Download Grade 12 Biology (SBI 4U1)

Grade 12 Biology (SBI 4U1)
Unit: Population Dynamics
Unit Test (70 marks)
Part A: Multiple Choice (25 marks)
1. For which of the following species is quadrat sampling NOT a useful tool?
a) dandelions
b) dragonflies
c) barnacles
d) earthworms
2. In the grasslands of Western Canada, prairie dogs live in colonies, isolated from other colonies by
large, unoccupied areas of land. This is best described as
a) ecological dispersion
b) clumped dispersion
c) random dispersion
d) uniform dispersion
3. A population of 600 rabbits has 300 births and 175 deaths in a year in which 50 rabbits move into the
area and 25 rabbits move out of the area. What is the Percentage Population Change?
a) 250 %
b) 0.5 %
c) 50 %
d) 25 %
600
C
500
pop 400
size 300
D
200
100
B
A
TIME
4. What is the estimated carrying capacity of this environment?
a) 290
b) 330
c) 385
d) 575
5. Which letter on the graph above represents the log phase of the graph?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
6. Which letter on the graph above represents the exceeding phase of the graph?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
7. A population that grows rapidly during breeding season, then declines through the year until the next
breeding season, exhibits which of the following?
a) linear growth
b) logistic growth
c) geometric growth
d) exponential growth
8. What type of graph is seen for a population that has access to unlimited resources and has no breeding
season?
a) linear growth
b) logistic growth
c) geometric growth
d) exponential growth
9. Logistic growth curves differ from exponential growth curves in which of the following?
a) the lag phase
b) the log phase
c) the stationary phase
d) all phases
10. Elephants are slow to reach sexual maturity and have few offspring. An elephant population exhibits
which of the following?
a) a type I survivorship pattern
b) a type II survivorship pattern
c) a type III survivorship pattern
d) a type IV survivorship pattern
11. A population with very high mortality rates among the young and very low mortality rates among
sexually mature adults exhibits which of the following?
a) a type I survivorship pattern
b) a type II survivorship pattern
c) a type III survivorship pattern
d) a type IV survivorship pattern
12. Which of the following does NOT fit the ‘r’ strategy of reproduction?
a) small size
b) high energy per offspring
c) early maturity
d) short life expectancy
13. Overpopulating rabbits in Australia were finally controlled by a disease that spread through the
population. A higher mortality rate was recorded in regions with large populations than small
populations. The disease can be considered
a) a density-dependent effect
b) a density-independent effect
c) interspecific competition
d) the Allee effect
14. As the number of raccoons in the forest increases, the availability of nesting sites limits population
growth. This describes which of the following?
a) a density-dependent factor
b) a density-independent factor
c) intraspecific competition
d) both a and c
e) both b and c
15. The coral snake and the king snake are very difficult to tell apart; one is poisonous, the other is not.
This is an example of which of the following?
a) commensalism
b) mimicry
c) camouflage
d) mutualism
16. Hermit crabs live in shells left when snails die. The shell provides protection for the crab. This is an
example of which of the following?
a) predation
b) parisitism
c) mutualism
d) commensalisms
17. Termites eat wood, but cannot digest cellulose. In their gut lives a protist that can digest cellulose, but
is unable to survive outside the termite. If the protists are removed, the termite will starve. This is an
example of which of the following?
a) parasitism
b) resource partitioning
c) mutualism
d) commensalism
18. Hawks and owls rely on similar prey, but hawks feed during full daylight while owls hunt and feed
from dusk to dawn. This is an example of which of the following?
a) intraspecific competition
b) parisitism
c) resource partitioning
d) commensalism
19. What types of organisms are best at using camouflage?
a) insects
b) amphibians
c) plants
d) mammals
20. What is the least serious level of risk for current Canadian species to be assigned
by COSEWIC (Committee on the Status of Endangered Wildlife in Canada)?
a) endangered
b) extirpated
c) threatened
d) vulnerable
21. What is the most frequent cause contributing to species being endangered in Canada?
a) over-hunting and exploitation
b) pesticide use and pollution
c) habitat destruction
d) competition from introduced species
22. Which of the following statements is not true of epidemic diseases?
a) Many evolve where population densities are high.
b) Many have evolved from diseases of domestic animals.
c) Epidemics are density-independent factors.
d) Human migration introduced epidemic diseases to new populations.
23. The population-determining factor most affected by the improved access to resources and
improvements in medical practice during the 19th century was which of the following?
a) natality
b) mortality
c) emigration
d) immigration
24. Which of the following is not a result of the Industrial Revolution?
a) increased food supply
b) higher percentage of people farming
c) increase in human carrying capacity of the Earth
d) decline in death rate
25. Many resources, both material and financial, are expended to extend the lifespan of Canadians. What
is the long-term effect of success of these programs?
a) The Canadian population will grow at an increasing rate.
b) The Canadian population will grow at a steady rate.
c) The Canadian population will gradually decline as a result.
d) Extending lifespan has little effect on growth rate.
Part B: Short Answer (45 marks) Please answer the following questions on foolscap.
1. A small lake having a surface area of 1.5 km2 is found in a park with an area measuring 7.2 km by 3.7
km and is home to 40 moose. Determine the ecological density of the moose population, showing all
work, with a final statement. (3 marks)
2. The slender-eared mouse is rare in Canada. A population of these mice, numbering 8072 individuals,
is being relocated to allow developers to build a golf course in Northern Ontario. If the mice can
prosper at a density of 1354 mice/ha, what is the smallest area into which the mice can be moved?
Show all work and write a final statement. (2 marks)
3. In a river in Ontario, 112 Atlantic salmon were captured and fin-marked with a numbered T-bar
anchor tag. Two weeks later, a total of 72 Atlantic salmon were recaptured, and 11 carried the T-bar
anchor tags. Estimate the Atlantic salmon population in this river during this study. Show all work
and write a final statement. (2 marks)
4. Canadian beaver were introduced to southern Argentina as a fur-bearing animal to allow local people
to make additional money. Now the beaver is regarded as a pest in many parts of southern Argentina
with its dams causing serious flooding. A group of people has approached you as a biologist to
investigate the possibility of importing the fisher [a large weasel] from Canada to act as a predator
and decrease the number of these beaver. Briefly outline to these people why you feel this is a good
solution or why it is not. Provide at least THREE reasons and be sure to justify your reasons.
(3 marks)
5. There are six species of animals in an area at the edge of Oakville. The area is wooded land covering
rolling hills with two small rivers. Most of the area is surrounded by farm land where people have
sheep and cows. There are three roads in the area, one of which leads to an expanding subdivision.
SPECIES
MASS FEEDING MATURITY
P
5 kg
carnivore
2 years
Q
1 kg
omnivore
5 months
R
20 kg
carnivore
2 years
S
40 kg
herbivore
1 year
T
50 kg
omnivore
10 months
U
30 kg
herbivore
2 years
YOUNG
PARENTAL LIFE
HUMAN
PER
CARE
SPAN INTERACTIONS
CYCLE
5
6
5 months
few
years
2
9
2 months
few
years
4
3
10 months
many
years
6
4
8 months
many
years
9
8
6 months
few
years
7
2
8 months
many
years
a) Which of these species is the most extreme ‘K’ type?
EXPLAIN your choice by reference to four points.
(4 marks)
b) EXPLAIN which of these species is most likely to become endangered, referring to four points
about them.
(4 marks)
c) For the species that is most likely to become endangered, DESCRIBE four human-influenced
factors [based on info given] that could cause the species to become endangered.
(4 marks)
d) EXPLAIN two density-dependent factors that may affect population T in this area.
(2 marks)
e) EXPLAIN two density-independent factors that may affect population T in this area. (2 marks)
6. Conservationists trying to save endangered species are concerned about WILDERNESS AREAS and
HOTSPOTS.
a) Outline what is meant by a wilderness area indicating size and characteristics
(2 marks)
b) Outline what is meant by a hotspot and indicate their role with endemic species
(2 marks)
7. Choose TWO of the following questions only.
(2 x 2 marks each = 4 marks)
a) Briefly explain why a change from a hunter-gatherer (nomadic) lifestyle to an agricultural
(sedentary) lifestyle allowed the early human population to increase.
b) It has been stated that the practice of agriculture lead to the arts, scholarship, and trade. Explain
this statement.
c) Epidemic diseases were not a serious problem to hunter-gatherer societies. It was only when
agriculture was adopted did these become a significant factor in human populations. Explain this
statement.
d) Improvements in medical treatment began to have an impact on the population during the
Industrial Revolution and continue to the present. Describe the implications on the world's
population.
8. a) Outline the three major cause of endangerment among the species presented in class
b) Outline a proposal to save one of those species (identify the species)
9. BONUS QUESTION
(3 marks)
(3 marks)
(1 mark)
a) Rank the units in the grade 12 biology course from your favourite (#1) to your least favourite (#5). In
case you have forgotten, the units were: Metabolic Processes, Molecular Genetics, Homeostasis,
Evolution, and Populations Dynamics.
b) Briefly describe why your favourite unit (#1) was your favourite, and your least favourite unit (#5)
was your least favourite.
Grade 12 Biology (SBI 4U1)
Unit: Population Dynamics
Unit Test (70 marks)
Name: _______________________
Date: ________________________
Part A: Multiple Choice (25 marks)
1.
a
b
c
d
e
11.
a
b
c
d
e
21.
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