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PRACTICE EXAM 4
Chapters 13-14
1.
The core theme of biology is
A) taxonomy.
B) genetics.
C) ecology.
D) evolution.
E) metabolism.
2.
Who developed a theory of evolution almost identical to Darwin's?
A) Lyell
B) Wallace
C) Aristotle
D) Lamarck
E) Mendel
3.
During the 1950s, a scientist named Lysenko tried to solve the food shortages in the
Soviet Union by breeding wheat that could grow in Siberia. He theorized that if
individual wheat plants were exposed to cold, they would develop additional cold
tolerance and pass it to their offspring. Based on the ideas of artificial and natural
selection, do you think this project worked as planned?
A) Yes, the wheat probably evolved better cold tolerance over time through
inheritance of acquired characteristics.
B) No, because Lysenko took his wheat seeds straight to Siberia instead of exposing
them incrementally to cold.
C) No, because there was no process of selection based on inherited traits. Lysenko
assumed that exposure could induce a plant to develop additional cold tolerance
and that this tolerance would be passed to the plant's offspring.
D) No, because Lysenko used wheat varieties that had lost their cold tolerance as a
result of disuse.
E) Yes, because this is generally the method used by plant breeders to develop
crops.
4.
Broccoli, cabbages, and brussels sprouts all descend from the same wild mustard and
can still interbreed. These varieties were produced by
A) speciation.
B) artificial selection.
C) natural selection.
D) genetic drift.
E) inheritance of acquired characteristics.
5.
Which of the following best expresses the concept of natural selection?
A) differential reproductive success based on inherited characteristics
B) inheritance of acquired characteristics
C) change in response to need
D) a process of constant improvement, leading eventually to perfection
6.
A dog breeder wishes to develop a breed that does not bark. She starts with a diverse
mixture of dogs. Generation after generation, she allows only the quietest dogs to breed.
After 30 years of work she has a new breed of dog with interesting traits, but on
average, the dogs still bark at about the same rate as other dog breeds. Which of the
following would be a logical explanation for her failure?
A) There is no variation for the trait (barking).
B) The tendency to bark is not a heritable trait.
C) The selection was artificial, not natural, so it did not produce evolutionary
change.
D) There was no selection (differential reproductive success) related to barking
behavior.
E) She did not breed enough of the frequently barking dogs to obtain the desired
result.
7.
Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?
A) Natural selection is more of an editing process than a creative mechanism.
B) Natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time.
C) Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward
improving an organism's fitness.
D) Natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a
few generations).
E) Natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.
8.
Which of the following disciplines has found evidence for evolution based on the native
distributions (locations) of living species?
A) molecular biology
B) comparative anatomy
C) biogeography
D) paleontology
E) embryology
9.
Which of the following represents a pair of homologous structures?
A) the wing of a bat and the scales of a fish
B) the wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale
C) the antennae of an insect and the eyes of a bird
D) the feathers of a bird and the wing membrane of a bat
E) the wing of a bat and the wing of a butterfly
10. A population is
A) a group of individuals of the same species living in the same place at the same
time.
B) all individuals of a species, regardless of location or time period in which they
live.
C) a group of individuals of different species living in the same place at the same
time.
D) a group of individuals of a species plus all of the other species with which they
interact.
11. Microevolution, or evolution at its smallest scale, occurs when
A) n individual's traits change in response to environmental factors.
B) a geographic area is altered by erosion, volcanic eruptions, or other geological
forces.
C) a community of organisms changes due to the extinction of several dominant
species.
D) a new species arises from an existing species.
E) a population's allele frequencies change over a span of generations.
12. The ultimate source of all new alleles is
A) mutation in parent cells (asexual organisms) or in cells that produce gametes
(sexual organisms).
B) any form of mutation, regardless of the cell type.
C) chromosomal duplication.
D) genetic drift.
E) natural selection.
13. Which of the following terms represents the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) p
B) q
C) 2pq
D) q2
E) p2
14. Imagine that you are studying a very large population of moths that is isolated from
gene flow. A single gene controls wing color. Half of the moths have white-spotted
wings (genotype WW or Ww) and half of the moths have plain brown wings (ww).
There are no new mutations, individuals mate randomly, and there is no natural
selection on wing color. How will p, the frequency of the dominant allele, change over
time?
A) p will increase; the dominant allele will eventually take over and become most
common in the population.
B) p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under
the conditions described.
C) p will decrease because of genetic drift.
D) p will increase initially, then decrease until the W allele vanishes from the
population.
E) p will fluctuate rapidly and randomly because of genetic drift.
15. Genetic drift resulting from a disaster that drastically reduces population size is called
A) natural selection.
B) gene flow.
C) the bottleneck effect.
D) nonrandom mating.
E) the founder effect.
16. Thirty people are selected for a long-term mission to colonize a planet many light years
away from Earth. The mission is successful and the population rapidly grows to several
hundred individuals. However, certain genetic diseases are unusually common in this
group, and their gene pool is quite different from that of the Earth population they have
left behind. Which of the following phenomena has left its mark on this population?
A) founder effect
B) bottleneck effect
C) gene flow
D) high rates of mutation
E) natural selection
17. Genetic differences between populations tend to be reduced by
A) gene flow.
B) mutation.
C) the founder effect.
D) the bottleneck effect.
E) natural selection.
18. Which of the following will tend to produce adaptive changes in populations?
A) genetic drift
B) gene flow
C) mutation
D) natural selection
E) the founder effect
19. A rabbit population consists of animals that are either very dark on top or very light on
top. The color pattern is not related to sex. No rabbit shows intermediate coloration
(medium darkness). This pattern might result from
A) disruptive selection.
B) directional selection.
C) stabilizing selection.
D) sexual selection.
E) random mating.
20. Mate-attracting features such as the bright plumage of a male peacock result from
A) intersexual selection.
B) intrasexual selection.
C) disruptive selection.
D) directional selection.
E) stabilizing selection.
21. A woman struggling with a bacterial illness is prescribed a month's supply of a potent
antibiotic. She takes the antibiotic for about two weeks and feels much better. Should
she save the remaining two-week supply, or should she continue taking the drug?
a. She should save the drug for later, because if she keeps taking it the bacteria
will evolve resistance.
b. She should save the drug for use the next time the illness strikes.
c. She should save the drug because antibiotics are in short supply and she may
need it to defend herself against a bioterrorism incident.
d. She should continue taking the drug because otherwise the bacteria will
evolve by genetic drift.
e. She should continue taking the drug until her immune system can completely
eliminate the infection. Otherwise the remaining bacteria in her system may
recover, and they will probably be resistant.
22. Which of the following would a biologist describe as microevolution?
A) the formation of new species
B) the extinction of species
C) dramatic biological changes, such as the origin of flight, within a taxon
D) the generation of biodiversity
E) a change in allele frequencies within the gene pool of a population
23. A biological species is defined as a group of organisms that
A) are physically similar.
B) are genetically similar.
C) share a recent common ancestor.
D) live together in a location and carry out identical ecological roles.
E) have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring.
24. The biological species concept is
A) applicable to all forms of life, past and present.
B) applicable to all present life forms, but not to fossil organisms whose
reproductive behavior cannot be observed.
C) easy to apply to all present sexually reproducing organisms, but harder to apply
to asexual organisms and fossils.
D) difficult to put into practice even for present sexual organisms, and useless for
asexual organisms and fossils.
E) based on DNA, so it applies to all forms of life from which a DNA sample can be
collected.
25. Which provides the most general and correct description of the idea of a reproductive
barrier?
A) any feature (of geography, behavior, or morphology) that keeps one species from
mating with another
B) a biological difference between two species that prevents them from successfully
interbreeding
C) a geographic barrier that separates two species and prevents gene flow between
them
D) a difference in reproductive biology between two species that makes hybrid
individuals less fertile
26. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two species of sea
cucumbers, whose sperm and eggs often bump into each other but do not cross-fertilize
because of incompatible proteins on their surfaces?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
27. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of species that
could interbreed except that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
28. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two flowering plant
species that could interbreed except that one has a deep flower tube and is pollinated by
bumblebees, whereas the other has a short, narrow flower tube and is pollinated by
honeybees?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
29. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of insect species
that could interbreed except that one mates on goldenrod flowers and the other on
autumn daisies that both blossom at the same time?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
30. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of moth species
that could interbreed except that the females' mating pheromones are not attractive to
the males of the other species?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
31. Two species that sometimes mate and produce vigorous but sterile offspring are
separated by
A) mechanical isolation.
B) gametic isolation.
C) reduced hybrid fertility.
D) reduced hybrid viability.
E) hybrid breakdown.
32. The likelihood of allopatric speciation increases when a splinter population is ________
and ________ the broader range of the species.
A) small . . . isolated from
B) large . . . nearby
C) large . . . isolated from
D) small . . . nearby
E) large . . . continuous with
33. Speciation without geographic isolation is called ________ speciation.
A) sympatric
B) allopatric
C) incomplete
D) diversifying
E) punctuated
34. Organisms that possess more than two complete sets of chromosomes are said to be
A) haploid.
B) polyploid.
C) diploid.
D) hybrids.
E) allopatric.
35. Sympatric speciation commonly occurs through ________ in plants, but is more likely to
occur through ________ in animals.
A) polyploidy . . . habitat differentiation and sexual selection
B) habitat differentiation and sexual selection . . . polyploidy
C) asexual reproduction . . . chromosome duplications
D) polyploidy . . . geographic barriers
E) self-pollination . . . polyploidy and other genetic mechanisms
36. In a hybrid zone, ________ can occur if the reproductive barrier between two species is
weak, as seen among cichlids in the murky waters of modern Lake Victoria.
A) reinforcement
B) fusion
C) allopatric speciation
D) sympatric speciation
E) reproductive isolation
Chapter 37
1) A community is composed of
a. potentially interacting populations of different kinds of organisms.
b. one species of organism living in a specific environment on Earth.
c. living organisms and their nonliving environment.
d. several ecosystems on one continent.
e. the factors that constitute an organism's niche.
2) An owl and a hawk both eat mice. Which of these terms describes the relationship between a
hawk and an owl?
a. predation
b. competition
c. parasitism
d. commensalism
e. mutualism
3) When two different populations in a community benefit from their relationship with each
other, the result is called
a. predation.
b. partnership.
c. mutualism.
d. herbivory.
e. competition.
4) The sum total of a population's use of the biotic and abiotic resources of its habitat
constitutes its
a. environment.
b. evolution.
c. distribution.
d. range.
e. niche.
5) In an ecosystem, you would expect to find interspecific competition between
a. males and females of a species in which both sexes occupy the same niche.
b. populations of two species that occupy the same niche.
c. males of a species during the breeding season.
d. a prey species and its predator.
e. two wasp species that mimic each other's appearance.
6) Dinoflagellates are important to coral and coral-dwelling animals because they
a. produce energy that is used by coral animals through photosynthesis.
b. provide shelter for the fast-growing seaweeds associated with coral.
c. produce CO2 and nitrogen for coral.
d. are toxic to species that prey on reef-dwelling fish.
e. maintain environmental conditions throughout the coral system.
7) A series of reciprocal adaptations in two species defines
a. interspecific competition.
b. niche compartmentalization.
c. resource partitioning.
d. coevolution.
e. competitive exclusion.
8) One mechanism that prey populations evolve to avoid predation is
a. increasing the number of offspring produced.
b. camouflage.
c. secretion of digestive enzymes that hydrolyze glucose.
d. secretion of enzymes that break down toxic plant compounds.
e. development of a short gestation period.
9) Within an ecosystem, a tree is a
a. secondary consumer.
b. detritivore.
c. tertiary consumer.
d. primary consumer.
e. producer.
10) On Earth, most organic molecules are produced by
a. photorespiration.
b. photosynthesis.
c. glycolysis.
d. hydrolysis.
e. cellular respiration.
11) In a hypothetical food chain consisting of grass, grasshoppers, sparrows, and hawks, the
grasshoppers are
a. primary consumers.
b. primary producers.
c. secondary consumers.
d. secondary producers.
e. detritivores.
12) In a food chain consisting of phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish → fishermen, the
fishermen are
a. primary consumers.
b. secondary consumers.
c. tertiary consumers.
d. primary producers.
e. secondary producers.
13) The primary decomposers of a community are called
a. primary consumers.
b. detritivores.
c. primary producers.
d. protozoa.
e. herbivores.
14) The number of species in a community is called the
a. species diversity.
b. community.
c. species richness.
d. species population.
e. species index.
15) We expect that a keystone species that is a predator will
a. maintain the species diversity in a community.
b. harvest prey species down to extinction.
c. help many of its prey reproduce.
d.
e.
be a parasite.
reduce the diversity of the community.
16) During ecological succession, the species composition of a plant community generally
a. changes from a diverse community in which many plants are common to one in
which a few species are numerically
dominant.
b. simplifies until most of the plants originally present have disappeared.
c. remains stable as long as major environmental factors (climate, human
interference) remain constant.
d. changes gradually because each species responds differently to the changing
environment.
e. changes until climax forest is established and a single species remains.
17) Non-native species that are introduced in new environments, spread far beyond the original
point of introduction, and cause damage are called
a. destructive species.
b. enemy species.
c. invasive species.
d. predatory species.
e. proprietary species.
18) The flow of ________ into ecosystems occurs in one direction only, while ________ are recycled
within the ecosystem itself.
a. minerals . . . energy compounds
b. genetic information . . . genotypes
c. organic compounds . . . minerals
d. energy . . . chemicals
e. food . . . energy
19) Given that CO2 is produced by respiration, why does the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere
remain relatively constant? (When answering this question, exclude the impact of human
activities on atmospheric CO2.)
a. CO2 is converted in photosynthesis to carbohydrates.
b. CO2 is split apart during photosynthesis.
c. CO2 mostly forms carbonate rocks.
d. CO2 is trapped in dead organisms' bodies.
e. CO2 is a buffer.
20) Carbon mainly cycles between the biotic and abiotic worlds through the processes of
a. respiration and transpiration.
b. transpiration and photosynthesis.
c. evaporation and photosynthesis.
d. respiration and photosynthesis.
e. respiration and evaporation.
21) Which of the following statements about the phosphorus cycle is true?
a. Consumers obtain phosphorus in organic form from meats.
b. Phosphorus has its main abiotic reservoir in water.
c. Plants release dissolved phosphorus ions in the soil.
d. Phosphorus that drains from soils into the sea becomes part of new rock and will
cycle back into living organisms.
e. Sewage is a major source of phosphates.
22) Which of the following statements about the nitrogen cycle is true?
a. The nitrogen cycle requires different types of bacteria.
b. Nitrogen gas is converted to nitrates in plant leaves.
c. Nitrogen cannot be cycled through living organisms.
d. When plants and animals die, nitrogen is removed from the nitrogen cycle.
e. Nitrogen is a component of all fats.
23) Which of the following represents a step in the nitrogen cycle?
a. atmospheric nitrogen converted to nitrates
b. conversion of nitrates to atmospheric nitrogen in the presence of oxygen
c. nitrites binding to soil particles
d. nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
e. ammonium converted to atmospheric nitrogen
24) Denitrifying bacteria convert ________ to ________.
a. ammonium . . . nitrogen gas
b. nitrates . . . nitrogen gas
c. nitrogen gas . . . nitrates
d. nitrogen gas . . . ammonium
e. nitrogen gas . . . nitrites
ANSWERS
Chapters 13-14
1.
The core theme of biology is
A) taxonomy.
B) genetics.
C) ecology.
D) evolution.
E) metabolism.
Answer: D
Topic: Opening Essay
Skill: Factual Recall
2.
Who developed a theory of evolution almost identical to Darwin's?
A) Lyell
B) Wallace
C) Aristotle
D) Lamarck
E) Mendel
Answer: B
Topic: 13.1
Skill: Factual Recall
3.
During the 1950s, a scientist named Lysenko tried to solve the food shortages in the
Soviet Union by breeding wheat that could grow in Siberia. He theorized that if
individual wheat plants were exposed to cold, they would develop additional cold
tolerance and pass it to their offspring. Based on the ideas of artificial and natural
selection, do you think this project worked as planned?
A) Yes, the wheat probably evolved better cold tolerance over time through
inheritance of acquired characteristics.
B) No, because Lysenko took his wheat seeds straight to Siberia instead of exposing
them incrementally to cold.
C) No, because there was no process of selection based on inherited traits. Lysenko
assumed that exposure could induce a plant to develop additional cold tolerance
and that this tolerance would be passed to the plant's offspring.
D) No, because Lysenko used wheat varieties that had lost their cold tolerance as a
result of disuse.
E) Yes, because this is generally the method used by plant breeders to develop new
crops.
Answer: C
Topic: 13.2
Skill: Application
4.
Broccoli, cabbages, and brussels sprouts all descend from the same wild mustard and
can still interbreed. These varieties were produced by
A) speciation.
B) artificial selection.
C) natural selection.
D) genetic drift.
E) inheritance of acquired characteristics.
Answer: B
Topic: 13.2
Skill: Factual Recall
5.
Which of the following best expresses the concept of natural selection?
A) differential reproductive success based on inherited characteristics
B) inheritance of acquired characteristics
C) change in response to need
D) a process of constant improvement, leading eventually to perfection
Answer: A
Topic: 13.2
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
6.
A dog breeder wishes to develop a breed that does not bark. She starts with a diverse
mixture of dogs. Generation after generation, she allows only the quietest dogs to breed.
After 30 years of work she has a new breed of dog with interesting traits, but on
average, the dogs still bark at about the same rate as other dog breeds. Which of the
following would be a logical explanation for her failure?
A) There is no variation for the trait (barking).
B) The tendency to bark is not a heritable trait.
C) The selection was artificial, not natural, so it did not produce evolutionary
change.
D) There was no selection (differential reproductive success) related to barking
behavior.
E) She did not breed enough of the frequently barking dogs to obtain the desired
result.
Answer: B
Topic: 13.2
Skill: Application
7.
Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?
A) Natural selection is more of an editing process than a creative mechanism.
B) Natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time.
C) Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward
improving an organism's fitness.
D) Natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a
few generations).
E) Natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.
Answer: C
Topic: 13.3
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
8.
Which of the following disciplines has found evidence for evolution based on the native
distributions (locations) of living species?
A) molecular biology
B) comparative anatomy
C) biogeography
D) paleontology
E) embryology
Answer: C
Topic: 13.5
Skill: Factual Recall
9.
Which of the following represents a pair of homologous structures?
A) the wing of a bat and the scales of a fish
B) the wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale
C) the antennae of an insect and the eyes of a bird
D) the feathers of a bird and the wing membrane of a bat
E) the wing of a bat and the wing of a butterfly
Answer: B
Topic: 13.5
Skill: Application
10. A population is
A) a group of individuals of the same species living in the same place at the same
time.
B) all individuals of a species, regardless of location or time period in which they
live.
C) a group of individuals of different species living in the same place at the same
time.
D) a group of individuals of a species plus all of the other species with which they
interact.
Answer: A
Topic: 13.7
Skill: Factual Recall
11. Microevolution, or evolution at its smallest scale, occurs when
A) an individual's traits change in response to environmental factors.
B) a geographic area is altered by erosion, volcanic eruptions, or other geological
forces.
C) a community of organisms changes due to the extinction of several dominant
species.
D) a new species arises from an existing species.
E) a population's allele frequencies change over a span of generations.
Answer: E
Topic: 13.7
Skill: Factual Recall
12. The ultimate source of all new alleles is
A) mutation in parent cells (asexual organisms) or in cells that produce gametes
(sexual organisms).
B) any form of mutation, regardless of the cell type.
C) chromosomal duplication.
D) genetic drift.
E) natural selection.
Answer: A
Topic: 13.8
Skill: Factual Recall
13. Which of the following terms represents the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) p
B) q
C) 2pq
D) q2
E) p2
Answer: C
Topic: 13.9
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
14. Imagine that you are studying a very large population of moths that is isolated from
gene flow. A single gene controls wing color. Half of the moths have white-spotted
wings (genotype WW or Ww) and half of the moths have plain brown wings (ww).
There are no new mutations, individuals mate randomly, and there is no natural
selection on wing color. How will p, the frequency of the dominant allele, change over
time?
A) p will increase; the dominant allele will eventually take over and become most
common in the population.
B) p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under
the conditions described.
C) p will decrease because of genetic drift.
D) p will increase initially, then decrease until the W allele vanishes from the
population.
E) p will fluctuate rapidly and randomly because of genetic drift.
Answer: B
Topic: 13.9
Skill: Application
15. Genetic drift resulting from a disaster that drastically reduces population size is called
A) natural selection.
B) gene flow.
C) the bottleneck effect.
D) nonrandom mating.
E) the founder effect.
Answer: C
Topic: 13.11
Skill: Factual Recall
16. Thirty people are selected for a long-term mission to colonize a planet many light years
away from Earth. The mission is successful and the population rapidly grows to several
hundred individuals. However, certain genetic diseases are unusually common in this
group, and their gene pool is quite different from that of the Earth population they have
left behind. Which of the following phenomena has left its mark on this population?
A) founder effect
B) bottleneck effect
C) gene flow
D) high rates of mutation
E) natural selection
Answer: A
Topic: 13.11
Skill: Application
17. Genetic differences between populations tend to be reduced by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
gene flow.
mutation.
the founder effect.
the bottleneck effect.
natural selection.
Answer: A
Topic: 13.11
Skill: Factual Recall
18. Which of the following will tend to produce adaptive changes in populations?
A) genetic drift
B) gene flow
C) mutation
D) natural selection
E) the founder effect
Answer: D
Topic: 13.12
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
19. A rabbit population consists of animals that are either very dark on top or very light on
top. The color pattern is not related to sex. No rabbit shows intermediate coloration
(medium darkness). This pattern might result from
A) disruptive selection.
B) directional selection.
C) stabilizing selection.
D) sexual selection.
E) random mating.
Answer: A
Topic: 13.13
Skill: Application
20. Mate-attracting features such as the bright plumage of a male peacock result from
A) intersexual selection.
B) intrasexual selection.
C) disruptive selection.
D) directional selection.
E) stabilizing selection.
Answer: A
Topic: 13.14
Skill: Application
21. A woman struggling with a bacterial illness is prescribed a month's supply of a potent
antibiotic. She takes the antibiotic for about two weeks and feels much better. Should
she save the remaining two-week supply, or should she continue taking the drug?
a. She should save the drug for later, because if she keeps taking it the bacteria
will evolve resistance.
b. She should save the drug for use the next time the illness strikes.
c. She should save the drug because antibiotics are in short supply
and she
may need it to defend herself against a bioterrorism
incident.
d. She should continue taking the drug because otherwise the
bacteria will evolve by genetic drift.
e. She should continue taking the drug until her immune system
can
completely eliminate the infection. Otherwise the remaining
bacteria in her system
may recover, and they will probably be resistant.
Answer: E
Topic: 13.15-Evolution Connection
Skill: Application
22. Which of the following would a biologist describe as microevolution?
A) the formation of new species
B) the extinction of species
C) dramatic biological changes, such as the origin of flight, within a taxon
D) the generation of biodiversity
E) a change in allele frequencies within the gene pool of a population
Answer: E
Topic: 14.1
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
23. A biological species is defined as a group of organisms that
A) are physically similar.
B) are genetically similar.
C) share a recent common ancestor.
D) live together in a location and carry out identical ecological roles.
E) have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring.
Answer: E
Topic: 14.2
Skill: Factual Recall
24. The biological species concept is
A) applicable to all forms of life, past and present.
B) applicable to all present life forms, but not to fossil organisms whose
reproductive behavior cannot be observed.
C) easy to apply to all present sexually reproducing organisms, but harder to apply
to asexual organisms and fossils.
D) difficult to put into practice even for present sexual organisms, and useless for
asexual organisms and fossils.
E) based on DNA, so it applies to all forms of life from which a DNA sample can be
collected.
Answer: D
Topic: 14.2
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
25. Which provides the most general and correct description of the idea of a reproductive
barrier?
A) any feature (of geography, behavior, or morphology) that keeps one species from
mating with another
B) a biological difference between two species that prevents them from successfully
interbreeding
C) a geographic barrier that separates two species and prevents gene flow between
them
D) a difference in reproductive biology between two species that makes hybrid
individuals less fertile
E) a difference in behavior that keeps two species from interbreeding
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
26. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two species of sea
cucumbers, whose sperm and eggs often bump into each other but do not cross-fertilize
because of incompatible proteins on their surfaces?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
Answer: E
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application
27. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of species that
could interbreed except that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
Answer: A
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application
28. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two flowering plant
species that could interbreed except that one has a deep flower tube and is pollinated by
bumblebees, whereas the other has a short, narrow flower tube and is pollinated by
honeybees?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
Answer: D
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application
29. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of insect species
that could interbreed except that one mates on goldenrod flowers and the other on
autumn daisies that both blossom at the same time?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
Answer: B
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application
30. Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of moth species
that could interbreed except that the females' mating pheromones are not attractive to
the males of the other species?
A) temporal isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation
E) gametic isolation
Answer: C
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application
31. Two species that sometimes mate and produce vigorous but sterile offspring are
separated by
A) mechanical isolation.
B) gametic isolation.
C) reduced hybrid fertility.
D) reduced hybrid viability.
E) hybrid breakdown.
Answer: C
Topic: 14.3
Skill: Application
32. The likelihood of allopatric speciation increases when a splinter population is ________
and ________ the broader range of the species.
A) small . . . isolated from
B) large . . . nearby
C) large . . . isolated from
D) small . . . nearby
E) large . . . continuous with
Answer: A
Topic: 14.4
Skill: Conceptual Understanding
33. Speciation without geographic isolation is called ________ speciation.
A) sympatric
B) allopatric
C) incomplete
D) diversifying
E) punctuated
Answer: A
Topic: 14.5
Skill: Factual Recall
34. Organisms that possess more than two complete sets of chromosomes are said to be
A) haploid.
B) polyploid.
C) diploid.
D) hybrids.
E) allopatric.
Answer: B
Topic: 14.5
Skill: Factual Recall
35. Sympatric speciation commonly occurs through ________ in plants, but is more likely to
occur through ________ in animals.
A) polyploidy . . . habitat differentiation and sexual selection
B) habitat differentiation and sexual selection . . . polyploidy
C) asexual reproduction . . . chromosome duplications
D) polyploidy . . . geographic barriers
E) self-pollination . . . polyploidy and other genetic mechanisms
Answer: A
Topic: 14.5
Skill: Factual Recall
36. In a hybrid zone, ________ can occur if the reproductive barrier between two species is
weak, as seen among cichlids in the murky waters of modern Lake Victoria.
A) reinforcement
B) fusion
C) allopatric speciation
D) sympatric speciation
E) reproductive isolation
Answer: B
Topic: 14.8
Skill: Factual Recall
Chapter 37
1) A community is composed of
a. potentially interacting populations of different kinds of organisms.
b. one species of organism living in a specific environment on Earth.
c. living organisms and their nonliving environment.
d. several ecosystems on one continent.
e. the factors that constitute an organism's niche.
Answer A
2) An owl and a hawk both eat mice. Which of these terms describes the
relationship between a hawk and an owl?
a. predation
b. competition
c. parasitism
d. commensalism
e. mutualism
Answer B
3) When two different populations in a community benefit from their
relationship with each other, the result is called
a. predation.
b. partnership.
c. mutualism.
d. herbivory.
e. competition.
Answer C
4) The sum total of a population's use of the biotic and abiotic resources of its
habitat constitutes its
a. environment.
b. evolution.
c. distribution.
d. range.
e. niche.
Answer E
5) In an ecosystem, you would expect to find interspecific competition between
a. males and females of a species in which both sexes occupy the same
niche.
b. populations of two species that occupy the same niche.
c. males of a species during the breeding season.
d. a prey species and its predator.
e. two wasp species that mimic each other's appearance.
Answer B
6) Dinoflagellates are important to coral and coral-dwelling animals because
they
a. produce energy that is used by coral animals through photosynthesis.
b. provide shelter for the fast-growing seaweeds associated with coral.
c. produce CO2 and nitrogen for coral.
d. are toxic to species that prey on reef-dwelling fish.
e. maintain environmental conditions throughout the coral system.
Answer A
7) A series of reciprocal adaptations in two species defines
a. interspecific competition.
b. niche compartmentalization.
c. resource partitioning.
d. coevolution.
e. competitive exclusion.
Answer D
8) One mechanism that prey populations evolve to avoid predation is
a. increasing the number of offspring produced.
b. camouflage.
c. secretion of digestive enzymes that hydrolyze glucose.
d. secretion of enzymes that break down toxic plant compounds.
e. development of a short gestation period.
Answer B
9) Within an ecosystem, a tree is a
a. secondary consumer.
b. detritivore.
c. tertiary consumer.
d. primary consumer.
e. producer.
Answer E
10)On Earth, most organic molecules are produced by
a. photorespiration.
b. photosynthesis.
c. glycolysis.
d. hydrolysis.
e. cellular respiration.
Answer B
11)In a hypothetical food chain consisting of grass, grasshoppers, sparrows, and
hawks, the grasshoppers are
a. primary consumers.
b. primary producers.
c. secondary consumers.
d. secondary producers.
e. detritivores.
Answer A
12)In a food chain consisting of phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish →
fishermen, the fishermen are
a. primary consumers.
b. secondary consumers.
c. tertiary consumers.
d. primary producers.
e. secondary producers.
Answer C
13)The primary decomposers of a community are called
a. primary consumers.
b. detritivores.
c. primary producers.
d. protozoa.
e. herbivores.
Answer B
14)The number of species in a community is called the
a. species diversity.
b. community.
c. species richness.
d. species population.
e. species index.
Answer C
15)We expect that a keystone species that is a predator will
a. maintain the species diversity in a community.
b. harvest prey species down to extinction.
c. help many of its prey reproduce.
d. be a parasite.
e. reduce the diversity of the community.
Answer A
16)During ecological succession, the species composition of a plant community
generally
a. changes from a diverse community in which many plants are common
to one in which a few species are numerically
dominant.
b. simplifies until most of the plants originally present have disappeared.
c. remains stable as long as major environmental factors (climate,
human interference) remain constant.
d. changes gradually because each species responds differently to the
changing environment.
e. changes until climax forest is established and a single species remains.
Answer D
17)Non-native species that are introduced in new environments, spread far
beyond the original point of introduction, and cause damage are called
a. destructive species.
b. enemy species.
c. invasive species.
d. predatory species.
e. proprietary species.
Answer C
18) The flow of ________ into ecosystems occurs in one direction only, while
________ are recycled within the ecosystem itself.
a. minerals . . . energy compounds
b. genetic information . . . genotypes
c. organic compounds . . . minerals
d. energy . . . chemicals
e. food . . . energy
Answer D
19)Given that CO2 is produced by respiration, why does the amount of CO2 in
the atmosphere remain relatively constant? (When answering this question,
exclude the impact of human activities on atmospheric CO2.)
a. CO2 is converted in photosynthesis to carbohydrates.
b. CO2 is split apart during photosynthesis.
c. CO2 mostly forms carbonate rocks.
d. CO2 is trapped in dead organisms' bodies.
e. CO2 is a buffer.
Answer A
20)Carbon mainly cycles between the biotic and abiotic worlds through the
processes of
a. respiration and transpiration.
b. transpiration and photosynthesis.
c. evaporation and photosynthesis.
d. respiration and photosynthesis.
e. respiration and evaporation.
Answer D
21)Which of the following statements about the phosphorus cycle is true?
a. Consumers obtain phosphorus in organic form from meats.
b. Phosphorus has its main abiotic reservoir in water.
c. Plants release dissolved phosphorus ions in the soil.
d. Phosphorus that drains from soils into the sea becomes part of new
rock and will cycle back into living organisms.
e. Sewage is a major source of phosphates.
Answer D
22)Which of the following statements about the nitrogen cycle is true?
a. The nitrogen cycle requires different types of bacteria.
b. Nitrogen gas is converted to nitrates in plant leaves.
c. Nitrogen cannot be cycled through living organisms.
d. When plants and animals die, nitrogen is removed from the nitrogen
cycle.
e. Nitrogen is a component of all fats.
Answer A
23)Which of the following represents a step in the nitrogen cycle?
a. atmospheric nitrogen converted to nitrates
b. conversion of nitrates to atmospheric nitrogen in the presence of
oxygen
c. nitrites binding to soil particles
d. nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
e. ammonium converted to atmospheric nitrogen
Answer D
24)Denitrifying bacteria convert ________ to ________.
a. ammonium . . . nitrogen gas
b. nitrates . . . nitrogen gas
c. nitrogen gas . . . nitrates
d. nitrogen gas . . . ammonium
e. nitrogen gas . . . nitrites
Answer B