Download 5.4.14 final exam review

Leader: Elizabeth
Course: Biology 211
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Instructor: Dr. Deitloff
Date: 5/4/14
Final Exam: New Material- 90 points, chapters 25, 54-59, guest speaker
Cumulative Material- 30 points
Total of 60 questions- 2 points each
New Material
1. The number of tree species on campus is an example of
a. Species abundance
b. Species Richness
c. Relative Abundance
d. Relative Richness
2. The similarity of bees and wasps is an example of
a. Cryptic coloration
b. Batesian Mimicry
c. Mullerian Mimicry
d. Character displacement
3. Mycorrhizae are an example of
a. Commensalism
b. Parasitism
c. Mutualism
d. Herbivory
4. The packs of wolves in Yellowstone National Park would be what kind of distribution
pattern?
a. Random
b. Uniform
c. Clustered
d. Clumped
5. Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain
nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known
benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions
between dwarf mistletoes and trees?
a. Competition
b. Mutualism
c. Parasitism
d. Commensalism
6. Which of the following is not an abiotic factor that shapes ecosystems?
a. Soil minerals
b. Predators
c. Fire
d. Rainfall
7. Cryptic coloration could be renamed
a. Batesian mimicry
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b. Camouflage
c. Mullarian Mimicry
d. You can’t see me
8. A population in an area plus the abiotic elements compose the
a. Community
b. Biosphere
c. Ecosystem
d. Population
9. If the birth rate is higher than the death rate
a. The population will remain the same
b. The population will increase
c. The population will decrease
d. Not enough information
10. Assemblage if populations of different species is considered to be a _______
a. Community
b. Ecosystem
c. Population
d. Organism
11. A population is
a. A group of individuals if the same species that live in the same area
b. A group of individuals that are genetically similar
c. A single individual within a group of individuals that live in the same area
d. A group of individuals that have become isolated over time
12. Which of the following is an example of microevolution
a. Formation of a new species
b. Crossing over in meiosis
c. Asexual reproduction
d. Cloning
13. Which of the following is the most important factor in the distribution of organisms in the
environment?
a. Light
b. Temperature
c. Salinity
d. Water availability
14. An examination of the temperature tolerances of locusts would be best described by
which ecological sub discipline?
a. Organismal ecology
b. Population ecology
c. Community ecology
d. Ecosystem ecology
15. Which distribution pattern does territoriality produce?
a. Random
b. Uniform
c. Clumped
d. None of the above
16. The number of individuals per unit area determines a populations
a. Survivorship
b. Mortality
c. Niche
d. Density
17. In the equation for biotic potential (dN/dt =rN) what does N stand for?
a. The carrying capacity of the environment
b. The change in time
c. The population size
d. The intrinsic rate of natural increase of the population
18. Which of these is not a density-dependent factor that could act to limit the population
growth as population size increases?
a. Waste accumulation
b. Fire
c. Inhibitory pheromones
d. Lowered immune function due to stress
19. Clumped patterns of dispersion are indicative of an environment in which resources are
unevenly distributed
a. True
b. False
20. Parents feeding chicks in a nest is a(n):
a. Innate behavior
b. FAP
c. Classical conditioning
d. Operant behavior
21. The behavior of a Cuckoo newborn pushing eggs and young chicks out of a nest is an
example of:
a. Habituation
b. FAP
c. Classical conditioning
d. Operant behavior
22. Certain organisms have a limited time window when a behavior such as speech
production, can be learned. This critical period is known as
a. Habituation
b. Associative learning
c. Imprinting
d. Maturation
23. A cuckoo may lay its eggs in a warbler’s nest. The cuckoo’s young will displace the
warbler’s young and will be raised by the warbler. This is an example of
a. Commensalism
b. Mutualism
c. Parasitism
d. Herbivory
24. Ostriches and gazelles feed next to each other. They both watch for predators and
alert each other to danger. Since the visual abilities of the two species are different,
they each can identify threats the other animal would not as readily see. This is an
example of
a. Commensalism
b. Mutualism
c. Parasitism
d. Herbivory
25. Why doesn’t an area, such as tundra, support the area hypothesis for latitudinal gradient?
a. The tundra is a large area with high species richness
b. The tundra is a large area with low species richness
c. The tundra is a small area with high species richness
d. The tundra is a small area with low species richness
26. Which of these is not an example of a disturbance?
a. Fires
b. Flood
c. Volcanic activity
d. Humans
e. All of the above are examples of disturbances
27. This characterizes a species based on the separate evolution of its lineages
a. Molecular species concept
b. Ecological species concept
c. Evolutionary lineage concept
d. Morphological species concept
28. Which of the following is not a type of postzygotic isolating mechanism?
a. Hybrid instability
b. Hybrid sterility
c. Hybrid breakdown
d. Hybrid infertility
29. Which of the following is not a way that prezygotic isolating mechanisms can function?
a. Prevent fertilization
b. Impede members of different species from attempting to mate
c. Prevent attempted mating from being completed successfully
d. All of the above are true of prezygotic isolating mechanisms
30. A skunk has bright white stripes that can be identified by predators to notify them of the
skunk’s noxious smell. This is an example of:
a. Mimicry
b. Camouflage
c. Aposematism
d. Predator-prey relationships
31. Some small fish feed off parasites that are attached to large fish. They also each other fish
though. What type of mutualism is this?
a. Obligatory mutualism
b. Facultative mutualism
c. Dispersive mutualism
d. Food mutualism
32. What type of relationship does the human bot fly have with humans?
a. Parasitism
b. Competition
c. Mutualism
d. Ammensalism
33. What defenses do plants use against herbivores?
a. Chemical and aposematic coloration
b. Cryptic coloration and poison
c. Armor and mechanical
d. Chemical and mechanical
34. Which of these is not a density independent factor that affects population size?
a. Fire
b. Drought
c. Famine
d. Predation
35. Which of the following would be considered an example of a postzygotic isolating
mechanism?
a. Different mating seasons
b. Incompatible gametes
c. Mountain range separating two populations
d. Fertilized egg fails to develop normally
36. Certain behaviors seem to have very little environmental influences. Such behaviors are
the same in all individuals regardless of the environment and are referred to as _______
behaviors.
a. Genetically programmed
b. Instinctual
c. Innate
d. All of the above
37. Patrick has decided to teach his puppy a few new tricks. Each time the puppy responds
correctly to Patrick’s command, the puppy is given a treat. This is an example of
a. Habituation
b. Classical conditioning
c. Operant conditioning
d. Imprinting
38. The modification off behavior based on prior experiences is called
a. A fixed action pattern
b. Learning
c. Adjustment behavior
d. Habituation
39. When an individual behaves in a way that reduces its own fitness but increases the fitness
of others, the organism is exhibiting
a. Kin selection
b. Group selection
c. Altruism
d. Selfishness
40. Which of the following statements best represents the productivity hypothesis regarding
species richness?
a. The larger the area, the greater the number of species that will be found there.
b. Temperate regions have a lower species richness due to the lack of time available
for migration after the last ice age.
c. The number of species in a particular community is directly related to the amount
of available energy.
d. Species richness is not related to primary productivity.
41. When considering the average food chain, which of the following statements is true?
a. Secondary consumers are the most abundant organisms in the ecosystem.
b. The more lengths in the food chain, the more stable the ecosystem.
c. Biomass increases as you move up the food chain.
d. The trophic level with the highest species abundance is usually the primary
producers.
e. All of the above are true.
Cumulative Questions
42. If a red flower pollinates a white flower and produces pink flowered offspring, what
inheritance pattern occurred?
a. Complete Dominance
b. Codominance
c. Polygenetic Inheritance
d. Incomplete dominance
43. Which of the following is NOT a trait possessed by chordates?
a. Notochord
b. Vertebral Column
c. Muscular, post anal tail
d. Pharyngeal slits
44. The fusion of two compatible mycelia is called
a. Karyogamy
b. Mitosis
c. Fertilization
d. Plasmogamy
45. A plant embryo and nutrients inside a protective coat is called
a. A spore
b. A protonema
c. A seed
d. Vascular tissue
46. Which of the following increases genetic diversity?
a. Synapsis
b. Mitosis
c. Asexual reproduction
d. Crossing over
47. Meiosis results in the production of __________ daughter cells
a. 4 unique haploid
b. 4 identical haploid
c. 2 identical haploid
d. 4 unique diploid
48. Chromosomes with the same centromere position, staining pattern and length are called
a. Autosomes
b. Homologs
c. Genes
d. Gametes
49. Which of the following is the unit of evolution? In other words, which of the following
can evolve in the Darwinian sense?
a. Gene
b. Chromosome
c. Individual
d. Population
50. Which is not a characteristic of a hypothesis?
a. It is falsifiable.
b. It is testable.
c. It is a prediction.
d. It is always correct.
51. Which describes a theory?
a. It is a fact accepted by scientists.
b. It can never be proven true.
c. It is not supported well by evidence.
d. A phylogenetic tress is a theory.
52. _________ is a change in frequency of genes in a natural population
a. Mutations
b. Descent with Modification
c. Evolution
d. Adaptation
53. Which of the following is a characteristic of Prokaryotes, but NOT Eukaryotes
a. They have DNA
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have ribosomes
d. They do not have organelles
54. According to recent molecular data, Area are most closely related to
a. Bacteria
b. Eukarya
55. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation for plants to move into terrestrial
environments?
a. Vascular tissue
b. Alteration of generations
c. Seeds
d. Flower and fruits
e. None of the above are adaptations of plants to move to land
f. All of the above are adaptations of plants to move to land
56. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of animals to move into terrestrial
environments?
a. Aerobic cellular respiration
b. Respiratory systems improved for extracting oxygen from atmosphere
c. Resistance to desiccation
d. Modifications to limbs or appendages for movement on land
e. None of the above are adaptations of animals to move to land
f. All of the above are adaptations of animals to move to land
57. The gametophyte generation of plants produces ___________ and is ___________________
a. Gametes, diploid
b. Gametes, haploid
c. Spores, diploid
d. Spores, haploid
58. The sporophyte generation of plants is ____________________ and produces______________
a. Diploid, gametes
b. Haploid, gametes
c. Diploid, spores
d. Haploid, spores
59. Photosynthetic organisms belong in which of the following groups?
a. Bacteria
b. Protista
c. Plantae
d. Fungi
e. A, B and C only
f. All of the above
60. If a diploid cell undergoes ____________________ the resulting cells are haploid
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cell Cycle
d. Cancer
61. Homologous chromosomes for a tetrad and line up at the metaphase plate during
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis I
c. Meiosis II
d. Cell Cycle
62. Genetic diversity increases due to which of the following processes?
a. Sexual reproduction
b. Crossing over
c. Independent assortment during meiosis
d. Chromosomes segregation during meiosis
e. A,B,C only
f. All of the above
63. An alternative version of a gene is called __________________________________
a. A loci
b. An allele
c. Codominance
d. A sex chromosome
64. The theory of biological evolution describes _________________________________
a. How the universe began
b. How organisms have diversified from the first living organisms to the
diversity of life we see today
c. How life began
d. A and B only
e. A and C only
f. B and C only
g. All of the above
h. None of the above
65. According to the phylogenetic tree, which group of plants is most closely related to
flowering plants?
a. Conifers and Gnetophytes
b. Ginkgo
c. Cycads
d. Pteridophytes
e. A, B, and C and equally related to flowering plants
66. Within Protostomia, invertebrates are divided into two groups _______________________
and _______________________
a. Radiata and Bilatera
b. Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa
c. Parazoa and Eumetazoa
d. Protostomia and Deuterostomia
67. Reptiles are a __________________________ group
a. Monophyletic
b. Paraphyletic
c. Polyphyletic
68. _______________ describes an evolutionary process whereby bacterial genes can be
incorporated into the DNA material of another bacteria and eukaryote
a. Vertical gene transfer
b. Horizontal gene transfer
c. Natural Selection
d. Genetic Drift
69. ______________ describes an evolutionary process whereby parent pass genetic
material onto their offspring
a. Vertical gene transfer
b. Horizontal gene transfer
c. Natural Selection
d. Genetic Drift
70. ___________ describes an evolutionary process whereby allele frequencies within a
population change randomly
a. Vertical gene transfer
b. Horizontal gene transfer
c. Natural Selection
d. Genetic Drift
71. ____________ describes an evolutionary process whereby allele frequencies within a
population change due to some alleles having differential survival and reproductive
success
a. Vertical gene transfer
b. Horizontal gene transfer
c. Natural Selection
d. Genetic Drift