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SERIES, PART 1 The idea of a series is to make sense of summing an in…nite sequence of numbers. Let fan g be a sequence. For each n 2 N we can sum the …rst n terms of this sequence to get sn = n X ak = a1 + a2 + + an : k=1 Then fsn g is also a sequence. sn is called the n-th partial sum. P1 De…nition. If fsn g converges to a number s, then we say that the in…nite series P P1 n=1 an converges to s and we write 1 a = s. If fs g diverges, then we say that the series n n=1 n n=1 an diverges. n Example. Consider fan g, where an = 2 . Then sn = n X 2 k = k=1 1 1 + + 2 4 + 1 =1 2n 1 : 2n P k = 1. Since limn!1 sn = limn!1 1 21n = 1, we write 1 k=1 2 Pn Lemma 1. Let fan g be a sequence andP let sn = k=1 ak be the n-th partial sum. Suppose that sn bn , where bn ! +1. Then the series 1 n=1 an diverges. P Proof. Let x 2 R be any real number. We prove that 1 n=1 an cannot converge to x. Since bn ! +1, there exists N 2 N such that bn x + 1 for all n N . Since sn bn , this implies x + 1 for all n sn N: Clearly sn cannot P converge to x. Since fsn g cannot converge to any real number x, it diverges. That is, the series 1 n=1 an diverges. P 1 Example. The harmonic series is the series 1 n=1 n . That is, we start with the sequence fan g, where an = n1 , and we de…ne the n-th partial sums sn = n X 1 k=1 k = 1 1 + + 1 2 + 1 : n P1 1 k As an exercise, prove that s2k + 1. By Lemma 1, this implies that the series n=1 n diverges. 2 For example, see Proof 1 in: P http://scipp.ucsc.edu/~haber/archives/physics116A10/harmapa.pdfthe series 1 n=1 an diverges. Recall from Theorem 3.11 that a sequence of real numbers converges if and only if it is a Cauchy sequence. Given a sequence fan g, we apply P this theorem to the corresponding sequence of partial sums fsn g to get the following. The series 1 n=1 an converges if and only if fsn g is a Cauchy sequence, that is, if and only if: For every " > 0 there exists an N 2 N such that if m n N , then jsm sn 1 j < " (we use n 1 instead of n to make the following display look nicer). Now sm sn 1 = m X ak k=1 n 1 X k=1 So we have the following. 1 ak = m X k=n ak : Theorem 3.22. if m n N , then P1 n=1 an converges if and only if for every " > 0 there exists an N 2 N such that m X ak < ": k=n As a special case of the theorem we may take m = n in the statement to get: For every " > 0 there exists an N 2 N such that if n N , then jan j < ". That is, an ! 0. So we have: P1 Theorem 3.23. If n=1 an converges, then an ! 0. However, the converse is not true as can be seen by the harmonic series. Generalizing a previous example, we have geometric series: Theorem 3.26. If jxj < 1, then 1 X 1 : xn = 1 x n=0 If jxj 1, then the series diverges. Proof. Recall that 1 + x + x2 + Thus, since x 6= 1, sn = n X + xn (1 xk = 1 + x + x 2 + xn+1 : x) = 1 + xn = k=0 1 xn+1 : 1 x (1) If jxj < 1, then xn+1 ! 0, which in turn implies that sn ! 1 1 x . (2) If jxj > 1, then xn+1 diverges, so that fsn g diverges. (3) If x = 1, then sn = n + 1, which diverges. (4) If x = 1, then sn = 1 if n is even and sn = 0 if n is odd, which diverges. Power functions often come up in series. We have: Theorem 3.28. Let p be a real number. P 1 (1) If p > 1, then 1 n=1 p converges. n P1 1 (2) If p 1, then n=1 p diverges. n Proof. See p. 62 of Rudin. (In calculus, you may have seen a ‘proof’using the integral test.) Let fbn g be a sequence. Recall that lim supn!1 bn and lim inf n!1 bn are the least upper bound and greatest lower bound of all subsequential limits, respectively. Lemma 2 (a.k.a. Theorem 3.17(b)). Let = lim supn!1 bn and assume that 2 R. Then, for each > 0 there exists N 2 N such that bn < for n + N: Proof. Suppose the lemma is false. Then there exists > 0 with the property that there does not exist N 2 N such that bn < + for all n N . Claim. There exists a subsequence fbnk g1 + for all k 2 N. k=1 such that bnk 2 Proof of the claim. Firstly, by the property of for N = 1, we have bn1 + for some n1 1. Secondly, by the property of for N = n1 + 1, we have bn2 + for some n2 n1 + 1. The claim easily follows from mathematical induction. With the claim we can obtain a contradiction as follows. Case 1. fbnk g1 + for all k 2 N, this implies there exists a k=1 is unbounded. Since bnk subsequence diverging to +1. This implies = +1, contradicting the assumption that 2 R. Case 2. fbnk g1 k=1 is bounded. Then, by Theorem 3.6(b), there exists a convergent subsequence. Since bnk + for all k 2 N, the subsequence converges to some number + . Since , this implies + , which is a contradiction. In either case, we obtain a contradiction to the assumption that the lemma is false. The idea of (the proof of) the ratio test is comparison with a geometric series. P Theorem 3.34 (Ratio Test) A series 1 n=1 an with an 6= 0 for all n an+1 (a) converges if lim supn!1 < 1, an an+1 1 for all n n0 , where n0 2 N. That is, fjan jg is nondecreasing. (b) diverges if an an+1 Proof. Part (a). Let = lim supn!1 and let = +1 . Since < 1, we have < < 1. 2 an By Lemma 2, there exists N 2 N such that an+1 < an for n N: That is, jan+1 j < jan j for n N: By induction, we can prove that k jaN j for k n N jaN j for n > N: jaN +k j < 1: In other words, Now the series P1 jan j < n N P1 jaN j n converges since it is a geometric series (N is …xed) P and since 0 < < 1. Therefore, by (1) and the comparison test, 1 n=1 an converges. an+1 1 for all n n0 , we have Part (b). Since an n=N jaN j = (1) n=N jan+1 j N jan j for n n0 : jan0 j for n n0 : By induction, we can prove that jan j Since jan0 j > 0, we cannot have an ! 0. By Theorem 3.23 (its contrapositive), we conclude that P 1 n=1 an diverges. 3