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1. The term __________ is defined as being the science and art of prevention, cure, or alleviation of disease and injury in animals and especially domestic animals. a. Quarantine b. Veterinary c. Profession d. Animal welfare 2. Which of the following is NOT a type of veterinary practice? a. Professional Veterinary Practice b. Private Veterinary Practice c. Public Veterinary Practice d. Industry Veterinary Practice 3. Which of the following is NOT considered a companion animal? a. Cats b. Cattle c. Dogs d. Horses 4. Which of the following is considered a food animal? a. Cats b. Cattle c. Dogs d. Horses 5. Which of the following is NOT considered a food animal? a. Cattle b. Swine c. Horses d. Poultry 6. There are approximately 12,000 positions in __________ veterinary practice including positions in both state and federal government institutions, including the U.S. Military, state and federal agencies and universities. a. Private b. Industry c. Public d. Professional 7. Which of the following is NOT a type of public veterinary practice? a. Personal b. Education c. Research d. Regulatory 8. Veterinarians in __________ hold positions as university professors and extension specialists teaching students studying veterinary medicine and delivering information to veterinarians and animal owners. a. Regulatory positions b. Research positions c. Education positions d. Service positions 9. A veterinarian employed by an animal feed company to evaluate the nutritional value and safety of animal feeds would be considered a(n) __________ veterinarian. a. Public b. Industry c. Private d. Education 10. The job of a __________ could include cleaning cages, nursing sick and injured animals, treating and bandaging wounds, assisting in surgeries, collecting blood samples and taking radiographs. a. Veterinary assistant b. Veterinary observer c. Veterinary inspector d. Clinical administrator 11. In 1866, Henry Burgh founded the first private humane society in the United States known as the _________. a. Animal Welfare Reform Group (AWRG) b. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) c. Animal Rights Protectors of America (ARPA) d. American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPCA) 12. The concept of __________ is based on science and is related to the well-being and productivity of animals. a. Animal welfare b. Animal rights c. Animal wellbeing d. Animal control 13. Diseases transmitted between animals and humans are known as __________ . a. Dangerous b. Zoonoses c. Disease agents d. Infectious 14. An example of a disease agent in cats I __________ . a. Parvo virus b. Pasteurella bacteria c. Salmonella bacteria d. Feline immunodeficiency virus 15. Which of the following is NOT a Mode of Transmission for diseases in animals? a. Vector Borne b. Aerosol Droplets c. Direct Contact d. Phototropic Contamination 16. Transmission of diseases from one animal directly to another animal is known as _________ . a. Vector norne b. Direct contact c. Airborne d. Food borne 17. Transmission of diseases through items such as dog brushes shared with multiple animals is known as __________ transmission. a. Vehicle b. Airborne c. Food-borne d. Vector-borne 18. In controlling the spread of disease, __________ is an important precaution which can include either hand washing or hand sanitizer. a. Isolation b. Hand hygiene c. Personal quarantine d. Clinical hygiene 19. An animal with an infectious disease may need to be separated or __________ from other animals to prevent the transmission of the infectious disease to other animals. a. Disinfected b. Shielded c. Observed d. Isolated 20. Animal food that has an average moisture content of 6% to 10% Is known as __________ and is generally bulk packaged and is able to provide multiple servings with extended shelf life under optimal storage conditions. a. Dry food b. Semi-moist food c. Wet food d. Canned food 21. Animal food that has an average moisture content of 23% to 38% is known as _________ and is generally individually packaged for single serving with a short shelf life once the primary package has been opened. a. Dry food b. Semi-moist food c. Wet food d. Canned food 22. Animal food that has an average moisture content of 68% to 78% is known as _________ and is very perishable because of the high moisture content. a. Dry food b. Semi-moist food c. Wet food d. Bulk food 23. The term __________ is commonly described as the time limit that a food product can be expected to be stored and remain nutritionally sound without experiencing a loss of quality prior to consumption. a. Inspection life b. Container life c. Shelf life d. Perishable life 24. Two principal factors affecting shelf life are __________ and __________ . a. Temperature, humidity b. Temperature, age c. Age, humidity d. Temperature, container used 25. Temperature, humidity and sunlight are three examples of _________ that affect the agent and the host in veterinary practice. a. Chemical factors b. Environmental factors c. Physical conditions d. Biological hazards 26. In veterinary practice, the __________ is the individual or population at risk of acquiring a disease. a. Host b. Agent c. Factor d. Vector 27. There are three levels of sanitation that can be achieved with equipment and facilities. Which of the following is NOT one of the levels of sanitation? a. Disinfection b. Quarantine c. Sterilization d. Decontamination 28. In terms of sanitation, the term __________ refers to the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects. a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Decontamination d. Quarantine 29. In terms of sanitation, the term _________ refers to the removal or destruction of all living microorganisms. a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Decontamination d. Quarantine 30. Disinfection methods can normally be grouped into one of three major categories. Which of the following is NOT one of those categories? a. Scientific b. Physical c. Chemical d. Biological 31. Disinfection methods involving sunlight and high temperature are considered _________ methods. a. Contagious b. Physical c. Chemical d. Biological 32. Disinfection methods involving solutions and gaseous elements are considered ________ methods. a. Contagious b. Physical c. Chemical d. Biological 33. Of the three types of disinfection, __________ methods have the broadest applicability and efficacy overall. a. Scientific b. Physical c. Chemical d. Biological 34. Heat is an effective means of destroying many types of microorganisms. __________ heat and __________ heat are the two major categories used for disinfection. a. Wet, steam b. Dry, moist c. Pure, unpure d. Soft, stable 35. When developing housing systems, the __________ must be considered which encompasses the conditions immediately surrounding the animal inside the cage or stall. a. Micro-environment b. Macro-environment c. Personal environment d. Social environment 36. When developing housing systems, the ________ must be considered which includes those conditions that are ongoing outside the cage or stall. a. Micro-environment b. Macro-environment c. Personal environment d. Social environment 37. In animal housing, __________ supplies fresh oxygen in proper amounts, removes heat, and flushes out microbes as air circulates at prescribed flow rates. a. Lighting b. Bedding c. Doors d. Ventilation 38. Which of the following is NOT a function of proper ventilation? a. Provides fresh bedding in stalls b. Supplies fresh oxygen in proper amounts to facility c. Removes heat from the facility d. Flushes out microbes as air circulates at prescribed flow rates 39. Veterinarians must be able to recognize __________ in animals, which is defined as an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage. a. Fear b. Stress c. Abuse d. Pain 40. Which of the following is a physiological response to pain? a. Dilated pupils b. Reluctance to move c. Self-mutilation d. Vocalization 41. Which of the following is NOT a cardiopulmonary change that can be a response to pain in an animal? a. Shallow breathing b. Increased heart rate c. Increased respiratory rate d. Restlessness 42. In veterinary practices, the term _________ refers to the act of controlling movement and activity of an animal. a. Quarantine b. Socialization c. Restraint d. Handling 43. Which of the following is NOT an effective method for preventing the ends of rope from fraying? a. Whipping b. Ferruling c. Burning d. Crossing 44. When approaching a dog for the first time, what is the first thing you should do? a. Stare it in the eyes b. Extend your hand palm down to allow the dog to smell it c. Gently scratch the dog behind the ears d. Run your hands all over the dog’s body 45. After an injury or a surgical procedure, dogs need to be restrained from licking or chewing a wound or bandage using a(n) __________ . a. French collar b. Elizabethan collar c. Muzzle d. Gauze muzzle 46. The best method for carrying a cat a short distance is grasping it by __________ with your left hand. a. The front legs b. The scruff of the neck c. The hind legs and rear d. The front legs and head 47. When using a squeeze chute, the handler closes the _________ behind the animal’s head as it walks through the chute. a. Halter b. Squeeze trap c. Headgate d. Palpation cage 48. When working with calves that are smaller than cows and a calf squeeze chute is not available, handlers use a technique of restraint called _________, which allows an average person to restrain calves up to 300 lb. a. Squeezing b. Dropping c. Flanking d. Ranking 49. Horse have __________ vision, which means that each eye can move independently of the other and send the brain different pictures. a. Monocular b. Binocular c. Uniocular d. Separated 50. Using __________ prevents the horse from lifting their hind legs and kicking out. a. Hobbles b. Harnesses c. Twitches d. Chains 51. Some horses need restraint in the form of distraction rather than physical confinement. A(n) __________ is often used to distract the horse while the veterinarian works on them. a. Hobble b. Halter c. Twitch d. Cast 52. The nose twitch is a chain or rope loop that is tightened around the horse’s __________ , causing some discomfort but also distracting him from more stressful things happening. a. Mane b. Nostrils c. Neck d. Top lip 53. Before the veterinarian examines the animal, the animal’s __________ should be reviewed or created. a. Personality test b. Medical Records c. Vital signs d. Physical signs 54. A thorough physical exam requires an accurate __________ which is important in assessing the body condition of the animal and is also required to determine the proper dose of any prescribed medications. a. Weight b. Heart rate c. Sight test d. Hearing test 55. When examining a small animal, a(n) __________ is useful for evaluating the condition of the ear canal and tympanic membrane (ear drum) which allows clear observation of wax, mites, ticks, or foreign objects. a. Orthoscope b. Auroscope c. Otoscope d. Ambioscope 56. When examining a small animal, a(n) __________ is used to examine the eyes, which is necessary for viewing the internal structures of the eye, such as the iris, lens and optic disc. a. Orthoscope b. Ophthalmoscope c. Auroscope d. Optoscope 57. Which tool is used by the veterinarian to evaluate the cardiovascular and respiratory systems? a. Otoscope b. Ophthalmoscope c. Cardioscope d. Stethoscope 58. In addition to the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, a stethoscope can be used to evaluate the __________ system as well. a. Digestive b. Endocrine c. Nervous d. Skeletal 59. In veterinary practice, __________ is the initial care or treatment of sick or injured animals before the complete medical evaluation and treatment. a. Physical exam b. Initial response c. First aid d. Shock response 60. An animal in shock should be __________ . a. Forced to stand at all times b. Overstimulated to prevent lethargy c. Kept very still and quiet without distractions d. Forced to walk in remain moving 61. Abdominal pain in animals related to gas, impaction, twist, or hypermotility of the large intestine or stomach is known as __________ . a. Anesthesia b. Casting c. Arterial pain d. Colic 62. In veterinary practice, __________ are used on animals primarily as a means to apply pressure, maintain medication over a wound and restrict movement. a. Hobbles b. Bandages c. Halters d. Twitches 63. Drugs that require a prescription from a licensed veterinarian are known as __________ . a. Prescription b. Over-the-counter c. Monitored drugs d. Free use drugs 64. Most medicines should be stored at room temperature (__________ to ____________). a. 20-40 degrees Fahrenheit b. 30-50 degrees Fahrenheit c. 60-80 degrees Fahrenheit d. 80-100 degrees Fahrenheit 65. The __________ of the animal generally determines the dose of drugs and pesticides. a. Age b. Body weight c. Body height d. Skin color 66. Doses for liquid medications are measured in ounces or __________ . a. Cubic centimeters (milliliters) b. Pounds c. Cubic ounces (liters) d. Grams 67. Which of the following is typically used to inject a liquid product parenterally? a. Balling gun b. Cup c. Tattoo outfit d. Syringe and needle 68. Common sizes of needles are 24 to 14 gauge (G) in caliber. The higher the gauge, the __________ the diameter of the needle is. a. Smaller b. Larger c. Shorter d. Longer 69. The administering of medicine injected under the skin is known as __________ . a. Subcutaneously (SQ) b. Intraveneous (IV) c. Intrathoracic (IT) d. Intradermal (ID) 70. The administering of medicine injected in the vein is known as __________ . a. Subcutaneously (SQ) b. Intramuscular (IM) c. Intravenous (IV) d. Intracardial (IC) 71. The administering of medicine between layers of skin is known as __________ . a. Intradermal (ID) b. Intraarticular (IA) c. Epidural (ED) d. Topical (TOP) 72. The administering of medicine injected in the peritoneal cavity is known as __________ . a. Epidural (ED) b. Intraruminal (IR) c. Subconjunctival (Subconj) d. Intraperitionial (IP) 73. The administering of medicine injected in the spinal cavity is known as __________ . a. Oral (PO) b. Intramammary (IMM) c. Epidural (ED) d. Inhalation (IH) 74. The administering of medicine applied on tissue surface is known as __________ . a. Epidural (ED) b. Topical (TOP) c. Subconjunctival (Subconj) d. Oral (PO) 75. The administering of medicine injected into the thoracic cavity is known as __________ . a. Intrathoracic (IT) b. Intramuscular (IM) c. Topical (TOP) d. Oral (PO) 76. Which of the following is NOT a method of administering medicine? a. Intraperitionial (IP) b. Inhalation (IH) c. Intraocular (IO) d. Intradocilic (ID) 77. The _________ method of fecal examination involves visual observation of the fecal material. a. Flotation b. Direct smear c. Gross examination d. Blood 78. Factors used to identify bacteria using direct microscopic inspection include __________ (form or shape) and the organism’s reaction to stains and dyes. a. Consistency b. Inoculation c. Morphology d. Smearing 79. Bacteria that is spherical in shape is known as __________ . a. Cocci b. Bacilli c. Spirilla d. Barilla 80. Bacteria that is cylindrical rod shape is known as ________ . a. Cocci b. Bacilli c. Spirilla d. Barilla 81. Bacteria that is spiral or curved shape is known as __________ . a. Cocci b. Bacilli c. Spirilla d. Barilla 82. In Radiology, the vacuum tube containing a metal target onto which a beam of electrons is directed at high energy for the production of x-rays is known as a(n) __________ . a. Radiographic tube b. Scatter control tube c. Frequency tube d. X-ray tube 83. Milliamperage second (mAs) is a unit of measurement used in __________ diagnostics and radiation therapy. a. X-ray imaging b. Physical examination c. Urine analysis d. Serum testing 84. An important tool for veterinarians is _________ , or post-mortem examination. a. X-ray examination b. Physical examination c. Diagnostic examination d. Necropsy 85. During an examination, if a veterinarian finds that an animal has a lung filled with air, it could be a diagnosis for __________ . a. Abcess b. Emphysema c. Mastitis d. Nephritis 86. In veterinary medicine, __________ is an imaging technique that utilizes sound waves of sector and linear scanners to produce images of various organs and tissues. a. Ultrasonography b. X-ray c. Thermography d. Computerized axial tomography 87. In veterinary medicine, __________ is the use of a heat sensitive scanner that detects the temperature of the skin and muscles as it relays a red color image onto a screen. a. Ultrasonography b. X-ray c. Thermography d. Computerized axial tomography 88. A clinical procedure required for diagnosis and differentiation of most heart arrhythmias is known as __________ . a. Electrocardiogram (ECC, EKG) b. Endoscopy (END) c. Thermography d. Ultrasonography 89. The process of killing all microorganisms (bacterial, viral and fungal) with the use of either physical or chemical agents is known as __________ . a. Quarantine b. Restraint c. Sterilization d. Rehabilitation 90. The three factors that dictate the success of __________ sterilization are temperature, pressure and exposure time. a. Steam b. Chemical c. Plasma d. Ionizing radiation 91. In veterinary practice, __________ scissors are used to cut non-biological materials such as when applying and removing bandages and to cut paper and other materials. a. Utility b. Operating c. Dissecting d. Forceps 92. A tube known as a(n) __________ is a drain that is used to release build-ups of fluid or gas from animals. a. Cannula b. Scalpel c. Thumb forcep d. Hemostat 93. Which of the following observations of the patient would help indicate that the animal is in Stage 3 of Anesthesia? a. Opposition by patient to flexing and extending the legs b. Decrease and loss of reflexes c. Respiration rate and depth and muscle tone d. Color of blood in the surgical site 94. When preparing the surgical field of an animal, veterinary assistants should use clean clippers and clip __________ of the hair. a. With the grain b. Against the grain c. Diagonal the grain d. The tips 95. The division of the USDA that is responsible for setting guidelines for interstate movement as well as livestock and poultry health standards that state are required to meet is known as __________ . a. US Animal ID Service b. USDA Animal Health Service c. Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service d. Animal and Plant ID Service 96. A livestock certificate of veterinary inspection, or health paper must be filled out by __________ . a. The producer b. The breeder c. The transporter d. A licensed veterinarian 97. The contagious disease in cattle known as __________ can cause cows to abort, deliver very weak calves, or produce less milk. a. Milk fever b. Rabies c. Brucellosis d. Mad cow disease 98. Vaccinating against brucellosis is most effective when female cattle are vaccinated when they are between the ages of four and eight __________ of age. a. Days b. Weeks c. Months d. Years 99. A bacterial disease of livestock the causes sudden death within a few hours and decomposes rapidly is known as __________ . a. b. c. d. Brucellosis Milk fever Rabies Anthrax 100. All rabies vaccines are administered to dogs and cats by or under the direct supervision of __________ . a. The owner b. A licensed veterinarian c. The breeder d. The breeder or a licensed veterinarian 101. A bird with clinical symptoms including lack of energy or appetite, soft-shelled or misshapen eggs, swelling of the head, eyelids, combs and wattle, coughing and sneezing and diarrhea could be diagnosed with __________ . a. Pseuodorabies b. Avian influenza c. Avian brucellosis d. Trichomoniasis 102. One of the most infectious poultry disease in the world is known as __________, with symptoms including sneezing, gasping for air, greenish, watery diarrhea, muscular tremors, drooping wings, and complete paralysis. a. Trichomoniasis b. Vesicular Stomatitis c. West Nile Encephalitis d. Exotic Newcastle Disease 103. The best way to deal with trichomoniasis in cattle is to __________ . a. Prevent exposure b. Treat the symptoms c. Monitor the contamination rate d. Apply daily treatments 104. The primary production and economic impact of thrichomoniasis is on __________ because it causes infertility and abortions and often extends the breeding/calving season. a. Bulls b. Cows c. Feed costs d. Labor costs 105. A mosquito-borne zoonotic viral disease known as __________ causes an inflammation of the brain tissue in birds, horses and humans. a. Vesicular stomatitis b. West nile encephalitis c. Exotic Newcastle disease d. Brucellosis 106. The phrase __________ refers to protocol and procedures employed during live animal production to prevent chemical and microbial contamination of raw foods of animal origin. a. Preharvest food safety b. Postharvest food safety c. Animal welfare d. Food welfare 107. The integration of all quality assurance programs in all segments of a food animal industry is known as __________ . a. Gate to Fork (GTF) b. Total Quality Management (TQM) c. Producers Assurance Program (PAP) d. Food Welfare Act (FWA) 108. The federal __________ , enacted in 1966 authorizes the U.S. Secretary of Agriculture to promulgate standards and other requirements governing the humane handling, housing, care and treatment of warm blooded animals. a. Animal Rights Act b. Animal Fair Treatment Act c. Animal Welfare Act d. Animal Transportation Act 109. Medical waste known as __________ (discarded needles, scalpel blades, etc.) must be packed in rigid, unbreakable, puncture and leak resistant containers that can be easily sealed. a. Blades b. Sharps c. Breakables d. Contaminants 110. A __________ is any chemical that kills insects. a. Insecticide b. Arthroprods c. Pesticide d. Fungicide 111. The type of license required to purchase and sell pesticides is known as __________ . a. Pesticide dealer license b. Pesticide commercial applicator license c. Pesticide noncommercial applicator license d. Pesticide private applicator license 112. The type of license required to purchase and use pesticides on your own animals is known as __________ . a. Pesticide dealer license b. Pesticide commercial applicator license c. Pesticide noncommercial applicator license d. Pesticide private applicator license Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. D 44. B 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. A 51. C 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. B 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. A 64. C 65. B 66. A 67. D 68. A 69. A 70. C 71. A 72. D 73. C 74. B 75. A 76. D 77. C 78. C 79. A 80. B 81. C 82. D 83. A 84. D 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. A 91. A 92. A 93. C 94. B 95. C 96. D 97. C 98. C 99. D 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. B B D A B B A B C B C A D