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Quiz 4
1) Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit of storing
chemical energy as _____.
A) proteins
B) minerals
C) carbohydrates
D) fats
2) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?
A) blood clotting — vitamin C
B) normal vision — vitamin A
C) synthesis of cell membranes — vitamin D
D) production of white blood cells — vitamin K
3) Which of the following animals is correctly paired with its feeding mechanism?
A) baleen whale — fluid feeder
B) aphid — suspension feeder
C) clam — substrate feeder
D) snake — bulk feeder
4) In marine sponges, intracellular digestion of peptides is usually immediately preceded by
_____.
A) hydrolysis
B) phagocytosis
C) absorption
D) secretion
5) Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, animals
need to have mechanisms for _____.
A) dehydration synthesis
B) enzymatic hydrolysis
C) regurgitation
D) demineralization
6) The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates _____.
A) secretion
B) absorption
C) filtration
D) temperature regulation
7) Which of the following organs is correctly paired with its function?
A) stomach — protein digestion
B) large intestine — bile production
C) small intestine — starch digestion
D) pancreas — starch digestion
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8) Over-the-counter medications for acid reflux or heartburn block the production of stomach
acid. Which of the following cells are directly affected by this medication?
A) goblet cells
B) chief cells
C) parietal cells
D) smooth muscle cells
9) The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that _____.
A) fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the
small intestine
B) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not
C) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the
blood
D) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption
10) A relatively long cecum is characteristic of animals that are_____.
A) carnivores
B) herbivores
C) autotrophs
D) omnivores
11) The circulatory systems of bony fishes, rays, and sharks are most similar to _____.
A) those of birds, with a four-chambered heart
B) the portal systems of mammals, where two capillary beds occur sequentially, without passage
of blood through a pumping chamber
C) those of sponges, where gas exchange in all cells occurs directly with the external
environment
D) those of humans, where there are four pumping chambers to drive blood flow
12) In which of the following organisms does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous circulation to
the heart before circulating through the rest of the body?
A) annelids
B) fishes
C) frogs
D) insects
13) In an open circulatory system, blood is _____.
A) always inside of vessels and is under higher pressure than in closed circulatory systems
B) not always confined to blood vessels and is under higher pressure than in closed circulatory
systems
C) always inside of vessels and is under lower pressure than in closed circulatory systems
D) not always confined to blood vessels and is under lower pressure than in closed circulatory
systems
14) A patient with a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute, a stroke volume of
70 mL/beat (milliliters per beat), and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac
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output of _____.
A) 1,000 mL/minute
B) 1,750 mL/minute
C) 2,800 mL/minute
D) 4,900 mL/minute
15) If a molecule of carbon dioxide released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your
nose, it must pass through all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A) the pulmonary vein
B) an alveolus
C) the trachea
D) the right atrium
16) Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with _____.
A) increased activity of the immune system
B) blood sugar that is abnormally high
C) dehydration
D) sodium depletion
17) If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops
below the hydrostatic pressure, then _____.
A) hemoglobin will not release oxygen
B) fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues
C) the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase
D) plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries
18) The diagnosis of hypertension in adults is based on the _____.
A) measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries
B) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood
C) percentage of blood volume made up of platelets
D) blood pressure being greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or greater than 90 mm Hg diastolic
19) Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize _____.
A) blood pressure
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
20) How has the avian lung adapted to the metabolic demands of flight?
A) Airflow through the avian lung is bidirectional like in mammals.
B) There is more dead space within the avian lung so that oxygen can be stored for future use.
C) Countercurrent circulation is present in the avian lung.
D) Gas exchange occurs during both inhalation and exhalation.
21) The force driving simple diffusion is _____, while the energy source for active transport is
_____.
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A) the concentration gradient; ADP
B) the concentration gradient; ATP
C) transmembrane pumps; electron transport
D) phosphorylated protein carriers; ATP
22) What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine fish with bony skeletons?
A) They actively transport chloride into the gills.
B) They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills.
C) They are involved in excretion of excess salt.
D) They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal gland.
23) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be _____ with its _____ environment
A) isoosmotic; freshwater
B) hyperosmotic; saltwater
C) isoosmotic; saltwater
D) hypoosmotic; saltwater
24) The fluid with the highest osmolarity is _____.
A) distilled water
B) plasma in birds
C) plasma in mammals
D) seawater in a tidal pool
25) Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine production?
A) a vampire bat
B) a salmon in fresh water
C) a marine bony fish
D) a shark inhabiting the Mississippi River
26) Urea is produced in the _____.
A) liver from NH3 and carbon dioxide
B) liver from glycogen
C) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids
D) bladder from uric acid and water
27) Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?
A) ammonia
B) ammonium ions
C) urea
D) uric acid
28) The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that _____.
A) urea can be exchanged for Na+
B) urea is less toxic than ammonia
C) urea does not affect the osmolar gradient
D) less nitrogen is removed from the body
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29) Through studies of insect Malpighian tubules, researchers found that K+ accumulated on the
inner face of the tubule, against its concentration gradient. What can you infer about the
mechanism of transport?
A) Potassium transport is a passive process.
B) Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an energy-requiring
process.
C) Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the lumen of the tubules.
D) Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.
30) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of a freshwater flatworm is based on the operation of
_____.
A) protonephridia
B) metanephridia
C) Malpighian tubules
D) nephrons
31) What is the only type of chemical signal that does not alter the physiology of the animal
producing that signal?
A) neural
B) paracrine
C) neuroendocrine
D) pheromones
32) Prostaglandins are local regulators whose chemical structure is derived from _____.
A) oligosaccharides
B) fatty acids
C) steroids
D) amino acids
33) A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is called that
hormone's _____.
A) secretory cell
B) endocrine cell
C) target cell
D) regulatory cell
34) When a steroid hormone and a peptide hormone exert similar effects on a population of
target cells, then _____.
A) the steroid and peptide hormones must use the same biochemical mechanisms
B) the steroid and peptide hormones must bind to the same receptor protein
C) the steroid hormones affect the synthesis of effector proteins, whereas peptide hormones
activate effector proteins already present in the cell
D) the steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas peptide
hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA
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35) Steroid and peptide hormones typically have in common _____.
A) the building blocks from which they are synthesized
B) their solubility in cell membranes
C) their requirement for travel through the bloodstream
D) their reliance on signal transduction in the cell
36) Which of the following are similar in structure to cholesterol?
A) leptin and serotonin
B) luteinizing hormone and insulin
C) melanocyte-stimulating hormone and vasopressin
D) testosterone, estradiol, and cortisol
37) During mammalian labor and delivery, the contraction of uterine muscles is enhanced by
oxytocin. This is an example of _____.
A) a negative feedback system
B) a hormone that acts in an antagonistic way with another hormone
C) a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop
D) signal transduction immediately changing gene expression in its target cells
38) An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is _____.
A) thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance
B) insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism
C) progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation
D) epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses
39) The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent
in a _____.
A) steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex
B) neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus
C) brain cell in the cerebral cortex
D) cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes
40) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose
iodine level is normal?
A) greater production of T3 than of T4
B) hyposecretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) hypersecretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin
41) Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows _____.
A) all types of asexual reproduction
B) fission
C) fragmentation
D) parthenogenesis
42) Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by _____.
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A) increasing the body temperature
B) providing access to water for external fertilization
C) increasing ambient temperature most favorable for sex
D) direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms
43) Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction
when _____.
A) pathogens are rapidly diversifying
B) there is some potential for rapid overpopulation
C) a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings
D) a species is in stable and favorable environments
44) Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes shed by their
mating partners in _____.
A) their nests
B) the abdominal tract
C) the uterus
D) the spermatheca
45) Which of the following is a challenge to the hypothesis that bats, which produce an
unusually large number of sperm, increase the probability of conception when females engage in
multiple matings?
I) Female bats can eject the sperm of certain males after mating.
II) A female can actively choose which male mates with her last, thus increasing the odds of
conception with that male's sperm.
A) Only I is correct.
B) Only II is correct.
C) Both I and II are correct.
46) In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become
_____.
A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses
B) a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum
C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall
D) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus
47) Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the _____.
A) vas deferens
B) seminal vesicle
C) urethra
D) ureter
48) For which of the following is the number the same in spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A) timing of meiotic divisions
B) functional gametes produced by meiosis
C) meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete
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D) different cell types produced by meiosis
49) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are _____.
A) follicular → luteal → secretory
B) menstrual → proliferative → secretory
C) follicular → ovulation → luteal
D) proliferative → luteal → ovulation
50) The primary function of the corpus luteum is to _____.
A) nourish and protect the egg cell
B) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred
C) stimulate the development of the mammary glands
D) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters
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