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BIOS 1300
Exam #4 Review
Week 13 session 3
11/17/16
Chapter 11-3
1. When there is a “lag” after stimulation and there’s no change in muscle fiber length. This can be
termed:
a. Relaxation period
b. Contraction period
c. Latent period
d. Stimulus
2. What is an important event that needs to occur for the relaxation period to take place?
a. Return Na+ to the ECF
b. Return K+ to the ICF
c. Return Ca++ to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Return Ca++ to the ECF
3. If the relaxation of a muscle doesn’t not occur before the next stimulation, this can be termed:
a. Single twitch
b. Summation
c. Incomplete tetany
d. Complete tetany
4. If stimuli are so close together that the muscle reaches a steady tension this is called:
a. Single twitch
b. Summation
c. Incomplete tetany
d. Complete tetany
5. What is an ideal method of sustaining a muscle contraction without as much fatigue?
a. Fire different motor units to maintain tension
b. Fire more motor units around the activated muscle group
c. Fire less motor units so your muscle can recover
d. Fire more motor units so that you can achieve unfused tetany – the most powerful muscle
contraction.
6. Shortening of a muscle against gravity describes:
a. Isometric
b. Concentric
c. Eccentric
d. Contracentric
7. Which of the following statements require ATP
I.
During contraction for crossbridges
II.
To pump Ca++ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
III.
For Na+/K+ pumps
IV.
For Ca++ voltage gated ion channels
a. I, III, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. I, II, IV
8. Removing a phosphate from an ADP requires which enzyme?
a. Creatine kinase
b. Phosphogenase
c. Myokinase
d. ATPase
9. Removing a phosphate from a creatine phosphate requires which enzyme>
a. Creatine kinase
b. Phosphogenase
c. Myokinase
d. ATPase
10. The glycogen-Lactic acid cycle requires oxygen to supply ample amount of energy during long
term exercise.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
11. What are the nutrient sources utilized by aerobic respiration?
a. Glucose only
b. Fatty acids only
c. Glucose and amino acids
d. Glucose and fatty acids
12. Which of the following is a characteristic of slow-twitch fibers?
a. Splits ATP quickly in order to provide energy for long periods of time
b. Rely on anaerobic fermentation because the fibers are thick, thus less oxygen is able to
diffuse to the mitochondria to produce energy
c. Has less mitochondria and more blood vessels because an over saturation of oxygen will
provide more energy production
d. Are thinner in order to lower the distance needed to be traveled by oxygen to get to the
mitochondria.
Chapter 11-4:
13. Instead of using neuromuscular junctions, multi-unit smooth muscles use…
a. Mitochondria
b. Varicosities
c. Ganglion
d. Dorsal rami communicans
14. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-unit smooth muscle?
a. Myocytes are connected by gap junctions
b. Myocytes can contract independently
c. Involves varicosities for stimulation
d. Found in the iris of the eye and blood vessels.
15. Gap junctions allow for:
a. Ions to pass through between cells
b. Cells to contract simultaneously
c. Cardiac muscle to contract during a heart beat
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C
16. A chemical mode of excitation involves epinephrine. Commonly used in “epi pens”. Which of the
following is true about it’s function?
a. Excites smooth muscle in the airways
b. Relaxes smooth muscle in the airways
c. Dilates blood vessels
d. Stimulates pacemaker cells to spontaneously depolarize
17. Smooth muscle is subject to the limitations of the length-tension relationship
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
18. No matter the mode of excitation, all contraction is triggered by calcium entering the sarcoplasm.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
19. In smooth muscle, entry of calcium into the cell binds to a protein called ________.
a. Troponin
b. Tropomyosin
c. Calmodulin
d. Calcium binding site
Chapter 12-1
20. Which mode of transportation does the herpes virus use to reach its location of dormancy?
a. Anterograde, to move to the cell body
b. Retrograde, to move to the terminal arborization
c. Anterograde, to move to the terminal arborization
d. Retrograde, to move to the cell body
21. Which glial cell helps form the blood brain barrier?
a. Ependymal cells
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglial cells
d. Oligodendrocytes
22. Which glial cell provides myelination in the PNS?
a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Schwann cells
d. Satellite cells
23. Which of the glial cells line the ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord?
a. Astrocytes
b. Satellite cells
c. Schwann cells
d. Ependymal cells
24. Which disease of the central nervous system attacks oligodendrocytes. The primary symptom of
concern is blurred vision.
a. Guillian-Barre Syndrome
b. Psoriasis
c. Multiple Sclerosis
d. Spinal Stenosis
25. Regeneration of nerve fibers can occur in the PNS
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
26. Put the regeneration of nerve fibers in order:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1, 4, 3, 2
1, 4, 2, 3
4, 1, 3, 2
4, 1, 2, 3
Proximal portion of the nerve seals off and swells. Distal end breaks down
Innervation is restored once contact with original structure is established.
Axon regenerates and remyelination occurs
Neurilemma and endoneurium form the regeneration tube.
Chapter 12-2
27. What kind of channel is found at the dendrites and cell body?
a. Voltage gated
b. Chemically gated
c. Mechanically gated
28. The movement of charged particles across the barrier that separates the charge difference is
called:
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Resistance
d. Ohm’s law
29. When the inside of the cell becomes more positive this is:
a. Hyperpolarization
b. Hypopolarization
c. Depolarization
d. Repolarization
30. Where do local potentials occur?
a. Dendrites
b. Axon
c. Synaptic knobs
d. Neuromuscular junctions
31. Put the following steps of an action potential:
1. Voltage-gated Na+ channels open quickly
2. Slow voltage gated K+ channels open
3. Threshold is reached at -55 mV
4. Once the cell reaches -35 mV Na+ channels close
5. K+ channels stay open longer and cause hyperpolarization
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2, 4, 3, 5
3, 1, 4, 2, 5
3, 2, 1, 4, 5
3, 4, 5, 2, 1
32. What are the two phases of the refractory period?
a. Excitation and relaxation
b. Absolute and temporary
c. Relative and inhibition
d. Absolute and relative
33. If given an increased amount of stimulus during the absolute refractory period will another Action
Potential fire?
a. YES
b. NO
34. Acetylcholine enters the muscle fiber upon stimulation
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
35. Which of the following is the most common neurotransmitter in the brain and has roles in
learning and memory?
a. GABA
b. Glycine
c. Glutamate
d. Histamine
36. Put the following events of an EPSP in order:
1. More Na+ moves down its concentration gradient than K+ moves out
2. The local current of Na+ becomes weaker
3. The inside of the cell becomes slightly more positive temporarily.
4. Ach crosses synaptic cleft and binds to chemically gated channel
a. 4, 1, 3, 2
b. 4, 3, 1, 2
c. 4, 1, 2, 3
d. 4, 3, 2, 1
37. Which of the following structures is the “trigger zone” for the action potential?
a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon
d. Axon Hillock
38. If the resting membrane potential temporarily becomes slightly more negative in response to
either Cl- or K+ we can term this as:
a. Excitatory postsynaptic potential
b. Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
c. Depolarization
d. Resting membrane potential
39. Amino acids and monoamine neurotransmitters are broken down by an enzyme called:
a. Comodulinase
b. Myokinase
c. Monoamine Hydrolase
d. Monoamine Oxidase
40. Which of the following blocks the reuptake of dopamine while at the same time promoting
vesicular secretion of dopamine into the synaptic cleft.
a. Cocaine
b. Methamphetamine
c. Sarine
d. Beta blockers
Chapter 12-4
41. If a single presynaptic neuron releases excitatory neurotransmitters quickly and the EPSPs add up
over time this is what kind of summation?
a. Spatial
b. Temporal
c. Parietal
d. Relative
42. What describes the synapses ability to change?
a. Memory trace
b. Synaptic plasticity
c. Spatial summation
d. Temporal summation
Chapter 13-3
1. What does the Varicella-zoster virus cause?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Carpal tunnel
c. Shingles
d. Progeria
2. Where does the varicella-zoster virus reside in before it moves by fast axonal transport down the
sensory nerve?
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a. Anterior horn
b. Posteior horn
c. Lateral horn
d. DRG
What below is not a symptom of shingles
a. Atrophy
b. Fluid-filled vesicles
c. Painful lesions in dermatomal pattern
d. Blisters on skin
What does the poliovirus attack in the body?
a. Sensory neurons
b. Motor neurons
c. Autonomic neurons
d. Afferent neruons
What are not symptoms of polimyeltis
a. Atrophy
b. Paralysis
c. Loss of feeling of touch
d. Loss of reflexes
What is paresthesia
a. Knowing where you are in space
b. Loss of feeling
c. Pins, needles and tingling
d. Tremors
What dose the median nerve innervate?
a. Skin on the lateral palmar region of the hand and the thenar muscles
b. Skin on the anteior palmar region of the hand and the hypothenar muscles
c. Skin on the anterior palmar region of the hand and the thenar muscles
d. Skin on the lateral palmar region of the hand and the hypothenar muscles
What would causes paralysis and atrophy to the hypothenar muscles
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
b. Osteoporosis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Ulnar nerve injury
Most nerves are _______________.
a. Sensory
b. Mixed
c. Autonomic
d. Motor
What is a ganglion?
a. Organ composed of numerous nerve fibers
b. Collection of cell bodies in the CNS
c. Collection of cell bodies in the PNS
d. Collection of nerve fibers in the CNS
Why can we take a spinal tap and not damage the spinal cord?
a. The spinal tap wouldn’t hit the spinal cord because it moves like noodles out of the way
b. The spinal tap wouldn’t hit the spinal cord after it changes into the cauda equina
c. The spinal tap wouldn’t hit the spinal cord because we don’t put the needle all the way
through
d. We can’t do spinal taps without hurting the spinal cord a little bit
What rami innervates the trunk and limbs?
a. Posterior ramus
b. Anterior ramus
c. Communicating ramus
d. lateral ramus
13. What does the sympathetic Chan ganglion associate with?
a. Motor
b. Sensory
c. Autonomic
d. Holds sensory cell bodies
14. Label the following
a. T10: ________
b. T4: ________
c. C6: _______
15. Explain in your own words why visceral pain is transmitted to different areas on skin.
16. What plexus matches up with C5-T1
a. Cervical
b. Lumbar
c. Brachial
d. Sacral
17. What plexus holds the phrenic nerve?
a. Cervical
b. Lumbar
c. Brachial
d. Sacral
18. Which is not a peripheral nerve that a terminal branch emerging from the brachial plexus formed?
a. Axillary
b. Median
c. Ulnar
d. Sciatic
19. What nerve innervates the quads in the lumbar plexus?
a. Obturator
b. Median
c. Ulnar
d. Femoral
20. What is not a property of a reflex?
a. Rapid
b. Conscious input
c. Pre-programmed
d. Involuntary
21. What is an example of a polysynaptic reflex?
a. Stretch reflex
b. Crossed-extensor reflex
c. Flexor withdraw
d. Reciprocal inhibition
22. List the 5 general steps of a reflex
a.
b.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
c.
d.
e.
Which reflex is an contralateral reflex.
a. Stretch reflex
b. Crossed-extensor reflex
c. Flexor withdraw
d. Reciprocal inhibition
What reflex helps agonist muscles by relaxing antagonistic muscles
a. Stretch reflex
b. Crossed-extensor reflex
c. Flexor withdraw
d. Reciprocal inhibition
Does L1 spinal vertebrae match up with LI spinal cord?
a. True
b. False
Fill in the number of spinal nerves of each
a. Cervical _______
b. Thoracic ________
c. Lumbar_________
d. Sacral _________
e. Coccygeal __________
What are spinal nerves?
a. Motor
b. Sensory
c. Autonomic
d. Mixed
Which contain motor nuclei?
a. Anterior horns
b. Posterior horns
c. Lateral horns
d. Gray commissure
Which contain autonomic nuclei?
a. Anterior horns
b. Posterior horns
c. Lateral horns
d. Gray commissure
Which place would the viscerosensory pathways carry?
a. Skin
b. Muscle
c. Joint
d. Stomach
Are sensory tracts ascending or descending
a. Ascending
b. Descending
Which is faster?
a. Monosynaptic Reflex
b. Polysynaptic Reflex
Which tract would allow me to identify a key in my hand with my eyes closed?
a. Corticospinal
b. Spinothalamic
c. Posterior column
34. Which tracts decussate in the medulla
a. Corticospinal and spinothalamic
b. Spinothalamic and posterior column
c. Corticospinal and posterior column
35. Where does both the Posterior column and spinothalamic end?
a. Receptor
b. Postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
c. Pre-central gyrus of the parietal lobe
d. Post-central gyrus of the parietal lobe
36. Where does the corticospinal tract end?
a. Receptor
b. Pre-central gyrus of the frontal lobe
c. Pre-central gyrus of the parietal lobe
d. Post-central gyrus of the parietal lobe
37. Your patient’s medulla got damage on the left side from a hemorrhage into the brain. What
symptoms would be most correct below
a. The Left side of the patient wouldn’t be able to move
b. The right side of the patient wouldn’t be able to feel touch
c. The left side of the patient wouldn’t be about to feel pain
d. When we asked the patient to raise is right hand he raised is left.
38. You are told your patient was in a car accident and his left side of his vertebrae was damaged.
What would you expect from his corticospinal tract?
a. There would be right side paralysis down from the site of the injury
b. There would be left side lost of touch down from the site of the injury
c. There would be right side lost of touch down from the site of injury
d. There would be left side paralysis down from the site of the injury
39. Draw in the three tracts
Chapter 15
1. Describe the length of preganglionic fibers and postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division.
a. Short preganglionic and long postganglionic
b. Long preganglionic and long postganglionic
c. Short preganglionic and short postganglionic
d. Long preganglionic and Short postganglionic
2. Where are the cell bodies of sympathetic Preganglionic fibers located?
a. In anterior horns of white matter
b. In posterior horns of gray matter
c. In lateral horns of white matter
d. In lateral horns of gray matter
3. Which of the following is not a pathway of the sympathetic preganglionic fibers to take?
a. Synapse in chain ganglia at its own level
b. Synapse in chain ganglia in the spinal cord
c. Synapse in a chain ganglia at another level
d. Synapse in a collateral ganglion
4. Synaptic does all of the following except
a. Increase HR
b. Increase peristalsis
c. Dilates pupil
d. Dilates bronchioles
5. Where is the adrenal gland located?
a. Underneath lungs
b. Attached to side of liver
c. On top of the kidneys
d. Below the stomach
6. What does the adrenal medulla secrete?
a. Dopamine
b. E & NE
c. Cortisol
d. Aldosterone
7. Where does sympathetic preganglion fibers terminate on to reach the adrenal medulla?
a. Beta cells
b. Chromaffin cells
c. Alpha 1 cells
d. Microglial cells
8. Describe the length of preganglionic fibers and postganglionic fibers of the Parasympathetic
division.
a. Short preganglionic and long postganglionic
b. Long preganglionic and long postganglionic
c. Short preganglionic and short postganglionic
d. Long preganglionic and Short postganglionic
9. Which location below does the vagus nerve not go to?
a. Lungs
b. Duodenum
c. Bladder
d. Gall bladder
10. Which preganglionic fibers control the parotid gland?
a. Oculomotor
b. Facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Vagus
11. What part of the spinal cord contains the pelvic splanchnic nerves?
a. L4-L6
b. S1-S2
c. C5-C6
d. S2-S4
12. Where do some of the postganglionic fibers of the pelvic splanchnic nerves go?
a. Penis
b. Lungs
c. Kidney
d. Lens of the eye
13. What do the eyes do mainly in response to parasympathetic stimulation?
a. Dilates the pupil
b. Constricts the pupil
c. Makes you blink
d. Lose focus
14. What do we describe the parasympathetic divison as?
a. Thoracolumbar divison
b. Thorasacral divison
c. Craniosacral divison
d. Craniocolumbar division