Download 2016 District Test Bank

1. The term __________ is defined as being the science and art of prevention, cure, or alleviation of
disease and injury in animals and especially domestic animals.
a. Quarantine
b. Veterinary
c. Profession
d. Animal welfare
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of veterinary practice?
a. Professional Veterinary Practice
b. Private Veterinary Practice
c. Public Veterinary Practice
d. Industry Veterinary Practice
3. Which of the following is NOT considered a companion animal?
a. Cats
b. Cattle
c. Dogs
d. Horses
4. Which of the following is considered a food animal?
a. Cats
b. Cattle
c. Dogs
d. Horses
5. Which of the following is NOT considered a food animal?
a. Cattle
b. Swine
c. Horses
d. Poultry
6. There are approximately 12,000 positions in __________ veterinary practice including positions in
both state and federal government institutions, including the U.S. Military, state and federal
agencies and universities.
a. Private
b. Industry
c. Public
d. Professional
7. Which of the following is NOT a type of public veterinary practice?
a. Personal
b. Education
c. Research
d. Regulatory
8. Veterinarians in __________ hold positions as university professors and extension specialists
teaching students studying veterinary medicine and delivering information to veterinarians and
animal owners.
a. Regulatory positions
b. Research positions
c. Education positions
d. Service positions
9. A veterinarian employed by an animal feed company to evaluate the nutritional value and safety of
animal feeds would be considered a(n) __________ veterinarian.
a. Public
b. Industry
c. Private
d. Education
10. The job of a __________ could include cleaning cages, nursing sick and injured animals, treating and
bandaging wounds, assisting in surgeries, collecting blood samples and taking radiographs.
a. Veterinary assistant
b. Veterinary observer
c. Veterinary inspector
d. Clinical administrator
11. In 1866, Henry Burgh founded the first private humane society in the United States known as the
_________.
a. Animal Welfare Reform Group (AWRG)
b. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA)
c. Animal Rights Protectors of America (ARPA)
d. American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPCA)
12. The concept of __________ is based on science and is related to the well-being and productivity of
animals.
a. Animal welfare
b. Animal rights
c. Animal wellbeing
d. Animal control
13. Diseases transmitted between animals and humans are known as __________ .
a. Dangerous
b. Zoonoses
c. Disease agents
d. Infectious
14. An example of a disease agent in cats I __________ .
a. Parvo virus
b. Pasteurella bacteria
c. Salmonella bacteria
d. Feline immunodeficiency virus
15. Which of the following is NOT a Mode of Transmission for diseases in animals?
a. Vector Borne
b. Aerosol Droplets
c. Direct Contact
d. Phototropic Contamination
16. Transmission of diseases from one animal directly to another animal is known as _________ .
a. Vector norne
b. Direct contact
c. Airborne
d. Food borne
17. Transmission of diseases through items such as dog brushes shared with multiple animals is
known as __________ transmission.
a. Vehicle
b. Airborne
c. Food-borne
d. Vector-borne
18. In controlling the spread of disease, __________ is an important precaution which can include either
hand washing or hand sanitizer.
a. Isolation
b. Hand hygiene
c. Personal quarantine
d. Clinical hygiene
19. An animal with an infectious disease may need to be separated or __________ from other animals to
prevent the transmission of the infectious disease to other animals.
a. Disinfected
b. Shielded
c. Observed
d. Isolated
20. Animal food that has an average moisture content of 6% to 10% Is known as __________ and is
generally bulk packaged and is able to provide multiple servings with extended shelf life under
optimal storage conditions.
a. Dry food
b. Semi-moist food
c. Wet food
d. Canned food
21. Animal food that has an average moisture content of 23% to 38% is known as _________ and is
generally individually packaged for single serving with a short shelf life once the primary package
has been opened.
a. Dry food
b. Semi-moist food
c. Wet food
d. Canned food
22. Animal food that has an average moisture content of 68% to 78% is known as _________ and is very
perishable because of the high moisture content.
a. Dry food
b. Semi-moist food
c. Wet food
d. Bulk food
23. The term __________ is commonly described as the time limit that a food product can be expected to
be stored and remain nutritionally sound without experiencing a loss of quality prior to
consumption.
a. Inspection life
b. Container life
c. Shelf life
d. Perishable life
24. Two principal factors affecting shelf life are __________ and __________ .
a. Temperature, humidity
b. Temperature, age
c. Age, humidity
d. Temperature, container used
25. Temperature, humidity and sunlight are three examples of _________ that affect the agent and the
host in veterinary practice.
a. Chemical factors
b. Environmental factors
c. Physical conditions
d. Biological hazards
26. In veterinary practice, the __________ is the individual or population at risk of acquiring a disease.
a. Host
b. Agent
c. Factor
d. Vector
27. There are three levels of sanitation that can be achieved with equipment and facilities. Which of
the following is NOT one of the levels of sanitation?
a. Disinfection
b. Quarantine
c. Sterilization
d. Decontamination
28. In terms of sanitation, the term __________ refers to the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms
on inanimate objects.
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Decontamination
d. Quarantine
29. In terms of sanitation, the term _________ refers to the removal or destruction of all living
microorganisms.
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Decontamination
d. Quarantine
30. Disinfection methods can normally be grouped into one of three major categories. Which of the
following is NOT one of those categories?
a. Scientific
b. Physical
c. Chemical
d. Biological
31. Disinfection methods involving sunlight and high temperature are considered _________ methods.
a. Contagious
b. Physical
c. Chemical
d. Biological
32. Disinfection methods involving solutions and gaseous elements are considered ________ methods.
a. Contagious
b. Physical
c. Chemical
d. Biological
33. Of the three types of disinfection, __________ methods have the broadest applicability and efficacy
overall.
a. Scientific
b. Physical
c. Chemical
d. Biological
34. Heat is an effective means of destroying many types of microorganisms. __________ heat and
__________ heat are the two major categories used for disinfection.
a. Wet, steam
b. Dry, moist
c. Pure, unpure
d. Soft, stable
35. When developing housing systems, the __________ must be considered which encompasses the
conditions immediately surrounding the animal inside the cage or stall.
a. Micro-environment
b. Macro-environment
c. Personal environment
d. Social environment
36. When developing housing systems, the ________ must be considered which includes those
conditions that are ongoing outside the cage or stall.
a. Micro-environment
b. Macro-environment
c. Personal environment
d. Social environment
37. In animal housing, __________ supplies fresh oxygen in proper amounts, removes heat, and flushes
out microbes as air circulates at prescribed flow rates.
a. Lighting
b. Bedding
c. Doors
d. Ventilation
38. Which of the following is NOT a function of proper ventilation?
a. Provides fresh bedding in stalls
b. Supplies fresh oxygen in proper amounts to facility
c. Removes heat from the facility
d. Flushes out microbes as air circulates at prescribed flow rates
39. Veterinarians must be able to recognize __________ in animals, which is defined as an unpleasant
sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage.
a. Fear
b. Stress
c. Abuse
d. Pain
40. Which of the following is a physiological response to pain?
a. Dilated pupils
b. Reluctance to move
c. Self-mutilation
d. Vocalization
41. Which of the following is NOT a cardiopulmonary change that can be a response to pain in an
animal?
a. Shallow breathing
b. Increased heart rate
c. Increased respiratory rate
d. Restlessness
42. In veterinary practices, the term _________ refers to the act of controlling movement and activity of
an animal.
a. Quarantine
b. Socialization
c. Restraint
d. Handling
43. Which of the following is NOT an effective method for preventing the ends of rope from fraying?
a. Whipping
b. Ferruling
c. Burning
d. Crossing
44. When approaching a dog for the first time, what is the first thing you should do?
a. Stare it in the eyes
b. Extend your hand palm down to allow the dog to smell it
c. Gently scratch the dog behind the ears
d. Run your hands all over the dog’s body
45. After an injury or a surgical procedure, dogs need to be restrained from licking or chewing a
wound or bandage using a(n) __________ .
a. French collar
b. Elizabethan collar
c. Muzzle
d. Gauze muzzle
46. The best method for carrying a cat a short distance is grasping it by __________ with your left hand.
a. The front legs
b. The scruff of the neck
c. The hind legs and rear
d. The front legs and head
47. When using a squeeze chute, the handler closes the _________ behind the animal’s head as it walks
through the chute.
a. Halter
b. Squeeze trap
c. Headgate
d. Palpation cage
48. When working with calves that are smaller than cows and a calf squeeze chute is not available,
handlers use a technique of restraint called _________, which allows an average person to restrain
calves up to 300 lb.
a. Squeezing
b. Dropping
c. Flanking
d. Ranking
49. Horse have __________ vision, which means that each eye can move independently of the other and
send the brain different pictures.
a. Monocular
b. Binocular
c. Uniocular
d. Separated
50. Using __________ prevents the horse from lifting their hind legs and kicking out.
a. Hobbles
b. Harnesses
c. Twitches
d. Chains
51. Some horses need restraint in the form of distraction rather than physical confinement. A(n)
__________ is often used to distract the horse while the veterinarian works on them.
a. Hobble
b. Halter
c. Twitch
d. Cast
52. The nose twitch is a chain or rope loop that is tightened around the horse’s __________ , causing
some discomfort but also distracting him from more stressful things happening.
a. Mane
b. Nostrils
c. Neck
d. Top lip
53. Before the veterinarian examines the animal, the animal’s __________ should be reviewed or created.
a. Personality test
b. Medical Records
c. Vital signs
d. Physical signs
54. A thorough physical exam requires an accurate __________ which is important in assessing the body
condition of the animal and is also required to determine the proper dose of any prescribed
medications.
a. Weight
b. Heart rate
c. Sight test
d. Hearing test
55. When examining a small animal, a(n) __________ is useful for evaluating the condition of the ear
canal and tympanic membrane (ear drum) which allows clear observation of wax, mites, ticks, or
foreign objects.
a. Orthoscope
b. Auroscope
c. Otoscope
d. Ambioscope
56. When examining a small animal, a(n) __________ is used to examine the eyes, which is necessary for
viewing the internal structures of the eye, such as the iris, lens and optic disc.
a. Orthoscope
b. Ophthalmoscope
c. Auroscope
d. Optoscope
57. Which tool is used by the veterinarian to evaluate the cardiovascular and respiratory systems?
a. Otoscope
b. Ophthalmoscope
c. Cardioscope
d. Stethoscope
58. In addition to the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, a stethoscope can be used to evaluate
the __________ system as well.
a. Digestive
b. Endocrine
c. Nervous
d. Skeletal
59. In veterinary practice, __________ is the initial care or treatment of sick or injured animals before the
complete medical evaluation and treatment.
a. Physical exam
b. Initial response
c. First aid
d. Shock response
60. An animal in shock should be __________ .
a. Forced to stand at all times
b. Overstimulated to prevent lethargy
c. Kept very still and quiet without distractions
d. Forced to walk in remain moving
61. Abdominal pain in animals related to gas, impaction, twist, or hypermotility of the large intestine
or stomach is known as __________ .
a. Anesthesia
b. Casting
c. Arterial pain
d. Colic
62. In veterinary practice, __________ are used on animals primarily as a means to apply pressure,
maintain medication over a wound and restrict movement.
a. Hobbles
b. Bandages
c. Halters
d. Twitches
63. Drugs that require a prescription from a licensed veterinarian are known as __________ .
a. Prescription
b. Over-the-counter
c. Monitored drugs
d. Free use drugs
64. Most medicines should be stored at room temperature (__________ to ____________).
a. 20-40 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 30-50 degrees Fahrenheit
c. 60-80 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 80-100 degrees Fahrenheit
65. The __________ of the animal generally determines the dose of drugs and pesticides.
a. Age
b. Body weight
c. Body height
d. Skin color
66. Doses for liquid medications are measured in ounces or __________ .
a. Cubic centimeters (milliliters)
b. Pounds
c. Cubic ounces (liters)
d. Grams
67. Which of the following is typically used to inject a liquid product parenterally?
a. Balling gun
b. Cup
c. Tattoo outfit
d. Syringe and needle
68. Common sizes of needles are 24 to 14 gauge (G) in caliber. The higher the gauge, the __________ the
diameter of the needle is.
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. Shorter
d. Longer
69. The administering of medicine injected under the skin is known as __________ .
a. Subcutaneously (SQ)
b. Intraveneous (IV)
c. Intrathoracic (IT)
d. Intradermal (ID)
70. The administering of medicine injected in the vein is known as __________ .
a. Subcutaneously (SQ)
b. Intramuscular (IM)
c. Intravenous (IV)
d. Intracardial (IC)
71. The administering of medicine between layers of skin is known as __________ .
a. Intradermal (ID)
b. Intraarticular (IA)
c. Epidural (ED)
d. Topical (TOP)
72. The administering of medicine injected in the peritoneal cavity is known as __________ .
a. Epidural (ED)
b. Intraruminal (IR)
c. Subconjunctival (Subconj)
d. Intraperitionial (IP)
73. The administering of medicine injected in the spinal cavity is known as __________ .
a. Oral (PO)
b. Intramammary (IMM)
c. Epidural (ED)
d. Inhalation (IH)
74. The administering of medicine applied on tissue surface is known as __________ .
a. Epidural (ED)
b. Topical (TOP)
c. Subconjunctival (Subconj)
d. Oral (PO)
75. The administering of medicine injected into the thoracic cavity is known as __________ .
a. Intrathoracic (IT)
b. Intramuscular (IM)
c. Topical (TOP)
d. Oral (PO)
76. Which of the following is NOT a method of administering medicine?
a. Intraperitionial (IP)
b. Inhalation (IH)
c. Intraocular (IO)
d. Intradocilic (ID)
77. The _________ method of fecal examination involves visual observation of the fecal material.
a. Flotation
b. Direct smear
c. Gross examination
d. Blood
78. Factors used to identify bacteria using direct microscopic inspection include __________ (form or
shape) and the organism’s reaction to stains and dyes.
a. Consistency
b. Inoculation
c. Morphology
d. Smearing
79. Bacteria that is spherical in shape is known as __________ .
a. Cocci
b. Bacilli
c. Spirilla
d. Barilla
80. Bacteria that is cylindrical rod shape is known as ________ .
a. Cocci
b. Bacilli
c. Spirilla
d. Barilla
81. Bacteria that is spiral or curved shape is known as __________ .
a. Cocci
b. Bacilli
c. Spirilla
d. Barilla
82. In Radiology, the vacuum tube containing a metal target onto which a beam of electrons is directed
at high energy for the production of x-rays is known as a(n) __________ .
a. Radiographic tube
b. Scatter control tube
c. Frequency tube
d. X-ray tube
83. Milliamperage second (mAs) is a unit of measurement used in __________ diagnostics and radiation
therapy.
a. X-ray imaging
b. Physical examination
c. Urine analysis
d. Serum testing
84. An important tool for veterinarians is _________ , or post-mortem examination.
a. X-ray examination
b. Physical examination
c. Diagnostic examination
d. Necropsy
85. During an examination, if a veterinarian finds that an animal has a lung filled with air, it could be a
diagnosis for __________ .
a. Abcess
b. Emphysema
c. Mastitis
d. Nephritis
86. In veterinary medicine, __________ is an imaging technique that utilizes sound waves of sector and
linear scanners to produce images of various organs and tissues.
a. Ultrasonography
b. X-ray
c. Thermography
d. Computerized axial tomography
87. In veterinary medicine, __________ is the use of a heat sensitive scanner that detects the temperature
of the skin and muscles as it relays a red color image onto a screen.
a. Ultrasonography
b. X-ray
c. Thermography
d. Computerized axial tomography
88. A clinical procedure required for diagnosis and differentiation of most heart arrhythmias is known
as __________ .
a. Electrocardiogram (ECC, EKG)
b. Endoscopy (END)
c. Thermography
d. Ultrasonography
89. The process of killing all microorganisms (bacterial, viral and fungal) with the use of either
physical or chemical agents is known as __________ .
a. Quarantine
b. Restraint
c. Sterilization
d. Rehabilitation
90. The three factors that dictate the success of __________ sterilization are temperature, pressure and
exposure time.
a. Steam
b. Chemical
c. Plasma
d. Ionizing radiation
91. In veterinary practice, __________ scissors are used to cut non-biological materials such as when
applying and removing bandages and to cut paper and other materials.
a. Utility
b. Operating
c. Dissecting
d. Forceps
92. A tube known as a(n) __________ is a drain that is used to release build-ups of fluid or gas from
animals.
a. Cannula
b. Scalpel
c. Thumb forcep
d. Hemostat
93. Which of the following observations of the patient would help indicate that the animal is in Stage 3
of Anesthesia?
a. Opposition by patient to flexing and extending the legs
b. Decrease and loss of reflexes
c. Respiration rate and depth and muscle tone
d. Color of blood in the surgical site
94. When preparing the surgical field of an animal, veterinary assistants should use clean clippers and
clip __________ of the hair.
a. With the grain
b. Against the grain
c. Diagonal the grain
d. The tips
95. The division of the USDA that is responsible for setting guidelines for interstate movement as well
as livestock and poultry health standards that state are required to meet is known as __________ .
a. US Animal ID Service
b. USDA Animal Health Service
c. Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
d. Animal and Plant ID Service
96. A livestock certificate of veterinary inspection, or health paper must be filled out by __________ .
a. The producer
b. The breeder
c. The transporter
d. A licensed veterinarian
97. The contagious disease in cattle known as __________ can cause cows to abort, deliver very weak
calves, or produce less milk.
a. Milk fever
b. Rabies
c. Brucellosis
d. Mad cow disease
98. Vaccinating against brucellosis is most effective when female cattle are vaccinated when they are
between the ages of four and eight __________ of age.
a. Days
b. Weeks
c. Months
d. Years
99. A bacterial disease of livestock the causes sudden death within a few hours and decomposes
rapidly is known as __________ .
a.
b.
c.
d.
Brucellosis
Milk fever
Rabies
Anthrax
100.
All rabies vaccines are administered to dogs and cats by or under the direct supervision of
__________ .
a. The owner
b. A licensed veterinarian
c. The breeder
d. The breeder or a licensed veterinarian
101.
A bird with clinical symptoms including lack of energy or appetite, soft-shelled or
misshapen eggs, swelling of the head, eyelids, combs and wattle, coughing and sneezing and
diarrhea could be diagnosed with __________ .
a. Pseuodorabies
b. Avian influenza
c. Avian brucellosis
d. Trichomoniasis
102.
One of the most infectious poultry disease in the world is known as __________, with
symptoms including sneezing, gasping for air, greenish, watery diarrhea, muscular tremors,
drooping wings, and complete paralysis.
a. Trichomoniasis
b. Vesicular Stomatitis
c. West Nile Encephalitis
d. Exotic Newcastle Disease
103.
The best way to deal with trichomoniasis in cattle is to __________ .
a. Prevent exposure
b. Treat the symptoms
c. Monitor the contamination rate
d. Apply daily treatments
104.
The primary production and economic impact of thrichomoniasis is on __________ because it
causes infertility and abortions and often extends the breeding/calving season.
a. Bulls
b. Cows
c. Feed costs
d. Labor costs
105.
A mosquito-borne zoonotic viral disease known as __________ causes an inflammation of the
brain tissue in birds, horses and humans.
a. Vesicular stomatitis
b. West nile encephalitis
c. Exotic Newcastle disease
d. Brucellosis
106.
The phrase __________ refers to protocol and procedures employed during live animal
production to prevent chemical and microbial contamination of raw foods of animal origin.
a. Preharvest food safety
b. Postharvest food safety
c. Animal welfare
d. Food welfare
107.
The integration of all quality assurance programs in all segments of a food animal industry
is known as __________ .
a. Gate to Fork (GTF)
b. Total Quality Management (TQM)
c. Producers Assurance Program (PAP)
d. Food Welfare Act (FWA)
108.
The federal __________ , enacted in 1966 authorizes the U.S. Secretary of Agriculture to
promulgate standards and other requirements governing the humane handling, housing, care and
treatment of warm blooded animals.
a. Animal Rights Act
b. Animal Fair Treatment Act
c. Animal Welfare Act
d. Animal Transportation Act
109.
Medical waste known as __________ (discarded needles, scalpel blades, etc.) must be packed
in rigid, unbreakable, puncture and leak resistant containers that can be easily sealed.
a. Blades
b. Sharps
c. Breakables
d. Contaminants
110.
A __________ is any chemical that kills insects.
a. Insecticide
b. Arthroprods
c. Pesticide
d. Fungicide
111.
The type of license required to purchase and sell pesticides is known as __________ .
a. Pesticide dealer license
b. Pesticide commercial applicator license
c. Pesticide noncommercial applicator license
d. Pesticide private applicator license
112.
The type of license required to purchase and use pesticides on your own animals is known
as __________ .
a. Pesticide dealer license
b. Pesticide commercial applicator license
c. Pesticide noncommercial applicator license
d. Pesticide private applicator license
Key
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. C
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. D
40. A
41. D
42. C
43. D
44. B
45. B
46. B
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. A
51. C
52. D
53. B
54. A
55. C
56. B
57. D
58. A
59. C
60. C
61. D
62. B
63. A
64. C
65. B
66. A
67. D
68. A
69. A
70. C
71. A
72. D
73. C
74. B
75. A
76. D
77. C
78. C
79. A
80. B
81. C
82. D
83. A
84. D
85. B
86. A
87. C
88. A
89. C
90. A
91. A
92. A
93. C
94. B
95. C
96. D
97. C
98. C
99. D
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
B
B
D
A
B
B
A
B
C
B
C
A
D