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Unit 12&13 Practice Test C Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Ongoing patterns of behavior that interfere with normal day-to-day life are best characterized as a. deviant. b. antisocial. c. dysfunctional. d. catatonic. e. atypical. ____ 2. Alexis is socially withdrawn and has few close friends. This behavior is most likely to be diagnosed as a symptom of psychological disorder if it is a. also noticeable in other members of her family. b. preventing her from functioning effectively. c. not caused by a biological disorder. d. difficult for her to change. e. not common in her culture. ____ 3. ADHD is most clearly characterized by a. delusions. b. distractibility. c. dissociation. d. hypochondriasis. e. mania. ____ 4. Larry has difficulty organizing his daily schedule of work responsibilities. He often makes careless mistakes or fails to complete his work because he is easily distracted. Larry's behavior is most characteristic of a. hypochondriasis. b. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. e. conversion disorder. ____ 5. Some psychological disorders occur primarily in one culture. However, ________ occurs worldwide. a. dissociative identity disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. schizophrenia d. susto e. bulimia ____ 6. A psychotherapist is most likely to use the DSM-IV-TR in order to ________ various psychological disorders. a. cure b. prevent c. excuse d. explain e. identify ____ 7. Using DSM-IV-TR guidelines, two different clinicians are likely to give a specific patient the same diagnosis. This indicates that the DSM-IV-TR is a. biopsychosocial. b. reliable. c. medical. d. analytic. e. valid. ____ 8. To facilitate diagnostic reliability, the DSM-IV-TR typically bases diagnoses on a. chemical analyses of blood and urine samples. b. physiological measures of blood pressure, perspiration, and muscle tension. c. observable patterns of behavior. d. brain scans. e. analysis of genetic predispositions. ____ 9. After George learned that Mrs. Min suffered from schizophrenia, he mistakenly concluded that her tendencies to laugh easily and smile frequently were symptoms of her disorder. This best illustrates the a. unreliability of DSM-IV-TR. b. shortcomings of the medical model. c. biasing power of diagnostic labels. d. dangers of the biopsychosocial approach. e. impact of expectations on another's behavior. ____ 10. Judicial systems are responsible for making decisions regarding a. manic behavior. b. insanity. c. catatonia. d. agoraphobia. e. disordered behavior. ____ 11. Anxiety is considered disordered if it is a. persistent and distressing. b. hard to control. c. genetically influenced. d. a biopsychosocial phenomenon. e. paired with depressive episodes. ____ 12. An anxiety disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts and actions is called a(n) a. bipolar disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. phobia. d. panic disorder. e. dissociative disorder. ____ 13. According to the ________ perspective, anxiety is sometimes produced by the submerged mental energy associated with repressed impulses. a. biological b. learning c. psychoanalytic d. social-cognitive e. medical ____ 14. Learning theorists have suggested that compulsive behaviors are a. habitual defenses against unconscious impulses. b. reinforced by anxiety reduction. c. classically conditioned habits. d. unconditioned responses to stress. e. learned through cultural stereotypes. ____ 15. It is easy to condition but hard to extinguish fears of the types of stimuli that threatened our ancestors. This fact is best explained from a ________ perspective. a. social-cognitive b. psychoanalytic c. biological d. humanistic e. learning ____ 16. Although World War II air raids were extremely traumatic for those who experienced them, few of these people developed lasting phobic reactions to overhead planes. This fact is best explained from a ________ perspective. a. learning b. psychoanalytic c. biological d. humanistic e. social-cognitive ____ 17. Some studies suggest that an anxiety gene affects the brain's level of the neurotransmitter a. dopamine. b. serotonin. c. epinephrine. d. acetylcholine. e. testosterone. ____ 18. A conversion disorder is a type of ________ disorder. a. somatoform b. personality c. dissociative d. anxiety e. mood ____ 19. Rachel is convinced that her occasional headaches are caused by a malignant brain tumor. Although several physicians have assured her that she has no serious physical problem, Rachel continues to seek medical attention for a brain tumor. Her behavior provides an example of a. dissociative disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. hypochondriasis. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. e. personality disorder. ____ 20. The major characteristic of dissociative disorders is a disturbance of a. sleep. b. mood. c. appetite. d. memory. e. perception. ____ 21. Exhibiting two or more distinct and alternating personalities is a symptom of a(n) a. conversion disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. e. schizophrenia. ____ 22. The experience of multiple personalities is most likely to be characterized by a. a massive dissociation of self from ordinary consciousness. b. offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person. c. delusions of persecution and grandiosity. d. a lack of guilt feelings. e. alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism. ____ 23. The dramatic increase in reported cases of dissociative identity disorder during the past 40 or so years most strongly suggests that symptoms of this disorder involve a. low self-esteem. b. illicit drug usage. c. promiscuous sexual behavior. d. internal attribution of blame. e. role-playing. ____ 24. The prominent feature of mood disorders is the experience of a. social phobia. b. flat affect. c. emotional extremes. d. paranoia. e. anxiety. ____ 25. For the last month, Gabrielle has felt lethargic and has been unable to get out of bed in the morning. She has withdrawn from friends and family because she feels worthless and unlovable. Gabrielle is most likely suffering from a. b. c. d. e. agoraphobia. major depressive disorder. PTSD. an antisocial personality disorder. schizophrenia. ____ 26. After several weeks of feeling apathetic and dissatisfied with his life, Mark has suddenly become extremely cheerful and so talkative he can't be interrupted. He seems to need less sleep and becomes irritated when his friends tell him to slow down. Mark's behavior is indicative of a. an obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. bipolar disorder. d. agoraphobia. e. somatoform disorder. ____ 27. Learned helplessness is most closely associated with a. depression. b. schizophrenia. c. compulsions. d. antisocial personality disorder. e. dissociative disorders. ____ 28. A therapist suggests that Margaret is depressed because she attributes her failures to her own incompetence instead of blaming her parents and teachers for the unreasonable demands they place on her. The therapist's interpretation most clearly reflects a ________ perspective. a. biological b. psychoanalytic c. humanistic d. social-cognitive e. trait ____ 29. Women are at greater risk of depression than men partially because women are more likely to ________ in response to stressful circumstances. a. overthink b. externalize blame c. suffer memory loss d. become socially withdrawn e. engage in denial ____ 30. One way for people to break the vicious cycle of depression is to a. accept more personal responsibility for their own bad moods. b. spend more time in quiet rest, seclusion, and personal meditation. c. frequently talk to their friends about their negative thoughts and depressive feelings. d. participate more often in activities they consider pleasant and rewarding. e. internalize and “own” their limitations and past mistakes. ____ 31. Which group of severe disorders is characterized by disorganized thinking, disturbed perceptions, and inappropriate emotions and actions? a. anxiety disorders b. dissociative disorders c. personality disorders d. schizophrenia e. mood disorders ____ 32. In which type of disorder is a person's speech likely to be so full of unrelated words and phrases that it could be characterized as a “word salad”? a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. schizophrenia d. dissociative disorder e. somatoform disorder ____ 33. False beliefs of persecution that may accompany schizophrenia are called a. obsessions. b. compulsions. c. delusions. d. phobias. e. hallucinations. ____ 34. Mr. Hunt believes that he is the president of the United States and that he will soon become the “King of the Universe. ” Mr. Hunt is most clearly suffering from a. delusions. b. obsessions. c. hallucinations. d. dissociative identity disorder. e. fugue. ____ 35. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are the ________ of inappropriate behaviors, and negative symptoms are the ________ of appropriate behaviors. a. reduction; absence b. presence; presence c. absence; presence d. presence; absence e. absence; reduction ____ 36. One of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia is a. an expressionless face. b. loud and meaningless talking. c. inappropriate laughter. d. uncontrollable outbursts of rage. e. feelings of supreme importance and paranoia. ____ 37. The chances for recovery from schizophrenia are considered to be greatest when the disorder develops a. b. c. d. e. rapidly in response to a stressful life situation. slowly over a period of years. in reaction to abnormalities in brain chemistry. during adolescence or early adulthood. in combination with drug use. ____ 38. People are more likely to recover from ________ schizophrenia than from ________ schizophrenia. a. acute; reactive b. paranoid; disorganized c. chronic; acute d. reactive; process e. disorganized; paranoid ____ 39. Evidence suggests that prenatal viral infections contribute to a. generalized anxiety disorders. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. bipolar disorders. e. dissociative disorders. ____ 40. If identical twins share a single placenta rather than having separate placentas, their chances of being similarly affected by ________ are dramatically increased. a. hypochondriasis b. schizophrenia c. a dissociative disorder d. antisocial personality disorder e. depression ____ 41. One cluster of personality disorders marked by dramatic or impulsive behaviors is exemplified by the ________ personality disorder. a. avoidant b. schizoid c. catatonic d. histrionic e. acute ____ 42. Schizophrenia is a disorder that is MOST likely to be treated with a. biomedical therapies. b. behavior therapies. c. psychoanalysis. d. cognitive therapies. e. humanistic therapies. ____ 43. A therapist who takes an eclectic approach is one who a. prescribes the use of drugs as part of psychotherapy. b. emphasizes that active listening is the major technique in all effective therapies. c. prefers to engage in therapy in a group setting. d. uses a variety of psychological theories and therapeutic approaches. e. uses both token economies and behavior therapies. ____ 44. Which of the following therapists would most likely try to understand an adult's psychological disorder by exploring that person's childhood experiences? a. a psychoanalyst b. a behavior therapist c. a humanistic therapist d. a cognitive therapist e. a biomedical therapist ____ 45. Helping people gain insight into the unconscious origins of their disorder is a central aim of a. cognitive therapy. b. systematic desensitization. c. light exposure therapy. d. psychoanalysis. e. behavior therapy. ____ 46. Free association involves the a. expression toward a therapist of feelings linked with earlier relationships. b. therapeutic interpretation of a client's unconscious conflicts. c. repeated association of a relaxed state with anxiety-arousing stimuli. d. uncensored reporting of any thoughts that come to mind. e. replacement of a negative response to a harmless stimulus with a positive response. ____ 47. Psychoanalysts would suggest that resistance during therapy supports and maintains the process of a. meta-analysis. b. transference. c. free association. d. dream interpretation. e. repression. ____ 48. Just as Austin began telling his therapist about a painful childhood experience, he complained of a headache and abruptly ended the session. A psychoanalyst would most likely suggest that Austin's behavior is an example of a. fixation. b. resistance. c. transference. d. counterconditioning. e. tardive dyskinesia. ____ 49. Mr. Phillips has recently begun to express feelings of hostility and resentment toward his therapist, who is consistently friendly, caring, and helpful. A psychoanalyst would most likely consider Mr. Phillips's hostility to be an example of a. transference. b. fixation. c. the placebo effect. d. counterconditioning. e. regression toward the mean. ____ 50. Which form of therapy is most likely to be criticized for offering interpretations that cannot be proven or disproven? a. client-centered therapy b. psychoanalysis c. cognitive-behavioral therapy d. systematic desensitization e. psychopharmacology ____ 51. A psychodynamic therapist is most likely to a. associate patients' undesirable behaviors with unpleasant consequences. b. help patients identify a hierarchy of anxiety-arousing experiences. c. suggest interpretive insights regarding patients' difficulties. d. recommend the use of antipsychotic drugs during the process of psychotherapy. e. encourage depressed patients to take more responsibility for their failures. ____ 52. Which therapeutic approach relies most heavily on patients' discovering their own ways of effectively dealing with their difficulties? a. psychoanalysis b. cognitive therapy c. systematic desensitization d. client-centered therapy e. meta-analysis ____ 53. During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggests to Mr. and Mrs. Gallo that they each restate their spouse's comments before making their own. The therapist was applying a technique most closely associated with a. EMDR. b. psychoanalysis. c. cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. systematic desensitization. e. client-centered therapy. ____ 54. Carl Rogers encouraged client-centered therapists to ______ during the process of therapy. a. clearly communicate their diagnosis of a client's disorder b. genuinely express their own true feelings c. explain the immediate causes of a client's difficulties d. identify a hierarchy of the client's anxiety-arousing experiences e. confront patients about examples of resistance ____ 55. Which approach emphasizes the importance of providing patients with feelings of unconditional acceptance? a. cognitive therapy b. psychoanalysis c. biomedical therapy d. client-centered therapy e. systematic desensitization ____ 56. In one treatment for bed-wetting, the child sleeps on a liquid-sensitive pad that when wet, triggers an alarm and awakens the child. This treatment is a form of a. biomedical therapy. b. cognitive therapy. c. behavior therapy. d. humanistic therapy. e. psychodynamic therapy. ____ 57. Two counterconditioning techniques for replacing unwanted responses include a. systematic desensitization and free association. b. spontaneous recovery and stress inoculation training. c. unconditional positive regard and transference. d. aversive conditioning and exposure therapy. e. token economy and meta-analysis. ____ 58. In an effort to reduce his daughter's fear of the dark, Mr. Chew would hug and gently rock her immediately after turning off the lights at bedtime. Mr. Chew's strategy best illustrates the technique of a. stress inoculation training. b. light exposure therapy. c. free association. d. counterconditioning. e. unconditional positive regard. ____ 59. Repeatedly introducing people to things they fear and avoid is most characteristic of a. stress inoculation training. b. exposure therapies. c. behavior modification. d. rTMS. e. tardive dyskinesia. ____ 60. In 1924, Mary Cover Jones reported that 3-year-old Peter lost his fear of rabbits when a rabbit was repeatedly presented while Peter was eating a tasty snack. This episode best illustrated the potential usefulness of a. stress inoculation training. b. exposure therapies. c. aversive conditioning. d. free association. e. the placebo effect. ____ 61. Jonathan is afraid to ask a girl for a date, so his therapist instructs him to relax and simply imagine he is reaching for a telephone and then calling a potential date. The therapist's technique best illustrates the process of a. interpersonal therapy. b. free association. c. cognitive therapy. d. aversive conditioning. e. systematic desensitization. ____ 62. Systematic desensitization involves the use of a. aversive conditioning. b. stress inoculation training. c. unconditional positive regard. d. progressive relaxation. e. token economies. ____ 63. Mr. Vogt is terribly fearful of being alone in his own house at night. To reduce this fear, a behavior therapist would most likely use a. the double-blind procedure. b. systematic desensitization. c. a token economy. d. aversive conditioning. e. ECT. ____ 64. In treating alcohol dependency, therapists have clients consume alcohol that contains a nausea- producing drug. This technique is known as a. operant conditioning. b. systematic desensitization. c. aversive conditioning. d. transference. e. free association. ____ 65. To help Claire quit smoking, a therapist delivers an electric shock to her arm each time she smokes a cigarette. The therapist is using a. aversive conditioning. b. systematic desensitization. c. electroconvulsive therapy. d. cognitive therapy. e. EMDR. ____ 66. The practice of ________ is based on the application of operant conditioning principles. a. unconditional positive regard b. systematic desensitization c. free association d. behavior modification e. psychoanalysis ____ 67. Therapists practice ________ by using positive reinforcers to reward closer and closer approximations of a desired behavior. a. free association b. progressive relaxation c. behavior modification d. unconditional positive regard e. insight therapy ____ 68. The approach that has helped children with autism learn to function successfully in school involves a. operant conditioning. b. c. d. e. systematic desensitization. the double-blind procedure. family therapy. aversive conditioning. ____ 69. Mr. Quinones, a fifth-grade teacher, gives a blue plastic star to each student who achieves a high score on a math or spelling test. At the end of the semester, students can exchange their stars for prizes. Mr. Quinones' classroom strategy illustrates an application of a. the placebo effect. b. transference. c. operant conditioning. d. systematic desensitization. e. counterconditioning. ____ 70. Cognitive therapists are most likely to emphasize that emotional disturbances result from a. self-blaming and overgeneralized explanations of bad events. b. chemical abnormalities within the brain. c. overly permissive child-rearing practices. d. poverty, unemployment, racism, and sexism. e. repressed, unconscious wishes and desires resulting in fixations. ____ 71. Persuading depressed patients to reverse their catastrophizing beliefs about themselves and their futures is most characteristic of a. Rogers' client-centered therapy. b. Beck's cognitive therapy. c. Wolpe's exposure therapy. d. Freud's psychoanalysis. e. Skinner's aversive therapy. ____ 72. Although originally trained in Freudian techniques, Aaron Beck developed a ________ therapy for depression. a. behavior b. cognitive c. client-centered d. biomedical e. eclectic ____ 73. The belief that no person is an island is the fundamental assumption of a. psychoanalysis. b. family therapy. c. client-centered therapy. d. cognitive therapy. e. systematic desensitization. ____ 74. People often enter psychotherapy during a period of crisis in their lives. This helps us understand why they a. prefer behavior therapies over other forms of treatment. b. seldom block anxiety-laden thoughts from consciousness. c. tend to overestimate the effectiveness of their psychotherapy. d. claim to receive the most effective treatment from highly experienced clinicians. e. experience resistance and transference during insight therapies. ____ 75. Therapists' perceptions of the effectiveness of psychotherapy are likely to be misleading because a. therapists typically minimize the seriousness of their clients' symptoms when therapy begins. b. clients typically emphasize their problems at the start of therapy and their well- being at the end of therapy. c. therapists typically blame their own therapeutic ineffectiveness on clients' resistance. d. clients tend to focus on their observable behavioral problems rather than on their mental and emotional abilities. e. therapists typically overestimate their clients' potential levels of adjustment. ____ 76. Unusual ESP subjects who defy chance when first tested nearly always lose their “psychic powers” when retested. This decline effect is best explained in terms of a. rTMS. b. progression relaxation. c. regression toward the mean. d. the placebo effect. e. ECT ____ 77. Although Shawn felt terribly depressed when he began psychotherapy, he was much happier by the time he had completed therapy. It would be reasonable to attribute some of his improvement to a. systematic desensitization. b. therapeutic touch. c. the double-blind procedure. d. transference. e. regression toward the mean. ____ 78. The best outcome studies for evaluating the effectiveness of psychotherapy typically use a. virtual reality. b. token economies. c. randomized clinical trials. d. rTMS. e. ECT. ____ 79. Cognitive therapies have achieved especially favorable results in the treatment of a. phobias. b. depression. c. compulsions. d. bed-wetting. e. schizophrenia. ____ 80. Which of the following treatment approaches has received little or no scientific support? a. ECT b. exposure therapies c. energy therapies d. aversive conditioning e. rTMS ____ 81. Kammy vividly imagines being abused by her own mother while her therapist triggers eye movements by waving a finger in front of Kammy's eyes. The therapist is apparently using a technique known as a. EMDR. b. transference. c. meta-analysis. d. virtual reality exposure therapy. e. systematic desensitization. ____ 82. EMDR was originally developed for the treatment of a. alcohol dependence. b. bulimia. c. depression. d. anxiety. e. schizophrenia. ____ 83. Which of the following is most likely to contribute to inflated estimates of the value of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing? a. meta-analysis b. stress inoculation training c. therapeutic touch d. the double-blind procedure e. the placebo effect ____ 84. Light exposure therapy was developed to relieve symptoms of a. insomnia. b. anxiety. c. bulimia. d. depression. e. alcoholism. ____ 85. A common ingredient underlying the success of diverse psychotherapies is the a. professional training and experience of the therapist. b. escape from real-life pressures offered by psychotherapy. c. length of time the client spends in psychotherapy. d. client's expectation that psychotherapy will make things better. e. use of an eclectic approach to therapy. ____ 86. Because she mistakenly thought that completing a diagnostic test was a therapeutic treatment for her anxiety disorder, Mrs. Shyam felt considerable relief for several weeks following the test. Mrs. Shyam's reaction best illustrates a. transference. b. the double-blind procedure. c. the placebo effect. d. systematic desensitization. e. resilience. ____ 87. Mr. Gotanda mistakenly believed that a single intake interview in which he simply described his numerous symptoms to a therapist was a treatment for his distress. His immediate relief from many of his symptoms following this session best illustrates a. systematic desensitization. b. unconditional positive regard. c. transference. d. the placebo effect. e. counterconditioning. ____ 88. Which therapeutic specialists are most likely to have received a Ph.D. degree in psychology? a. clinical psychologists b. psychopharmacologists c. psychiatrists d. pastoral counselors e. family therapists ____ 89. A physician who specializes in the treatment of psychological disorders is called a a. psychoanalyst. b. clinical psychologist. c. behavioral neuroscientist. d. cognitive therapist. e. psychiatrist. ____ 90. Although Albert Ellis and Allen Bergin disagree about the value of self-sacrifice and marital fidelity, as professional therapists they both agree that a. psychotherapists should not reveal their personal values to clients. b. personal values do not affect professional assessments of therapeutic outcomes. c. psychological research should not be used to inform therapists' values. d. psychotherapists' personal values influence their practice of therapy. e. psychotherapists should combine cognitive and biomedical therapies. ____ 91. Which drugs appear to produce therapeutic effects by blocking receptor sites for dopamine? a. antianxiety drugs b. antidepressant drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. mood-stabilizing drugs e. SSRIs ____ 92. Which drug enhances the benefits of exposure therapy and helps relieve the symptoms of PTSD and OCD? a. Clozaril b. Depakote c. Thorazine d. D-cycloserine e. Paxil ____ 93. Unpleasant withdrawal symptoms following the discontinued use of an antianxiety drug are indicative of a. rTMS. b. neurogenesis. c. tardive dyskinesia. d. physiological dependence. e. ECT. ____ 94. Dual-action antidepressant drugs work by increasing the availability of a. dopamine and acetylcholine. b. serotonin and dopamine. c. acetylcholine and norepinephrine. d. norepinephrine and serotonin. e. thorazine and dopamine. ____ 95. Inflated estimates of the value of antidepressant drugs are in large part due to the fact that patient recovery often results from a. the therapeutic touch. b. the double-blind procedure. c. the placebo effect. d. meta-analysis. e. stress inoculation training. ____ 96. Edith, a 45-year-old journalist, alternates between extreme sadness and lethargy and extreme euphoria and overactivity. The drug most likely to prove beneficial to her is a. lithium. b. Xanax. c. Clozaril. d. Thorazine. e. Paxil. ____ 97. Deep-brain stimulation has been reported to provide relief from a. dissociative disorders. b. phobias. c. schizophrenia. d. depression. e. conversion disorders. ____ 98. The least used biomedical intervention for changing behavior is a. aversive conditioning. b. electroconvulsive therapy. c. psychosurgery. d. drug therapy. e. psychopharmacology. ____ 99. Which of the following procedures has typically resulted in patients becoming permanently lethargic? a. EMDR b. c. d. e. electroconvulsive therapy a lobotomy repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation rTMS ____ 100. In promoting therapeutic life-style change, Stephen Ilardi and his colleagues note that human brains and bodies were designed for physical activity and a. token economy. b. free association. c. social engagement. d. unconditional positive regard. e. systematic desensitization. Unit 12&13 Practice Test C Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 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