Download 66 Questions on the Cardiovascular System

Questions by Ellen Drake, CMT, AHDI-F
Taken From
The Cardiovascular System: Anatomy, Physiology, Pathology
by John H. Dirckx, M.D.
1. The structures which prevent the backflow of blood into a chamber after it has been expelled
are the
A. atria
B. valves
C. ventricles
D. capillaries
2. According to Dr. Dirckx, the "pump proper" of the heart is the
A. atrium
B. valve
C. ventricle
D. sinoatrial node
3. Systole refers to
A. loss of consciousness
B. relaxation of a chamber
C. contraction of a chamber
D. first number of a blood pressure reading
4. Diastole refers to
A. relaxation of a chamber
B. contraction of a chamber
C. second number of a blood pressure reading
D. electrical stimulation by the pacemaker
5. The pacemaker of the heart is the
A. left atrium
B. right ventricle
C. bundle of His
D. sinoatrial node
6. Venous blood is
A. low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide
B. high in oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
C. high in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide
D. low in oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
7. The right ventricle
A. pumps oxygenated and purified blood into the aorta and on out through the circulation of
the body
B. pumps venous blood through the pulmonary veins into the lungs where it is oxygenated
and purified
C. pumps venous blood through the pulmonary artery into the lungs where it is oxygenated
and purified
D. pumps oxygenated and purified blood into the inferior vena cavae and on out through the
circulation of the body
8. This valve prevents blood from leaking back into the right atrium during systole.
A. mitral
B. aortic
C. pulmonic
D. tricuspid
9. This valve keeps blood from leaking back into the right ventricle during diastole.
A. aortic
B. mitral
C. tricuspid
D. pulmonic
10. This valve prevents blood from being driven back into the left atrium during left ventricular
systole.
A. aortic
B. mitral
C. tricuspid
D. pulmonic
11. This valve prevents blood from leaking back into the ventricle during left ventricular
diastole.
A. aortic
B. mitral
C. tricuspid
D. pulmonic
12. Oxygenated and purified blood is returned to the heart by the _______, which deliver it to the
left atrium.
A. aorta
B. pulmonary veins
C. pulmonary artery
D. inferior vena cavae
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
13. Oxygenated blood is pumped from the left atrium to the left ventricle and out through the
_____ into the arteries of the systemic circulation.
A. aorta
B. pulmonary veins
C. pulmonary artery
D. inferior vena cavae
14. The _____ collect deoxygenated venous blood and deliver to the right atrium which pumps it
into the right ventricle.
A. pulmonary artery
B. ascending aorta
C. descending aorta
D. superior and inferior venae cavae
15. Of the following statements about the circulatory system, which one is NOT supported by
Dirckx's article?
A. Circulatory diseases are among the most significant and serious of all diseases.
B. Death results from circulatory compromise to vital organs such as the heart, brain, or
kidney.
C. Interruption of blood supply to an organ or body part, if substantial or prolonged, may
result in irreversible damage or compromise the entire structure.
D. Except for epidermis, cartilage, and dental enamel, all tissues depend on blood vessels to
deliver oxygen and nutrients and carry away waste products.
16. Which of the following statements is NOT true relative to hypertension of the systemic or
circulatory system?
A. It is a transitory or persistent elevation of blood pressure to a level that can induce
cardiovascular damage.
B. It is elevated pressure in pulmonary arteries usually related to disease of the lungs,
pulmonary vasculature, or mitral valve.
C. It is defined as systolic blood pressure above 140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure
above 90 mmHg.
D. It is a major cause of cardiovascular disease and premature death in Western
(industrialized) societies.
17. The highest pressure reached by the blood in the large arteries with each beat of the heart is
the
A. pulse pressure
B. blood pressure
C. systolic pressure
D. diastolic pressure
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
18. The lowest level to which the pressure drops between beats of the heart is the
A. pulse pressure
B. blood pressure
C. systolic pressure
D. diastolic pressure
19. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is the
A. pulse
B. heartbeat
C. blood pressure
D. pulse pressure
20. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures is minimized by
A. the elasticity of the arteries
B. the contraction of the left ventricle
C. relaxation and refilling of the left ventricle
D. resistance of the arteries against which the heart has to work
21. The article discusses many physiologic factors that interact to affect blood pressure,
including all of the following EXCEPT
A. the influence of diet and exercise
B. the rate and force of ventricular contractions
C. the complex interaction of neural and hormonal control mechanisms.
D. the resistance of the arteries against which the heart has to work in order to maintain
adequate flow in tissue capillaries
22. The release of renin, an enzyme produced in the kidneys and the first step in the conversion
of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, can be triggered by all of the following EXCEPT
A. a drop in systemic blood pressure, as detected by baroreceptors
B. a decline in the amount of urine being processed by the renal tubules
C. a change in the sodium chloride concentration of renal tubular fluid
D. a complex interaction of hormones and enzymes produced at widely differing sites
23. The conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II is triggered by
A. renin
B. baroreceptors
C. aldosterone
D. angiotensin-converting enzyme
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
24. All of the following statements about angiotensin II are true EXCEPT
A. It is a glycoprotein produced in various tissues, principally the lung.
B. It raises systemic blood pressure by acting directly on the peripheral circulation as a
vasoconstrictor.
C. It promotes cell proliferation and migration, processes unrelated to hypertension and
blood pressure regulation.
D. It stimulates the cortices of the suprarenal glands to secrete aldosterone, a hormone that
promotes retention of sodium.
25. Chronic elevation of blood pressure caused by renal ischemia or a hormone-producing tumor
is referred to as
A. primary hypertension
B. essential hypertension
C. secondary hypertension
D. tertiary hypertension
26. All of the following are believed to be true about essential hypertension EXCEPT
A. Essential hypertension is caused by congestive heart failure.
B. Persons with essential hypertension retain excessive sodium
C. Persons with essential hypertension have elevated peripheral vascular resistance.
D. Essential hypertension results from a genetically induced, complex derangement in the
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
27. Essential hypertension is BEST controlled by
A. drugs that reduce peripheral vascular resistance
B. drugs that enhance renal excretion of sodium
C. ACE and antiotensin II receptor inhibitors
D. angiotensin-converting enzyme or angiotensin II
28. The diagnosis of uncomplicated hypertension is usually made incidentally, during screening
of seemingly health persons, primarily because
A. patients are in denial
B. it seldom causes any symptoms at all
C. the criteria are vague and not widely understood or accepted
D. it is often explained away as "white coat syndrome"
29. Arteriosclerosis is often associated with ischemia of the tissues supplied and is thus the
underlying mechanism of many serious health problems, including all of the following
EXCEPT
A. diabetes mellitus
B. myocardial ischemia
C. cerebrovascular disease
D. peripheral vascular disease
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
30. Which of the following statements about atherosclerosis is FALSE.
A. Inflammation plays a more important role than degeneration in the atherosclerotic
process.
B. Atheromata are more likely to develop at areas of turbulent flow within an artery, such as
at a bifurcation.
C. Atherosclerosis is a degenerative process traced to an elevation of circulating cholesterol
as a result of excessive dietary intake of cholesterol.
D. Atherosclerosis is characterized by the occurrence of irregularly distributed lipid deposits
in the innermost layer (tunica intima) of large and medium-sized arteries.
31. Stenosis of an artery is
A. reduction in the diameter
B. impairment of blood supply
C. complete obstruction to blood flow
D. separation or splitting of layers of the arterial wall
32. Expansion of an atheromatous plaque can lead to occlusion, which is
A. irreversible damage to tissues
B. complete obstruction to blood flow
C. impairment of blood supply
D. separation or splitting of layers of the arterial wall
33. The author defines ischemia as
A. irreversible damage to tissues
B. complete obstruction to blood flow
C. impairment of blood supply
D. separation or splitting of layers of the arterial wall
34. Atheromatous plaque can break down and ulcerate, releasing fragments into the circulation;
these fragments are referred to as
A. thrombi
B. emboli
C. atheromata
D. foam cells
35. The physiologic disorder believed to be the central abnormality in metabolic syndrome is
A. obesity
B. hypertension
C. hyperlipidemias
D. insulin resistance
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
36. When all of the characteristic features of _____ are present, the diagnosis of coronary artery
disease with myocardial ischemia is virtually certain.
A. status anginosus
B. angina pectoris
C. angina decubitus
D. Prinzmetal angina
37. Angina pectoris that is precipitated by lying down is
A. unstable angina
B. angina decubitus
C. Prinzmetal angina
D. status anginosus
38. Angina pectoris that occurs without any obvious triggering event, may last more than 20
minutes, is more common in women and in younger persons, and is often mistaken for pain
of noncardiac origin is
A. preinfarct angina
B. angina decubitus
C. Prinzmetal angina
D. status anginosus
39. Angina pectoris that is thought to be due to vascular spasm because imaging studies show
normal blood flow in the coronary arteries is
A. Syndrome X
B. angina decubitus
C. pre-infarct angina
D. Prinzmetal angina
40. An extreme form of unstable angina in which the patient experiences many attacks each day,
often so close together the pain seems continuous is referred to as
A. Prinzmetal angina
B. angina decubitus
C. classical angina pectoris
D. status anginosus or preinfarct angina
41. A standard stress test in which the subject performs graded physical exercise on an
electrically driven treadmill with adjustable speed and inclination starting at a speed of 1.7
mph and a grade of 10 degrees and increasing both speed and grade every 3 minutes is done
using the ______ protocol.
A. Bruce
B. dobutamine
C. dipyridamole
D. Keith-Wagener-Barker
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
42. The standard treatment for the pain of angina pectoris is
A. nitroglycerin
B. ACE inhibitors
C. calcium channel blockers
D. beta-adrenergic blocking agents
43. An operative procedure in which diseased segments of coronary arteries are not removed and
replaced with patent vessels of natural or artificial origin, but are simply bypassed is
A. PTCA
B. CABG
C. angioplasty
D. stenting
44. A procedure in which a balloon-tipped angiographic catheter is threaded under fluoroscopic
control into the diseased coronary artery, positioned within the narrowed segment of the
vessel, and inflated so as to stretch the lumen and break up the obstruction, usually followed
by placement of a metal mesh stent impregnated with a chemical agent that inhibits platelet
aggregation to prevent or delay restenosis is
A. CABG
B. PTCA
C. AV fistula
D. diverting circulation procedure
45. Myocardial infarction is defined as
A. arterial spasm induced by drugs
B. separation or splitting of layers of the arterial wall
C. a thrombus in a coronary artery at the site of an atherosclerotic plaque
D. death (irreversible damage) of a segment of heart muscle (myocardium)
46. Classical electrocardiographic signs of acute myocardial infarction MAY include any or all
of the following EXCEPT
A. Deep Q waves
B. ST-segment elevation (later changing to depression)
C. T-wave inversion in leads recording electrical activity in the infarcted segment of
myocardium.
D. Elevated levels of myoglobin, lactic dehydrogenase, CK MB, and troponins
47. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) and streptokinase are
A. narcotic analgesic agents to relieve pain of a myocardial infarction
B. thrombolytic agents most often used to treat myocardial infarction
C. inhalation agents to boost myocardial oxygenation after a myocardial infarction
D. angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors to stabilize blood pressure after an MI
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
48. The phrase_____ refers to the elevation of central venous pressure that typically accompanies
a reduction in pumping efficiency of the heart.
A. myocardial infarction
B. metabolic syndrome
C. congestive heart failure
D. arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease
49. Cardiac output is defined as
A. the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures
B. the volume of blood expelled from the ventricle during systole
C. the amount of blood pumped into the aorta with each contraction of the left ventricle
D. that proportion of the blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole that is actually expelled
during systole
50. Orthopnea is defined as
A. dyspnea at rest
B. dyspnea on exertion
C. dyspnea in the recumbent position, relieved by sitting up
D. dyspnea that awakens the patient from sleep during the night
51. Squeezing a severely swollen limb with the fingers may leave impressions that only slowly
refill is called
A. anasarca
B. pitting edema
C. brawny edema
D. dependent edema
52. Two findings on physical exam that reflect a faltering in the contractile force and pumping
efficiency of the ventricles are
A. tachycardia
B. pitting edema
C. cardiac dilatation
D. weak 1st heart sound and protodiastolic gallop
53. Crackling sounds like those made by crumpling a piece of cellophane, heard on auscultation
of breath sounds, are called
A. rhonchi
B. pleural effusion
C. sibilant rales
D. crepitant rales
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com
54. Short radiopaque streaks indicating edema in walls between the pulmonary alveoli on the
chest x-ray of a patient with congestive heart failure are referred to as
A. pleural effusion
B. Kerley B lines
C. hepatojugular reflux
D. blunting of the costophrenic sulci
55. The adverse effects of chronic hypertension on the cardiovascular system are complex and
cumulative. List 5 consequences of sustained elevation of systolic pressure
56. List the 4 Keith-Wagener-Barker stages of hypertensive retinopathy
57. List 6 risk factors for essential hypertension
58. List 3 categories or classes of drugs used to treat hypertension
59a. List 10 risk factors for atherosclerosis
59b. Other risk factors detectable by biochemical testing include
60. How is metabolic syndrome diagnosed?
61. Describe the features of classical angina pectoris.
62. List 6 standard diagnostic measures, besides the basic history and physical examination, that
may be used to assess a patient with angina pectoris.
63. List the four levels of functional impairment in heart failure of the New York Heart
Association Classification.
64. List the measures used to treat chronic congestive heart failure include (list 3)
65. List the measures used to treat acute pulmonary edema.
66. What types of drugs are used to treat refractory acute cardiac failure?
Cardiology, The SUM Program Advanced Medical Transcription Unit, 2nd ed., 2011
Health Professions Institute
www.hpisum.com