Download GASTROENTEROLOGY AND HEPATOLOGY 1. Presence of triad of

GASTROENTEROLOGY AND HEPATOLOGY
1. Presence of triad of symptoms – increase of gastric secretion, peptic ulcers of stomach or
duodenum,
and
diarrhea
is
occurred
in:
1) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome;
2) peptic ulcer disease of stomach;
3) ulcerative colitis;
4) peptic ulcer disease of duodenum;
2. Which one of the following NSADs is more rare caused peptic ulcers of gastro-intestinal
tract? 1) indometacin; 2) voltaren; 3) ibuprofen; 4) meloxicam;
3. Which one of the following is more proved for diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
1) basal acid output; 2) maximal acid output; 3) blood level of gastrin; 4) gastroscopy;
4. Gastrin is secreted by: 1) antral part of stomach; 2) fundus of stomach; 3) duodenum; 4)
pancreas; Which does one of the following substances increase gastric secretion? 1) gastrin;
2) secretin; 3) cholecystokinin; 4) somatostatin;
6. Which does one of the following medicines decrease gastric secretion?
1) famotidine
2) solcoseryl
3) prostaglandin analogues
sucralfate 7. The gastric outlet obstruction is most characterized by:
1) vomiting of bile-containing material
3) vomiting of undigested food
(misoprostol)
4)
2) rumbling in abdomen
4) bloating
8. Ranitidine is the medicine of:
1) H2 receptors blockers
2) M-cholinolytic agents
3) sympathomimetic agents 4) H1 receptors blockers
9. Omeprazole is the medicine of:
1) adrenoblockers
2) proton pump inhibitors
3) H1 receptors blockers
4) H2 receptors blockers
10. The treatment of postprandial distress syndrome includes administration of:
1) prokinetic agents 2) M-cholinolytics
3) antispasmodics agents
4) antibiotics
11. The most common cause of chronic viral liver disease is:
1) HBV-infection
3) HAV-infection
2) HCV-infection
4) HBV/HDV-infection, HDV-infection
12. Increase of conjugated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, -glutamyltranspeptidase,
cholesterol is seen in:
1) cytolytic syndrome
2) hypersplenism
3) syndrome of liver failure
4) cholestatic syndrome
13. The place of absorption of vitamin B12 is:
1) stomach
2) duodenum
3) terminal part of ileum
4) proximal part of ileum
14. Treatment of reflux esophagitis includes administration of: a) nitroglycerine, b)
domperidone, c) drotaverine, d) de-nol (bismuth subcitrate), e) maalox, f) ranitidine.
Choose a correct combination
1)a, b, c;
2) b, c, d;
3) c, d, e;
4) b, e, f
15. Which one of the following is more proved for diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome? 1) basal acid output; 2) maximal acid output; 3) blood level of gastrin;
4) gastroscopy;
16. The standard of treatment of chronic hepatitis C includes:
1) ribavirin monotherapy
2) interferon- monotherapy
3) combination therapy of interferon- plus ribavirin
4) geptral
17. Which does one of the following medicines decrease gastric secretion?
1) famotidine
2) solcoseryl
3) prostaglandin analogues (misoprostol)
4) sucralfate
18. The possible complications of Crohn’s disease are:
1) fistula formation
2) massive intestinal hemorrhage
3) toxic megacolon
4) intestinal obstruction
19. The reabsorption of bile salts is occurred in:
1) duodenum
2) jejunum
3) proximal part of ileum
4) terminal part of ileum
20. Palpable “abdominal mass” is seen in:
1) Whipple’s disease
3) dysentery
2) Crohn’s disease
4) celiac disease
21. The ulcerative colitis is most characterized by presence of:
1) pain inparaumbilical area
3) bloody diarrhea
2) constipation
4) vomiting
CARDIOLOGY
22. What type of hyperlipidemia is characterized by increased level of cholesterol,
triglycerides, low-density lipoproteins and very low-density lipoproteins?
1) I
2) IIa
3) IIb
4) III
23. What ECG changes are specific for angina pectoris?
1) pathological Q-wave
2) ST-segment depression
4) transitory His’ bundle branch block
3) appearance of negative T-wave
24. The specific clinical features of instable angina are:
1) changes in duration and intensity of angina attacks
2) disturbances of heart rhythm and conductivity
3) arterial hypotension without hypotensive therapy
4) pathological Q-wave on ECG
25. Instable angina may develop into:
1) myocardial infarction
2) cerebral thromboembolism
3) fatal disturbances of heart rhythm
4) pulmonary hypertension
26. Pericarditis sicca should be differentiated from:
1) diaphragmatic hernia
2) acute pancreatitis
3) esophagus peptic ulcer
4) myocardial infarction
27. What are the clinical features of cardiac failure due to exudative pericarditis?
1) cardiomegaly
2) special posture of body: bending forward or knee-elbow posture
3) absence of cardiac murmurs
4) ascites, edema
28. At what pathological condition does myocardial biochemical disorder result in
myocardial hypoxia?
1) hyponatremia
3) hypocalcemia
2) hypokaliemia
4)hypofosfatemia
29. The postinfarction patient 3 weeks after coronary artery bypass grafting, treated by
antiaggregants demonstrated dyspnea, peripheral edema, cardiomegaly and flattened
cardiac arches. The possible causes are:
1) hydropericardium
2) hemopericardium
3) recurrent myocardial infarction
4) infectious exudative pericarditis
30. The atropine test is used for evaluation of:
1) atrioventricular conduction disorders
2) sick sinus syndrome
3) disorders of blood rheological properties
4) latent coronary insufficiency
31. Indicate the pain characteristic for patients with masked myocardial infarction:
1) high intensity
2) low intensity
3) intense pain with short periods of relief
4) pain radiates to the left arm
32. Which of the following drugs has antianginal and antiarrhythmic effects?
1) dipiridamol
2) obsidian
3) corvaton
4) isosorbide dinitrate
33. Reflex methods of rapid relief of arrhythmia are effective at:
1) paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
2) paroxysmal atrial flutter
3) paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
4) sinus tachycardia
34. What serum enzymes increase is observed during first 6-12 hours of myocardial
infarction?
1) creatine phosphokinase
2) lactatedehydrogenase
3) aminotranspherase
4) alkaline phosphatase
35. The following echocardiographic characteristics specific for myocardial infarction are:
1) diffuse hyperkinesias
2) diffuse hypokinesia
3) local hypokinesia
4) local hyperkinesia
36. 189. How does the presystolic murmur change in patients with mitral stenosis and in
case of atrial fibrillation appearing?
1) increases considerably
2) increases to a little degree
3) doesn’t change
4) disappears
37. Which of the following drugs is antiaggregant?
1) heparin
3) streptokinase
2) acetylsalicylic acid
4) warfarin
38. Choose the safest and the most effective antiarrhythmic drug for treatment of
tachyarrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication:
1) procainamide hydrochloride
3) isoptin
2) lidocain
4) inderal
39. Which of the following radiological signs is common for miocarditis and exudative
pericarditis?
1) cardiomegaly
2) absence of archs of cardic shadow
3) absence of pulmonary congestion
4) prevalence of cardiac lateral dimension above its longitudinal axis
40. Choose the most common cause of constrictive pericarditis:
1) trauma
2) collagenosis
3) heart surgery
4) tuberculosis
41. Which of the following investigations is performed first of all for the diagnostics of the
exudative pericarditis?
1) pericardiocentesis
2) CVP (central venous pressure) assessment
3) chest radiography
4) phonocardiography
42. Patient with postinfarction cardiosclerosis and sick sinus node syndrome has got
everyday paroxysms of tachisystolic atrial fibrillation, episodes of sinus bradycardia with
dizziness. Choose the appropriate therapeutic approach:
1) quinidine
2) procainamide hydrochloride
3) implantation of pacemaker
4) digoxin
43. What are the specific signs of atrial fibrillation?
1) ventricular rate > 120 per minute
3) premature QRS complexes
2) absence of P-waves
4) shortened PQ-intervals
44. Choose the probable causes of Morgagni-Adams-Stokes disease:
1) ventricular extrasystole
2) ventricular fibrillation
3) atrial fibrillation
4) atrioventricular block
45. Choose the appropriate drug for rapid relief of paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia:
1) disopyramide
2) digoxin
3) finoptin
4) hiluritmal
46. Choose the right clinical signs of arterial hypertension:
1) transient loss of consciousness
2) disturbances of heart rate and conductivity
3) peripheral edema
4) parietal and occipital cephalalgia
47. The main clinical sign of renal hypertension is:
1) decreased kidney size
3) renal dysfunction
2) renal dystopy
4) 20% renal artery stenosis
48. What is the most frequent, earliest and dangerous complication of myocardial
infarction?
1) cardiogenic shock
3) ventricular fibrillation
2) pulmonary edema
4) cardiac rupture
49. Endocrine hypertension with deficiency of hormonal production is due to:
2) Conn’s syndrome
1) diabetes mellitus
3) hyperparathyroidism
4) pheochromocytoma
50. Choose the right antiarrhythmic treatment for patient with acute transmural
anteroseptal myocardial infarction and frequent ventricular extrasystole:
1) strophanthine
2) lidocain
3) propranolol
4) isoptin
51. Choose the right antiarrhythmic therapy for ventricular fibrillation in patient with
acute transmural anteroseptal myocardial infarction:
1) strophanthine
2) to carry out cardioversion
3) propranolol
4) cordarone
52. Choose the ECG-criteria specific for arterial hypertension:
1) peaked P-wave in II, III standard leads
2) left ventricular hypertrophy
3) left His’ bundle branch block
4) wide, two-humped P-wave in I and II standard leads
NEPHROLOGY
53. The main sign of nephrotic syndrome is:
1) leukocyturia
2) proteinuria
3) hematuria
4) cylindruria
54. What sign is the earliest at amyloidosis?
1) proteinuria
2) hematuria
3) leukocyturia
4) cylindruria
55. Most active nephritis at chronic glomerulonephritis is diagnosed at presence of:
1) massive proteinuria > 3,5 g/ds
2) long-term persistent acute nephritic syndrome
3) massive erythrocyturia with moderate proteinuria
4) sustained arterial hypertension
56. What kind of proteinuria is characteristic for chronic glomerulonephritis?
1) glomerular
2) tubular
3) an overflow proteinuria
4) strain proteinuria
57. Point out the basic etiological factor of acute glomerulonephritis:
1) staphylococcus
2) clebsiella
3) β-hemolytic streptococcus of A-group
58. The gross proteinuria is observed in:
4) blue pus bacillus
1) acute glomerulonephritis
3) nephrotic syndrome
2) amyloidosis
4) chronic glomerulonephritis
59. The basic laboratory signs of nephrotic syndrome are all listed below:
1) massive proteinuria
2) erythrocyturia
3) hypoalbuminemia
4) hypolipidemia
60. At pyelonephritis true diagnostic value has:
1) rapid painful urination
2) bacteriuria
3) pains in lumbar area
4) fever
61. At chronic pyelonephritis the general analysis of urine shows:
1) oxaluria
2) cylindruria
3) leukocyturia
4) massive proteinuria
62. Bacteriuria is diagnosed at presence of bacteria in urine more than:
1) 1*102
2) 1*103
3) 1*104
4) 1*105
63. Change of biochemical parameters in chronic renal failure is:
1) hyperalbuminemia
2) dyslipidemia
3) hypercreatininemia
4) urobilinuria
64. Level of glomerular filtration, characteristic for terminal final of chronic renal failure
is:
1) 5 ml/min
2) 30 ml/min
3) 20 ml/min
4) 15 ml/min
65. What does the reason of dark and yellowish colour of skin in chronic renal failure
1) direct bilirubin increase
2) indirect bilirubin increase
3) disturbance of urochromes secretion
4) disturbance of conjugated bilirubin
66. What group of antibiotics causes acute renal failure more often?
1) penicillins
3) aminoglycosides
2) cephalosporins
4) macrolids
67. The basic signs pointing to the phenomena of hyperhydratation at acute renal failure:
1) increase of sodium ions in blood plasma
2) decrease of sodium ions in blood plasma
3) increase of potassium ions in blood plasma
4) decrease of potassium ions in blood plasma
68 Urea level, at which hemodialysis is carried out, is:
1) 10 mmol/l
2) 15 mmol/l
3) 18 mmol/l
4) 21 mmol/l
69. Chronic renal failure is diagnosed according to:
1) edema in presence of proteinuria
2) arterial hypertension and changes in urine
3) increase of urinary acid level in blood
4) increase of creatinine concentration in blood
70. Point out an antibacterial drug which can be applied in usual dosages in chronic renal
failure?
1) biseptolum
2) ampicillin
3) gentamycin
4) tarividum
71. What examination specifies streptococcal etiology of acute glomerulonephritis?
1) revealing of streptococci in blood
2) increase of antistreptolizin-O level in blood
3) presence of streptococci in urine
4) revealing of streptococci in kidneys biopsy material
PULMONOLOGY
72. For what disease is the lymphocytic compound and insignificant quantity of mesothelial
cells in an exudates most typical?
1) tuberculosis
2) tumor
3) pseudorheumatism
4) lymphoid leukemia
73 . The chylous exudate is caused more often by:
1) chronic heart failure
2) pulmonary tuberculosis
3) tumor of lungs and mediastinum
4) systemic connective tissue diseases
74. According data of echocardiography the following signs can be found out in pulmonary
heart:
1) hypertrophy and dilatation of right portions of heart
2) hypertrophy and dilatation of left portions of heart
3) dilatation of all heart chambers
4) hypertrophy of left ventricle
75. Treatment of pneumonia caused by legionella is carried out by:
1) penicilline
3) erythromycin
2) kefzolum
4) tetracycline
76. Namespecify the basic radiological sign of pneumonia:
1) pulmonary infiltrate
2) atelectasis
3) raised lightness of lungs
4) alveolarity of the lung pattern
77. What clinical signs are characteristic for patients with bronchial obstruction syndrome: a)
inspiration impairment; b) expiration impairment; c) dyspnea; d) acrocyanosis; e) diffusive
cyanosis. Choose a correct combination of answers:
1) b, c, d
2) b, c, d, e
3) a, b
4) b, c, e
78. The most frequent pathogen of nosocomial (hospital) pneumonia in elderly patients is:
1) clebsiella
2) chlamydia
3) mycoplasma
4) pneumococcus
79. Choose the beginning of empirical antibacterial therapy to the patient of 68 years old
with an extrahospital pneumonia and concomitant diabetes:
1) oxacillin
2) erythromycin
3) gentamycin
4) ciprofloxacin
80.Which of listed preparations belong to anticholinergics? a) euphyllinum; b)
platyphyllinum; c) adrenaline; d) atropine; e) ipratropium bromidum. Choose a correct
combination of answers:
1) a, d, e
2) b, d, e
3) a, b
4) a, b, d
81. Name β2-agonists which have the prolonged action?
1) salbutamolum
2) berotec
3) salmetherol
4)beclamazon
82. What antianginal preparation should be prescribed to the patient with exertional
angina, suffering from bronchial asthma and idiopathic hypertension?
1) nitrosorbide
2) propranolol
3) methoprorol
4) nifedipine
83. For treatment of what diseases 1-antitripsinis used?
1) cardiac asthma
2) bronchial obstruction syndrome of toxic genesis
3) emphysema of lungs
4) lymphogranulomatosis
84. What therapy is used for treatment of patients with mild intermittent bronchial
asthma?
1) daily administration of antiinflammatory preparations
2) irregular inhalations of β2-agonist preparatons of short-term action
3) daily administration of bronchodilatators of prolonged action
4) frequent application of system glucocorticoids
85. What is the mechanism of action of inhalation glycocorticoids?
1) dilatation of bronchi
2) antiinflammatory action on bronchi mucosa
3) adrenomimetic action
4) anticholinergic action
86. Basic therapy of the 5th step of bronchial asthma treatment includes:
1) daily administration of antiinflammatory preparations
2) high doses of inhalation glucocorticosteroids
3) standard doses of inhalation glucocorticosteroids in combination with prolonged β2-agonists
4) high doses of inhalation glucocorticosteroids in combination with regular administration of
prolonged bronchodilators and system steroids for a long time
RHEUMATIC DISEASES
87. The cause of rheumatic disease (rheumatism) is:
1) Staphylococcus
2) -hemolytic Streptococcus group C
3) Pneumococcus
4) - hemolytic Streptococcus group A
88. The most often skin manifestation in systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is damage of:
1) face and hands
2) forearms and shins
3) head and trunk
4) back and abdomen
89. Rheumatic disease is occurred after antecedent streptococcal infection through:
1) 1–2 years
2) 2–3 weeks
3) 4 days
4) 5 months
90. The positive effect of hourly orally administration of colchicines is standard diagnostic
test in:
1) rheumatoid arthritis
3) gout
2) anrylosing spondylitis
4) reactive arthritis
91. Bouchard’s nodes are manifestation of osteoarthritis of:
1) proximal interphalageal joints of hand
3) knee joints
2) distal interphalageal joints of hand
4) metatarsophalageal joint of first toe
92. What laboratory parameters are typical in osteoarthritis?
1) anemia
2) normal parameters of blood analysis
3) leucopenia
93. What are tophi?
4) thrombocytopenia
1) accumulations of cholesterol in tissues
3) osteophytes
2) accumulations of urates in tissues
4) inflammation of granuloma
94. What is increased in blood in gout?
1) anti-streptolysin-О
2) uric acid
3) antibody to double-stranded DNA
4) antibody to topoisomerase-1 (Scl-70)
95. Which disease of joints is rheumatoid arthritis?
1) inflammatory
2) degenerative
3) metabolic
4) reactive
96. Which joints are most frequently damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
1) distal interphalangeal joints
2) proximal interphalangeal joints
3) metacarpophalangeal joint of first digit
4) joints of cervical region of spine
97. The choice preparation in treatment of Raynaud’s phenomenon is:
1) papaverine
2) ditiazem
3) propranolol
4) nifedipine
98. The main preparation in treatment of dermatomyositis is:
1) azathioprine
2) nifedipine
3) prednisolone
4) hydroxychloroquine
99. What does inhibit the production of uric acid?
1) diclofenac
2) nandrolone
3) allopurinol
4) insulin
100. What is more often observed in clinical features of aortic stenosis?
1) anginal chest pain and syncopes
3) dyspnea-cyanotic attacks
2) thromboembolism
4) relapsing pneumonias and bronchitis
101. What symptoms are characteristic during auscultation of patient with mitral
insufficiency?
1) systolic murmur over xiphoid process
3) middiastolic murmur
2) accentuated and snapping I sound
4) systolic murmur at heart apex
102. The preparation for secondary prophylaxis of rheumatic disease is:
1) ampicillin
3) hydroxychloroquine
2) digoxin
4) bicillinum (benzathine penicillin G)
103. The most often skin manifestation in systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is damage of:
1) face and hands
3) head and trunk
2) forearms and shins
4) back and abdomen