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BIOL 241 Practice Test February, 2015 PRACTICE TEST on Chapters 1 through 10 This test is meant to take no more than 100 minutes. You may use a preprepared double-sided 5-inch by 7-inch notecard. To show me that you did this test, please upload your photographed, scanned, or typed answers to Canvas by 8am on Saturday, February 28. 1. In the context of muscle contraction, what is tetanus? What is happening to calcium during tetanus? [about 2-3 sentences] 2. Many insecticides contain toxins called organophosphates, which interfere with the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. In using one of these insecticides, Carlos absorbs some through his skin and lungs. What signs would you expect to observe in Carlos as a result of organophosphate poisoning? Briefly explain. [about 2-3 sentences] 3. Imagine that you have two elderly patients, one whose priority is building strong bones and another whose priority is maintaining range of motion at arthritic joints. How would your recommendations to these patients differ, in terms of whether/how to exercise? [about 3 sentences] 1 BIOL 241 Practice Test February, 2015 4. Contrast the changes in the skeleton seen in a typical small child (0-2 years old) with the changes seen in a typical 70-year-old. [about 2-3 sentences] 5. Why does a second fracture in the same bone tend to occur at a site different from that of the first fracture? [about 2 sentences] 6. Describe two ways in which a typical female pelvis differs from a typical male pelvis. [about 2 sentences] 7. Which bones make up the pectoral girdle? Are these considered part of the axial skeleton, or the appendicular skeleton? [about 2 sentences] 8. Compare and contrast the synthesis, transport, location, and function of collagen and melanin. [about 4 sentences] 9. Explain what active transport is and give an example. [about 2 sentences] 2 BIOL 241 Practice Test February, 2015 10. Can people change the structure and function of their brains by practicing things that they aren’t initially good at? Explain the graph below (from the London taxi driver study) as part of your answer. [about 2-3 sentences] 11. In a negative feedback system, the “default,” “normal,” or “preferred” value of a regulated variable is called the a. effector b. homeostasis c. integrator d. sensor e. setpoint 12. Why don’t water and lipids mix well? a. Lipid molecules are much bigger than water molecules. b. Lipid molecules are much smaller than water molecules. c. Lipid molecules’ bonds are covalent, while water molecules’ bonds are ionic. d. Lipid molecules’ bonds are less polar than water molecules’ bonds. e. Lipid molecules’ bonds are more polar than water molecules’ bonds. 13. DNA and RNA are similar in the following way(s). a. Both are double-stranded. b. Both are made of phosphate, a sugar, and nitrogen-containing bases. c. Both contain the bases A, C, G, and T. d. Both leave the nucleus as part of translation. e. all of the above 3 BIOL 241 Practice Test February, 2015 14. Melanomas that reach this layer of the integument have access to blood vessels and thus can metastasize more easily. a. basement membrane b. dermis c. stratum basale d. stratum corneum e. all of the above 15. What kind of tissue takes up most of the space in the diagram below? a. connective b. epithelial c. muscular d. nervous 16. Which of the following organs responds to a rise in calcitonin levels as indicated? a. Osteoblasts incorporate more calcium into bone matrix. b. Intestines increase their rate of calcium absorption. c. Kidneys increase their retention of calcium. d. all of the above 17. Increasing the angle between bones is called a. abduction b. adduction c. extension d. flexion e.hyperextension 18. The pelvis of Ardipithecus (“Ardi”) has features suggesting that this now-extinct species a. Could not give birth b. Did a fair amount of upright walking AND a fair amount of tree-climbing c. Was primarily an upright walker d. Was primarily a tree-climber e. Was taller than modern humans 4 BIOL 241 Practice Test February, 2015 19. What is the function of the head of the femur? a. It helps form the hip joint. b. It is a communication center for neurons of the lower limb. c. It is a remnant of frequent femoral fractures in early hominids. d. It provides an expanded surface where muscles can attach. e. It provides an opening through which blood vessels and nerves can pass. 20. What purpose do the fontanelles serve during birth? a. They expand the pelvic inlet through which the fetus passes. b. They facilitate passage of the fetal head through the birth canal. c. They maintain oxygen delivery to the fetus if the umbilical cord gets tangled. d. They release analgesic hormones to ease the mother’s pain. 21. Spinal fusion surgery is a fairly common solution to the problem of a. Broken ribs. b. Gouty arthritis. c. Inadequate calcium intake. d. Intervertebral discs interfering with spinal nerves. e. Osteogenesis imperfect. 22. Fissures and foramina are a. Openings in the skull through which cranial nerves and blood vessels pass. b. Points where two bones fuse together. c. Bone projections where tendons of facial muscles attach. d. Synovial joints of skull bones. 23. How many sacral and coccygeal bones do humans have? a. 0 of each (these are only found in quadrupeds) b. 1 of each, representing several fused vertebrae. c. 2 of each d. 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal e. males have 1 of each; females have an extra sacral bone 24. Vertebral bodies are largest in the __________________ vertebrae. a. cervical b. coccygeal c. lumbar d. thoracic 25. In the study of stress fractures by Tenforde et al., prior diagnosis of anorexia or bulimia was strongly correlated with risk of stress fracture in female runners, but was not part of the researchers’ multivariate (multiple-variable) model. Why not? a. A single multivariate model had to apply to both boys and girls. b. No stress fractures were reported during the study, so the researchers’ planned analysis could not be done. c. The researchers could not confirm that the girls’ survey answers were accurate. d. There is no actual connection between these diseases and stress fractures. e. These diagnoses were not independent predictors of risk; rather, they correlated with other factors (low BMI, late menarche) that WERE included in the multivariate model. 5 BIOL 241 Practice Test February, 2015 26. In determining the age of a skeleton, all of the following pieces of information would be helpful EXCEPT a. the number of cranial sutures b. the size and roughness of the markings of the bones c. the presence or absence of fontanelles d. the presence or absence of epiphyseal plates (epiphyseal cartilage) e. the types of minerals deposited in the bones 27. The following bones are included in the carpals: a. calcaneus b. talus c. both A and B d. neither A nor B 28. Draw a bar graph where the Y axis is the rate of ATP use and the X axis has four conditions: * electrically stimulated muscle at 100% of typical resting length * non-stimulated muscle at 100% of typical resting length * electrically stimulated muscle at 150% of typical resting length * non-stimulated muscle at 150% of typical resting length Show both the relative ATP use in the different conditions and whether ATP use is 0 in any of the conditions. 29. Why do female humans develop as female? a. Having two X chromosomes gives females two copies of estrogen-synthesizing enzymes, so they make lots of estrogen. b. Females lack a Y chromosome and thus lack the genes for making testosterone. c. Prenatal exposure to estrogen in the uterus. d. Without a TDF gene, females’ gonads develop as ovaries rather than as testes. 30. All together, the number of bones in your left upper limb is a. 3 b. 6 c. 30 d. 60 e. 120 31. Anatomically speaking, another word for joint is a. articulation b. building c. doobie d. rap e. slammer 32. Which is generally true? a. Amphiarthroses have the greatest movement of any type of joint. b. Diarthroses are dinovial joints and vice versa. c. Synarthroses are synovial joints and vice versa. d. Synovial joints have the least movement of any type of joint. e. None of the above is true. 6 BIOL 241 Practice Test February, 2015 33. Having lots of strong ligaments around a joint will make that joint a. Less flexible and less stable b. Less flexible and more stable c. More flexible and less stable d. More flexible and more stable 34. Which of the following joints is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton? a. atlantoaxial b. carpometacarpal c. interphalangeal d.radioulnar e. tibiofemoral 35. Ankle, elbow, knee, and interphalangeal joints may all be considered a. ball-and-socket b. condylar c. hinge d. pivot e. saddle 36. Which muscle proteins breaks down ATP? a. actin b. calcium pumps in the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. myosin d. A and C e. B and C 37. What is a motor unit? a. a bundle of contractile proteins within a muscle cell b. a distance equal to the length of one sarcomere in a resting muscle cell c. a region of the brain responsible for voluntary motor control d. all of the muscle cells controlled by one motor neuron e. all of the muscles that contribute to a single movement (e.g., forearm extension) 38. Which kind of contraction results in the highest forces and the greatest possibility of damage to the muscle? a. concentric b. eccentric c. isometric d. isotonic e. twitch 39. When muscle cells are referred to as “fast-twitch” or “slow-twitch,” the designation of “fast” or “slow” refers to the speed at which a. acetylcholine diffuses across the synapse b. ATP is produced by the mitochondria c. myosin attaches to and detaches from actin d. oxygen is delivered by the capillaries 40. What changes when muscles shorten? a. the amount of overlap between thick and thin filaments b. the length of the T-tubules c. the length of the thick filaments d. the length of the thin filaments 7