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Senior Comprehensive Exam - All Topics
General Biology Study Concepts
Osmosis and tonicity
Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and active transport
Elements of the Darwin-Wallace theory of evolution
Natural selection principles
Homology, convergent evolution, divergent evolution
Details of Mitosis and Meiosis
Types of symbiosis
Important differences between simple sugars, disaccharides, polysaccharides, amino acids, proteins,
phospholipids, triglycerides, steroids, nucleotides and nucleic acids.
Sample Questions
1. A pilot fish is relatively small and can swim around just behind the mouth of a shark without the
shark even attempting to catch or eat the pilot fish. However, when the shark catches and eats a prey,
the pilot fish will devoir the small scraps of meat that the shark does not eat. The relationship between
the shark and the pilot fish is a form of symbiosis known as _______________________________.
2. Which of the following is not an observation of inference on which natural selection is based?
a. There is heritable variation among individuals.
b. Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
c. There is a struggle for limited resources, and only a fraction of offspring survive.
d. Individuals whose characteristics are best suited to the environment generally leave more offspring
than those whose characteristics are less well suited.
e. Organisms interact with their environments.
3. Analysis of forelimb anatomy of humans, bats, and whales shows that humans and bats have fairly
similar skeletal structures, while whales have diverged considerably in the shapes and proportions of
their bones. However, analysis of several genes in these species suggests that all three diverged from a
common ancestor at about the same time. Which of the following is the best explanation for these
data?
a. Humans and bats evolved by natural selection, and whales evolved by Lamarckian mechanisms.
b. Evolution of human and bat forelimbs was adaptive, but not for whales.
c. Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb
anatomy.
d. Genes mutate more rapidly in whales than in humans or bats.
e. Whales are not properly defined as mammals.
4. Which of the following pairs of structures is least likely to represent homology?
a. the wings of a bat and the forelimbs of a human.
b. the hemoglobin of a baboon and that of a gorilla.
c. the mitochondria of a plant and those of an animal.
d. the wings of a bird and those of an insect.
e. the brain of a cat and that of a dog.
5. List and describe the fundamental elements of Darwin's hypothesis concerning evolution.
6. The fact that a marsupial mammal called a "sugar glider" and a true mammal called a "flying
squirrel" resemble each other
a. is an example of convergent evolution.
b. is an example of divergent evolution.
c. indicates that the two animals are very closely related in evolutionary history.
d. suggests that the two species will be able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
e. suggests that sympatric evolution leads to morphological convergence.
7. A selectively permeable bag is filled with a 3M sucrose solution. The bag is them placed into a 1M
sucrose solution.
I. In this example, we would say that the bag is in a ___________________________ environment.
II. In this example, we would expect bag to ____________________________ (gain or lose) weight
because ___________________________________ (what substance) would
_________________________________________ (enter or leave) the bag.
8. A researcher was studying a cell that has a diploid number of chromosomes = 12. The cell was in
the midst of cell division and she noticed that two cells had formed; each with 6 chromosomes that had
two chromatids.
I. Was the researcher watching mitosis or meiosis? How do you know?
II. In what phase of cell division was the cell?
9. A molecule has two fatty acid molecules, a polar head and a glycerol all bonded together. What
type of molecule is this?
10. A molecule composed of two glucose molecules bonded together could be described as
a. a disaccharide and a protein.
b. a disaccharide and a carbohydrate.
c. a polysaccharide and a glycoprotein.
d. disaccharide and a steroid.
11. Clear describe similarities and differences between simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion and active
transport.
Study Guide Outline for Cell Biology-Senior Comp Exam
Listed below are basic areas that you are responsible for. The number in parenthesis indicates the chapter in Campbell
where the relevant information is covered. In addition to reading the appropriate section of the chapter in Campbell, I
would encourage you to read the entire Chapter review at the end of the chapter and to answer the self-quiz questions at the
end of the chapter (answers are in an appendix at the end of the textbook). The numbers of some of the chapters have
changed between the 6th and 7th editions of Campbell. Those changes are reflected below.
An Introduction to Metabolism -Chapter 6 (6th ), 8 (7th)
exergonic and endergonic reactions, enzymes (structure, effects on ∆G, properties, and inhibition), roles of ATP in cell
metabolism and function
A Tour of the Cell- Chapter 7 (6th ), 6 (7th)
Differences in procaryotes and eucaryotes; function of major cell organelles (RER,SER, Golgi, ,endomembrane system,
nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, lysosomes, ribosomes, and cytoskeleton).
Membrane Structure and Function- Chapter 8 (6th ), 7 (7th)
Osmosis and diffusion; facilitated diffusion, active transport, fluid mosaic model of membrane structure
Cell Respiration-Harvesting Chemical Energy- Chapter 9
mitochondria structure; glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport system (what they accomplish and role in making ATP).
Chemiosmotic ATP synthesis.
Photosynthesis-Chapter 10
chloroplast structure; light dependent reactions (role of photosynthetic pigments, reactants, products produced (and how
they are produced); Calvin cycle (reactants, products produced and relationship to light dependent reactions)
The Molecular Basis of Inheritance-Chapter 16
DNA structure and replication
From Gene to Protein-Chapter 17
transcription, m-rna processing, translation (mechanism),mutation (causes and types (frame shift, point, etc.)
The Genetics of Virus and Bacteria-Chapter 18
operons (Lac and trp), lytic virus life cycle, transformation, conjugation
DNA technology and Genomics-Chapter 20
Basic strategy for genetically modifying a bacterium
Sample questions:
Ch 6
The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal
cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that
A) plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells.
B) plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane than animal cells.
C) plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
D) animal cells are more spherical, while plant cells are elongated.
E) the basic functions of plant cells are very different from those of animal cells.
Ch 7
Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane?
A) phospholipids and cellulose
B) nucleic acids and proteins
C) phospholipids and proteins
D) proteins and cellulose
E) glycoproteins and cholesterol
Ch 8
Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does
this relate to the second law of thermodynamics?
A) Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must increase with time.
B) Life obeys the second law of thermodynamics because the decrease in entropy as the organism grows is balanced by an
increase in the entropy of the universe.
C) Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics.
D) As a consequence of growing, organisms create more disorder in their environment than the decrease in entropy
associated with their growth.
E) Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy.
Ch 9
In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to
convert ADP + P i to ATP?
A) energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport system
B) energy released from substrate-level phosphorylation
C) energy released from ATP synthase pumping hydrogen ions against their concentration gradient
D) energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase
E) No external source of energy is required because the reaction is exergonic.
Ch 10
Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?
A) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, P i , and NADP+ to the light
reactions.
B) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the cycle provides
water and electrons to the light reactions.
C) The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO 2 to produce sugars, and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions
with sugars to produce ATP.
D) The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow, and the Calvin cycle provides the light
reactions with water to split.
E) There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle.
Ch 16
Use Figure 16.1 to answer the following questions.
In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" nitrogen (15N) and then transferred
them to a medium containing 14N. Which of the results in Figure 16.1 would be expected after one DNA replication in the
presence of 14N?
Ch 17
A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA
instead of a phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that
A) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
B) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.
C) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.
D) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
E) None of the above will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.
Ch 18
Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic virus life cycle?
A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced.
B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.
C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.
D) A large number of phages are released at a time.
E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.
Ch 20
Figure 20.1
3) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1?
A) ligase
B) transcriptase
C) a restriction enzyme
D) RNA polymerase
E) DNA polymerase
SENIOR COMPREHENSIVE EXAMS
ECOLOGY STUDY GUIDE
Bullet points below include concepts and subjects that you should understand. They correspond to the following chapters
in Campbell’s Biology (7th edition). Chapter 50: Introduction to Ecology, Chapter 52: Population Ecology, Chapter 53:
Community Ecology, Chapter 54: Ecosystems. You should read the chapters, chapter reviews and attempt to answer the
review questions in the text. Also included below are sample multiple choice questions that represent these concepts.
Please note that you may also be given short answer questions in addition to multiple choice.
Key concepts and terms to know and understand
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
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•
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abiotic & biotic components of ecosystems
population/community/ecosystem/biome/species
community ecology – niche, habitat, species richness, biodiversity, homogeneity,
heterogeneity, biomass
biomes: deciduous forest, coniferous forest, tropical rainforest, desert, savanna, grassland,
open ocean, estuary, wetlands, coral reefs
types of species: native, invasive/introduced species, keystone species, foundation species,
endangered species
population ecology: density, dispersion, survivorship curves, age structure diagrams
population growth: logistic growth, carrying capacity, exponential population growth, densitydependent factors ,density-independent factors, r-selected species, k- selected species
species interactions: competition, predation, mutualism, commensalism, parasitism, resource
partitioning
food chains – producers, consumers, decomposers, trophic levels, ecological pyramids, net
primary productivity
succession – primary and secondary
nutrient cycling – nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, phosphorus
ecological footprint
coevolution
aquatic ecology - eutrophication
Sample Ecology Questions
1) Which of the following statements about communities is not correct?
A) Many plant species in communities seem to be independently distributed.
B) Some animal species distributions within a community are linked to other species.
C) The distribution of almost all organisms is probably affected, to some extent, by both abiotic
gradients and interactions with other species.
D) Ecologists refer to species richness as the number of species within a community.
E) The trophic structure of a community describes abiotic factors such as rainfall and temperature
affecting members of the community.
2) Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most
ecosystems?
A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders.
B) Most predators require large home ranges.
C) Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems.
D) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition.
E) Each energy transfer is less than 100% efficient.
3) Which term best describes the interaction between termites and the protozoans that feed in their
gut?
A) commensalism
B) mutualism
C) competitive exclusion
D) ectoparasitism
E) endoparasitism
4) Which of these is a starting point for primary succession?
A) a surface exposed by a retreating glacier
B) abandoned farmland
C) an abandoned city
D) a neglected yard
E) none of the above
5) Resource partitioning is best described by which of the following statements?
A) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species.
B) Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist.
C) Two species can coevolve and share the same niche.
D) Species diversity is maintained by switching between prey species.
E) A climax community is reached when no new niches are available.
6) Which of the following statements about energy flow is incorrect?
A) Secondary productivity declines with each trophic level.
B) Only net primary productivity is available to consumers.
C) About 90% of the energy at one trophic level does not appear at the next.
D) Eating meat is probably the most economical way of acquiring the energy of photosynthetic
productivity.
E) Only about one-thousandth of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis reaches a tertiarylevel consumer.
7) Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is (are) correct?
A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light.
B) Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light.
C) Light intensity is an important abiotic factor in limiting the distribution of photosynthetic
organisms.
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C are correct.
8) Tropical forest soils contain comparatively low levels of mineral nutrients because
A) the standing crop biomass of tropical forests is comparatively small.
B) tropical soil microorganisms do not break down organic matter as efficiently as temperate zone
soil microorganisms do.
C) organic matter decomposes more rapidly and plants assimilate soil nutrients more rapidly in the
tropics.
D) nutrients cycle more slowly in the tropics.
E) many nutrients are destroyed by high temperatures in the tropics.
9) Which of the following statements about aquatic biomes is false?
A) The distribution of photosynthetic organisms is not limited by the quality and intensity of light
in marine biomes.
B) Many lakes in temperate regions are characterized by seasonal thermal stratification.
C) Marine algae and photosynthetic bacteria produce a substantial portion of the biosphere's
atmospheric oxygen.
D) Many aquatic biomes exhibit pronounced vertical stratification of chemical variables.
E) Marine biomes generally have a salt concentration that averages 3%.
10) Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the U.S. but not at similar latitudes on the
southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this?
A) sunlight
B) precipitation
C) day length
D) ocean currents
E) salinity
11) Life history strategies usually result from
A) environmental pressures.
B) natural selection.
C) conscious choice.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
12) All of the following characteristics are typical of an r-selected population except
A) occurrence in variable environments.
B) high intrinsic rate of growth.
C) onset of reproduction at an early age.
D) extensive parental care of offspring.
E) occurrence in open habitats.
13) The species richness of a community refers to the
A) number of food chains.
B) number of different species.
C) energy content of all species.
D) relative numbers of individuals in each species.
E) total number of all organisms.
Short Answer
1. Explain the impact of introduced species on a natural plant community.
2. Select one biome to briefly discuss, listing important abiotic components that contribute to the
presence of characteristic plants and animal found in this biome.
3. Explain the carbon cycle and articulate how people have impacted this cycle.
Botany Review for Senior Comps
1. Characteristics of kingdoms and major divisions.
Protista – cyanobacteria, red algae, brown algae, diatoms, green algae, euglena, slime molds.
Fungi – bread molds, sac fungi, club fungi, lichenized fungi, conidial/”imperfect” fungi.
Plantae – bryophytes, ferns, gymnosperms (cycads, ginkgo, conifers, Gnetophyta), flowering plants.
2. Generalized life cycles: sporic, zygotic, gametic. Asexual vs. sexual reproduction.
3. Morphology and anatomy of roots, stems, leaves and adaptations for xeric, mesic, and aquatic environments. Basic
plant anatomy: xylem, phloem, epidermis, endodermis, mesophyll, periderm, parenchyma, collenchyma, sclerenchyma,
pith, cortex, protoderm, ground meristem, procambium, vascular cambium, primary tissues,
4. Plant physiology: transpiration, translocation, plant growth substances (GAs, cytokinins, ethylene, abscisic acid, auxin),
phytochrome, external stimuli, tropisms.
Sample Questions
1. List and briefly explain characteristics that represent adaptations of land plants.
2. Diagram the generalized sporic meiotic life cycle.
3. List and briefly explain 5 adaptations of xeric plants.
4. Explain the uptake and movement of water from the soil environment to the top of the plant.
5. Explain the movement of sugars through the plant identifying the source and sink of a plant in early spring.
6. Explain the effect of specific plant growth substances on the development and maturation of plant cells.
7. Identify the tissues found in a monocot stem and give the function of each.
8. Explain the development of a woody stem starting with the 3 primary tissues found in the growing shoot.
SENIOR COMPREHENSIVE EXAMS
Invertebrates Study Guide
The topics below include those you should know for senior comps. They are taken from chapters in Campbell’s Biology
(7th edition). You should read the chapters, chapter reviews and attempt to answer the review questions in the text. Also
included below are sample multiple choice questions that represent these concepts.
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity
• Concept 32.1: basic characteristics of animals including cell structure and specialization,
reproduction and development (e.g., cleavage, gastrulation, metamorphosis)
• Concept 32.3: body plans, symmetry, tissues, body cavities, protostomes, deuterostomes, coelom,
development in proto- vs. deuterostomes
Chapter 33: Invertebrates
• You should understand the general characteristics and major anatomical features of each of the
major groups of invertebrates. Each concept section in Campbell reviews a selection of the major
invertebrate taxa, with which you should be familiar. These include groups such as Porifera, Cnidaria,
Platyhelminthes, Rotifera, Lophophorates, Mollusca, Annelida, Nematoda, Arthropoda,
Echinodermata, and Chordata.
Sample Questions
Chapter 32: Animal Diversity
1) Which of the following is not unique to animals?
A) cells that have tight junctions, desmosomes, or gap junctions
B) the structural protein collagen
C) nervous conduction and muscular movement
D) regulatory genes called Hox genes
E) sexual reproduction
2) Organisms that are neither coelomate nor pseudocoelomate should, apart from their digestive
systems, have bodies that
A) are solid with tissue.
B) lack the ability to metabolize food.
C) are incapable of muscular contraction.
D) lack true tissues.
E) lack mesodermally derived tissues.
3) Which of the following functions is an advantage of a fluid-filled body cavity?
A) Internal organs are cushioned and protected from injury.
B) Organs can grow and move independently of the outer body wall.
C) The cavity acts as a hydrostatic skeleton.
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C
Chapter 33: Invertebrates
1) Which of the following combinations of phylum and description is incorrect?
A) Echinodermata-bilateral and radial symmetry, coelom from archenteron
B) Nematoda-roundworms, pseudocoelomate
C) Cnidaria-radial symmetry, polyp and medusa body forms
D) Platyhelminthes-flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, acoelomate
E) Porifera-gastrovascular cavity, coelom present
2) Nematodes are most closely related to
A) flatworms.
B) arthropods.
C) rotifers.
D) annelids.
E) chordates.
3) Which of these characteristics is common to both snails and earthworms?
A) a closed circulatory system
B) segmentation
C) two tissue layers
D) an alimentary system with two openings
E) an exoskeleton
4) Which of these is a characteristic of sea stars?
A) a closed circulatory system
B) nephridia
C) a brain
D) two tissue layers
E) tube feet
5) Although a diverse group, all cnidarians are characterized by
A) a gastrovascular cavity.
B) an alternation between a medusa and a polyp stage.
C) some degree of cephalization.
D) muscle tissue of mesodermal origin.
E) the complete absence of asexual reproduction.
6) Which of the following is not a characteristic of most members of the phylum Annelida?
A) hydrostatic skeleton
B) segmentation
C) metanephridia
D) pseudocoelom
E) closed circulatory system
7) Which phylum is characterized by animals that have a segmented body?
A) Cnidaria
B) Platyhelminthes
C) Porifera
D) Arthropoda
E) Mollusca
Senior Comprehensive Exam Review
Physiology - Because some students take BIO 115-120 and other students take BIO 360, all
physiology questions will relate to the human body.
General Concepts
A. Homeostasis
B. Parts of a control system
C. What does significant difference mean?
D. Three specific examples of why active transport is important.
E. Three specific examples of why ATP is important
Respiratory System
A. General anatomy of epiglottis, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
B. Role of diaphragm in changing pressures in the thoracic cavity: inhalation / exhalation
C. Role of surfactant
D. Diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide at alveoli - partial pressure concept
E. Role of chemoreceptors and pH of cerebrospinal fluid in regulating respiratory rate
F. Red blood cells: hemoglobin function, carbonic anhydrase function
Nervous System
A. Central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, somatic, autonomic, sympathetic and
parasympathetic divisions, afferent, efferent, sensory, motor.
B. Neurons and Neuroglia: role of ATPase pump, ions and their function during an action
potential, basic function of a synapse, sensory, motor, interneurons, neuroglia
C. Brain and spinal cord: cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, gray matter, white matter,
dorsal root, dorsal root ganglia, ventral root.
D. Explain the concept of sensory mapping and motor mapping, for example the role of
the precentral and post central gyrus.
E. What are the basic functions of the vertebrate eye and mammalian ear? Retina, visual
mapping, tympanum, ossicles, cochlea, hair cells.
Endocrine System
A. Definition of a hormone and how it differs from a neurotransmitter.
B. Membrane receptors and second messengers.
C. Cytoplasmic receptor systems.
D. Difference in function of the anterior and posterior pituitary (direct acting hormones,
tropic hormones, releasing hormones)
E. Describe feedback regulation of a hormone such as thyroid hormone or cortisol.
F. What is the difference between type I and type II diabetes?
Digestive system
A. mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption, assimilation.
B. sphincter, peristalsis
C. primary roles of esophagus, stomach, duodenum, small intestine (post duodenum),
large intestine, liver, gall bladder, pancreas
D. What are three important functions of the liver?
E. Explain the differences between the endocrine and exocrine pancreas.
F. difference in absorption of lipids and other nutrients (emulsification, chylomicra, lymph)
Circulatory System
A. major chambers of the heart, valves, major blood vessels entering and exiting heart
B. pulmonary, systemic, coronary circulations
C. important functions of erythrocytes, leukocytes (lymphocytes, neutrophils)
D. cardiac output, regulation of heart by baroreceptors, cardiac center, vagus and accelerator
nerves.
E. important differences between arteries, capillaries and veins.
F. importance of osmotic pressure and fluid pressure during capillary exchange
G. What is circulatory shock? Why does it happen?
Urinary System
A. major organs of the urinary system: kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra,
renal artery and renal vein.
B. parts and function of the nephron: glomerulus, prox. convoluted tubule, loop of Henle,
distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, filtration, reabsorption, secretion, antidiuretic
hormone’s action on the collecting duct
C. explain how the loop of Henle and the medulla of the kidney function together to provide for
reabsorption of water from the collecting duct.
Immunity
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In general, what are the functions of the lymphatic system?
What are the functions of a lymph node?
Generally speaking, what do neutrophils and macrophage cells do?
Explain the role of B-lymphocytes in humoral immunity.
Explain the role of cytotoxic (killer) T-lymphocytes in cellular immunity.
Reproduction
A. Role of testosterone in sex determination in mammals.
B. Basic male and female anatomy.
C. hypothalamus, pituitary, FSH, LH
D. Positive and negative feedback in female
E. Negative feedback in male
Skeletal Muscle Physiology
A. Why are muscles in the body often organized into opposing pairs?
B. Structure of muscle: tendons, muscle belly, motor units, muscle fibers
C. Structure of muscle cells: neuromusclular junction, transverse tubules,
sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium stores, sarcomeres
D. Sliding filament hypothesis: actin, myosin, ATP
E. Creatine phosphate, myoglobin, mitochondria, anaerobic fermentation of pyruvate
to lactate.
Sample Questions
1. Describe the components of the physiological regulation of heart rate: baroreceptors, sensory
nerves, vagus nerve, accelerator nerve.
2. Describe the feedback regulation of thyroid hormone secretion. hypothalamus, anterior pituitary,
thyroid gland
3. Describe the roles of actin, myosin and ATP during contraction of a sarcomere.
4. Explain the difference between filtration, reabsorption, tubular secretion and water reabsorption in
the mammalian nephron.
5. What are the fundamental differences between the mechanisms of action of a steroid hormone and a
protein hormone?
6. Explain how ion concentration differences are established across the membrane of a neuron. Then
explain what happens during an action potential.
7. Explain the effects of two factors that influence the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin?
Genetics Practice Problems
1. Pedigree Analysis
The accompanying pedigree is for a rare, but relatively mild, hereditary disorder of the skin.
I
aa
1
Aa
2
II
1
2
3
4
III
1
IV
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Aa
aa
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
A. Is the disorder inherited as a dominant or recessive phenotype? Explain.
B. If IV-1 marries IV-9, what is the probability that their first child will have the disorder?
2. Factorial Equation
Galactosemia, a disease that results from the lack of an enzyme that converts the sugar galactose to
glucose, is due to an autosomal gene (g). A normal couple has an infected child. Find the probability
that:
A. The next 2 children will be galactosemic?
B. Of the next 4 children, 1 will be galactosemic?
C. The first child will be a normal boy and the second a galactosemic girl?
3. Blood type question
The following are observed ABO blood group phenotypes among a group of 600 American Indian
students: 200 A, 196 B, 104 AB, and 100 O.
A. Calculate the frequencies of the A, B, and O alleles in this group assuming random mating.
B. Determine the numbers of blood group phenotypes.
4. Determining the loci, the distance between the loci and the coefficient of coincidence.
In Drosophila, a cross was made between females expressing the three X-linked recessive traits, scute
bristles (sc), sable body (s), and vermillion eyes (v), and wild type males. In the F1, all females were
wild type, while all males expressed all three mutant traits. The cross was carried to the F2 generation
and 1,000 offspring were counted with the results shown below.
sc
+
sc
+
+
sc
+
sc
s
+
+
+
s
s
s
+
v
v
+
+
+
+
v
v
314
14
156
280
30
10
150
46
A. Determine the genotypes of the P1 & F1 parents.
B. Determine the sequence of the three genes and the map distance between them.
C. Calculate the coefficient of coincidence.
5. Sex-linked problems
Two Drosophila flies were mated that had normal (transparent), long wings. In the progeny, two new
phenotypes appeared: dusky wings (brownish) and clipped wings (squared ends). The progeny were
as follows:
Females
179 transparent, long
58 transparent, clipped
Males
92 transparent, long
89 dusky, long
28 transparent, clipped
31 dusky, clipped
Explain these results showing genotypes of parents and of all progeny.
6. Frequency and Generations
A completely recessive gene, owing to changed environment circumstances, becomes lethal in a
certain population. Previous to the change, the gene was neutral and its frequency was 0.3
A. What was the genotype distribution when the recessive genotype was not selected against?
B. What will the genotype distribution be after 2 generations?
7. Mendelian Genetics
Heterozygous black (Bb) guinea pigs are mated to homozygous recessive (bb) whites. Predict the
genotypic and phenotypic ratios expected from backcrossing the black F1 progeny to
A. the black parent
B. the white parent