
C. Random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following
generations
D. * The best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most to the
next generation
E. All of the above
684.
Of the following biological levels of organization, which represents the smallest
or lowest level?
A. Organs
B. Populations
C. * Cells
D. Organisms
E. Tissues
685.
Of the following biological levels of organization, which represents the largest
level?
A. Organs
B. * Populations
C. Cells
D. Organisms
E. Tissues
686.
Order the following categories into the appropriate biological hierarhy, with the
most specific category first
A. Family, species, phylum, genus, class
B. Phylum, genus, family, class, species
C. * Species, genus, family, class, phylum
D. Phylum, class, family, genus, species,
E. Class, phylum, genus, family, species
687.
Speciation is the evolutionary process by which _____.
A. * a new gene pool is formed
B. an old gene pool is formed
C. evolutionary paths of species converge
D. hybrids species form
E. Shows up differences in physical traits
688.
Speciation takes place when variation occurs with
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
mood changes
death of an organism
changes due to accidents
* geographical isolation
All of the above
689.
Structures that are similar due to a common evolutionary origin
A. * Homologous structures
B. Vestigial structures
C. Continental drift
D. Comparative biochemistry
E. Comparative embryology
690.
Structures that have the same evolutionary origin even though they may now
have different structures or functions are said to be
A. Endemic
B. * homologous
C. immutable
D. analogous
E. geometric
691.
The average phenotype increases its frequency in a population due to:
A. directional selection
B. disruptive selection
C. * stabilizing selection
D. all of these
E. E both directional selection and disruptive selection
692.
The biological definition of a species depends on:
A. anatomical and developmental differences between 2 groups of organisms
B. the geographic distribution of 2 groups of organisms
C. differences in the adaptation of 2 groups of organisms
D. * reproductive isolation of 2 groups of organisms
E. all of these
693.
The breeding of domesticated plants and animals refers to
A. * Artificial selection
B. Natural selection
C. Selection by chance
D. Wild selection
E. Non of the above
694.
The comparison of chromosomes of humans and chimpanzees indicates that:
A. Humans and chimps are very different
B. * Humans and chimps are almost the same genetically
C. Humans are superior because they have more genetic information on each of their
chromosomes
D. Humans are superior because they have more chromosomes
E. Non of the above
695.
The difference between Homo sapiens and Homo erectus was
A. Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia
B. Homo eructus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens.
C. Homo eructus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not
D. * The size of their brain of Homo eructus was smaller to homo sapiens
E. None of the above
696.
The discovery of _______ provided the evidence needed for natural selection to
be widely accepted as the mechanism of evolution
A. Methods for radiometric dating
B.
C.
D.
E.
Extinctions in the fossil record
Genes as the cause of disease
* Genes as the units of particulate inchertance
Fossil bacteria
697.
The ecological isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by
A. * Populations live in different environments
B. Populations are separated by physical barriers
C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year
D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another
E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce
698.
The examples of genetic drift are
A. directional selection and disruptive selection
B. * Founder effect and bottleneck effect
C. natural selection and stabilizing selection
D. Gene flow
E. Mutations
699.
The gametic isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by
A. Populations live in different environments
B. Populations are separated by physical barriers
C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year
D. * Egg and sperm do not recognise one another
E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce
700.
The geographical isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by
A. Populations live in different environments
B. * Populations are separated by physical barriers
C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year
D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another
E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce
701.
The high frequency of the sickling trait in west Africa is explained by:
A. * a the selective advantages that accrue to the heterozygotes because of resistance
to malaria.
B. genetic drift.
C. gene flow.
D. inbreeding.
E. New mutation
702.
The hybrid sterility works to reduce successful interbreeding by
A. Populations live in different environments
B. Populations are separated by physical barriers
C. Mating occurs at different times of day or year
D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another
E. * Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce
703.
The most posterior division of the brain, is really a conical continuation of the
spinal cord called
A. deep primitive brain
B. "new" brain
C. cerebellum
D. * medulla
E. midbrain
704.
The offspring of better-adapted individuals are expected to make up a larger
proportion of the next generation. The most likely explanation is:
A. gene flow
B. genetic drift
C. * natural selection
D. mutations
E. all of these
705.
The phenomenon of genetic drift is most likely to occur in populations that
A. are allopatric
B. are undergoing gene flow
C. * are small and interbreed
D. have great reproductive potential
E. are large and interbreed
706.
The presence of a high incidence of sickle cell anemia in West Africa because of
malaria resistance among individuals who are heterozygous for the trait is an example of:
A. genetic drift.
B. gene flow.
C. * natural selection.
D. the founder effect.
E. mutation.
707.
The presence of a high tryglicerates among French Canadians in Quebec because
of a high incidence in the early population of the provinces is an example of:
A. genetic drift.
B. gene flow.
C. natural selection.
D. * the founder effect.
E. mutation.
708.
The science that studies humans, their biology, behavior, and variations is
A. * anthropology
B. cultural linguistics
C. sociology.
D. biological anthropology
E. human genetic
709.
The seated intellect, reason, and integration of sensory information stays under
control of
A. deep primitive brain
B. * "new" brain
C. cerebellum
D. cerebellum
E. midbrain
710.
The smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is
A. A community
B. * A population
C. A species
D. An ecosystem
E. A biosphere
711.
The species A and species B live at same locale, but occupy different habitats .
This is an example of
A. sexual selection
B. * Habitat isolation
C. postzygotic isolating mechanism
D. Temporal isilation
E. Behavioural
712.
The species A and species B live at same locale, but occupy different habitats .
This is an example of
A. sexual selection
B.
C.
D.
E.
* a prezygotic isolating mechanism
a postzygotic isolating mechanism
parthenogenesis
polyploidy
713.
The species A reproduce on may and species B reproduce on April. This is an
example of
A. sexual selection
B. Habitat isolation
C. postzygotic isolating mechanism
D. * Temporal isolation
E. Behavioural
714.
The sperm of species A dies when it comes in contact with the female
reproductive tract of species B. This is an example of
A. sexual selection
B. * a prezygotic isolating mechanism
C. a postzygotic isolating mechanism
D. parthenogenesis
E. polyploidy
715.
The temporal isolation works to reduce successful interbreeding by
A. Populations live in different environments
B. Populations are separated by physical barriers
C. * Mating occurs at different times of day or year
D. Egg and sperm do not recognise one another
E. Progeny of a cross are unable to reproduce
716.
The unit of life in which evolution actually occurs is usually considered to be the
A. Whole organism
B. * Population
C. Species
D. Community
E. Cell
717.
The unit upon which evolution acts most directly is a(n):
A. individual.
B. * population.
C. race.
D. species.
E. cell.
718.
The variation natural selection operates on is due to random mutations. What
does this imply about natural selection?
A. Natural selection is also a random process.
B. * Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process- the likelihood one variant
will be favored in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the
origin is not.
C. There is no possibility God could be involved in this process.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
719.
Were functual in an ancestor, but reduced in size and non-functioned in a
descendent
A. Homologous structures
B. * Vestigial structures
C. Continental drift
D. Comparative biochemistry
E. Comparative embryology
720.
1. What does natural selection act upon?
A. * The gene pool of the species
B. The genotype
C. The phenotype.
D. Multiple gene inheritance systems
E. Non of the above
721.
What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat?
A. They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a
common ancestor (forelimbs).
B. They are analogous because while each carries out the same function (flight), this
trait has arisen independently as a result of convergence (i.e. the common
ancestor of both did not have a forelimb that allowed it to fly).
C. * They are homologous and analogous
D. They represent derived homologies.
E. None of the above.
722.
What's the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
A. Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.
B. * Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
C. Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.
D. There is no difference.
E. None of the above.
723.
When a population is small, there is a greater chance of
A. gene flow
B. * genetic drift
C. natural selection
D. mutations
E. all of these
724.
When evolution occurs
A. adaptation to the environment always occurs
B. gene frequencies always change
C. phenotype changes are obvious
D. all of these
E. * both gene frequencies always change and phenotype changes are obvious
725.
When we use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to characterize a population, "2pq"
represents the frequency of:
A. Homozygous dominant individuals
B. * Heterozygous individuals
C. Homozygous recessive individuals
D. Recessive alleles
E. Dominant alleles
726.
Which animal has two –chambered heart
A. * Fishes
B. Amphibians
C. Reptiles
D. Birds
E. Mammals
727.
Which of the following are difficult to explain in terms of natural selection?
A. Male peacocks evolve tail feathers that would appear to make them more rather
than less vulnerable to predators.
B. Male deer evolve antlers that are not used to defend themselves against predators.
C. A bird issues a warning cry that puts it at greater risk of being noticed by a
predator.
D. Some traits appear to have no adaptive value.
E. * All of the above.
728.
Which of the following are the most distantly related to one another?
A. * Sunfish and dolphins.
B. Tree frogs and snakes.
C. Vampire bats and birds.
D. Bears and whales.
E. Robins and turtles.
729.
Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an
evolutionary standpoint?
A. Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
B. Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
C. * Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an
individual's ability to survive and reproduce.
D. All of these
E. one of the above.
730.
Which of the following is a prezygotic isolating mechanism?
A. * 4. Which of the following is a prezygotic isolating mechanism?
B. Hybrid dies before maturity
C. production of sterile hybrids
D. geographical isolation
E. all of the above are prezygotic isolating mechanisms
731.
Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?
A. * Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also
share with contemporary amphibians.
B. The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is
unknown in any other group.
C. Humans and many insect species have eyes.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
732.
Which of the following is an example of environmental variation?
A. Apu is a tongue roller, but his brother Sanjay is not.
B. * Marge dies her hair blue.
C. Homer inherited baldness from his father's side of the family.
D. Patti and Selma have hanging ear lobes.
E. Bart is a boy because he has both an X and a Y chromosome.
733.
Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
A. * Two children have different eye colors.
B. One person is older than another.
C. One person has a scar, but her friend does not.
D. Todd eats meat, but his brother Rod is a vegetarian.
E. None of the above.
734.
Which of the following is evidence for Darwin's theory of common descent?
A. There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest other species have diverged
from a single ancestor species.
B. There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution of species, for instance
distinct bird species on an island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a
common ancestor.
C. There are common stages in the early embryological development of organisms
representing several distinct vertebrate groups.
D. Anatomical structures, such as forelimbs, in different groups appear to be
modified versions of structures that might have been present in a common
ancestor .
E. * All of the above.
735.
Which of the following is most modern in its characteristics?
A. Homo erectus
B. Neanderthal
C. Australopithecines
D. * Cro-Magnon
E. They are all the samev
736.
Which of the following is NOT a morphological characteristic?
A. * color of the skin
B. length of the femur
C. thickness of the skull
D. shape of the foot
E. All of the above
737.
Which of the following is NOT a morphological characteristic?
A. * color of the hair
B. length of the femur
C. thickness of the skull
D. shape of the foot
E. All of the above
738.
Which of the following is not a requirement for maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium?
A. * an increasing mutation rate
B. random mating
C. large population size
D. no migration
E. no natural selection
739.
Which of the following is not a source of variation in a population?
A. Inherited genetic differences.
B. Differences due to health.
C. Differences due to age.
D. Differences due to accident.
E. * None of the above.
740.
Which of the following is not an example of a macroevolutionary process?
A. One lion species splits to form two lion species over geological time.
B. The same trait evolves independently in two different taxa (e.g. wings in birds and
in insects).
C. As a result of their activities, humans drive Dodos (a bird species) extinct.
D. * Over a short period of time, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to
8%.
E. All of the above.
741.
Which of the following is not an example of microevolutionary change?
A. The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by
pollution.
B. Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of
antibiotics.
C. The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains roughly
50:50.
D. * The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species.
E. All of the above.
742.
Which of the following is NOT an instance of evolutionary change?
A. Mutation
B. gene flow
C. natural selection
D. * Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
E. genetic drift
743.
Which of the following is phylum?
A. Monera .
B. Protista.
C. Animalae.
D. Plantae.
E. * All of the above.
F. Monera.
G. Protista.
H. Animalae.
I. Plantae.
J. Nemathelminthes
744.
Which of the following is specie?
A. Monera.
B. * Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Animalae.
D. Plantae.
E. Nemathelminthes
745.
Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
A. A lion who is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs.
B. * A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.
C. A lion who overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs.
D. A lion who cares for his cubs, two of who live to adulthood.
E. A lion who has a harem of many lionesses and one cub.
746.
Which of the following is true about evolutionary process?
A. * There is no real 'progress' in the idea of evolution.
B. humans are unique, a totally new type of organism
C. progress is nature's religion.
D. Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages
E. All of the above
747.
Which of the following must increase over geological time according to
evolutionary biologists?
A. Size .
B. Complexity .
C. Speed of evolutionary processes such as mutation.
D. Social interactions.
E. * None of the above.
748.
Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating?
A. Habitat isolation
B. Temporal isolation
C. Mechanical isolation
D. * Gamete isolation
E. Behavioural isolation
749.
Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating?
A. Habitat isolation
B. Temporal isolation
C. Mechanical isolation
D. Behavioural isolation
E. * F2 fitness
750.
Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating?
A. Habitat isolation
B. Temporal isolation
C. Mechanical isolation
D. Behavioural isolation
E. * F2 fitness
751.
Which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms is postmating?
A. Habitat isolation
B. Temporal isolation
C. Mechanical isolation
D. * Hybrid sterility
E. Behavioural isolation
752.
Which of the following species migrated out of Africa?
A. Homo sapiens
B. * Homo erectus
C. Homo habilis
D. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus
E. Homo sapiens and Homo erectus
753.
1. Which of the following would not be considered an example of a prezygotic
reproductive isolating mechanism?
A. One bird species forages in the tops of trees for flying insects while another
forages on the ground for worms and grubs
B. The males of one species of moth cannot detect and respond to the sex attractant
chemicals produced by the females of another species
C. * Sperm of one species of sea urchin are unable to penetrate the egg plasma
membrane of another species.
D. Mosquitoes of one species are active in foraging and searching for mates at dusk,
whereas those of another species are active at dawn.
E. all of the above
754.
Which of these are necessary to natural selection?
A. variation
B. differential reproduction
C. inheritance of differences
D. accumulation of adaptive traits
E. * all of these
755.
Which of these is a premating isolating mechanism?
A. habitat isolation
B. temporal isolation
C. gamete isolation
D. Hybrid sterility
E. * both habitat isolation and temporal isolation
756.
Which of these is best considered the raw material of evolution?
A. Non-random mating
B. Natural selection
C. Small populations with massive migrations
D. * Mutation
E. Isolation
757.
Which of these is mismatched?
A. Australopithecines-walked erect
B. * Homo habilis - large brain
C. Homo erectus – had fire
D. Homo sapiens – flat face
E. Non of the above
758.
1. Which of these is mismatched?
A. cerebrum-consciousness
B. * thalamus-motor and sensory centers
C. hypothalamus-internal environment regulator
D. cerebellum-motor coordination
E. Non of the above
759.
Which of these is not one of the conditions of a Hardy-Weinberg population?
A. Random mating
B. * Migration
C. Large population.
D. No mutation
E. All of these
760.
Which of these is not one of the conditions of a Hardy-Weinberg population?
A. Random mating
B. No migration
C. Large population.
D. * Mutation
E. All of these
761.
Which phrase does not belong with the others?
A. cerebrum
B. cerebral cortex
C. cerebral hemispheres
D. * cerebellum
E. Both cerebral cortex and cerebral hemispheres
762.
Which region of the brain can be divided into two anatomically distinct areas, the
paleocortex and neocortex?
A. * cerebrum
B. midbrain
C. pons
D. cerebellum
E. medulla
763.
Which term refers to populations of animals that are capable of interbreeding?
A. * species
B. genus
C. kingdom
D. primate
E. phylum
764.
Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
A. If all organisms were the same, the entire population would be vulnerable to
particular pathogens, like viruses.
B. All evolutionary adaptations (e.g. the origin of forelimbs) are the result of the
gradual build up of genetic differences between organisms over geologic time.
C. Evolution (at the population level) refers to changes in the frequencies of genes in
the population over time.
D. * All of the above.
E. None of the above.
765.
Why is the advent of reproductive isolation important from an evolutionary
standpoint?
A. * When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer
interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops.
B. It is not important from an evolutionary standpoint. The question is based on a
false assumption.
C. Reproductive isolation increases the mutation rate.
D. Reproductive isolation may slow reproduction.
E. None of the above.
766.
Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of
Species?
A. Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned from
his voyage on the Beagle.
B. It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory.
C. Darwin suffered from a number of illnesses.
D. * Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his
theory.
E. All of the above.
767.
A dung beetle is an example of a
A. * detritivore
B. omnivore
C. carnivore
D. authotroph
E. homeotherm
768.
A natural food web
A. contains only grazing food chains
B. * contains several trophic levels
C. is usually unstable
D. both contains only grazing food chains and contains several trophic levels
E. All of these
769.
Abiotic factors in an ecosystem can include
A. plants
B. * sunlight
C. animals
D. microorganisms
E. bacteria
770.
?Abiotic factors include:
A. * Soil, water, light, inorganic matters, weather
B. Plants and animals
C. Producers, consumers, herbivores, carnivores
D. Inorganic matters
E. All of these
771.
Acid deposition causes?
A. * lakes and forests to die
B. acid indigestion in humans
C. the greenhouse effect to lessen
D. All of these
E. Non of the above
772.
Acid rain is caused by precipitation of
A. * Sulfuric acid.
B. Carbonic acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
E. Carbonic acid and hydrochloric acid
773.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
774.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
775.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
776.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
777.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
778.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
779.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
780.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
781.
A.
B.
C.
Air pollution
reduces visibility.
corrodes buildings.
causes various human diseases.
damages plants.
* all of these
All of the following are components of the global carbon cycle except
Reduction of atmospheric carbon by cyanobacteria
Production of sugar by plants
Liberation of CO2 by respiration
* Uptake of groundwater by roots
Transfer of carbon up the food chain
An ecosystems includes:
all the members of the species
* the living and nonliving factors in an environment
all parts of the earth where life exists
all members of a species in the same area
all of the above
Atmospheric disruptions included everything except
Greenhouse effect
ozone depletion
acid precipitation
air pollution
* groundwater pollution
Biologists distinguish three main types of symbiosis:
* Parasitism, mutualism and commensalisms
Parasitism, mutualism and predation
Commensalisms, mutualism and predation
Commensalisms, parasitism and predation
Predation, mutualism and commensalisms
Biologists distinguish three main types of symbiosis:
* None of these
Parasitism, mutualism and predation
Commensalisms, mutualism and predation
Commensalisms, parasitism and predation
Predation, mutualism and commensalisms
Biosphere has 3 phases of substances:
* Liquid, solid, gas
First, second, third
Plants, animals, microorganisms
Water, oxigen, earth
None of these
Biotic factors in an ecosystem can include
sunlight
temperature
* animals
air pressure
wind
Decomposers benefit an ecosystem by
Manufacturing energy
* Returning nutrients to the soil
Controlling the population
D. D Removing toxic substances
E. Manufacturing energy and controlling the population
782.
Determine the type of interrelations between organisms of different species;
which is beneficial for both partners?
A. * Mutualism
B. Parasitism
C. Commensalism
D. Competition
E. Non of the above
783.
Detritivores are
A. bacteria.
B. plants.
C. fungi.
D. animals.
E. * both bacteria and fungi.
784.
Detritivores include
A. Photosynthetic plants
B. Carnivores
C. Herbivores
D. Omnivores
E. * Bacteria
785.
Ecosystem consists of 2 components:
A. * living and nonliving components
B. plants and animals
C. physical surrounding and animals
D. cycling of nutrients
E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
786.
Ecosystem consists of 2 components:
A. * biotic and abiotic components
B. plants and animals
C. physical surrounding and animals
D. cycling of nutrients
E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
787.
Ecosystem consists of 2 components:
A. * none of these
B. plants and animals
C. physical surrounding and animals
D. cycling of nutrients
E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
788.
Ecosystem consists of 2 components:
A. * none of these
B. plants and animals
C. physical surrounding and animals
D. cycling of nutrients
E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
789.
Ecosystems are classified into
A. Primary and natural
B. Primary and anthropogenic
C. * Natural and anthropogenic
D. Primary and secondary
E. Primary, secondary and tertiary
790.
How do nitrogen fixing bacteria contribute to the nitrogen cycle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
791.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
792.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
793.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
794.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
795.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
796.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
797.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
798.
A.
B.
C.
They return N2 to the atmosphere
They change ammonia to nitrate
* They change N2 to ammonia
They withdraw nitrate from the soil
All of these
How do plants contribute to the carbon cycle?
When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere
When they photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
They do not contribute to the carbon cycle
* When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere and when they
photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
All of these
How does high temperature affect the life processes of warm-blooded animals?
* Increases heat emission processes
Decreases heat emission processes
Decreases thermogenesis
Increases thermogenesis
Changes day activity
How does low temperature affect the life processes of warm-blooded animals?
Increases heat emission processes
* Decreases heat emission processes
Decreases thermogenesis
Increases thermogenesis
Changes day activity
How is a first-order consumer like a second-order consumer?
* Both pass on less energy to the next tropic level than they received
Both pass on the same amount of energy to the next trophic level
Both tend to be herbivores that produce nutrients for plants
Both are able to convert organic compounds to ATP without the loss of energy
All of these
How many % of the energy are incorporated into the tissues of the next level:
1%
100 %
* 10 %
0%
20%
Human ecology is connected with many sciences:
immunology;
hygiene of environment;
ecotoxicology;
medical geography
* all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
mathematical
statistical
biochemical
physiological
* all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
statistical
biochemical
physical
799.
800.
801.
802.
803.
804.
805.
806.
807.
D. clinical
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. statistical
B. biochemical
C. physical
D. physiological
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. biochemical
B. physical
C. bacteriological
D. physiological
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. mathematical
B. statistical
C. biochemical
D. bacteriological
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. mathematical
B. statistical
C. biochemical
D. clinical
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. mathematical
B. statistical
C. biochemical
D. physical
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. statistical
B. biochemical
C. physical
D. bacteriological
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. biochemical
B. physical
C. bacteriological
D. clinical
E. * all of these
Human ecology uses many methods of investigation:
A. physical
B. bacteriological
C. clinical
D. physiological
E. * all of these
If you measure the biomass of an ecosystem, you are measuring the:
A. Amount of energy produced
B.
C.
D.
E.
Amount of nutrients
* Dry weight of organic material
Dry weight of all organisms in the given area
All of these
808.
In a natural community, the primary consumers are
A. * herbivores.
B. carnivores.
C. scavengers.
D. decomposers.
E. all of these
809.
In contrast to a predator, a parasite usually
A. * does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives.
B. kills its host.
C. is a short-term visitor.
D. is a short-term visitor.
E. does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives and is larger than its host.
810.
In nature, it is ________ that are primarily responsible for converting atmospheric
nitrogen into a form that living things can use
A. plants
B. algae
C. * bacteria
D. animals
E. fungi
811.
In what way are decomposers like producers?
A. Either one may be the first member of a grazing food chain
B. Both produce oxygen for other forms of life
C. * Both require a source of nutrient molecules and energy.
D. Both supply organic food for the biosphere.
E. All of these
812.
Intermediate position of the somatic indexes and the level of cholesterol are
characterized for
A. adaptive mountain human
B. adaptive tropical human
C. * adaptive temperate human type
D. adaptive arctic human type
E. non of the above
813.
It is a relationship where both species benefit . What is this?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. * Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
814.
It is a relationship where both species benefit . What is this?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. * None of these
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
815.
It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed. What is
this?
A. Predation
B. * Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
816.
It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed. What is
this?
A. Predation
B. * None of these
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
817.
It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected. What
is this?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. * Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
818.
It is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected. What
is this?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. * None of these
E. Symbiosis
819.
It is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface. What is this?
A. * Biosphere
B. Ecosystem
C. Lithosphere
D. Hydrosphere
E. Atmosphere
820.
It is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface. What is this?
A. * None of these
B. Ecosystem
C. Lithosphere
D. Hydrosphere
E. Atmosphere
821.
Name the element of biosphere
A. * Atmosphere
B. Hydrosphere
C. Lithosphere
D. Ecosphere
E. Anroposphere
822.
Name the major characteristics of adaptive mountain human type
A. High development of musculsceletal system, large thorax, high blood hemoglobin
and cholesterol level
B. The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference of
thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level
C. Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity
lengthening, increase of the number of RBC
D. * Intermediate position of the somatic indexes and the level of cholesterol
E. all of the above
823.
Name the major characteristics of adaptive temperate human type
824.
825.
826.
827.
828.
829.
830.
of:
A. High development of musculoskeletal system, large thorax, high blood
hemoglobin and cholesterol level
B. The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference of
thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level
C. Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity
lengthening, increase of the number of RBC
D. * Intermediate position between of the somatic indexes and the level of
cholesterol at arctic and tropical adaptive human types
E. all of the above
Name the major characteristics of adaptive tropical human type
A. High development of musculoskeletal system, large thorax, high blood
hemoglobin and cholesterol level
B. * The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference
of thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level
C. Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity
lengthening, increase of the number of RBC
D. Intermediate position of the somatic indexes and the level of cholesterol
E. all of the above
Name the organism condition, in which the vital activity processes are decreased;
A. Death
B. * Anabiosis
C. Thermoregulation
D. Photoperiodism
E. All of the above
Name the process drown on this picture
A. * Movement of energy thru the ecosystem
B. Food web
C. Chemical cycling
D. Competition
E. Non of the above
Name the reaction of plants and animals to the duration of daylight hours:
A. Cryptobiosis
B. Anabiosis
C. Thermoregulation
D. * Photoperiodism
E. All of the above
Name this picture
A. Terrestrial food chain
B. * Marine food chain
C. Trophic cycle
D. Pyramid of energy
E. Chemical cycle
Nitrogen cycle include everything except
A. nitrogen fixation
B. nitrification
C. ammonification
D. denitrification
E. * evaporation
Plants and animals become adapted to life in particular biomass through a process
A. Symbiosis
B. Competition
C. Growth
D. * Evolution by natural selection
E. Competition and Growth
831.
Primary producers are
A. * Autotrophs
B. Heterotrophs
C. Mixotrophs
D. Saprotrophs
E. Coprophages
832.
Secondary production refers to the processing and storage of energy by
A. * Herbivores
B. Carnivores
C. Plants
D. Fungi
E. Bacteria
833.
The amount of dry organic substance, created in an ecosystem or its part for
certain time on a certain area, is called:
A. Biomass
B. * Bioproductivity
C. Biotransformation
D. Biocenosis
E. Ecosystem
834.
The atmosphere above which region is known to have a hole in the ozone layer?
A. * Antarctica
B. eastern North America
C. northern Europe
D. the western Pacific
E. the eastern Pacific
835.
The biomass of a community is the weight of the
A. material decomposed in a year.
B. producers.
C. * living organisms.
D. consumers.
E. decomposers.
836.
The biosphere includes:
A. all the members of the species
B. the living and nonliving factors in an environment
C. * all parts of the earth where life exists
D. all members of a species in the same area
E. all of the above
837.
The community of plants on a certain area, is called:
A. Biomass
B. Bioproductivity
C. * Biotop
D. Biocenosis
E. Ecosystem
838.
The elongated body form, reduced muscles mass, diminution of circumference of
thorax, more intensive sweating, reduced cholesterol level are characterized for
A. adaptive mountain human
B. * adaptive tropical human
C. adaptive temperate human type
D. adaptive arctic human type
E. non of the above
839.
The greatest amount of energy in an ecosystem is available to:
A. * Producers
B. Primary consumers
C. Secondary consumers
D. Decomposers
E. Tertiary consumers
840.
The interaction between two species in which both species may be harmed is
known as
A. mutualism.
B. parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. * competition.
E. predation.
841.
The interaction between two species in which one specie may be harmed is known
as
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Symbiosis
842.
The interaction between two species in which one specie may be harmed is known
as
A. mutualism.
B. symbiosis.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. * predation
843.
The interaction between two species in which one species benefits and the other
species is harmed is
A. mutualism.
B. commensalism.
C. competition.
D. predation.
E. * none of these
844.
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the investigation of human health condition
B. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
C. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and
the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and
environmental pollution
E. * all of these
845.
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the investigation of human health condition
B. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
C. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
D. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial
differentiation of human diseases
E. * all of these
846.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
847.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
848.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
849.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
850.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
851.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
852.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
853.
A.
B.
The main tasks of human ecology:
the investigation of human health condition
the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism
* all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
the investigation of human health condition
the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
* all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
the investigation of human health condition
the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
* all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
the investigation of the processes of human health protection
the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism
* all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology;
the research of influence of environmental factors to human health;
the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial
differentiation of human diseases
the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism
* all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
the investigation of the processes of human health protection
the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial
differentiation of human diseases
* all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
the investigation of the processes of human health protection
the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and
the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and
environmental pollution
* all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
the investigation of the processes of human health protection
854.
855.
856.
857.
858.
859.
860.
C. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
D. the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism
E. * all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
B. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
C. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and
the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and
environmental pollution
E. * all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
D. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
E. * all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
D. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial
differentiation of human diseases
E. * all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and
the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and
environmental pollution
E. * all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
B. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
C. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
D. the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism
E. * all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the investigation of human health condition
B. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
C. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
D. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
E. * all of these
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the research of dynamics of human health condition in the process of historical
and social-economical development
B.
C.
D.
E.
the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
the investigation of the processes of human health protection
the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
* all of these
861.
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the forecast of the health condition of the future generations
B. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
C. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
D. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
E. * all of these
862.
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the investigation of the processes of human health protection
B. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
C. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
D. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial
differentiation of human diseases
E. * all of these
863.
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the analysis of global and regional problems of human ecology
B. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
C. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial
differentiation of human diseases
D. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and
the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and
environmental pollution
E. * all of these
864.
The main tasks of human ecology:
A. the research of influence of environmental factors to human health
B. the composition of medical-geographical maps that show the territorial
differentiation of human diseases
C. the addition of medical-geographical maps and environmental pollution maps and
the determination of correlative dependence between human diseases and
environmental pollution
D. the determination of value of boundary technogenic load limit to human organism
E. * all of these
865.
The major component of air is
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. * Nitrogen
D. Carbon monoxide
E. Minor gases
866.
The parts of biosphere where the organisms live:
A. * hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere
B. hydrosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere
C. atmosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere
D. hydrosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere
E. lithosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere
867.
The pathways by which chemicals circulate through ecosystems involve both the
living and nonliving areas, known as
A. Movement of energy thru the ecosystem
B. Food web
C. * Biogeochemical cycles
868.
869.
870.
871.
872.
873.
874.
875.
876.
D. Competition
E. Non of the above
The relationship between man and malaria plasmodium is named
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Ascaris lumbricoides is named
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Entamoeba histolytica forma magna is named
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Entamoeba histolytica forma minuta is named
A. mutualism.
B. parasitism.
C. * commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Leishmania tropica is named
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Taenia solium is named
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Trichinela spiralis is named
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Trichomonas hominis is named
A. mutualism.
B. parasitism.
C. * commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
The relationship between man and Trichomonas vaginalis is named
A. mutualism.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* parasitism.
commensalism.
competition.
Predation
877.
The relationship between man and Trypanosoma cruzi is named
A. mutualism.
B. * parasitism.
C. commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
878.
The relationship between two species in both members of the association benefit
is known as
A. mutualism.
B. symbiosis.
C. * commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
879.
The relationship between two species in which one specie may is benefited and
the other is neither benefited or harmed
A. mutualism.
B. symbiosis.
C. * commensalism.
D. competition.
E. Predation
880.
The results of air pollution:
A. Photochemical smog
B. Acid deposition
C. Global warming
D. Destruction of the ozone shield
E. * All of these
881.
The sequence of organisms through which energy may move in a community is
called ______ .
A. * food chain
B. chemical cycling
C. ecosystem
D. ecological pyramid
E. energy flow
882.
The sequence of organisms through which energy may move in a community is
called ______ .
A. * none of these
B. chemical cycling
C. ecosystem
D. ecological pyramid
E. energy flow
883.
The smallest amount of energy in an ecosystem is available to:
A. Producers
B. Primary consumers
C. Secondary consumers
D. Decomposers
E. * Tertiary consumers
884.
There are 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors:
A. * Predation and symbiosis
B.
C.
D.
E.
885.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
886.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
887.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
888.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
889.
cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
890.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
891.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
892.
A.
B.
C.
Plants and animals
Parasitism and commensalisms
Parasitism and mutualism
Commensalisms and mutualism
There are 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors:
* None of these
Plants and animals
Parasitism and commensalisms
Parasitism and mutualism
Commensalisms and mutualism
Tropical rain forest destruction is extremely serious because
It will lead to a severe reduction in biological diversity
Tropical soils cannot support agriculture for long
Large tracts of forest absorb carbon dioxide, reducing the threat of global
warming
Non of the above
* All of these
Water cycle include everything except
condensation
precipitation
evaporation
* ammonification
All of the above
Water is a renewable resource, and
there will always be a plentiful supply
the oceans can never become polluted
* it is still subject to pollution
primary sewage treatment plants assure clean drinking water
Non of these
Water molecules reside for the longest time in which phase of the hydrologic
detention
evaporation
precipitation
* Transportation
Evaporation and detention
What 2 components belong to ecosystem?
* living and nonliving components
plants and animals
physical surrounding and animals
cycling of nutrients
plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
What 2 components belong to ecosystem?
* biotic and abiotic components
plants and animals
physical surrounding and animals
cycling of nutrients
plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
What 2 components belong to ecosystem?
* none of these
plants and animals
physical surrounding and animals
D. cycling of nutrients
E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
893.
What 2 components belong to ecosystem?
A. * none of these
B. plants and animals
C. physical surrounding and animals
D. cycling of nutrients
E. plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
894.
What 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors do you know?
A. * Predation and symbiosis
B. Plants and animals
C. Parasitism and commensalisms
D. Parasitism and mutualism
E. Commensalisms and mutualism
895.
What 2 forms of interaction of biotic factors do you know?
A. * None of these
B. Plants and animals
C. Parasitism and commensalisms
D. Parasitism and mutualism
E. Commensalisms and mutualism
896.
What are the living organisms, which eat tiny particles of organic remains, called?
A. Autotrophs
B. Heterotrophs
C. * Detritophages
D. Necrophages
E. Coprophages
897.
What are the parts of biosphere where the organisms live?
A. * hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere
B. hydrosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere
C. atmosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere
D. hydrosphere, lithosphere and magnetosphere
E. lithosphere, atmosphere and magnetosphere
898.
What is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together
in a close association?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. * Symbiosis
899.
What is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together
in a close association?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. * None of these
900.
What is a complex of parasitic species, which inhibit the host body, called?
A. Biotop
B. Biocenosis
C. Ecosystem
D. Phytocenosis
E. * Parasitocenosis
901.
What is a relationship where both species benefit?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. * Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
902.
What is a relationship where both species benefit?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. * None of these
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
903.
What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed?
A. Predation
B. * Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
904.
What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is harmed?
A. Predation
B. * None of these
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
905.
What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. * Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
906.
What is a relationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. * None of these
E. Symbiosis
907.
What is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface?
A. * Biosphere
B. Ecosystem
C. Lithosphere
D. Hydrosphere
E. Atmosphere
908.
What is the aggregate of different organisms that live on Earth's surface?
A. * None of these
B. Ecosystem
C. Lithosphere
D. Hydrosphere
E. Atmosphere
909.
What is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their
physical surrounding?
A. * None of these
B. Biology
910.
911.
912.
913.
914.
915.
916.
917.
C. Biosphere
D. Ecosystem
E. Zoology
What three main types of symbiosis do you know?
A. * Parasitism, mutualism and commensalisms
B. Parasitism, mutualism and predation
C. Commensalisms, mutualism and predation
D. Commensalisms, parasitism and predation
E. Predation, mutualism and commensalisms
What three main types of symbiosis do you know?
A. * None of these
B. Parasitism, mutualism and predation
C. Commensalisms, mutualism and predation
D. Commensalisms, parasitism and predation
E. Predation, mutualism and commensalisms
What trophic level in the food chain do coprophages occupy?
A. Producers
B. * Consumers
C. Autotrophs
D. Decomposers
E. Mixotrophs
What trophic level in the food chain do detritophages occupy?
A. Producers
B. Primary consumers
C. Secondary consumers
D. * Decomposers
E. Tertiary consumers
What trophic level in the food chain do necrophages occupy?
A. Producers
B. * Consumers
C. Autotrophs
D. Decomposers
E. Mixotrophs
When ultraviolet sunlight strikes O2 it can put in form of
A. CO2
B. * O3
C. SO2
D. CO
E. N3
Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
A. Respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Fossil fuel combustion
D. * All of these
E. Only photosynthesis and fossil fuel combustion
Which of these is a true statement?
A. More developed countries do not contribute to the destruction of tropical rain
forests
B. * Carbon dioxide from fossil fuel combustion is the primary greenhouse gas
C. Water from underground sources is never subject to contamination
D. Sulfur dioxide is given off to the same degree by burning of all fossil fuels
E. All of these
918.
919.
920.
921.
922.
923.
Which of these is mismatched?
A. .fossil fuel burning – carbon dioxide given off
B. nuclear power-radioactive wastes
C. * solar energy-greenhouse effect
D. biomass burning-carbon dioxide given off
E. All of these
Who are heterotrophic organisms that use preformed food?
A. Producers
B. * Consumers
C. Herbivores
D. Carnivores
E. Decomposers
Who are heterotrophic organisms that use preformed food?
A. Producers
B. * None of these
C. Herbivores
D. Carnivores
E. Decomposers
?Who coined the term “ecocyctem” at the first time?
A. * Arthur Tansley
B. Eduard Suess
C. Vladimir Vernadsky
D. Gregor Mendel
E. Devid Morgan
?Who coined the term "biosphere" in 1875?
A. * Eduard Suess
B. Vladimir Vernadsky
C. Arthur Tansley
D. Gregor Mendel
E. None of these
?Where do schistosomes lay fertilized eggs?
A. bronchial tubes
B. intestine
C. muscles
D. bile duct
E. * blood vessels
924.
What is infective stage of Enterobius vermicularis for human?
A. miracidium
B. cercaria
C. redia
D. cystisercus
E. * an egg
925.
What are the organs through over Ascaris lumbricoides larvae do not migrate?
A. lungs
B. liver
C. heart
D. pharynx
E. * brain
926.
What is the diagnostic stage of Trichuris trichiura?
A. cystisercus
B. oncosphere
C. redia
D. gravid proglottid
E. * an egg
927.
Indicate the diseases, which can be treated by drugs:
A. Ascariasis
B. Enterobiasis
C. Taeniasis solium
D. Diphyllobotriasis
E. * All of these
928.
In what time do Ascaris lumbricoides eggs become invasive?
A. 4 - 6 hours
B. 7 days
C. an hour
D. 3-5 month
E. * 24 days
929.
At what time do Enterobius vermicularis eggs become invasive?
A. 24 days
B. 7 days
C. an hour
D. 3-5 month
E. * 4 - 6 hours
930.
The larvae were found during the sputum microscopy of one patient with
pneumonia, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Enterobiasis
B. Trichuriasis
C. Cysticercosis
D. Diphyllobotriasis
E. * Ascariasis
931.
Ascariasis was diagnosed in 8-years old child. Is this child epidemically
dangerous for other members of the family?
A. yes, because child spreads embryonated eggs
B. no, because child spreads mature eggs
C. yes, because child can pass larva to the other members of the family
D. both A and D
E. * no, because child spreads unembryonated eggs
932.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What animals does the life cycle of Clonorchis with asexual reproduction involve?
cattle and snail
pig and fish
fish and ant
crab and snail
*snail and fish
933.
The eggs (oval with an irregular surface) were found during the feces microscopy
of one patient with nausea, vomiting, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate
the most probable diagnosis.
A. Trichuriasis
B. Enterobiasis
C. Cysticercosis
D. Dicrocoeliasis
E. * Ascariasis
934.
The eggs (brovn, barrel-shaped with a plug at each end) were found during the
feces microscopy of one patient with diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea. Indicate the most
probable diagnosis.
A. Enterobiasis
B. Ascariasis
C. Cysticercosis
D. Diphyllobotriasis
E. * Trichuriasis
935.
One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “enterobiasis”.
What method should be performed for laboratory examination?
A. blood microscopy
B. urine microscopy
C. feces microscopy
D. examination of the cerebrospinal fluid
E. * “scotch tape” technique
936.
Indicate the invasive stage of Fasciola Hepatica for humans.
A. metacercariae
B. an egg
C. cercariae
D. cysticercus
E. * adolescariae
937.
What species of Nematodes is biohelminth?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Necator americanus
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
E. * Trichinella spiralis
938.
Indicate the helminth of class Nematoda which life cycle does not have migration
of larvae.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Necator americanus
E. * Trichuris trichiura
939.
What kind of helminthiasis is characterized by the development of hematuria,
terminal disuria, obstructed urine flow?
A. fascioliasis
B. paragonimiasis
C. shistosomiasis japonicum
D. dicrocoeliasis
E. * shistosomiasis haematobium
940.
Which stage of Ancylostoma duodenale is invasive for humans?
A. an egg
B. rhabditiform larva
C. adult worm
D. encapsulated larva
E. * filariform larva
941.
What is the mode of transmission of hookworm infection?
A. sexual
B. ingestion contaminated crabs
C. ingestion contaminated snail
D. by blood
E. * penetration of skin by larvae
942.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichinosis?
A. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
C. Microscopy of patient’s
faeces
D. None
E. * Serologic test, muscle biopsy
943.
Indicate the invasive stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans.
A. rhabditiform larva
B. egg
C. cercariae
D. metacercariae
E. * filariform larva
944.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate the invasive stage of Fasciola Hepatica for humans.
metacercariae
an egg
cercariae
cysticercus
*adolescariae
945.
A patient was admitted to the hospital and complained of muscle pain, fever, per
orbital edema. This patient ate undercooked pork some time before illness. Blood
analysis had shown an eosinophilia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Ascariasis
B. Trichuriasis
C. Strongyloidiasis
D. hookworm infection
E. * Trichinosis
946.
Which stage of Dicrocoelium lanceatum is invasive for humans?
A. an egg
B. adolescariae
C. cercariae
D. adult worm
E. * metacercariae
947.
Indicate the infective stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans:
A. rhabditiform larva
B. egg
C. cercariae
D. gravid proglottid
E. * filariform larva
948.
Indicate the localization of Trichinella spiralis larvae in human organism.
A. small intestine
B. large intestine
C. lungs
D. liver
E. * striated muscles
949.
What is the mode of transmission of strongyloidiasis?
A. sexual
B. ingestion contaminated crabs
C. ingestion contaminated snail
D. by blood
E. * penetration of skin by larvae
950.
Indicate the localization of Trichinella spiralis adult worms in human organism.
A. large intestine
B. striated muscles
C. lungs
D. liver
E. * small intestine
951.
What is mode of transmission of schistosomiasis?
A. by eating contaminated crabs
B. by eating contaminated snail
C. by eating contaminated pork
D. by eating contaminated fish
E. * penetration of skin
952.
A family has a cat with opisthorchiasis. Can children be infected from this cat?
A. yes, by fascioliasis
B. yes, by paragonimiasis
C. yes, by shistosomiasis
D. yes, by opisthorchiasis
E. * no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae
953.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of filariasis?
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
Biopsy of the affected skin
Serologic test, muscle biopsy
Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer
*Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night
954.
What parts of the human body are usually not infected by itch mite?
A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms
B. armpits
C. groin and genitals
D. interdigital spaces
E. * head
955.
A man, who came from Far East, passed a medical examination. Eggs (0,1 mm,
oval, golden-brownish, operculated) were found in sputum. Indicate the most probable
diagnosis.
A. fascioliasis
B. chlonorchiasis
C. shistosomiasis
D. dicrocoeloasis
E. * paragonimiasis
956.
Mites and ticks differ from other arachnids by having ...
A. mandibles
B. two pairs of antennae
C. two pairs of legs
D. All of the above
E. * a fused cephalotorax and abdomen
957.
Indicate the place of scorpion’s poisonous glands location:
A. cephalothorax
B. distal end of pedipalp
C. close to base of chelicerae
D. All of the above
E. * last segment of the abdomen
958.
Name a species which lives in the hair follicles and wax glands of the human
forehead, nose, and chin, but usually cause no symptoms:
A. Sarcoptes scabiei
B. Ornithodorus papillipes
C. Acarus siro
D. Ixodes persulcatus
E. * Desmodex folliculorum
959.
Indicate the place of spider’s poisonous glands location:
A. distal end of pedipalp
B. the last segment of the abdomen
C. the middle segment of abdomen
D. All of the above
E. * close to base of chelicerae
960.
A man eat an undercooked beef (liver contained fascioles). Can this person be
infected?
A. yes, by fascioliasis
B. yes, by paragonimiasis
C. yes, by shistosomiasis japonicum
D. yes, by opisthorchiasis
E. * no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae
961.
What is mode of transmission of dicrocoeliasis?
A. penetration of skin
B. ingestion contaminated crabs
C. ingestion contaminated snail
D. ingestion contaminated fish
E. * by eating plants with the ants
962.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What parts of the human body are usually infected by itch mite?
flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms
armpits
groin and genitals
interdigital spaces
*All of the above
963.
Indicate the medically important orders of Class Insecta:
A. Anoplura
B. Hemiptera
C. Diptera
D. Siphonaptera
E. * All of the above
964.
Which insects are representatives of order Anoplura:
A. termites
B. fleas
C. ants
D. mosquitoes
E. * lice
965.
A man, who came from Africa, passed a medical examination. Eggs with lateral
spine were found in feces. Indicate the most probable diagnosis.
A. fascioliasis
B. paragonimiasis
C. chlonorchiasis
D. opisthorchiasis
E. * shistosomiasis
966.
How would you characterize the medical importance of Fleas?
A. either temporary or permanent ectoparasites
B. causative agent of pediculosis
C. mechanical transmitters of protozoan infections
D. non of the above
E. * vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
967.
What is the vector of Chagas’ disease?
A. Glossina palpalis
B. sandfly of genus Phlebotomus
C. deer fly (Chrysops)
D. mosquito Anopheles and Culex
E. * bug species of family Triatomidae
968.
The immature form of an insect that undergoes incomplete metamorphosis is a
A. larva
B. pupa
C. caterpillar
D. both A and B
E. * nymph
969.
What kind of helminthiasis is characterised by the development of anemia?
A. Teniasis solium
B. Cysticercosis
C. Taeniasis saginata
D. Fascioliasis
E. * Diphyllobothriasis
970.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate the representatives of Order Hemiptera.
Fleas
Ants
Mosquitoes
Lice
*Bugs
971.
What is prevention of pediculosis?
A. cleanliness and sweeping of dust from floor and carpets
B. involves protection from reduviid bite
C. involves protection from mosquito bite
D. mosquito nets
E. * regular body washing with simultaneous change of linen, personal hygiene
972.
Which cestode causes cysticercosis?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Diphyllobotrium latum
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. * Taenia solium
973.
In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur?
A. America
B. Europe
C. Asia
D. Australia
E. * Equatorial Africa
974.
Indicate mode by which nonbloodsucking flies transmit diseases.
A. Direct mechanical
B. Biologic
C. Hereditary
D. All of the above
E. * Indirect mechanical
975.
What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglottid of Taenia solium?
A. 17 -35 uterine branches
B. bilobed ovary
C. trilobed ovary
D. gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
E. * 7 -12 uterine branches
976.
Indicate mode by which bloodsucking flies transmit diseases to humans.
A. Indirect mechanical
B. Direct mechanical
C. Biologic
D. Hereditary
E. * Both direct and indirect mechanical
977.
Indicate the invasive stage of Taenia saginata for humans.
A. an egg
B. hydatid cysts
C. gravid proglottid
D. metacercariae
E. * cysticercus
978.
Order Diptera is characterized by having:
A. 1 pair of wings
B. 3 pairs of wings
C. Mouthparts are sucking or piercing and sucking
D. both B and D
E. * 2 pairs of wings
979.
What disease can be transmitted by Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans?
A. American trypanosomiasis
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Tularemia
D. Onchocerciasis
E. * African trypanosomiasis
980.
What is the distinguishing feature of immature proglottid of Taenia solium?
A. 17 -35 uterine branches
B. 7 -12 uterine branches
C. bilobed ovary
D. gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
E. * trilobed ovary
981.
What is the vector for Leishmania species?
A. Black fly
B. Buffalo gnat
C. Deer fly
D. Mosquito Anopheles
E. * Sandfly
982.
What is a myiasis?
A. Myiasis - infestation by larvae of flies.
B. Myiasis - infestation by larvae of mosquitoes.
C. Myiasis - invasion of man’s body by representatives of Order Anoplura
D. All of the above
E. * Myiasis - invasion or infestation of man’s body and/or tissues by Diptera larvae.
983.
What is the distinguishing feature of gravid proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum?
A. 17 -35 uterine branches
B. 7 -12 uterine branches
C. bilobed ovary
D. trilobed ovary
E. * gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
984.
Name modes by which arthropods transmit disease.
A. indirect mechanical
B. direct mechanical
C. biologic
D. hereditary
E. * all of the above
985.
What is the characteristic feature of gravid proglottid of Taenia saginata ?
A. 7 -12 uterine branches
B. bilobed ovary
C. trilobed ovary
D. gravid uterus is in the form of rosette
E. * 17 -35 uterine branches
986.
An ecosystems includes:
A. all the members of the species
B. all parts of the earth where life exists
C. all members of a species in the same area
D. all of the above
E. * the living and nonliving factors in an environment
987.
What is the distinguishing feature of scolex of Taenia solium?
A. scolex with 4 suckers but no hooklets
B. scolex with 2 elongated sucking grooves
C. scolex without organs of fixation
D. both B and C
E. * scolex with 4 suckers and circle of hooks
988.
How many % of the energy are incorporated into the tissues of the next level:
A. 1%
B. 100 %
C. 0%
D. 20%
E. * 10 %
989.
Indicate invasive stage of Diphyllobotrium latum for crustaceans.
A. cysticercus
B. procercoid
C. plerocercoid
D. metacercariae
E. * coracidium
990.
The biosphere includes:
A. all the members of the species
B. the living and nonliving factors in an environment
C. all members of a species in the same area
D. all of the above
E. * all parts of the earth where life exists
991.
Consider the components of a food chain: producers > herbivores > carnivores >
top carnivores. Eventually what happens to all the energy passed from one element to the
next?
A. It recycles back to the producers
B. It results is a much larger decomposer population
C. It is recaptured by another food chain
D. Both A and B
E. * It is dissipated into the environment
992.
Which statement is true concerning this food chain: grass > rabbits > snakes >
hawks?
A. Each predator population has a greater biomass than its prey population
B. Each population is omnivorous
C. Both A and C
D. All of the above
E. * Each prey population has a greater biomass than its predator population
993.
The life cycle of Taenia solium involves asexual reproduction in ...
A. snail
B. crab
C. fish
D. cattle
E. * pig
994.
The greatest amount of energy in an ecosystem is available to:
A. Primary consumers
B. Secondary consumers
C. Decomposers
D. all of the above
E. * Producers
995.
The life cycle of Taenia saginata involves asexual reproduction in ...
A. snail
B. crab
C. pig
D. fish
E. * cattle
996.
The life cycle of Diphyllobotrium latum involves asexual reproduction in ...
A. snail
B. crab
C. pig
D. cattle
E. * fish
997.
Abiotic factors in an ecosystem can include ...
A. plants
B. animals
C. microorganisms
D. bacteria
E. * sunlight
998.
How many segments does strobila of Echinococcus granulosus have?
A. 6- 8
B. 100
C. more than 100
D. 200-300
E. * 3- 5
999.
An interaction between two species in which one species benefits while the other
is neither harmed or helped is called...
A. parasitism
B. mutualism
C. mimicry
D. cooperation
E. * commensalism
1000.
Indicate the infective stage of E.granulosus for humans.
A. hydatid cysts
B. oncosphere
C. gravid proglottid
D. cysticercus
E. * an egg
1001.
Autoinvasion is characteristic for ...
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Echinococcus multilocularis
C. Taenia saginata
D. Diphyllobotrium latum
E. * Hymenolepis nana
1002.
How is a first-order consumer like a second-order consumer?
A. Both pass on the same amount of energy to the next trophic level
B. Both tend to be herbivores that produce nutrients for plants
C. Both are able to convert organic compounds to ATP without the loss of energy
D. All of these
E. * Both pass on less energy to the next tropic level than they received
1003.
The life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus involves sexual reproduction in ...
A. crab
B. pig
C. fish
D. cattle
E. * dog
1004.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which cestode can cause Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Diseases?
Taenia solium
Echinococcus multilocularis
Diphyllobotrium latum
Taenia saginata
E. * Echinococcus granulosus
1005.
What is the way of transmission of amoebiasis?
A. sexual
B. by bite of Anopheles mosquito
C. by bite of bug species (family Triatomidae)
D. by bite of sandfly (genus Phlebotomus)
E. * alimentary
1006.
What stage in life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica is pathogenic for human?
A. forma minuta
B. mature cyst
C. immature cyst
D. all of these
E. * forma magna
1007.
Indicate the way of reproduction of Entamoeba histolytica?
A. endogony
B. shizogony
C. sporogony
D. conjugation
E. * binary fission
1008.
What stage in life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica is commensal for human?
A. forma magna
B. cyst
C. pathogenic form
D. tissue form
E. * forma minuta
1009.
What type of host is man in the life cycle of Plasmodium malariae?
A. Definitive host
B. Reservoir host
C. Facultative host
D. all of these
E. * Intermediate host
1010.
What type of host is man in the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii?
A. Definitive host
B. Reservoir host
C. noone of these
D. all of these
E. * Intermediate host
1011.
One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis “malaria”.
Which material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. urine
B. feces
C. material from breast bone puncture
D. material from lymph node puncture
E. * blood
1012.
A child with multiple abnormalities of development was born. Examination of the
family members has not found a hereditary pathology: karyotypes of the parents and the
child are normal. What protozoan disease could cause such abnormalities of
development?
A. Amoeba
B. Volvox
C. Plasmodium
D. Trypanosoma brucei
E. * Toxoplasma gondii
1013.
A fever has developed in a patient two weeks after blood transfusion. What
protozoan disease should be considered?
A. Amoebiasis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Balantidiasis
D. Lambliosis
E. * Malaria
1014.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of malaria?
A. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
B. Biological tests with susceptible animals
C. Serology of cerebrospinal fluid.
D. both B and C
E. * Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
1015.
What is infective stage of Plasmodium for human?
A. young trophozoites
B. mature schizonts
C. gametocytes
D. growing trophozoites
E. * sporozoites
1016.
What is infective stage of Plasmodium for mosquito?
A. young trophozoites
B. sporozoites
C. mature schizonts
D. merozoites
E. * gametocytes
1017.
Which types of locomotor organelles does lamblia have?
A. cilia
B. pseudopodia
C. no locomotor organelles
D. both A and C
E. * flagella
1018.
Which Plasmodium species can cause “blackwater fever”?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. All of these
E. * Plasmodium falciparum
1019.
Smears from the skin ulcer of a patient with the initial diagnosis of cutaneous
leishmaniasis have been taken. Which protozoa could be found in these smears?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma b.gambiense
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Leishmania donovani
E. * Leishmania tropica minor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1020.
One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis Urogenital
trichomoniasis. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination ?
the cerebrospinal fluid and blood
urine
feces
duodenal contents
*vaginal fluid
1021.
Antelope has been brought to the Ukrainian zoo. Trypanosomes have been found
in its blood smears. What prophylactics measures shoud be performed?
A. isolation of animal
B. extermination of animal
C. boiling of water
D. both A and C
E. * any prophylactics measures
1022.
One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis "sleeping
sickness". Which material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. duodenal contents
B. urine
C. feces
D. material from breastbone puncture
E. * cerebrospinal fluid and matherial obtained by puncture of the enlarged lymph
nodes
1023.
What is causative agent of Kala-asar?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma b.gambiense
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Leishmania tropica minor
E. * Leishmania donovani
1024.
Which types of locomotor organelles does Balantidium coli have?
A. pseudopodia
B. flagella
C. no locomotor organelles
D. 4 flagella
E. * cilia
1025.
Indicate the ways of reprodaction of Balantidium coli?
A. endogony
B. shizogony
C. sporogony
D. copulation
E. * binary fission
1026.
What is the way of transmission of balantidiasis?
A. sexual
B. by bite of Anopheles mosquito
C. by bite of bug species (family Triatomidae)
D. by bite of sandfly (genus Phlebotomus)
E. * alimentary
1027.
One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis
“balantidiasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. duodenal contents
B. urine
C. material from breastbone puncture
D. cerebrospinal fluid and matherial obtained by puncture of the enlarged
E. * stool (feces)
1028.
A protozoa with cilia were revealed during laboratory analysis of feces smear of
patient with frequent stool, containing mucus and blood. What diagnosis can be made?
A. amoebiasis
B. malaria
C. kala-azar
D. Chagas’ disease
E. * balantidiasis
1029.
A human population has a higher-than-usual percentage of individuals with a
genetic disease. The most likely explanation is:
A. gene flow
B. natural selection
C. variation
D. all of these
E. * genetic drift
1030.
The average phenotype increases its frequency in a population due to:
A. directional selection
B. disruptive selection
C. all of these
D. none of these
E. * stabilizing selection
1031.
Disruptive selection, directional selection and stabilizing selection are all
examples of ...
A. genetic equilibrium
B. random changes in a gene pool
C. speciation
D. gene pool
E. * natural selection
1032.
Human beings can not catch amoebiasis through:
A. Unwashed hands
B. Unwashed vegetables
C. Unwashed fruits
D. Unboiled water
E. * Unchecked meat
1033.
Human beings can catch balantidiasis through:
A. Unwashed hands
B. Unwashed vegetables
C. Unwashed fruits
D. Unboiled water
E. * Unchecked pork
1034.
The human brain and eyes can be affected by:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Plasmodium vivax
E. * Toxoplasma gondii
1035.
Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by:
A. Anopheles representatives
B. Culex representatives
C. Aedes representatives
D. Glossina representatives
E. * Phlebotomus resentatives
1036.
Human beings can catch lambliasis through:
A. Unchecked pork
B. Unchecked beef
C. Rotten fish
D. Unchecked crabs
E. * Unwashed hands
1037.
Malaria is transmitted by:
A. Culex representatives
B. Aedes representatives
C. Phlebotomus resentatives
D. Glossina representatives
E. * Anopheles representatives
1038.
Sleeping sickness is transmitted by:
A. Anopheles representatives
B. Culex representatives
C. Aedes representatives
D. Phlebotomus resentatives
E. * Glossina representatives
1039.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Leishmania tropica is localized in:
Small intestine
Large intestine
Liver
Blood cells
*Skin cells
1040.
Trichomonas vaginalis in the human body causes:
A. Large liver and spleen mass
B. Depression and sleepiness
C. Anemia
D. Diarrhea
E. * Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
1041.
Entamoeba histolytica in the human body causes:
A. Large liver and spleen mass
B. Depression and sleepiness
C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
D. Anemia
E. * Diarrhea
1042.
Balantidium coli in the human body causes:
A. Large liver and spleen mass
B. Depression and sleepiness
C. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
D. Anemia
E. * Diarrhea
1043.
Trypanosoma gambiense in the human body causes:
A. Large liver and spleen mass
B. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
C. Anemia
D. Diarrhea
E. * Depression and sleepiness
1044.
Plasmodium ovale in the human body causes:
Inflammatory processes in the skin cells
Depression and sleepiness
Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
Diarrhea
*Anemia
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1045.
Plasmodium vivax in the human body causes:
A. Depression and sleepiness
B. Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts
C. Inflammatory processes in the nerve cells
D. Diarrhea
E. * Large liver and spleen mass
1046.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1047.
During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found:
Pseudocysts
Sporozoites
Ookinetes
Endozoites
*Schizonts
During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found:
A. Pseudocysts
B. Sporozoites
C. Ookinetes
D. Endozoites
E. * Gametocytes
1048.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pseudocysts formation is common for:
Leishmania tropica
Entamoeba coli
Lamblia intestinalis
Balantidium coli
*Toxoplasma gondii
1049.
Endozoites formation is common for:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Entamoeba histilytica
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Balantidium coli
E. * Toxoplasma gondii
1050.
The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium malariae lasts:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 96 hours
D. 12 hours
E. * 72 hours
1051.
The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium vivax lasts:
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 96 hours
D. 12 hours
E. * 48 hours
1052.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium ovale lasts:
24 hours
72 hours
96 hours
12 hours
*48 hours
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Schizont formation is common for:
Leishmania tropica
Entamoeba coli
Lamblia intestinalis
Balantidium coli
*Plasmodium vivax
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ookinetes formation is common for:
Leishmania tropica
Entamoeba coli
Lamblia intestinalis
Balantidium coli
1053.
1054.
E. *Plasmodium vivax
1055.
Gametocytes formation is common for:
A. Leishmania tropica
B. Entamoeba coli
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Balantidium coli
E. *Plasmodium vivax
1056.
Vaccination is the prophylaxis of:
A. Lambliosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Malaria
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. * Cutaneus leishmaniasis
1057.
The final host of Toxoplasma gondii is a:
A. Human being
B. Mouse
C. Hen
D. Rabbit
E. * Cat
1058.
The host of Trichomonas vaginalis is a:
A. Cat
B. Mouse
C. Hen
D. Rabbit
E. * Human being
1059.
The host of Entamoeba histolytica is a:
A. Dog
B. Mouse
C. Cat
D. Rabbit
E. * Human being
1060.
The host of Balantidium coli is a:
A. Cat
B. Cow
C. Hen
D. Rabbit
E. * Pig
1061.
Visceral leishmaniasis prevention consists of:
A. Mosquitoes extermination
B. Tsetse fly extermination
C. Personal hygiene
D. Water purification
E. * Taking measures against rodents
1062.
Malaria prevention consists of:
A. Tsetse fly extermination
B. Taking measures against rodents
C. Personal hygiene
D. Water boiling
E. * Mosquitoes extermination
1063.
Amoebiasis prevention consists of:
A. Mosquitoes extermination
B. Tsetse fly extermination
C. Taking measures against rodents
D. Sand fly extermination
E. * Water purification
1064.
Balantidiasis prevention consists of:
A. Mosquitoes extermination
B. Tsetse fly extermination
C. Restricted contacts with cats
D. Sand fly extermination
E. * Washing hands before eating
1065.
Toxoplasmosis prevention consists of:
A. Mosquitoes extermination
B. Tsetse fly extermination
C. Sand fly extermination
D. Personal hygiene
E. * Restricted contacts with cats
1066.
The intermediate host of Plasmodium malaria is a:
A. Antelope
B. Mosquito
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sand fly
E. * Human being
1067.
The reservoir host of Trypanosoma gambiense is a:
A. Human being
B. Mosquito
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sand fly
E. * Antelope
1068.
The reservoir host of Leishmania donovani is a:
A. Human being
B. Mosquito
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sand fly
E. * Dog
1069.
The reservoir host of Trypanosoma cruzi is a:
A. Human being
B. Mosquito
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sand fly
E. * Cow
1070.
Fasciola hepatica marita is localized in the liver of:
A. Snail
B. Dog
C. Cat
D. Fish
E. * Cattle
1071.
Fasciola hepatica adult is localized in the liver of:
A. Snail
B. Dog
C. Cat
D. Fish
E. * Human being
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Human beings’ invasion with fascioliasis happens through:
Dirty hands
Dirty fruits
Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
*Water
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Human beings’ invasion with paragonimiasis happens through:
Water
Dirty hands
Dirty vegetables and fruits
Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
*Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Human beings’ invasion with chlonorchiasis happens through:
Water
Dirty hands
Dirty vegetables and fruits
Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
*Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
1072.
1073.
1074.
1075.
Human beings’ invasion with opisthorchiasis happens through:
A. Water
B. Dirty hands
C. Dirty vegetables and fruits
D. Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
E. * Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
1076.
Human beings’ invasion with dicrocoeliosis happens through:
A. Water
B. Dirty hands
C. Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish
D. Consuming raw crawfish and crabs
E. * Dirty vegetables
1077.
In the human bile ducts there can be found:
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Taenia solium
D. Taenia saginata
E. * Fasciola hepatica
1078.
In the human bile ducts there can be not found:
A. Cat fluke
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Opisthorchis felineus
E. * Paragonimus westermani
1079.
In the human lungs there can be found:
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. * Paragonimus westermani
1080.
In the human blood vessels there can be found:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. * Schistosoma haematobium
1081.
In the human blood vessels there can be found:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. * Schistosoma japonicum
1082.
In the human veins there can be found:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. * Schistosoma mansoni
1083.
The invasive for human beings stage of Fasciola hepatica is called:
A. Miracidium
B. Sporocyst
C. Redia
D. egg
E. * Adolescaria
1084.
The invasive stage of Schistosoma haematobium for human beings is called:
A. Miracidium
B. Sporocyst
C. Redia
D. Metacercaria
E. *Cercaria
1085.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The invasive for human beings stage of Paragonimus westermani is called:
Miracidium
Sporocyst
Redia
Cercaria
*Metacercaria
1086.
The invasive for human beings stage of Opisthorchis felineus is called:
A. Miracidium
B. Sporocyst
C. Redia
D. Cercaria
E. * Metacercaria
1087.
What is the size of the marita of Fasciola hepatica?
A. 3-5 mm
B. 30-50 cm
C. 10 mm
D. 1-2 m
E. * 3-5 cm
1088.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the size of adult of Fasciola hepatica?
3-5 mm
30-50 cm
10 mm
1-2 m
*3-5 cm
1089.
The final host of Taenia saginata is a:
A. dog
B. pig
C. fish
D. cow
E. * man
1090.
The final host of Echinococcus granulosus is a:
A. man
B. pig
C. fish
D. cow
E. *dog
1091.
In human organism the hydadtid cyst stage of Echinococcus granulosus can be
localized in the:
A. Large intestine
B. Skin
C. Pancreas
D. Small intestine
E. * Lungs
1092.
The diagnostics of the disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst is
performed by:
A. Microscopic analisis of blood
B. Microscopic analisis of urine
C. Microscopic analisis of cerebrospinal fluid
D. Microscopic analisis of feses
E. * Serological examination and tomography
1093.
In human organism cysticercosis is result of autoinvasion by:
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Taenia saginata
C. Echinococcus multilocularis
D. Echinococcus granulosus
E. * Taenia solium
1094.
The individual prevention of opisthorchiasis is based on:
A. Individual hygiene
B. Consuming well-cooked crabs
C. Consuming well-cooked beef
D. Consuming boiled water
E. * Consuming well-cooked fish
1095.
The individual prevention of paragonimiasis is based on:
A. Individual hygiene
B. Consuming well-cooked fish
C. Consuming well-cooked beef
D. Consuming boiled water
E. * Consuming well-cooked crabs
1096.
The individual prevention of fascioliasis is based on:
A. Individual hygiene
B. Consuming well-cooked fish
C. Consuming well-cooked crabs
D. Consuming well-cooked beef
E. * Consuming boiled water
1097.
The individual prevention of urogenital schistosomiasis is based on:
A. Consuming well-cooked fish
B. Consuming well-cooked crabs
C. Consuming well-cooked pork
D. Consuming boiled water
E. * No swimming in endemic areas
1098.
The individual prevention of hepatosplenic schistosomiasis is based on:
A. Consuming well-cooked fish
B. Consuming well-cooked crabs
C. Consuming well-cooked pork
D. Consuming boiled water
E. * No swimming in endemic areas
1099.
The individual prevention of intestinal schistosomiasis is based on:
A. Consuming well-cooked fish
B. Consuming well-cooked crabs
C. Consuming well-cooked pork
D. Consuming boiled water
E. * No swimming in endemic areas
1100.
The intermediate host of Taenia solium is a:
A. dog
B. man
C. fish
D. cow
E. * pig
1101.
The diagnostics of the disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst is
performed by:
A. Microscopic analisis of feses
B. Microscopic analisis of blood
C. Microscopic analisis of urine
D. Microscopic analisis of cerebrospinal fluid
E. * Serological examination and X-ray
1102.
In human organism the multilocular cyst stage of Echinococcus multilocularis can
be localized in the:
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Skin
D. Pancreas
E. * Liver
1103.
Human being can be invaded by Diphyllobotrium latum through:
A. Consuming freshly salted caviar
B. Unwashed vegetables
C. Dirty hands
D. Water
E. * No enough thermal treatment of fish
1104.
Public prevention of the invasion of Echinococcus granulosus it is necessary to:
A. Treat pork thermally before consumption
B. Wash vegetables and fruit
C. Wash hands before eating
D. Treat beef thermally before consumption
E. * Treat and diagnostic of dogs
1105.
The intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus is a:
A. dog
B. cat
C. fish
D. fox
E. * man
1106.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of ascariasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
Serologic test, muscle biopsy
Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid
*Microscopy of patient’s faeces
1107.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of trichuriasis?
A. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
C. Serologic test, muscle biopsy
D. Microscopy of patient’s cerebrospinal fluid
E. * Microscopy of patient’s faeces
1108.
What is the mode of transmission of Trichinella spiralis in human?
A. ingestion contaminated crabs
B. ingestion contaminated snail
C. ingestion contaminated beef
D. penetration of skin by larva
E. * ingestion contaminated pork
1109.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1110.
What is prevention of filariasis?
A. filtering or boiling of drinking water
B. control of the deer fly by insecticides
C. washing hands before meals
D. wearing shoes
E. * control of the mosquito by insecticides
1111.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is prevention of dracunculiasis?
control of the deer fly by insecticides
washing hands before meals
properly cooking pork
wearing shoes
*filtering or boiling of drinking water
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is prevention of loiasis?
filtering or boiling of drinking water
washing hands before meals
control of the mosquito by insecticides
wearing shoes
*control of the deer fly by insecticides
1112.
1113.
What is the cause of filariasis:
Dracunculus medinensis
Onchocerca volvulus
Toxocara canis
Loa loa
*Wuchereria bancrofti
What is prevention of trichinosis?
A. filtering or boiling of drinking water
B. control of the deer fly by insecticides
C. washing hands before meals
D. wearing shoes
E. *properly cooking pork
1114.
What is prevention of onchocerciasis?
A. filtering or boiling of drinking water
B. control of the deer fly by insecticides
C. washing hands before meals
D. control of the mosquito by insecticides
E. * control of the black fly by insecticides
1115.
What is prevention of strongyloidiasis?
A. properly cooking pork
B. control of the deer fly by insecticides
C. washing hands before meals
D. control of the mosquito by insecticides
E. * wearing shoes
1116.
Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of blackflies:
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Toxocara canis
D. Loa loa
E. * Onchocerca volvulus
1117.
Which of the tissue nematodes are transmitted by bite of mosquito?
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Onchocerca volvulus
C. Toxocara canis
D. Loa loa
E. * Wuchereria bancrofti
1118.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of dracunculiasis?
A. Microscopy of patient’s blood smears, taken from patient at night
B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
C. Biopsy of the affected skin
D. Serologic test, muscle biopsy
E. * Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer
1119.
What investigations must be performed to confirm a diagnosis of onchocerciasis?
A.* Microscopy of patient’s blood smears
B. Microscopy of patient’s liver cells
C. Serologic test, muscle biopsy
D. Clinically by finding the head of the worm in the skin ulcer
E. Biopsy of the affected skin
1120.
In Eastern countries crayfish and crabs are intermediate hosts for:
A. Schistosomes
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Dicrocoelium lanceatum
E. * Paragonimus westermani
1121.
The agent of scabies is:
A. Dermacentor pictus
B. Ornithodoros papillipes
C. Demodex folliculorum
D. Ixodes ricinus
E. * Sarcoptes scabiei
1122.
Cyclopes are intermediate hosts for:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
E. * Dracunculus medinensis
1123.
Cyclopes are intermediate hosts for:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
E. * Diphyllobotrium latum
1124.
Ixodes ricinus is a vector of the causative agents for:
A. Plugue
B. Scabies
C. Demodecosis
D. Pediculosis
E. * Tularemia
1125.
Ixodes persulcatus is a vector of the causative agents for:
A. Plugue
B. Scabies
C. Demodecosis
D. Pediculosis
E. * Taiga encephalitis
1126.
Pulex irritans is a vector of the causative agents for:
A. Taiga encephalitis
B. Scabies
C. Demodecosis
D. Pediculosis
E. * Plugue
1127.
Pediculus humanus humanus is a vector of the causative agents for:
A. Plugue
B. Taiga encephalitis
C. Scabies
D. Pediculosis
E. * Epidemic typhus
1128.
Pediculus humanus capitis is a causative agent of:
A. Plugue
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Scabies
D. Demodecosis
E. * Pediculosis
1129.
The vector of malaria agent is:
A. Mosquito Culex
B. Pediculus humanus
C. Tsetse fly Glossina palpalis
D. Sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii
E. * Mosquito Anopheles
1130.
The black fly of genus Simulium is a specific vector of the agent of:
A. Plugue
B. Tularemia
C. Scabies
D. Loiasis
E. * Onchocerciasis
1131.
The infection of human beings with plague happens due to:
A. Mosquito bite
B. Bedbugs bite
C. Sand fly bite
D. Lice bite
E. * Flea bite
1132.
The human flea Pulex irritans larva ...
A. Has legs
B. Has wings
C. Looks like an imago
D. Looks like a pupa
E. * Doesn’t have legs
1133.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1134.
1135.
During the day period a Pediculus humanus capitis female lays up to:
50 eggs
100 eggs
200 eggs
300 eggs
*10 eggs
The life period of Pediculus humanus capitis is:
A. 7-17 days
B. 17-27 days
C. 37-47 days
D. 47-57 days
E. * 27-37 days
A trench fever causative agent gets into the human body during:
A. Mosquito bites
B. Crushing lice and getting its hemolymph into the wound, which appears on the
skin during biting or scratching
C. Contact with clothes of sick people
D. Crushing hemolymph with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva
or respiratory tract
E. * Crushing feces with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or
respiratory tract
1136.
A pediculosis causative agent gets into the human body during:
A. Insect bites
B. Crushing lice and getting its hemolymph into the wound, which appears on the
skin during biting or scratching
C. Crushing feces with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or
respiratory tract
D. Crushing hemolymph with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva
or respiratory tract
E. * Contact with clothes of sick people
1137.
A scabies causative agent gets into the human body during:
A. Insect bites
B. Crushing lice and getting its hemolymph into the wound, which appears on the
skin during biting or scratching
C. Crushing feces with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva or
respiratory tract
D. Crushing hemolymph with rickettsia into a would on the skin, into the conjuctiva
or respiratory tract
E. * Contact with clothes of sick people
1138.
All of the genes that occur within a specific population refers to the term
A. genotype
B. gene marker
C. genome
D. selection
E. * gene pool
1139.
How many blood circuit does the amphybians vascular system have?
A. 12
B. 3
C. non of the above
D. 10
E. * 2
1140.
All of the animals has double circulation through the heart except
A. birds
B. mammals
C. amphibian’s
D. reptilians
E. * fish’s
1141.
Four chambered heart all of the animals have except
A. birds
B. mammals
C. crocodilians
D. humans
E. *fish
1142.
In which of the following animals the blood on ventricle is incompletely
oxygenated?
A. chicken
B. monkey
C. fish
D. man
E. * frog
1143.
In which of the following animals the ventricle is incompletely separated?
A. frog
B. chicken
C. monkey
D. fish
E. * snake
1144.
Arachnids have _________ pairs of legs.
A. three
B. six
C. eight
D. two
E. * four
1145.
Crustaceans have _________ pairs of antennae
A. four
B. three
C. one
D. eight
E. * two
1146.
Insects have _________ pairs of antennae:
A. four
B. three
C. eight
D. two
E. * one
1147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The members of the crustacean class are:
itch mite
house fly
fruit fly
mosquito
*crabs
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The representatives of the crustacean class are:
mosquito
itch mite
house fly
fruit fly
*cyclops
1148.
1149.
The members of the crustacean class are:
A. mosquito
B. itch mite
C. fruit fly
D. house fly
E. * crayfishes
1150.
Members of the insects class are:
A. itch mite
B. crayfishes
C. hard-bodied ticks
D. soft-bodied ticks
E. * mosquitoes
1151.
The _____________ go through a complete metamorphosis.
A. mites
B. ticks
C. spiders
D. lice
E. * mosquitoes
1152.
The _____________ go through a complete metamorphosis.
A. mites
B. ticks
C. spiders
D. lice
E. * fleas
1153.
The _____________ go through a complete metamorphosis.
A. mites
B. spiders
C. ticks
D. lice
E. * tsetse flies
1154.
The _____________ go through complete metamorphosis.
A. mites
B. lice
C. spiders
D. ticks
E. * flies
1155.
The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis.
A. mosquitoes
B. butterflies
C. fleas
D. flies
E. * lices
1156.
The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis.
A. mosquitoes
B. fleas
C. flies
D. butterflies
E. * ticks
1157.
During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through four stages.
A. incomplete
B. simple
C. immature
D. non of the above
E. * complete
1158.
Chitin can be found in:
A. glandular tissue
B. the muscle tissue of vertebrates
C. epithelial tissue of humans
D. non of the above
E. * exoskeleton of animals such as cockroaches and crabs
1159.
During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through three stages.
A. complete
B. full
C. mature
D. immature
E. * incomplete
1160.
The representatives of the arachnid class are:
A. crabs
B. mollusks (clams)
C. flies
D. mosquito
E. * spiders
1161.
The representatives of the arachnid class are:
A. crabs
B. house fly
C. fruit fly
D. mosquito
E. * itch mite
1162.
Members of the arachnid class are:
A. Black fly
B. Pediculus humanus capitis
C. Mosquito Anopheles
D. Glossina palpalis
E. * Ixodes persulcatus
1163.
Members of the insects class are:
A. hard-bodied ticks
B. itch mite
C. crayfishes
D. soft-bodied ticks
E. * fleas
1164.
Members of the insects class are:
A. hard-bodied ticks
B. itch mite
C. crayfishes
D. soft-bodied ticks
E. * lice
1165.
Members of the insects class are:
A. hard-bodied ticks
B. itch mite
C. crayfishes
D. soft-bodied ticks
E. * bugs
1166.
Representatives of the insects class are:
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes ricinus
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Ornithodorus papillipes
E. * Pediculus humanus capitis
1167.
Members of the insects class are:
A. Ixodes ricinus
B. Ixodes persulcatus
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Ornithodorus papillipes
E. * Pediculus humanus humanus
1168.
How many legs does an insect have?
A. four
B. three
C. eight
D. two
E. * six
1169.
How many pairs of legs does an insect have?
A. four
B. six
C. eight
D. two
E. * three
1170.
The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis.
A. mosquitoes
B. scorpions
C. fleas
D. flies
E. * lice
1171.
The _____________ go through incomplete metamorphosis.
A. mosquitoes
B. fleas
C. flies
D. bugs
E. * ticks
1172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Biotic factors in an ecosystem can include
sunlight
temperature
air pressure
wind
*animals
1173.
The interaction between two species in which one species benefits and the other
species is harmed is called:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism
C. competition
D. none of these
E. * parasitism
1174.
In a natural community, the primary consumers are:
A. carnivores
B. scavengers
C. decomposers
D. all of these
E. * herbivores
1175.
In contrast to a predator, a parasite usually ...
A. kills its host
B. is a short-term visitor
C. is larger than its host
D. does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives and is larger than its host.
E. * does not kill the animal on which or in which it lives
1176.
Air pollution ...
A. reduces visibility
B. corrodes buildings
C. causes various human diseases
D. damages plants
E. * all of these
1177.
The biomass of a community is the weight of the ...
A. material decomposed in a year
B. producers.
C. consumers.
D. decomposers
E. * living organisms
1178.
The interaction between two species in which both species may be harmed is
known as ...
A. mutualism
B. parasitism
C. commensalism
D. predation
E. * competition
1179.
The interaction between two species in which one species may be harmed is
known as ...
A. mutualism
B. commensalism
C. competition
D. symbiosis
E. * parasitism
1180.
The interaction between two species in which one specie may be harmed is known
as ...
A. mutualism
B. symbiosis
C. commensalism
D. competition.
E. * predation
1181.
The relationship between two species in which one species may is benefited and
the other is neither benefited or harmed is called:
A. mutualism
B. symbiosis
C. competition
D. predation
E. * commensalism
1182.
The relationship between two species in both members of the association benefit
is known as ...
A. symbiosis.
B. commensalism
C. competition
D. predation
E. * mutualism
1183.
A natural food web ...
A. contains only grazing food chains
B. is usually unstable
C. contains only grazing food chains and
D. All of these
E. * contains several trophic levels
contains several trophic levels
1184.
How do plants contribute to the carbon cycle?
A. When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere
B. When they photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
C. They do not contribute to the carbon cycle
D. All of these
E. * When they respire, they release CO2 into the atmosphere and when they
photosynthesize, they consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
1185.
How do nitrogen fixing bacteria contribute to the nitrogen cycle?
A. They return N2 to the atmosphere
B. They change ammonia to nitrate
C. They withdraw nitrate from the soil
D. All of these
E. * They change N2 to ammonia
1186.
Detritivores are:
A. bacteria
B. plants
C. fungi
D. animals
E. * both bacteria and fungi
1187.
The relationship between man and Plasmodium vivax is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1188.
The relationship between man and Toxoplasma gondii is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism.
1189.
The relationship between man and Plasmodium ovale is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1190.
The relationship between man and Plasmodium malariae is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1191.
The relationship between man and Plasmodium falciparum is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1192.
The relationship between man and Entamoeba hystolitica (forma magna) is
named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1193.
The relationship between man and Entamoeba hystolitica (forma minuta) is
named:
A. mutualism
B. parasitism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * commensalism
1194.
The relationship between man and Entamoeba coli is named:
A. mutualism
B. parasitism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * commensalism
1195.
The relationship between man and Trypanosoma brucei is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The relationship between man and Entamoeba gingivalis is named:
mutualism
parasitism.
competition
predation
*commensalism
1197.
The relationship between man and Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1198.
The relationship between man and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1199.
The relationship between man and Trypanosoma cruzi is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1200.
The relationship between man and Leishmania donovani is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1201.
The relationship between man and Leishmania infantum is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1202.
The relationship between man and Leishmania tropica major is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1203.
The relationship between man and Leishmania tropica minor is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1204.
The relationship between man and Leishmania mexicana is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1205.
The relationship between man and Leishmania peruviana is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1206.
The relationship between man and Leishmania brasiliense is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1207.
The relationship between man and Leishmania aethiopia is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1208.
The relationship between man and Trichomonas vaginalis is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1209.
The relationship between man and Lamblia intestinalis is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1210.
The relationship between man and Giardia lamblia is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
1211.
The relationship between man and Balantidium coli is named:
A. mutualism
B. commensalism.
C. competition
D. predation
E. * parasitism
Situational tasks. Module 3. Populanion-specific, biogeocenologic and biosphere’s levels of
life organization
1. 2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recipient has developed fever. What protozoal
disease can it be?
A. * Malaria
B. Amebiasis
C. Trypanosomiasis
D. Leishmaniasis
E. Toxoplasmosis
2. A 19-year old student has diarrhea with a mucous and blood. A protozoa with cilia were revealed
during laboratory analysis of feces. Indicate the most probable diagnosis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Amoebiasis
Toxoplasmosis
Cutaneus leishmaniasis
Malaria
* Balantidiasis
3. A 30-years-old male who is anaemic, cachexic and has hepatosplenomegaly accompanied
with fever, shows on a bone marrow smear many organisms within macrophages. These
organisms have a nucleus and a smaller but distinct kinetoplast. The likely diagnosis is:
A. African trypanosomiasis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Chagas’ disease
D. * Viasceral leishmaniasis
E. Malaria
4. ?A 4 year old child from South America has an erythematous nodule at the face, high
fever, unilateral swelling of the face whith edema of the eyelid, regional
lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly. What protozoan diseases can be possibility?
A. African trypanosomiasis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. * Chagas’ disease
D. Kala-azar
E. Malaria
5. A fever has developed in a patient two weeks after blood transfusion. What protozoan
disease should be considered?
A. Amoebiasis
B. * Malaria
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Lambliosis
6. A man, who came from Africa, with anemia and high temperature, passed a medical
examination. Young trophozoites were found in blood smears. What stage in life cycle of
plasmodium occurs in human body?
A. Exoerythrocytic schizogony
B. * Erythrocytic schizogony
C. Sporogony
D. Sporulation
E. Endohepatocytic schizogony
7. A patient with prolonged diarrhea undergoes esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Biopsy of
the small intestine demonstrates numerous crescent-shaped protozoa adjacent to the
epithelial brush border. Which of the following organisms is the most likely pathogen?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Escherichia coli
C. * Giardia lamblia
D. Trypanosoma gambiense
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
8. After initiation of specific treatment in malaria, how soon the patient’s symptoms abate:
A. Within 6 hours
B. * Within 24-48 hours
C. Within a week
D. Within a month
E. After one more febrile attack
9. Antelope has been brought to the Ukrainian zoo. Trypanosomes have been found in its
blood smears. What prophylactics measures shout be performed?
A. * Any prophylactics measures
B. Use insecticide
C. Isolation of animal
D. Extermination of animal
E. Boiling of water
10. Blood smears for suspected malaria should first be taken:
A. Just after the fever
B. Before the chills
C. * When the diagnosis is first suspected
D. At night
E. After splenomegaly
11. Entamoeba histolytica gains abscess to the liver via:
A. Limphatics
B. * Portal system
C. Arteria hepatica
D. Direct invation
E. Through perineural space
12. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “African trypanosomiasis
(sleeping sickness)”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. * Blood
B. Urine
C. Feces
D. Material from breastbone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
13. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a suggested diagnosis “malaria”. Which
material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. * Blood
B. Urine
C. Feces
D. Material from breast bone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
14. The partner of a patient who suffers from urogenital trichomoniasis be treated:
A. Only if symptomatic
B. Only if examination is positive
C. Only if asymptomatic
D. * Always be treatment
E. No need of treatment
15. What protozoan diseases is occurring widely in Central and South America, caused by
Trypanosoma cruzi and transmitted by the bites of bugs of the genus Triatoma?
A. African trypanosomiasis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. * Chagas’ disease
D. Kala-azar
E. Malaria
16. Which of the following is not true about common symptoms of malaria:
A. Anemia
B. Splenomegaly
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Fever
E. * Chorioretinitis
17. Which of the following is not true about falciparum malaria:
A. Central nervous system involvement is maximum
B. Duration of primary disease is 2-3 weeks
C. * Relapses are common
D. Periodicity of febrile paroxysms is 48 hours
E. It is tropical malaria
18. Which of the following is not true about West African trypanosomiasis:
A. Human are primary reservoirs
B. Minimal lymphadenopathy
C. * Low parasitemia
D. Fever
E. Illness is usually chronic
19. A man, who came from Africa, passed a medical examination. Eggs with lateral spine
were found in urine. Indicate the most probable diagnosis:
A. fascioliasis
B. paragonimiasis
C. chlonorchiasis
D. * shistosomiasis
E. opisthorchiasis
20. A patient complained about the weakness of decline of appetite, head pain, nausea, and
pain in a stomach. In blood found out anemia. A patient likes to use the dried fish. Oval,
gray (75-50mcm) eggs with an operculum (lid like opening) at one end, was finding in
the stool. What the most probable diagnosis:
A. Ascariasis
B. Paragonimiasis
C. Taeniasis
D. * Diphyllobothriasis.
E. Hydatid cyst disease
21. A family has a cat with Cat fluke. Can children be infected from this cat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
yes, by fascioliasis
yes, by paragonimiasis
yes, by shistosomiasis
yes, by opisthorchiasis
* no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae
22. A man has eaten an undercooked beef (liver contained Fasciola hepatica). Can this person be
infected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
yes, by fascioliasis
no, because infective stage for humans is metacercariae
no, because infective stage for humans is cercariae
yes, by opisthorchiasis
* no, because infective stage for humans is adolescariae
23. A man, who came from Africa, passed a medical examination. Eggs with lateral spine were found
in feces Indicate the most probable diagnosis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fascioliasis
paragonimiasis
chlonorchiasis
* shistosomiasis
opisthorchiasis
24. A man, who came from Far East, passed a medical examination. Eggs (0,1 mm, oval, goldenbrownish, operculated) were found in sputum. Indicate the most probable diagnosis:
A. fascioliasis
B. * paragonimiasis
C. chlonorchiasis
D. shistosomiasis
E. dicrocoeloasis
25. A man, who came from Siberia, passed a medical examination. Oval, yellow eggs 15-30
mcm in sizes,were found in stool. The outer membrane is thick, and there is a cover in
the front of the egg. The internal structure of the egg is microgranularl. Indicate the most
probable diagnosis:
A. fascioliasis
B. paragonimiasis
C. * opisthorhiasis
D. diphyllobothriasis.
E. Dicrocoeloasis
26. A patient complained about the weakness of decline of appetite, head pain, nausea, and
pain in a stomach. In blood found out anemia. A patient likes to use the dried fish.
Proglottids was finding in the stool. They are wider than they are long, and uterus is in
the form of a rosette. What the most probable diagnosis:
A. Ascariasis
B. Paragonimiasis
C. Taeniasis
D. * Diphyllobothriasis.
E. Hydatid cyst disease
27. ?A patient with anaemia, who came from Far East, passed a medical examination. Eggs,
oval, yellow-brown with an operculum (lidlike opening) at one end were found in stool.
Indicate the most probable diagnosis:
A. fascioliasis
B. paragonimiasis
C. chlonorchiasis
D. * diphyllobothriasis.
E. Dicrocoeloasis
28. A patient, passed a medical examination. Eggs 100-150mcm, with thin membrane,
yellow color and small cover in one pole were found in stool. Indicate the most probable
diagnosis
A. * fascioliasis
B. paragonimiasis
C. ascariasis
D. diphyllobothriasis.
E. taeniasis
29. A patient, with chronic cough and bloody sputum, passed a medical examination. Eggs,
oval, yellow-brown with an operculum (lid like opening) at one end were found in stool.
Indicate the most probable diagnosis:
A. fascioliasis
B. paragonimiasis
C. chlonorchiasis
D. * diphyllobothriasis.
E. Dicrocoeloasis
30. At microscopic research of feaces after degelmentisation found out the helmints of white
color with the segmented body, that have the appearance of filament long 1-2 sm. On a
scolex noticeable 4 suckers and circle of hooks. The width of segments exceeds length.
Name a possible helmint.
A. * Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Taenia saginata
D. Taenia solium
E. Echinococcus granulosus
31. At microscopic research of feaces after degelmentisation found out the helmintsof white
color with the segmented body, that have the appearance of filament long 1-2 sm. On a
scolex noticeable 4 suckers and circle of hooks. The width of segments exceeds length.
What the most probable diagnosis?
A. Taeniasis solium
B. Taeniasis saginata
C. Diphyllobothriasis.
D. * Hymenolepiasis
E. Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Disease
32. At microscopic research of feaces after degelmentisation found out the helmints of white
color with the segmented body, that have the appearance of filament 1-2 sm long. On a
scolex noticeable 4 suckers and circle of hooks. The width of segments exceeds length.
Name a possible helmint.
A. dog tapeworm
B. * dwarf tapeworm
C. fish tapeworm
D. beef tapeworm
E. pig tapeworm
33. At puncture cyst of liver of patient a transparent barely rather yellow matter is got. It
contains shallow as grains of sand educations. What the most probable diagnosis:
A. Ascariasis
B. Paragonimiasis
C. Taeniasis
D. Diphyllobothriasis.
E. * Hydatid cyst disease
34. During a medical examination patient’s feces, eggs with the 8-10 polar filaments lying between
the membrane of the 6-hooked larva and the outer shell were found. Indicate the most probable
diagnosis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Taeniasis solium
* Hymenolepiasis
Diphyllobotriasis
Unilocular Hydatid Cyst Disease
Fascioliasis
35. Indicate parasites which exist as separate sexes but live attached to each other (female resides in a
groove in the male, where he continuously fertilizes her eggs):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schistosoma haematobium
Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
36. Indicate parasites which exist as separate sexes but live attached to each other (female resides in a
groove in the male, where he continuously fertilizes her eggs):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schistosoma japonicum
Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Dicrocoelium lanceatum
37. Indicate parasites which exist as separate sexes but live attached to each other (female resides in a
groove in the male, where he continuously fertilizes her eggs):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Schistosoma mansoni
Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus westermani
Opisthorchis felineus
Clonorchis sinensis
38. Mature proglottids of what cestodes can actively crawl out of the human anus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Taenia solium
* Taenia saginata
Diphyllobotrium latum
Hymenolepis nana
E. Echinococcus multilocularis
39. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “urogenital
shistosomiasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. Blood
B. * Urine
C. Faeces
D. Material from breastbone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
40. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis
“hepatosplenicshistosomiasis”. Which material should be taken for laboratory
examination?
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. * Faeces
D. Material from breastbone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
41. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “taeniasis”. Which
material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. * Faeces
D. Material from breastbone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
42. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “fascioliasis”. Which
material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. * Faeces
D. Material from breastbone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
43. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “opisthorchiasis”.
Which material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. * Faeces
D. Material from breastbone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
44. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “diphyllobotriasis”.
Which material should be taken for laboratory examination?
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. * Faeces
D. Material from breastbone puncture
E. Material from lymph node puncture
45. Opistorchiasis diagnosed in a patient from Siberia. Usage of what food causes Biliary fluke
infection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* fish
crabs
snail
fruit
pork
46. Paragonimiasis was diagnosed in a patient from China. Usage of what food causes lung fluke
infection:
A. fish
B. * crabs
C. snail
D. fruit
E. pork
47. Sick woman, 26 years old, admited to the hospital with complaints about a weakness,
nausea, swelling of stomach, semi-fluid emptying once or twice on days. It is known
from anamnesis, that the sick must habit estimate taste qualities of the raw meat stuffing.
Put a previous diagnosis
A. Ascariasis
B. Paragonimiasis
C. * Taeniasis
D. Diphyllobothriasis.
E. Hydatid cyst disease
48. Sick woman, 26 years old, admited to the hospital with complaints about a weakness,
nausea, swelling of stomach, semi-fluid emptying once or twice on days. It is known
from anamnesis, that the sick must habit estimate taste qualities of the raw meat stuffing.
Name a helmint that entailed these symptoms
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. * Taenia solium
D. Echinococcus granulosus
E. Fasciola hepatica
49. Sick woman, 26 years old, admited to the hospital with complaints about a weakness,
nausea, swelling of stomach, semi-fluid emptying once or twice on days. It is known
from anamnesis, that the sick must habit estimate taste qualities of the raw meat stuffing.
Name a helmint that entailed these symptoms
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. * Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus granulosus
E. Fasciola hepatica
50. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a cysticercus in the brain
tissue. Indicate the most probable diagnosis
A. * Taeniasis
B. Opisthorchiasis
C. Diphyllobotriasis
D. Hymenolepiasis
E. Fascioliasis
51. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a hydatid cyst in the
brain tissue. Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism?
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Taenia saginata
C. Diphyllobotrium latum
D. Hymenolepis nana
E. * Echinococcus granulosus
52. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a hydatid cyst in the lung
tissue. Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism?
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Taenia saginata
C. Diphyllobotrium latum
D. Hymenolepis nana
E. * Echinococcus granulosus
53. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a hydatid cyst in the liver
tissue. Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism?
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Taenia saginata
C. Diphyllobotrium latum
D. Hymenolepis nana
E. * Echinococcus granulosus
54. The postmortem examination of a woman’s dead body revealed a cysticercus in the brain tissue.
Which of the helminthes parasitized in the woman’s organism?
A. * Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Diphyllobotrium latum
D. Hymenolepis nana
E. Echinococcus multilocularis
55. ?To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Fasciolasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Methacercaria
E. * Adult warm
56. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Taeniasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. * Plerocercoid
D. Cysticercus
E. Adult warm
57. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Diphyllobothriasis.. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. * Plerocercoid
D. Cysticercus
E. Adult warm
58. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Opisthorchiasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Cercaria
E. * Adult warm
59. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Dicrocoeloasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Cercaria
E. * Adult warm
60. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Paragonimiasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Cercaria
E. * Adult warm
61. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Shysthosomiasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Methacercaria
E. * Adult warm
62. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Clonorchiasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Methacercaria
E. * Adult warm
63. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Hymenolepiasis. What stage of
development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Methacercaria
E. * Adult warm
64. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Multilocular Hydatid Cyst. What
stage of development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. * Larva
D. Methacercaria
E. Adult warm
65. To the hospital a patient appealed with suspicion on Unilocular Hydatid Cyst. What stage
of development of parasite entailed this disease?
A. Egg
B. Procercoid
C. * Larva
D. Methacercaria
E. Adult warm
66. What kind of helminthiasis is characterised by the development of anemia?
A. * Teniasis solium
B. Cysticercosis
C. Taeniasis saginata
D. * Diphyllobothriasis
E. Fascioliasis
67. 10. Diagnosis of Enterobius vermicularis is best accomplished by:
A. stool exam
B. immunological test,
C. * “scotch tape test”,
D. blood film examination,
E. tissue biopsy
68. 11. Diagnosis of Trichinella spiralis is best accomplished by:
A. stool exam,
B. immunological test,
C. “scotch tape test”,
D. blood film examination,
E. * tissue biopsy
69. 12. Diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides is best accomplished by:
A. * stool exam
B. immunological test
C. “scotch tape test”
D. blood film examination
E. tissue biopsy
70. 13. Diagnosis of Trichuris trichiura is best accomplished by:
A. * stool exam
B. immunological test
C. “scotch tape test”
D. blood film examination
E. tissue biopsy
71. A host within which a parasite (such as a nematode) reaches sexual maturity and
reproduces is known as:
A. paratenic host
B. intermediate host
C. heteroxenous host
D. * definitive host
E. monoxenous host
72. A patient was admitted to the hospital and complained of muscle pain, fever, per orbital edema.
This patient ate undercooked pork some time before illness. Blood analysis had shown an
eosinophilia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ascariasis
* Trichinosis
Trichuriasis
Strongyloidiasis
Hookworm infection
73. Ascariasis was diagnosed in 8-years old child. Is this child epidemically dangerous for other
members of the family?
A. yes, because child spreads embryonated eggs
B. * no, because child spreads unembryonated eggs
C. yes, because child can pass adult worm to the other members of the family
D. yes, because child can pass larva to the other members of the family
E. no, because infected stage is larvae
74. Diagnosis of Enterobius vermicularis is best accomplished by:
A. stool exam
B. immunological test,
C. * non correct answer
D. blood film examination,
E. tissue biopsy
75. Diagnosis of pinworms is best accomplished by:
A. stool exam
B. immunological test
C. * “scotch tape test”
D. blood film examination
E. tissue biopsy
76. Diagnosis of Trichinella spiralis is best accomplished by:
A. stool exam,
B. finding of the parasite in the tunnels by a needle
C. “scotch tape test”,
D. blood film examination,
E. * serologic test
77. Diagnosis of Trichuris trichiura is best accomplished by:
A. * feces exam
B. immunological test
C. “scotch tape test”
D. blood film examination
E. tissue biopsy
78. Diagnosis of Trichuris trichiura is best accomplished by:
A. * non correct answer
B. immunological test
C. “scotch tape test”
D. blood film examination
E. tissue biopsy
79. In male nematodes, the alimentary and reproductive tracts join to form a:
A. cloaca
B. spicule
C. * bursa
D. amphid
E. no correct responses
80. In male nematodes, the alimentary and reproductive tracts join to form a:
A. cloaca
B. spicule
C. * bursa
D. no correct responses
E. amphid
81. In what time Ascaris lumbricoides eggs become invasive?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* 24 days
4 - 6 hours
7 days
an hour
3-5 month
82. In what time Enterobius vermicularis eggs become invasive?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
24 days
* 4 - 6 hours
7 days
an hour
5-6 months
83. Indicate the diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercoralis for humans:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* rhabditiform larva
egg
filariform larva
cercariae
gravid proglottid
84. Indicate the disease in which humans are accidental, dead-end hosts:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ascariasis
filariasis
loiasis
* visceral larva migrans
dracunculiasis
85. Indicate the helminth of class Nematoda which life cycle does not have migration of larvae?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ascaris lumbricoides
Strongyloides stercoralis
Ancylostoma duodenale
* Trichuris trichiura
Necator americanus
86. Indicate the helminthes in life cycle of which free-living form can be present?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. * Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Trichinella spiralis
87. Infection with which parasite would cause elasticity in human skeletal muscles?
A. * trichinella worm
B. tapeworm
C. copepod
D. blood fluke
E. whipworm
88. Infection with which parasite would cause elasticity in human skeletal muscles?
A. * trichinella spiralis
B. tapeworm
C. copepod
D. blood fluke
E. whipworm
89. Methods used for diagnosing ascariasis of human include:
A. urine exams
B. blood films
C. tissue biopsy
D. immunological tests
E. * fecal exams and immunological tests
90. Methods used for diagnosing ascariasis of human include:
A. urine exams
B. blood films
C. tissue biopsy
D. immunological tests
E. * finding larva in sputum
91. Of the following, which adult round worm is most frequently found in stool specimens?
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. * Necator americanus
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Enterobius vermicularis
92. Of the following, which adult round worm is most frequently found in stool specimens?
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. * Ancylostome duodenale
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Enterobius vermicularis
93. Of the following, which rhabditiform larvae is most frequently found in stool specimens?
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. * Ancylostome duodenale
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Enterobius vermicularis
94. One patient was admitted to the hospital with a previous diagnosis “enterobiasis”. What method
should be performed for laboratory examination?
A. blood microscopy
B. urine microscopy
C. feces microscopy
D. * “scotch tape” technique
E. examination of the cerebrospinal fluid
95. Organisms in which of the following phyla includes the flatworms?
A. Annelida
B. Arthropoda
C. Nematoda
D. * Platyhelminthes
E. None of the above
96. The eggs (brown, barrel-shaped with a plug at each end) were found during the feces microscopy
of one patient with diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea. Indicate the most probable diagnosis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cysticercosis
* Trichuriasis
Enterobiasis
Ascariasis
Diphyllobotriasis
97. The eggs (oval with an irregular surface) were found during the feces microscopy of one patient
with nausea, vomiting, blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Trichuriasis
B. Enterobiasis
C. * Ascariasis
D. Cysticercosis
E. Dicrocoeliasis
98. The human hookworm that consumes the most blood on a per nematode basis is:
A. * Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Trichinella spiralis
99. The larvae were found during the sputum microscopy of one patient with pneumonia, blood
analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable diagnosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Ascariasis
Enterobiasis
Trichuriasis
Cysticercosis
Diphyllobotriasis
100.
The larvae were found during the sputum microscopy of one patient with pneumonia,
blood analysis had shown an eosinophilia. Indicate the most probable diagnosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* non correct answer
Enterobiasis
Trichuriasis
Cysticercosis
Diphyllobotriasis
101.
The nematode Ascaris lumbricoides infects humans, spending most of its adult life inside
the intestines of its host. To be infected, a person must
* consume the nematode’s eggs.
walk barefoot on infested soil.
sit on an infested toilet seat.
drink water with cyclopes
All of the above
102.
The ova of this worm are described as being barrel-shaped with a hyaline plug at
each pole. They are 20-25 ?m in width by 50-55 ?m in length. They have a thick,
yellowbrown shell containing an undeveloped embryo. They are:
A. * Trichuris trichiura
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Ancylostome duodenale
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Enterobius vermicularis
103.
The ova of this worm are described as being barrel-shaped with a hyaline plug at
each pole. They are 20-25 ?m in width by 50-55 ?m in length. They have a thick,
yellowbrown shell containing an undeveloped embryo. They are:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostome duodenale
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Enterobius vermicularis
E. * No correct answer
104.
Which of the following diseases is caused by nematodes of the superfamily
Ascaridoidea:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
anisakiasis
lymphatic filariasis
* ascariasis
onchocerciasis
enterobiosis
105.
Which of the following diseases is caused by nematodes of the superfamily
Ascaridoidea:
A. anisakiasis
B. lymphatic filariasis
C. * non correct answer
D. onchocerciasis
E. enterobiosis
106.
You have a 6 years old patient, with cough, fever, chest pain, dispnea. He
complains also about abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting and anorexia. You consider it,
as beeing a parasitosis. What parasite are you thinking at?
A. Leishmania tropica
B. * Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Fasciola hepatica
E. Enterobius vermicularis
107.
You have a 6 years old patient, with cough, fever, chest pain, dispnea. He
complains also about abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting and anorexia. You consider it,
as beeing a parasitosis. What parasite are you thinking at?
A. Leishmania tropica
B. * Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Fasciola hepatica
E. Enterobius vermicularis
108.
You have a patient with dermatitis, nonspecific respiratory and abdominal
symptoms. You consider a parasitic etiology can be suspected. What parasite are you
thinking at?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. * Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Necator americanus
D. d Taenia solium
E. Fasciola hepatica
109.
You have a patient with dermatitis, nonspecific respiratory and abdominal
symptoms. You consider a parasitic etiology can be suspected. What parasite are you
thinking at?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. * Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Necator americanus
D. Taenia solium
E. Fasciola hepatica
110.
?You have a patient with edema, lymphangitis, lymphadenitis and elephantiasis.
What parasite can be the etiological agent?
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. * Wuchereria bancrofti
E. Loa loa
111.
You have a patient with edema, lymphangitis, lymphadenitis and elephantiasis.
What parasite can be the etiological agent?
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. * Brugia malayi
E. Loa loa
112.
You see a spindle-shaped worm that is smooth, covered by striated cuticle. What
phylum would you place it in?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Platyhelminthes
* Nematoda
Cestoda
Trematoda
Insecta
A presence of respiratory and circulatory systems distinguish the class
Cestoda
Trematoda
* Insecta
Nematoda
Lobosea
A presence of respiratory and circulatory systems distinguish the class
Cestoda
Trematoda
* Arachnida
Nematoda
Lobosea
115.
A presence of respiratory and circulatory systems distinguish in the class
A. Cestoda
B. Trematoda
C. * Cruastacea
D. Nematoda
E. Lobosea
116.
Adult make angle 45 ° to the surface, have yellowish brown color, one lobe with
continuous row of hairs, wings spotted specially the anterior margin
A. * Mosquito Anopheles
B. Mosquito Culex
C. Mosquito Aedes
D. Glossina palpalis
E. Deer fly
117.
Adult make angle 45 ° to the surface, have yellowish brown color, one lobe with
continuous row of hairs, wings spotted specially the anterior margin
A. * female Anopheles
B. Mosquito Culex
C. Mosquito Aedes
D. male Anopheles
E. Deer fly
118.
African trypanosomiasis can be transmitted through bite of
A. * Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans
B. Sand fly
C. bugs of genus Phlebotomus
D. Mosquito Anopheles
E. Musca domestica
119.
American trypanosomiasis can be transmitted through bite of
A. Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans
B. bugs of genus Phlebotomus
C. * bugs of genus Phlebotomus
D. Mosquito Anopheles
E. Musca domestica
120.
American trypanosomiasis can be transmitted through bite of
A. Glossina palpallis and Glossina morsitans
B. bugs of genus Phlebotomus
C. * non correct answer
D. Mosquito Anopheles
E. Musca domestica
121.
An insect’s legs and wings are attached to it’s
A. head
B. * thorax
C. abdomen
D. spiracles
E. both A and B
122.
Body (clothes) louse and crablouse are the members of order________
A. Siphonaptera.
B. Isoptera
C. * Anoplura
D. Hemiptera
E. Diptera
123.
crablouse are the members of order________
A. Siphonaptera.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Isoptera
* Anoplura
Hemiptera
Diptera
124.
crablouse are the members of order________
A. Siphonaptera.
B. Isoptera
C. * Anoplura
D. Hemiptera
E. Diptera
125.
During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through four stages
A. * complete
B. incomplete
C. all of the above
D. non of the above
E. simple
126.
During ____ metamorphosis, an insect’s life cycle passes through three stages
A. complete
B. incomplete
C. * simple
D. non of the above
E. full
127.
A. Eggs of ________ dark brown, slipper-shaped with air cells on either side, laid
singly, making geometric patterns
B. * Mosquito Anopheles
C. Mosquito Culex
D. Mosquito Aedes
E. Glossina palpalis
F. Deer fly
128.
Eggs of ________ yellowish, ovoid with one end broader laid in groups of 50 –
350 (egg raft)
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. * Mosquito Culex
C. Mosquito Aedes
D. Glossina palpalis
E. Black fly
129.
Having chelicerae, a body divided into an anterior cephalothorax and posterior
abdomen, and book lungs is characteristic of:
A. * arachnids
B. insects
C. millipedes
D. crustaceans
E. trilobites
130.
Head louse is the members of order________
A. Siphonaptera.
B. Isoptera
C. * non correct answer
D. Hemiptera
E. Diptera
131.
Head louse, body (clothes) louse and crablouse are the members of
order________
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Siphonaptera.
Isoptera
* Anoplura
Hemiptera
Diptera
132.
Head louse, body (clothes) louse and crablouse are the members of
order________
A. Siphonaptera.
B. Isoptera
C. * non correct answer
D. Hemiptera
E. Diptera
133.
How would you characterize the medical
importance of Fleas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
135.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
137.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
either temporary or permanent ectoparasites
* vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
causative agent of pediculosis
mechanical transmitters of protozoan infections
non of the above
In which class present respiratory and circulatory systems?
Cestoda
Trematoda
* Insecta
Nematoda
Lobosea
In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur?
America
* Equatorial Africa
Europe
Asia
Australia
In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur?
America
* Equatorial Africa
Europe
Asia
Australia
In which geographic area does sleeping sickness primarily occur?
America
* Africa
Europe
Asia
Australia
Kissing and bedbugs are a part of which group?
dragonfly group
bee/ant group
beetle group
* bug group
mosquito group
139.
Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent,
respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts, respiratory spiracles at the end of
respiratory siphon
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. * Mosquito Culex
C. Glossina palpalis
D. Deer fly
E. Black fly
140.
Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent,
respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts, respiratory spiracles at the end of
respiratory siphon
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. * non correct answer
C. Glossina palpalis
D. Deer fly
E. Black fly
141.
Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent,
respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts, respiratory spiracles at the end of
respiratory siphon
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. * non correct answer
C. Glossina palpalis
D. Deer fly
E. Black fly
142.
Mites and ticks differ from other arachnids by having
A. mandibles
B. two pairs of antennae
C. * a fused cephalotorax and abdomen
D. two pairs of legs
E. All of the above
143.
Name a species which lives in the hair follicles and wax glands of the human
forehead, nose, and chin, but usually cause no symptoms:
A. * Desmodex folliculorum
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. Ornithodorus papillipes
D. Acarus siro
E. Ixodes persulcatus
144.
Order Diptera is characterized by having:
A. 1 pair of wings
B. 2 pairs of wings
C. 3 pairs of wings
D. Mouthparts are sucking or piercing and sucking
E. * both B and D
145.
Paragonimiasis was diagnosed in a patient from China. Usage of what food
causes lung fluke infection:
A. fish
B. * crabs
C. mollusks (clams)
D. fruit
E. pork
146.
Paragonimiasis was diagnosed in a patient from China. Usage of what food
causes lung fluke infection:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fish
* non correct answer
mollusks (clams)
fruit
pork
147.
The immature form of an insect that undergoes incomplete metamorphosis is a
A. larva
B. pupa
C. caterpillar
D. * nymph
E. both A and B
148.
The immature form of an insect that undergoes incomplete metamorphosis is a
A. larva
B. pupa
C. caterpillar
D. * non correct answer
E. both A and B
149.
The immature stage of insects with wimple metamorphosis is often called a
A. chrysalis
B. larva
C. naupilus
D. * pupa
E. nymph
150.
The molting process in arthropods is known as
A. ecdysis
B. tagmatization
C. * metamorphosis
D. paedomorphosis
E. cephalization
151.
What diseases can be transmitted through bugs of genus Phlebotomus ?
A. * American trypanosomiasis
B. African trypanosomiasis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Onchocerciasis
E. Tularemia
152.
What diseases can be transmitted through Glossina morsitans?
A. American trypanosomiasis
B. African trypanosomiasis
C. * African trypanosomiasis
D. Tularemia
E. Onchocerciasis
153.
What diseases can be transmitted through Glossina palpallis and Glossina
morsitans?
A. American trypanosomiasis
B. African trypanosomiasis
C. * African trypanosomiasis
D. Tularemia
E. Onchocerciasis
154.
What parts of the human body are usually infested by itch mite?
A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms
B. armpits
C. groin and genitals
D. interdigital spaces
E. * All of the above
155.
What parts of the human body are usually not infested by follicular mite?
A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms
B. armpits
C. groin and genitals
D. interdigital spaces
E. * All of the above
156.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods?
A. jointed appendages
B. exoskeleton
C. * coelom
D. segmented body
E. All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods.
157.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods?
A. jointed appendages
B. exoskeleton
C. presence of respiratory system
D. segmented body
E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods.
158.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods?
A. jointed appendages
B. exoskeleton
C. A presence of circulatory system
D. segmented body
E. * All of the above are characteristic of the arthropods.
159.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B. * flies
C. fleas
D. bedbugs
E. crickets
160.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B. * mosquitous
C. fleas
D. bedbugs
E. crickets
161.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B. * sand flies
C. fleas
D. bedbugs
E. crickets
162.
While most insects have four wings, _______________ have only two.
A. termites
B. * Glossina palpalis
C. fleas
D. bedbugs
E. crickets
163.
A human population has a higher-than-usual percentage of individuals with a
genetic disease. The most likely explanation is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
gene flow
natural selection
* genetic drift
variation
all of these
164.
1. A plant breeder wishes to develop a variety of tomato in which most of the fruit
ripens in August. She selects against plants in her tomato population whose fruit ripens in
July and in September. This is a type of selection which is said to be
A. disruptive
B. directional
C. * stabilizing
D. sexual
E. natural
165.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of
recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed.
What is the concentration of the dominant allele in this population?
A. 0.3
B. * 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
166.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of
recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed.
What is the concentration of the recessive allele in this population?
A. 0.3
B. * 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
167.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of
recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed.
What is the concentration of the heterozygote in this population?
A. 0.3
B. * 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
168.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of
recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed.
What is the concentration of the dominant individuals in this population?
A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. * 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
169.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of
recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed.
What is the concentration of the dominant allele in this population?
A. 0.3
B. * 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
170.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of
recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed.
What is the concentration of the recessive allele in this population?
A. 0.3
B. * 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
171.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of
recessive alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed.
What is the concentration of the heterozygote in this population?
A. 0.3
B. * 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
172.
Assume that left-handedness is a recessive trait controlled by one pair of recessive
alleles. If 625 of 2,500 individuals in a sample of a population is left-handed. What is the
concentration of the dominant individuals in this population?
A. 0.3
B. 0.5
C. * 0.25
D. 0.0025
E. 0.75
173.
During a storm, two white-colored males and two white-colored females seagull
are blown 300 miles due West, to an isolated island. They reproduce and found a new
population. They cannot disperse back to the original habitat, nor can any new seagulls
cross to the new island. What is the new frequency of the recessive (m) allele?
A. * 1.0
B. 0.19
C. 0.0
D. 0.81
E. can’t tell from this data
174.
During a storm, two white-colored males and two white-colored females seagull
are blown 300 miles due West, to an isolated island. They reproduce and found a new
population. They cannot disperse back to the original habitat, nor can any new seagulls
cross to the new island. What is the new frequency of the recessive (m) allele?
A. * 1.0
B. 0.19
C. 0.0
D. 0.81
E. can’t tell from this data
175.
For a woman living in the United States, which genotype would be the most
advantageous to have?
A. homozygous for the sickle cell allele
B. heterozygous for the sickle cell allele
C. * homozygous for the normal hemoglobin allele
D. it doesn’t matter; all are equally advantageous
E. Non of the above
176.
frequency of the melanic (M) allele in each population?
A. 0.81
B.
C.
D.
E.
0.19
0.90
* 0.10
0.044
177.
frequency of the melanic (M) allele in each population?
A. 0.81
B. 0.19
C. 0.90
D. * 0.10
E. 0.044
178.
If evolution occurs, we would expect different biogeographical regions with
similar environments to
A. all contain the same mix of plants and animals
B. each have its own specific mix of plants and animals
C. have plants and animals that have similar adaptations
D. all of these
E. * each have its own specific mix of plants and animals and plants and animals that
have similar adaptations
179.
If gene frequencies in a gene pool remain the same generation after generation,
then the population is
A. not increasing in number
B. not undergoing migration
C. * in genetic equilibrium
D. very small in number
E. very large in number
180.
If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and
there is random mating with a large population. What is p for generation 0?
A. 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. * 0.6
E. 0.36
181.
If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and
there is random mating with a large population. What is q for generation 0?
A. 0.16
B. * 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.6
E. 0.36
182.
If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and
there is random mating with a large population. What is p for generation 0?
A. 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. * 0.6
E. 0.36
183.
If in generation 0, Dominant=0.36, Heterozygotes=0,48. Recessive=0.16 and
there is random mating with a large population. What is q for generation 0?
A. 0.16
B. * 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.6
E. 0.36
184.
10. If the incidence of sickle cell anemia (a recessive trait) in a population is 0.09,
what is the frequency of the gene for the trait?
A. 0.91
B. 0.18
C. 0.0009
D. 0.09
E. * 0.3
185.
If the incidence of sickle cell anemia (a recessive trait) in a population is 0.09,
what is the frequency of the gene for the trait?
A. 0.91
B. 0.18
C. 0.0009
D. 0.09
E. * 0.3
186.
If you know that the frequency of allele M is 0.2, according to the HardyWeinberg rule, the frequency of the genotype MN in the population should be
A. 0.16
B. * 0.32
C. 1
D. 0.64
E. 0.8
187.
In a hypothetical population of birds, the dominant beak colour is yellow. A
recessive allele for white beak colour occurs in a frequency of 0.35. What is the
genotypic frequency of the heterozygous condition?
A. 0. 65
B. * 0.46
C. 0.42
D. 0.13
E. 0.25
188.
In a hypothetical population of mice, the dominant fur colour is black. A
recessive allele for grey fur colour occurs with a frequency of 0.23. What is the frequency
of the homozygous dominant genotype?
A. * 0.59
B. 0.35
C. 0.05
D. 0.77
E. 0.25
189.
In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If
16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to
be heterozygous for this trait? ...
A. 0.6
B. 0.4
C. * 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.75
190.
In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If
16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to
be homozygous dominant for this trait? ...
A. 0.6
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. * 0.36
191.
In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If
16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to
be heterozygous for this trait? ...
A. 0.6
B. 0.4
C. * 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.75
192.
In Chihuahuas, being loud and obnoxious is dominant over calm and passive. If
16% of a population of feral Chihuahuas is quiet, what percentage would you expect to
be homozygous dominant for this trait? ...
A. 0.6
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. * 0.36
193.
In seedcracker finches in which small and large-billed birds specialize in cracking
soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds
becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate?
A. diversifying
B. * directional
C. stabilizing
D. sexual
E. no selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium
194.
In the upper side of the _______________ is the rounded tectum, which contains
nuclei that serve as centers for visual and auditory reflexes
A. deep primitive brain
B. "new" brain
C. cerebellum
D. medulla
E. * midbrain
195.
Over the course of the next 200 years, these Survivor Island gulls evolved mating
displays that differ from those of the parent population. When television producers
introduce the original Azores archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find
each other’s mating behavior objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of isolation
mechanism keeps the two species of gulls from interbreeding?
A. Mechanical Isolation
B. Temporal Isolation
C. Ecological Isolation
D. * Behavioral Isolation
E. None of the above
196.
Over the course of the next 200 years, these Survivor Island gulls evolved mating
displays that differ from those of the parent population. When television producers
introduce the original Azores archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find
each other’s mating behavior objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of isolation
mechanism keeps the two species of gulls from interbreeding?
A. Mechanical Isolation
B. Temporal Isolation
C. Ecological Isolation
D. * Behavioral Isolation
E. None of the above
197.
Over the time, Survivor Island gulls evolved mating displays that differ from
those of the parent population. When television producers introduce the original Azores
archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find each other’s mating behavior
objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of evolutionary event has occurred?
A. * allopatric speciation
B. cladogenesis
C. sympatric speciation
D. artificial selection
E. Non of the above
198.
Over the time, Survivor Island gulls evolved mating displays that differ from
those of the parent population. When television producers introduce the original Azores
archipelago gulls to the island, the two kinds of gulls find each other’s mating behavior
objectionable, and do not interbreed. What type of evolutionary event has occurred?
A. * allopatric speciation
B. cladogenesis
C. sympatric speciation
D. artificial selection
E. Non of the above
199.
populations is due to which evolutionary phenomenon?
A. Stabilizing selection
B. Mutation
C. * Founder Effect
D. Allopatric speciation
E. None of the Above
200.
populations is due to which evolutionary phenomenon?
A. Stabilizing selection
B. Mutation
C. * Founder Effect
D. Allopatric speciation
E. None of the Above
201.
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease in humans. Individuals homozygous for
the sickle cell allele (HbsHbs) generally do not survive to adulthood. In areas where
malaria is present, individuals heterozygous for the sickle cell (Hb+Hbs) allele have
higher fitness than individuals with normal hemoglobin (Hb+Hb+). What type of
evolutionary mechanism it is displays?
A. behavioral isolation
B. Temporal isolation
C. * balancing selection
D. allopatric speciation
E. Bottleneck Effect
202.
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease in humans. Individuals homozygous for
the sickle cell allele (HbsHbs) generally do not survive to adulthood. In areas where
malaria is present, individuals heterozygous for the sickle cell (Hb+Hbs) allele have
higher fitness than individuals with normal hemoglobin (Hb+Hb+). What type of
evolutionary mechanism it is displays?
A. behavioral isolation
B. Temporal isolation
C. * balancing selection
D. allopatric speciation
E. Bottleneck Effect
203.
Suppose a population of lemmings has a dominant gene for cliff-jumping, while
the recessive trait was watch-and-laugh. If 72 lemmings in a population of 450 have the
recessive trait, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?
A. 0.36
B. 0.40
C. * 0.6
D. 0.16
E. 0.25
204.
Suppose that in a population of rabbits there is a dominant gene for coarse fur and
a recessive gene for fine fur. If 1526 rabbits in a population of 6104 have the recessive
trait, what is the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype?
A. 0.05
B. 0.50
C. 0.75
D. 0.27
E. * 0.25
205.
The ability to taste the (phenylthiocarbamide) is determined -T, If you discover
that tt-36 %of the members of a population cannot taste PTC, then according to the
Hardy-Weinberg rule, the frequency of the T allele should be
A. * 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 0.6
D. 0.8
E. 0.25
206.
The continued occurrence of sickle-cell disease in parts of Africa with malaria is
due to
A. continual mutation
B. gene flow between populations
C. * fitness of the heterozygote
D. disruptive selection
E. All of these
207.
The genitalia of female species A unsuitable for male of species B. This is an
example of
A. sexual selection
B. * a prezygotic isolating mechanism
C. a postzygotic isolating mechanism
D. parthenogenesis
E. polyploidy
208.
The numerous vi r al and largely subconscious activities, such as heartbeat,
respiration, vasomotor tone, and swallowing are controlled by
A. deep primitive brain
B. "new" brain
C. cerebellum
D. * medulla
E. midbrain
209.
Two species of tree crickets live in a Costa Rican dry forest. Their habitats and
ranges overlap. The two species never interbreed because the calls of the males are
different and do not attract females of the other species. What type of isolation
mechanism it is displays?
A. * Behavioral
B. Temporal
C. Mechanical
D. Habitat
E. Hybrid sterility
210.
Two species of tree crickets live in a Costa Rican dry forest. Their habitats and
ranges overlap. The two species never interbreed because the calls of the males are
different and do not attract females of the other species. What type of isolation
mechanism it is displays?
A. * Behavioral
B. Temporal
C. Mechanical
D. Habitat
E. Hybrid sterility
211.
Use the following to answer this question 1.p 2.q 3.p2 4.q2 5.2pq
Which terms represent frequencies of genotypes?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2,4 and 5
D. * 3,4 and 5
E. 2,3 and 5
212.
Vital functions that are rem oved from conscious control: respiration, blood
pressure, heart rate, hunger, thirst, temperature balance, salt balance, sexual drive, and
basic (sometimes irrational) emotions are controlled by
A. * deep primitive brain
B. "new" brain
C. cerebellum
D. medulla
E. midbrain v
213.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency?
A. * 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.36
214.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the dominant genotype frequency?
A. 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. * 0.36
215.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the heterozygote genotype frequency?
A. 0.16
B. 0.4
C. * 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.36
216.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency?
A. * 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.36
217.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency?
A. * 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.36
218.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the dominant genotype frequency?
A. 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. * 0.36
219.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the heterozygote genotype frequency?
A. 0.16
B. 0.4
C. * 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.36
220.
We start with a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with a q of 0.4 and a p
of 0.6. What is the recessive genotype frequency?
A. * 0.16
B. 0.4
C. 0.48
D. 0.52
E. 0.36
221.
What is the concentration of the dominant allele in the population, which consists
of 36% homozygotes AA, 16% homozygotes aa, and 48% heterozygotes Aa
A. 0.4
B. * 0.6
C. 0.48
D. 0.69
E. 0.1
222.
What is the concentration of the dominant allele in the population, which consists
of 36% homozygotes AA, 16% homozygotes aa, and 48% heterozygotes Aa
A. 0.4
B. * 0.6
C. 0.48
D. 0.69
E. 0.1
223.
What is the percentage of people with curly hair on the head in the population,
where the concentration of the allele determining the straight hair on the head is 0.6?
A. 36
B. 84
C. * 48
D. 16
E. 100
224.
What is the percentage of people with curly hair on the head in the population,
where the concentration of the allele determining the straight hair on the head is 0.6?
A. 36
B. 84
C. * 48
D. 16
E. 100
225.
A process in which nitrogenous waste products or organic remains of organisms
are decomposed by soil bacteria and fungi that use the amino acids being released for
their own growth and release the excess as NH3 or NH4+ is
A. nitrification
B. * ammonification.
C. denitrification.
D. nitrogen fixation.
E. hydrogenation.
226.
?A student picked up 19 scallop shells on a Florida beach. She observed the
following numbers of ridges, from the lowest to the highest: 6, 6, 7, 7, 8, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11,
11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 12, 12, 13, 14. What is the median number of ridges?
A. 7
B. * 10
C. 11
D. 12
E. 9
227.
A student picked up 19 scallop shells on a Florida beach. She observed the
following numbers of ridges, from the lowest to the highest: 6, 6, 7, 7, 8, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11,
11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 12, 12, 13, 14. What is the mean number of ridges?
A. 9.0
B. 9.4
C. 9.7
D. 9.9
E. * 10.1
228.
A student picked up 19 scallop shells on a Florida beach. She observed the
following numbers of ridges, from the lowest to the highest: 6, 6, 7, 7, 8, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11,
11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 12, 12, 13, 14. What is the mean number of ridges?
A. 9.0
B. 9.4
C. 9.7
D. 9.9
E. * none of these
229.
Applying the ecological pyramid rule, detect how mach fox mass increased if
every day she eats 20 mouse’s (mass of one mouse is 10g). Mass of water in organisms is
70%
A. 2g
B. * 6g
C. 10g
D. 20g
E. 30g
230.
Consider the components of a food chain: producers > herbivores > carnivores >
top carnivores. Eventually what happens to all the energy passed from one element to the
next?
A. It recycles back to the producers
B. It results is a much larger decomposer population
C. * It is dissipated into the environment
D. It is recaptured by another food chain
E. It recycles back to the producers and It results is a much larger decomposer
population
231.
Enlargement of the thorax, raised level of metabolism, relative extremity
lengthening, increasing of the number of RBC are characterized for
A. * adaptive mountain human type
B. adaptive tropical human type
C. adaptive temperate human type
D. adaptive arctic human type
E. non of the above
232.
Foxes, frogs, snakes, hawks, and spiders are:
A. herbivores
B. * carnivores
C. decomposers
D. omnivores
E. producers
233.
Foxes, frogs, snakes, hawks, and spiders are:
A. herbivores
B. * secondary and tertiary consumers
C. decomposers
D. omnivores
E. producers
234.
Foxes, frogs, snakes, hawks, and spiders are:
A. herbivores
B. * none of these
C. decomposers
D. omnivores
E. producers
235.
Grasshoppers, mice, rabbits, deer, beavers, moose, cows, sheep, goats and
groundhogs are:
A. * herbivores
B. carnivores
C. decomposers
D. omnivores
E. producers
236.
Grasshoppers, mice, rabbits, deer, beavers, moose, cows, sheep, goats and
groundhogs are:
A. * primary consumers
B. carnivores
C. decomposers
D. omnivores
E. producers
237.
Grasshoppers, mice, rabbits, deer, beavers, moose, cows, sheep, goats and
groundhogs are:
A. * none of these
B. carnivores
C. decomposers
D. omnivores
E. producers
238.
?Herbivores are:
A. * primary consumers
B.
C.
D.
E.
secondary consumers
tertiary consumers
carnivores
decomposers
239.
High development of musculoskeletal system, large thorax, high blood
hemoglobin and cholesterol level are characterized for
A. adaptive mountain human
B. adaptive tropical human
C. adaptive temperate human type
D. * adaptive arctic human type
E. non of the above
240.
?In recent years there has been substantial concern about global warming, which
is caused to a great extent by the build-up of the heat-trapping gas
A. oxygen
B. nitrogen dioxide
C. sulfur dioxide
D. * carbon dioxide
E. Neon
241.
It is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together in a
close association. What is this?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. * Symbiosis
242.
It is a biological relationship in which two dissimilar organisms live together in a
close association. What is this?
A. Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. * None of these
243.
It is pictorial graph representing the biomass, organism number, or energy content
of each trophic level in a food web from the producer to the final consumer populations.
What is this?
A. food chain
B. chemical cycling
C. ecosystem
D. * ecological pyramid
E. energy flow
244.
It is pictorial graph representing the biomass, organism number, or energy content
of each trophic level in a food web from the producer to the final consumer populations.
What is this?
A. food chain
B. chemical cycling
C. ecosystem
D. * none of these
E. energy flow
245.
It is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms that
interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy
through them and the cycling of nutrients within them. What is this?
A. Ecology
B.
C.
D.
E.
Living component
Biosphere
* Ecosystem
physical surrounding
246.
It is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms that
interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy
through them and the cycling of nutrients within them. What is this?
A. Ecology
B. Living component
C. Biosphere
D. * None of these
E. physical surrounding
247.
It is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their
physical surrounding. What is this?
A. * Ecology
B. Biology
C. Biosphere
D. Ecosystem
E. Zoology
248.
It is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their
physical surrounding. What is this?
A. * None of these
B. Biology
C. Biosphere
D. Ecosystem
E. Zoology
249.
It occurs because all the energy content of organic food is eventually lost to the
environment as heat. It begins when producers absorb solar energy. What is this?
A. * energy flow
B. chemical cycling
C. ecosystem
D. ecological pyramid
E. food chain
250.
It occurs because all the energy content of organic food is eventually lost to the
environment as heat. It begins when producers absorb solar energy. What is this?
A. * none of these
B. chemical cycling
C. ecosystem
D. ecological pyramid
E. food chain
251.
Most of the carbon now present in the earth's atmosphere will eventually end up in
what two "holding stations"?
A. plants and animals
B. plants and decomposers
C. plants and soil
D. * plants and oceans
E. plants and fossil fuels
252.
One animal, the predator kills and eats another animal, the prey. What form of
interaction of biotic factors is this?
A. * Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
253.
One animal, the predator kills and eats another animal, the prey. What form of
interaction of biotic factors is this?
A. * None of these
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
254.
Primary consumers are:
A. * herbivores
B. secondary consumers
C. tertiary consumers
D. carnivores
E. decomposers
255.
There is a simple grassland food chain: mice-snakes-hawks. The hawk is a
________ and occupies the ________ trophic level
A. * tertiary consumer, fourth
B. secondary consumer, fourth
C. tertiary consumer, third
D. secondary consumer, third
E. primary consumer, third
256.
There is a simple grassland food chain: mosquito (male)-frog-snake-hawks. The
hawks is a ________ and occupies the ________ trophic level
A. tertiary consumer, fourth
B. * quatrain consumer, fifth
C. tertiary consumer, third
D. secondary consumer, third
E. primary consumer, third
257.
There is a simple grassland food chain: mosquito(male)-frog-snake-hawks. The
frog is a ________ and occupies the ________ trophic level
A. tertiary consumer, fourth
B. quatrain consumer, fifth
C. tertiary consumer, third
D. * secondary consumer, third
E. primary consumer, third
258.
There is a simple grassland food chain: mosquito(male)-frogs-snake-hawks. The
snail is a ________ and occupies the ________ trophic level
A. * tertiary consumer, fourth
B. secondary consumer, fourth
C. tertiary consumer, third
D. secondary consumer, third
E. primary consumer, third
259.
They are substances added to the environment, particularly by human activities,
that lead to undesirable effects for all living things. What are they?
A. * Pollutants
B. Land, water and air
C. Populations
D. Natural ecosystems
E. Industry and agriculture
260.
This is an academic discipline that deals with the association between humans and
their natural environment. What is this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Human ecology
Ecology
Biology
Medical biology
Medicine
261.
This is an academic discipline that deals with the association between humans and
their natural environment. What is this?
A. * None of these
B. Ecology
C. Biology
D. Medical biology
E. Medicine
262.
This is maximum amount of toxic substance in unit of volume or mass of water,
air or soil which does not have any influence to human health. What is this?
A. Hygiene standard
B. * Maximum permissible concentration
C. Maximum permissible level
D. Maximum permissible dose
E. None of these
263.
This is periodical or permanent influence of the environmental factor to human
organism which can not cause any diseases or changes in human health condition. What
is this?
A. Hygiene standard
B. Maximum permissible concentration
C. * Maximum permissible level
D. Maximum permissible dose
E. None of these
264.
This is the amount of toxic substance which penetrating in human organism does
not hurt it. What is this?
A. Hygiene standard
B. Maximum permissible concentration
C. Maximum permissible level
D. * Maximum permissible dose
E. None of these
265.
?This is the definite range of values of the environmental factor which is optimal
or is not dangerous for human health, activity and life. What is this?
A. * Hygiene standard
B. Maximum permissible concentration
C. Maximum permissible level
D. Maximum permissible dose
E. None of these
266.
What form of interaction of biotic factors is this when one animal, the predator
kills and eats another animal, the prey?
A. * Predation
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
267.
What form of interaction of biotic factors is this when one animal, the predator
kills and eats another animal, the prey?
A. * None of these
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalisms
E. Symbiosis
268.
What is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
that interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy
through them and the cycling of nutrients within them?
A. Ecology
B. Living component
C. Biosphere
D. * Ecosystem
E. physical surrounding
269.
What is the complex association of plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms
that interact with their nonliving environment in such way to regulate the flow of energy
through them and the cycling of nutrients within them?
A. Ecology
B. Living component
C. Biosphere
D. * None of these
E. physical surrounding
270.
What is the importance of acid rains?
A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has
negative influence to human organism
C. * they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
271.
What is the importance of acid rains?
A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has
negative influence to human organism
C. * none of these
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
272.
What is the importance of greenhouse effect?
A. it can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. * it is the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has
negative influence to human organism
C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
273.
What is the importance of greenhouse effect?
A. it can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. * none of these
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
What is the importance of heavy metals?
A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has
negative influence to human organism
C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. * lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
What is the importance of heavy metals?
A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has
negative influence to human organism
C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. * none of these
What is the importance of ozone hole?
A. * it can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. it is the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative
influence to human organism
C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
What is the importance of ozone hole?
A. * none of these
B. it is the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has negative
influence to human organism
C. it can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
What is the importance of photochemical fogs?
A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has
negative influence to human organism
C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. * it is the mixture of different gases that are wastes from the plants of chemical
industry and transport. It hurts human respiratory tracts and causes poisoning
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
279.
What is the importance of photochemical fogs?
A. they can pass ultraviolet rays that hurt human cells, cause mutations (e.g. cancer)
B. they are the increase of environmental temperature (global warming) that has
negative influence to human organism
C. they can hurt human respiratory tracts and skin, attack fruits and vegetables
D. * none of these
E. lead, mercury, manganese, zinc, chromium etc. – they are poisons that hurt all
organs and central nervous system in human organism, cause pathological
changes in them
280.
What is the study of the interactions of organisms with one another and with their
physical surrounding?
A. * Ecology
B. Biology
C. Biosphere
D. Ecosystem
E. Zoology
281.
Which of the following combinations of organisms could be expected to survive
in isolation from other forms of life available?
A. * producers and decomposers
B. producers and carnivores
C. carnivores and decomposers
D. herbivores, carnivores, and decomposers
E. producers and omnivores
282.
Which statement is true concerning this food chain: grass > rabbits > snakes >
hawks?
A. Each predator population has a greater biomass than its prey population
B. * Each prey population has a greater biomass than its predator population
C. Each population is omnivorous
D. Each predator population has a greater biomass than its prey population and each
population is omnivorous
E. All of the above
283.
Who are autotrophic organisms with the capability of carrying on photosynthesis
and making food for themselves (green plants on land and algae in water).
A. * Producers
B. Consumers
C. Herbivores
D. Carnivores
E. Decomposers
284.
Who are autotrophic organisms with the capability of carrying on photosynthesis
and making food for themselves (green plants on land and algae in water).
A. * None of these
B. Consumers
C. Herbivores
D. Carnivores
E. Decomposers
Tests. Module 3. Populanion-specific, biogeocenologic and biosphere’s levels of life
organization
1.What parasite is on this picture? Рис.Fig.10
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. *Balantidium coli
D. Lamblia intestinalis
E. Entаmoeba coli
2.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.11
A. Lamblia intestinalis
B. Balantidium coli
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. * Entamoeba histolytica
E. Trypanosoma cruzi
3.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.11
A. *Entamoeba histolytica forma magna
B. Entamoeba histolytica forma minuta
C. Entаmoeba coli
D. Entamoeba histolytica cyst
E. Entаmoeba coli cyst
4.What parasite cyst is on this picture?
рис.Fig.7.
A. *Lamblia intestinalis
B. Balantidium coli
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. Entаmoeba coli
5.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.12.
A. *Leishmania donovani
B. Balantidium coli
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. Entаmoeba coli
6.What parasite can cause skin ulcer? рис.Fig.9.
A. Leishmania donovani
B. *Leishmania tropica major
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. Entаmoeba coli
7.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.12.
A. Entаmoeba coli
B. Balantidium coli
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. *no correct answer
8.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.13.
A. Entаmoeba coli
B. Balantidium coli
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. *no correct answer
9.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.13.
A. Entаmoeba coli
B. Balantidium coli
C. *Plasmodium falciparum
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. Lamblia intestinalis
10.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.14.
A. Entаmoeba coli
B. Balantidium coli
C. *Toxoplasma gondii
D. Leishmania donovani
E. Lamblia intestinalis
11.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.15.
A. *Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Leishmania donovani
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Trypanosoma infantum
E. Toxoplasma gondii
12.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.16.
A. Leishmania donovani
B. *Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. no correct answer
13.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 1:
рис.Fig.5
A. undulating membrane
B. *flagellum
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. nucleus
14.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 2:
рис.Fig.5
A. *undulating membrane
B. flagellum
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. nucleus
15.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 1:
рис.Fig.5
A. undulating membrane
B. *flagellum
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. nucleus
16.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 2:
рис.Fig.5
A. *undulating membrane
B. flagellum
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. nucleus
17.Using the picture of Trichomonas vaginalis determine what is marked № 3:
рис.Fig.5
A. no correct answer
B. flagellum
C. *axostyle
D. endoplasm
E. nucleus
18.Using the picture of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense determine what is marked
№ 1: рис.Fig.4
A. undulating membrane
B. nucleus
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. *flagellum
19.Using the picture of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense determine what is marked
№ 2: рис.Fig.4
A. undulating membrane
B. *nucleus
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. flagellum
20.Using the picture of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense determine what is marked
№ 3 рис.Fig.4:
A. *undulating membrane
B. nucleus
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. no correct answer
21.Using the picture of Lamblia intestinalis determine what is marked № 1:
рис.Fig.62
A. cilia
B. *nuclei
C. axostyle
D. ectoplasm
E. no correct answer
22.Using the picture of Lamblia intestinalis determine what is marked by number 2
on Fig.3?
A. cilia
B. food vacuoles
C. *nucleus
D. ectoplasm
E. no correct answer
23.Using the picture of Lamblia intestinalis determine what is marked № 3: :
рис.Fig.3
A. cilia
B. pseudopodia
C. *flagella
D. nucleus
E. no correct answer
24.Using the picture of Leishmania tropica determine what is marked № 1:
рис.Fig.2
A. cilia
B. pseudopodia
C. food vacuoles
D. *nucleus
E. no correct answer
25.Using the picture of Leishmania tropica determine what is marked № 3:
рис.Fig.2
A. cilia
B. pseudopodia
C. *flagellum
D. no correct answer
E. axostyle
26.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.52.
A. mosquitoe
B. *tick
C. flea
D. flays
E. bug
27.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.52
A. *Ixodes ricinus
B. Desmodex folliculorum
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Ornithodorus papillipes
E. Mosquito Anopheles
28.Which memmber of archinid class is on this picture? рис.Fig.55
A. Tick
B. Desmodex folliculorum
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. *Cyclop
E. Mosquito Anopheles
29.How many body parts does this insect have? рис.Fig.51
A. four
B. three
C. *six
D. eight
E. two
30.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.52.
A. Ornithodorus papillipes
B. Dermacentor pictus
C. Pediculus humanus capitis
D. Ixodes persulcatus
E. *Pulex irritans
31.Larva hang by siphonal tube angle to water surface, palmate hairs absent,
respiratory siphon long and narrow with 4 hair tufts. What parasite is on this
picture? рис.Fig.49
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. *Mosquito Culex
C. Glossina palpalis
D. Deer fly
E. Black fly
32.Life cycle of which insecta can you see on this picture? рис.Fig.54
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. *Mosquito Culex
C. Glossina palpalis
D. Ixodes ricinus
E. Ornithodorus papillipes
33.Life cycle of which insecta can you see on this picture? рис.Fig.53
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. Mosquito Culex
C. Glossina palpalis
D. *Ixodes ricinus
E. Ornithodorus papillipes
34.Life cycle of which insecta can you see on this picture? рис.Fig.59
A. Mosquito Anopheles
B. *Pulex irritans
C. Mosquito Culex
D. Ixodes ricinus
E. Ornithodorus papillipes
35.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.60.
A. Ornithodorus papillipes
B. *Sarcoptes scabiei
C. Pediculus humanus capitis
D. Ixodes persulcatus
E. Pulex irritans
36.What is medical importance of this mite рис.Fig.60
A. causative agent of myiasis
B. temporary ectoparasite
C. *causative agent of scabies
D. causative agent of pediculosis
E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan
37.What parts of the human body are usually infested by this mite? рис.Fig.60.
A. flexor surfaces of wrists and forearms
B. armpits
C. groin and genitals
D. interdigital spaces
E. *All of the above
38.Egg of what parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.56.
A. *Mosquito Anopheles
B. Mosquito Culex
C. Pulex irritans
D. Ixodes ricinus
E. Ornithodorus papillipes
39.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.57.
A. *Cimex lectularius
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. Pediculus humanus capitis
D. Ixodes persulcatus
E. Pulex irritans
40.Indicate medical importance of this Crustacea. рис.Fig.57
A. *They are intermediate hosts of the fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum) and
Dracunculus medinensis.
B. They are intermediate hosts of the lung fluke (Paragonimus westermani)
C. They are intermediate hosts of the beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata)
D. They are intermediate host of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium)
E. Non of the above
41.Using the picture of life cycle of Ixodes ricinus determine what is marked № 4:
рис.Fig.53
A. *adult tick
B. cysticercy
C. nymph
D. pupa
E. egg
42.Using the picture of life cycle of Ixodes ricinus determine what is marked № 3:
рис.Fig.53
A. adult tick
B. mite
C. *nymph
D. pupa
E. egg
43.Using the picture of life cycle of Mosquito Culex determine what is marked № 3:
рис.Fig.54
A. adult mosquito
B. larva
C. nymph
D. *pupa
E. egg
44.Using the picture of life cycle of Mosquito Culex determine what is marked № 2:
рис.Fig.54
A. adult mosquito
B. *larva
C. nymph
D. pupa
E. egg
45.What is medical importance of this bug рис.Fig.57
A. permanent ectoparsite
B. *temporary ectoparasite
C. vector of plague caused by Yersinia pestis
D. causative agent of pediculosis
E. mechanical transmitters of protozoan
46.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.25
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Opisthorchis felineus
E. *Clonorchis sinensis
47.What parasite scolex is on this picture? рис.Fig.28
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. *Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Fasciola hepatica
E. Clonorchis sinensis
48.What do you see on this picture? рис.Fig.24
A. Mature proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Mature proglottid of Taenia solium
C. Immature proglottid of Taenia saginata
D. Immature proglottid of Taenia solium
E. *Mature proglottid of Taenia saginata
49.What do you see on this picture? рис.Fig.19
A. Mature proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Mature proglottid of Taenia solium
C. Immature proglottid of Taenia saginata
D. Immature proglottid of Taenia solium
E. *Mature proglottid of Taenia saginata
50.What do you see on this picture? рис.Fig.20
A. Mature proglottid of Diphyllobotrium latum
B. *Mature proglottid of Taenia solium
C. Immature proglottid of Taenia saginata
D. Immature proglottid of Taenia solium
E. Mature proglottid of Taenia saginata
51.What parasite proglottids are on this picture? рис.Fig.23
A. *Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. Echinococcus granulosus
52.Using this picture of types helminthes csolexes determine what parasite scolex is
marked A? рис. Fig.27
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. *Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. Echinococcus granulosus
53.Using this picture of types helminthes csolexes determine what parasite scolex is
marked Б ? рис.Fig.27
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. *Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. Echinococcus granulosus
54.Using this picture of types helminthes scolexes determine what parasite scolex is
marked B (Fig.27)?
A. *Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. Echinococcus granulosus
55.Using this picture of types helminthes proglottids determine what parasite
segment is marked Б ? рис.Fig.18
A. *Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. Echinococcus granulosus
56.Using this picture of types helminthes proglottids determine what parasite
segment is marked A ? рис.Fig.18
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. *Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus multilocularis
E. Echinococcus granulosus
57.What parasite proglottids are on this picture? рис.Fig.21
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. *Hymenolepis nana
E. Echinococcus granulosus
58.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.26
A. Diphyllobotrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. *Hymenolepis nana
E. Echinococcus granulosus
59.What parasite life cycle is on this picture? рис.Fig.32
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. *Fasciola hepatica
E. Clonorchis sinensis
60.What parasite life cycle is on this picture? рис.Fig.30
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Fasciola hepatica
E. *Opisthorchis felineus
61.What parasite life cycle is on this picture? рис.Fig.33
A. *Hymenolepis nana
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Fasciola hepatica
E. Clonorchis sinensis
62.What parasite mouth cavity is on this picture? рис.Fig.40
A. Necator americanus
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. *Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Loa loa
E. Trichinella spiralis
63.What parasite mouth cavity is on this picture? рис.Fig.47
A. *Necator americanus
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Loa loa
E. Trichinella spiralis
64.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.38
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. *Loa loa
E. Trichinella spiralis
65.What parasite egg is on this picture?
рис.Fig.45
A. *Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Trichinella spiralis
66.What parasite egg is on this picture?
рис.Fig.46
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. *Trichuris trichiura
E. Trichinella spiralis
67.What parasite does cause of disease on this picture? рис.Fig.36
A. Dracunculus medinensis
B. *Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Loa loa
E. Trichinella spiralis
68.What parasite does cause of disease on this picture? рис.Fig.37
A. *Dracunculus medinensis
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Loa loa
E. Trichinella spiralis
69.What parasite is on this picture? рис.Fig.42
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. *Enterobius vermicularis
E. Trichinella spiralis
70.What parasite larva is on this picture? рис.Fig.43
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. *Trichinella spiralis