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Palestine Medical Council Certificate Examination Ophthalmology Candidate#( ) For each of the following MCQs , please select the one most appropriate answer : 1. All the following are generally accepted methods of management of keratoconus except: A. Penetrating keratoplasty B. Intracorneal rings (INTACS) C. Deep lamellar keratoplasty (DLK) D. Contact lenses E. LASIK 2. All the following are keratconjunctivitis except: FALSE regarding adenoviral A. Involvement of both eyes is the rule B. Topical acyclovir is the treatment of choice C. Nummular keratitis is a rare complication D. The disease is not contagious E. Pre-auricular lymphadenitis when present is helpful in diagnosis 3. A 55-year old female patient calls you at night telling you that she has severe pain in her right eye for the past two hours. All the following data may help you to shorten the list of possible diagnosis except: A. History of hypermetropia B. History of trauma C. History of myopia D. History of previous attacks E. History of wearing contact lenses 4. All the following are true regarding ocular herpes simplex infection except: A. Positive Ig-G titre denotes previous exposure B. Topical acyclovir is usually the first line of treatment for dendretic keratitis C. Herpetic uveitis can be associated with increased intraocular pressure D. Dendritic keratitis is best treated by intensive steroid drops E. Ocular involvement is usually unilateral 1 5. All the following are false regarding congenital ptosis except: A. Levator muscle resection is indicated if levator muscle function is less than 4 mm B. If the pupil is covered surgery should be performed without delay C. Absent Bell's phenomenon is a good prognostic sign D. The best time to do fascia lata frontalis muscle suspension is at the age of one year 6. All the following are true regarding glaucoma medications except: A. Atropine can be used in neovascular glaucoma B. Pilocarpine is the drug of choice in neovascular glaucoma C. Steroid eye drops are useful in hypertensive uveitis D. Timolol is the first line of treatment in open angle glaucoma 7. All the following are true regarding prisms except: A. Rays passing through the prism are deflected towards the apex B. When used in glasses to correct esotropia, the apex is directed inwards C. Concave lenses act like two prisms meeting at the apex D. Fresnel's prisms are mounted on glasses to correct deviations 8. All the following are true regarding the optical characteristics of the eye except: A. Cornea is the main refractive medium B. Crysatalline lens is responsible for accommodation for near C. Anterior corneal surface is a less powerful refractive element than posterior corneal surface D. The refractive error of the eye is the sum of the aberrations of all its components 9. All the following are true regarding myopia except: A. Axial myopia is the commonest type B. Nuclear sclerosis causes index myopia C. Keratoconus is an example of curvature myopia D. Exudative retinal detachment is a known complication of high axial myopia 10. The least important indication of cycloplegia is: A. Esotropia in children B. Anisometropia C. Axial myopia D. Hypermetropia 11. Astigmatism can be tested for by all of the following except: A. Cross cylinder B. Astigmatic fan C. Pinhole D. stenopeic slit 2 12. All the following is true about mydriatic / cycloplegic drops except: A. Atropine is the longest in action B. Tropicamide is most suitable for mydriasis C. Cyclopentolate is used when cycloplegia of less than 24 hours is needed D. Phenylephrine 10% eye drops are best used for short acting cycloplegia 13. In schematic eye all the following are true except: A. The total refractive power is approximately 60 dioptres B. Anterior surface of the cornea is responsible for most of the refractive power of the eye C. The nodal point is approximately 5 mm behind the anterior corneal surface D. Average refractive index is 1.6 14. When doing subjective refraction all the following are true except: A. Overcorrection of myopia is present when letters in red background are seen clearer than those in green background. B. Spherical error should be corrected before astigmatism C. Cross cylinder use doesn’t affect the spherical equivalent D. Cross cylinder is useful for refinement of both the power & axis of cylindrical error 15. The least possible complication of LASIK among the following is: A. Endophthalmitis B. Lost flap C. Overcorrection D. Undercorrection E. Decentered ablation 16. In a patient with high myopia & moderate cataract the best course of action is: A. LASIK B. Phakic intraocular lens C. Cataract extraction with intraocular lens implantation D. INTACS (intracorneal rings). E. Radial keratotomy (R.K.). 17. One of the following usually signifies nerve compression in third nerve palsy: A. Ptosis B. Dilated fixed pupil C. Medial rectus palsy D. Superior rectus palsy E. Inferior rectus palsy 3 18. All the following are true regarding optic neuritis except: A. Visual acuity is usually not affected B. If recurrent, multiple sclerosis should be in the differential diagnosis C. Relative afferent papillary defect (Marcus-Gunn pupil) is usually present D. Visual field usually shows central scotoma 19. Visual field defects due to a lesion in the occipital cortex are: A. Congruous B. Homonymous C. Characterized by the presence of a relative afferent papillary defect D. On the opposite side of the lesion 20. All the following are true regarding isolated internuclear ophthalmoplegia except: A. May be the first sign of multiple sclerosis B. Convergence is preserved C. Denote a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasiculus D. Abduction is affected on the same side of the lesion 21. All the following are true regarding herpes zoster ophthalmicus infections except: A. Involvement of the tip of the nose may indicate that the eye will be involved B. Systemic acyclovir treatment is most effective when given after the formation of pustules C. Should be considered in the differential diagnosis of hypertensive uveitis D. The dose of acyclovir needed for treatment is higher than that needed for herpes simplex virus infections 22. All the following corneal lesions will become worse with topical steroids except: A. Fungal keratitis B. Bacterial keratitis C. Herpes simplex virus dendretic keratitis D. Nummular keratitis 23. All the following are known causes of lower lid ectropion axcept: A. Age related changes B. Tumours C. Trachoma D. Burns 4 24. In stage 3 hypertensive retinopathy all the following are present except: A. Cotton-wool spots B. Focal arteriolar narrowing C. Optic disc swelling D. Exudates 25. All the following corneal dystrophies are inherited as autosomal dominant traits except: A. Lattice dystrophy B. Macular dystrophy C. Granualr dystrophy D. Reis-Bucklers' dystrophy 26. All the following are true regarding dysthyroid eye disease except: A. The lateral rectus muscle is the most frequently involved B. Orbital C. T. scan is helpful in diagnosis C. Optic nerve compression is an indication for systemic steroid therapy D. Muscle surgery is better delayed till the disease is inactive 27. The differential diagnosis of cicatrized conjunctiva includes all the following except: A. Chemical burns B. Stevens-Johnsons' syndrome C. Trachoma D. Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis 28. Nasolacrimal duct obstruction occurs in approximately what percentage of infants: A. <1% B. 2% to 20% C. >50% D. >80% 29. All the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis of sympatheic ophthalmia except: A. Traumatic iritis B. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome C. Age-related macular degeneration D. Phacoanaphylaxis 30. All the following conditions are associated with eye lid retraction except: A. Thyroid disease B. Blowout fracture with inferior rectus entrapment C. Midbrain lesions D. Horner syndrome 5 31. In Marfan’s Syndrome, The Lens: A. Is frequently dislocated B. Dislocation often interferes with visual acuity C. Appears to have a decreased diameter D. Generally shows varying degrees of opacity E. All of the above 32. Leber’s Congenital Amaurosis is not characterized by: A. B. C. D. E. Good visual acuity Normal appearing Retina Pigmentary clumping in Retina Disc is gliotic and atrophic Zonular or complete cataract 33. In The Differential Diagnosis Of Retinoschisis, one of The Following is not Considered: A. B. C. D. E. Retinal detachment Posterior hyperplastic vitreous. Wagner’s vitreoretinal degeneration Favre’s disease. Refsum’s Disease 34. One of the following is not in the Clinical Picture of Von HippelLindau Disease: A. An angiomatous tumor located temporally in the equatorial region B. Extending to the angioma are a pair of retinal vessels, an artery with its accompanying vein C. These vessels are dilated and tortuous, showing focal swelling D. Fan-shaped anastomoses develop in the periphery between the two vessels E. Rhegmatogenous Retinal detachment 35. One of the following is false about the Ocular Manifestations of Behcet’s Syndrome: A. B. C. D. Involvement of one eye only Ocular involvement is often accompanied by fever and malaise An acute uveitis with hypopyon Fundus changes of macular edema, retinal perivasculitis and retinal and vitreous hemorrhages E. Optic atrophy 36. The Superior Orbital Fissure Is: A. B. C. D. E. An oblique slit in the posterior wall of the orbit Lateral and inferior to the optic foramen Bounded by the lesser sphenoidal wing above Bounded by the greater sphenoidal wing below All of the above 6 37. The canal of Schlemm possesses the following anatomic characteristics: A. B. C. D. E. Lined by endothelium Contains partitions resembling the dural venous trabeculae Contains red cells and aqueous All of the above A and C 38. The Corneal Curvature Is Such That: A. B. C. D. E. The peripheral portions are flatter than the central third One meridian is frequently more curved than another Most of the refraction occurs at the surface of the cornea All of the above None of the above 39. Accommodation is not: A. B. C. D. E. Closely related to convergence Peripheral in Origin Accomplished by innervation from the III cranial nerve Susceptible to fatigue All of the above 40. One of the following is true regarding Progressive Myopia : A. B. C. D. There are extensive changes in the posterior segment The sclera is thickened The choroid is not atrophic There is no degeneration of receptors and pigment epithelium 41. One of the following is not one of the cardinal uses of the cross cylinder: A. B. C. D. To determine the axis of correcting cylinder To determine the amount of astigmatism To check the axis of the correcting cylinder To determine the amount of esophoria 42. One of the following is not characteristic Of Presumed Histoplasmic Choroiditis: A. B. C. D. E. Multiple large lesions Mid-fundus and macular location Cyst formation later Secondary hemorrhagic reaction around cysts All of the above 43. Preretinal Subhyaloid Hemorrhage: A. B. C. D. E. Lies in front of the hyaloid membrane Does not involve the nerve fiber layer May not be present in newborn Shows a horizontal upper border All of the above 7 44. Lattice Degeneration: A. Is a circumferentially oriented lesion somewhat anterior to the equator B. Is characterized by retinal thickening C. Shows no abnormalities of adjacent vitreous D. Shows interlacing white line, along the blood vessels E. A and D 45. All of the following may be helpful in diagnosing toxocariasis except: A . Collection of child's stool for ova & parasites . B . Examination of child's sandbox for ova & parasites . C . Blood typing and ABO titre . D . Serologic tests for toxocara (ELISA) . E . History of pica . 46. A75- year old patient with chronic posterior uveitis , subretinal exudates and retinal hemorrhage is unresponsive to all forms of steroid therapy , the patient begins to develop neurological signs , A possible likely diagnosis is : A . Sarcoid uveitis . B . Reticulum cell sarcoma . C . Toxoplasmic retino-choroiditis . D . Vogt-koyanagi- Harada syndrome . E . Pars planitis . 47. Central Serous Retinopathy: A. B. C. D. Is situated in macula Is usually bilateral Usually shows no recovery Most frequently affects females 48. Clinically Significant Macular Edema in Diabetic Retinopathy is characterized by: A. Thickening of the retina at or within 500 microns of the center of the macula B. Hard exudates at or within 500 microns of the center of the macula, if associated with thickening of adjacent retina C. A zone or zones of retinal thickening 1 disc area or larger, any part of which is within 1 disc diameter of the center of macula D. Any of the above E. None of the above 8 49. High Risk factors for severe visual loss in proliferative diabetic retinopathy are the following except for: A. B. C. D. E. Disc new vessels with vitreous hemorrhage Cotton wool spots Extensive disc new vessels without hemorrhage New vessels elsewhere with vitreous hemorrhage Presence of rubeosis irides 50. Which of the following ROP stages is to be considered for cryotherapy according to the results of the ROP-Cryo Study: A. B. C. D. E. Stage I Stage II Stage III Plus Stage IV Stage V 51. Which is the most reliable feature of Subretinal neovascular membrane? A. B. C. D. E. Serous retinal detachment Late leakage of dye on fluorescein angiography Retinal hemorrhage Early lacy hyperfluorescence Hard exudates 52. In which of the following conditions might it be helpful to enhance the immune response with an immunopotentiating drug A . Uveitis . B . Malignant melanoma of the choroid . C . Allergic conjunctivitis . D . Urticaria . E . Sympathetic ophthalmia . 53. Which of the following statements is not correct?: Traction retinal detachment in proliferative diabetic retinopathy A. Can be treated by vitreous surgery , when the macula is involved B. Is caused by complete PVD and new vessels at disc C. May result in a retinal hole and may have an additional rhegmatogenous component D. Does not need to be treated, when the detachment is extramacular E. Is usually located initially at upper/lower vessel arcades 54. Anterior segment ischemia following eye muscle surgery: A. Is especially common following muscle transposition procedures B. Can occur following surgery on two rectus muscles C. Typically presents with iritis and an irregular pupil D. Arteriosclerosis, hyperviscosity and retinal buckles are predisposing factors E. All of the above 9 55. Which of the following procedure is contraindicated in the treatment of type "I" Duane’s syndrome: A. Recess medial rectus of the Duane eye B. Lateral rectus Y-splitting procedure of the Duane eye C. Resect lateral rectus of the Duane eye D. Recess medial rectus of contralateral eye E. Transposition of lateral rectus 56. One of the following statements is true regarding amblyopia: A. Better visual acuity with multiple opto types than single ones B. Is reversible when treated in early childhood C. Always associated with organic cause D. Patients have central fixation E. Neutral density filter effect is not used to diagnose amblyopia 57. All are characteristics of infantile esotropia except: A. Large esotropia B. Presentation before 6 months of age C. High hypermetropia is common D. Commonly associated with DVD and inferior oblique over action E. Family history of esotropia is present 58. One of the following is true regarding accommodative esotropia: A. Associated with myopia B. Prescribing the full refractive error corrects the esotropia in refractive accommodative esotropia C. Corrected always by surgery D. Presents commonly before 6/12 of age E. Non refractive accommodative esotropia has normal AC/A ratio 59. Which of the following is the least likely to cause a subluxation of the lens: A. Familial simple lens subluxation B. Marfan syndrome C. Homocystinuria D. Hyperlysinemia E. Weill-Marchesani syndrome 60. Which is a feature of orbital (not preseptal) cellulitis: A. Eyelid edema B. Tenderness to palpation C. Fever D. Proptosis E. Conjunctivitis 10 61. Which of the following is not a cause of papilledema: A. Pseudotumor cerebri B. Intracranial hemorrhage C. Choroid plexus tumor D. Optic nerve drusen E. Hydrocephalus 62. Cherry red spot is seen in all these disorders except: A. Tay Sachs disease B. Neimann Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Down syndrome E. Generalized Gangliosidosis 63. Which of the following conditions is not associated with childhood glaucoma: A. Sturge Weber syndrome B. Aniridia C. Galactosemia D. Lowe syndrome E. Rieger syndrome 64. All are ocular findings commonly seen in Down’s syndrome except: A. Upslanting palpebral fissure B. Chronic blepharitis C. Brushfield’s spots D. Cataract E. Papilledema 65. One of the following diseases has a mitochondrial inheritance: A. Choroidaermia B. Aicardi’s syndrome C. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy D. Retinitis pigmentosa E. Norrie disease 66. All are true about superior oblique muscle except: A. Primary function is intorsion B. Longest tendon of all extraocular muscles C. Insertion fans out under superior rectus D. Anatomical origin is at the trachlea E. Supplied by trochlear nerve 67. The field of action of superior rectus muscle is: A. Superior nasal B. Superior temporal C. Directly up D. Inferior temporal E. Inferior nasal 11 68. “Hering’s Law” A. States that yoke muscles receive equal innervation B. Explains monocular eye movements C. Controls duction eye movements D. Is used to explain Duane’s Syndrome E. Explains reciprocal innervation of muscles 69. The oculomotor nerve supplies all of these muscles except: A. Medial rectus B. Superior rectus C. Levator palpebrae D. Orbicularis muscle E. Inferior oblique 70. Check ligaments: A. Are true ligmanets B. Are fascial extensions that extend from the muscle sheath and insert on orbital wall C. They limit the excursion of the extraocular muscles D. Are the fusion between the capsules of IO and IR muscles E. Are the same as the intermuscular septum 71. Examples of type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions involve all except: A. Viral infection B. VKH disease C. Sarcoidosis D. Sympathetic ophthalmia E. Atopic keratoconjunctivitis 72. Type I atopic reactions are initiated by: A. Histamine B. Antigen –antibody complexes C. Mast cell D. Complement E. Sensitized T-cells 73. Causes of poor vision in a six month old without nystagmus might include all of the following except: A. Cortical visual defect B. Delayed visual maturation C. Developmental delay D. Optic nerve hypoplasia 12 74. The most common cause of poor visual result after successful penetrating keratoplasty for aphakic bullous keratopathy is: A. Unclear turbid vitreous B. Retinal haemorrhage C. Distorted pupil D. Cystoid macular oedema E. All of the above 75. One of the following is true about albinism: A. All forms of albinism are transmitted by autosomal recessive way. B. at the chiasm, crossing nerve fibers are less than non crossing ones. C. Vision is very poor in almost all cases. D. foveal hypoplasia 76. One of the following is true about Giant cell arteritis: A. B. C. D. Mostly affects middle aged group of patients. ESR does not exceed 40 mm in the first hour. Temporal artery biopsy is positive in all cases. Can be a lethal systemic disease. 77. Regarding the crystalline lens all the following are true except : A. The adult lens contains approximately 66% water and 33% protein. B. Glutathione concentration in the lens is 12 times higher than that in the aqueous humor C. Glucose in the lens is mainly metabolized through Krebs cycle D. Most of the lens’ proteins are soluble (85% crystalline) while the remaining are insoluble (Albuminoid). 78. All the following conditions are associated with congenital cataract except : A. B. C. D. Galactokinase deficiency Neurofibromatosis Fabry’s disease. Rubella 79. One of the following is false about retinoblastoma: A. Familial and hereditary cases are more common than sporadic cases. B. Vitreal seeding is an unfavorable sign. C. Calcification is a radiological feature of the disease. D. May regress spontaneously. 13 80. One of the following is true about retinitis pigmentosa: A. B. C. D. Central scotoma is characteristic Tortuous dilated retinal veins are seen in X-linked inherited type. May be associated with deafness. Nuclear cataract is the most common type of cataract associated with retinitis pigmentosa 81. One of the following is true about lid tumors: A. Squamous cell carcinoma constitutes 90% of all primary cancers of eye lid. B. Basal cell carcinoma is a common finding in Xeroderma Pigmentosum. C. Sebaceous carcinoma may mimic chronic blepharitis D. Keratoacanthoma of the lid metastasizes by blood route only. 82. One of the following is false regarding Benign Intracranial Hypertension: A. B. C. D. Caused by benign intracranial tumor Unilateral or bilateral sixth nerve palsy can be seen.. Acetazolamide is the main line of treatment. Optic nerve sheath decompression is indicated in selected cases. 83. All the following are side effects of systemic Acetazolamide except: A. B. C. D. E. Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Hyperkalemia Diarrhea Parasthesia Renal stones 84. One of the following is true regarding macular edema: A. It is never seen in retinitis pigmentosa. B. Can be treated by intra-vitreal injection of triamicinolone acetonide. C. Pre-existing macular edema regresses after Cataract surgery. D. The spot size in grid laser for diabetic maculopathy is 400-500 Microns. 85. Coat’s Disease is characterized by one of the following: A. B. C. D. Both eyes are affected. Females are more affected than males. Retinal neovascularization. leukcoria 14 86. Rubeosis iridis may be associated with all the following conditions except: A. B. C. D. Diabetes Mellitus cone- rode dystrophy Central retinal vein occlusion. Ocular ischemic syndrome. 87. Blunt trauma to the eye can cause all the following except: A. B. C. D. E. Nummular keratitis Diplopia Enophthalmos Macular hole Visual field loss (partial or complete) 88. One of the following is true regarding corneal dystrophies: A. B. C. D. All types are inherited by autosomal recessive way. Usually occur in one eye only. May recur after lamellar but not penetrating corneal graft. Phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK) might be effective procedure for selected cases. 89. All the following may be associated with Behcet’s Disease except: A. B. C. D. E. Familial predisposition is common. Genital ulcers. Recurrent aphthous ulcers. Thrombosis of inferior vena cava. Retinal neovascularization. 90. Adie’s syndrome is characterized by all the following except: A. B. C. D. Decreased pupillary sensitivity to pilocarpine Segmental contraction of sphincter muscle of the pupil. Diminished or absent tendon reflex Light-near dissociation. 91. Pulsating exophthalmos is seen in all the following except: A. B. C. D. Carotid cavernous fistula Thyroid ophthalmopathy Anterior encephalocele Neurofibromatosis. 92. One of the following is false regarding bony orbit: A. The fossa of the lacrimal gland is located in the supero-nasal aspect of the roof. B. The medial wall is the thinnest wall of the orbit. C. The floor is the most susceptible in blow out fracture. D. Orbital bone growth retardation is seen after enucleation in neonates. 15 93. Systemic Steroid therapy is useful in all the following conditions except: A. A 67-year old man with artertic type of ischemic optic neuropathy. B. A 55-year old woman with Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis. C. A 28- year-old woman with sudden decrease of vision in her only eye to hand movement secondary to optic neuritis D. A 24-year-old man with active toxoplasma retinitis involving the macula together with proper antiparasitic cover. 94. All the following tests are of diagnostic importance in Myasthenia Gravis except: A. B. C. D. Tensilon Test. CT scan of the chest. Electromyography Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 95. One of the following is false regarding Mitomycin C: A. B. C. D. Is an antibiotic drug isolated from Streptomces caespiousus. It might cause scleral melting. The use of Mitomycin C in conjunction with Trabeculectomy has no effect on the incidence of late onset endophthalmitis. It decreases haze after photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) 96. All the following conditions are associated with corneal crystalline deposits except: A. B. C. D. Cystinosis Fabry’s disease Chloroquine Icthyosis. 97. Angioid streaks are seen in all the following conditions except: A. B. C. D. Pseudoxanthema elasticum Paget’s disease. Ehler-Danlos syndrome. Retinoschisis. 98. Deafness is usually a clinical finding in the following disorders except: A. B. C. D. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada Syndrome Intra uterine Rubella infection Wilson's disease Aminoglycoside toxicity 16 99. All the following statements regarding psuedoexfoliation syndrome are true except: A. Medical treatment is usually the same as in primary open angle glaucoma B. Laser trabeculoplasty has a low success rate C. Trabeculectomy has results similar to primary open angle glaucoma D. Zonule is weaker than that of normal eyes 100. The treatment of neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis requires systemic therapy with erythromycin because: A. Topical antibiotics are not effective in children B. Topical antibiotics promote resistance C. Pneumonitis or pneumonia frequently accompany chlamydial conjunctivitis D. Systemic erythromycin therapy is less expensive than topical treatment GOOD LUCK 17