Download C. isolated

Grade 9 (Modified) FINAL Achievement Exam
You may do your rough work in this booklet and mark the answer you are choosing for each
question, THEN, transfer your answers onto the SCANTRON Answer Card provided.
All test items in this exam have been covered on previous unit tests and quizzes.
You must stay for 90 minutes to complete the exam.
If you require more time to complete the exam 30 additional minutes will be allowed.
If you are unsure of a question, raise your hand and wait for the teacher to respond to you.
There are many different species of fish in the Ocean.
This is referred to as DIVERSITY. That is where you will start with this test.
BIODIVERSITY
1. Although the same species may have the same basic structure, variations exist within the
same species. The variations among the members of a population is referred to as …
A. genetic diversity
B. biotic diversity
C. species diversity
D. living diversity
2. A type of interdependence among living things is called symbiosis. There are several types
of symbiosis. The differences between each type are determined by how beneficial or
harmful the relationship is. When both species in the relationship benefit, it is called …
A. mutualism
B. colonialism
C. parasitism
D. commensalism
3. Not every member of every species is exactly the same. There are differences, called
variations, which make the individuals within a species unique. This variation within a
species is called …
A. commonality
B. variability
C. selectivity
D. genetics
4. Those characteristics or variations that have a wide range of forms are …
A. obnoxious
B. discrete
C. overbearing
D. continuous
5. In a class activity students recorded the results of Left Thumb on top vs Right Thumb on top.
The data they collected indicated that ‘hand-clasping preference’ was …
A. unrelated
B. discrete
C. isolated
D. continuous
6. There are different forms of reproduction in organisms. Asexual reproduction involves only
one parent. A hydra reproduces asexually when it produces a smaller version of itself by …
A. budding
B. binary fission
C. spore production
D. vegetative reproduction
7. The process that produces two new cells with the same number of chromosomes is called …
A. meiosis
B. mitosis
C. pollination
D. fertilization
8. A trait that will always be visible in the offspring of purebred parents despite the apparent
difference in the parents is called a …
A. hybrid trait
B. recessive trait
C. observable trait
D. dominant trait
9. Sometimes organisms have adaptations that suit them only to a very specific set of
environmental conditions. Biologists call this natural cause of extinction …
A. inter-specialization
B. overspecialization
C. super-specialization
D. adaptive specialization
SAFETY IN THE SCIENCE LAB
10. One of the chemicals used in a science reaction lab has the symbol shown below on its
container. The student using this substance has to be careful because the chemical is
A. toxic
B. corrosive
C. poisonous
D. bio-hazardous
11. A container has the safety label shown below. Most likely the bottle contains
A. hydrochloric acid
B. radioactive uranium
C. bio-hazardous infectious material
D. oxygen gas
MATTER and CHEMICAL CHANGE
12. The difference between an element and a compound is that an element …
A. is a pure substance and a compound is a mixture
B. is only one substance, while a compound has more than one substance
C. can be made into a mixture, but a compound cannot
D. can be a pure substance, while a compound cannot be a pure substance
13. How many elements are present in 2 molecules of aspirin? The formula for aspirin is
C9H8O4.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 21
D. 42
14. The muffler of Mark's car rusted out very quickly. Perhaps all of the following factors
contributed to the rapid rusting except
A. excessive heat
B. large surface area
C. low grade of fuel used
D. high concentration of water vapor
15. The first chemists lived before 8000 B.C. Because metals had not been discovered,
humans used only simple tools made from these …
A. plants and animal remains
B. rocks, scissors and paper
C. wood pulp and ink
D. stones and bones
13
26.98
Aluminium
Al
16. In the element excerpt above - taken from the Periodic Table - 13 refers to the …
A. atomic mass
B. reactivity
C. atomic number
D. atomic weight
17. A group of ions ‘ that act as one ’ are called …
A. aqueous ions
B. molecular ions
C. subatomic ions
D. polyatomic ions
18. When sodium (a very reactive metal) is placed in chlorine (a green gas), the sodium
explodes with a bright yellow flame. As it burns, this white, coarse-grained powder is
produced
A. salt
B. alum
C. sugar
D. baking soda
19. A chemical reaction takes place when two or more …
A. substances are mixed
B. ionic compounds are mixed
C. molecular compound are mixed
D. substances combine to form new substances
20. The following reaction takes place in the cells in your body.
food + oxygen
carbon dioxide + water + energy that is used to keep cells alive
( C6H12O6 ) ( O2 )
( CO2 )
This word equation represents …
A. transpiration
B. combustion
C. cellular respiration
D. photosynthesis
( H 2O )
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
21. To avoid waste chemicals dissolving or corroding some items in a sanitary landfill site,
this is used …
A. gravel and bacteria
B. gravel and compacted soil
C. plastic liner and compacted clay
D. biodegradable liner and pebbles
22. Although clarity seems to be a good indicator of water quality, there are some problems
with this way of determining water quality. One reason is because ...
A. sour
B. sweet
C. harmful
D. corrosive
23. Fats, oils and waxes are compounds composed of many carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
atoms. Animals and plants produce them. These compounds are also known as ...
A. lipids
B. proteins
C. nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates
24. A correct explanation of the following statement – “The LD50 of DDT is 87mg/kg, for rats,
by mouth.” is...
A. 50 rats will die if they eat 87 mg of DDT
B. 50% of the test population of rats will die if given 87 mg of DDT
C. 50 rats will die if they are given less than the 87mg/kg of DDT
D. 50% of the rat test population will survive if given 87mg/kg of body
weight of DDT
25. The pollutant which is also identified as the ‘silent killer’ is …
A. ozone
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide
Certain aquatic invertebrates are called biological indicators because they are indicators of water
quality.
Use these Illustrations to answer the next question
1.
2.
3.
26. The biological indicator represented in illustration # 2 is a …
A. midge larva
B. stonefly larva
C. water boatman
D. mosquito larva
4.
27. Substances can be transported in air in three ways. The direction and distance these
substances travel are determined by various factors. In Alberta airborne substances are
carried eastward because of the ...
A. Westerlies
B. Jet Stream
C. Rocky Mountains
D. Rotation of the Earth
28. Some water can soak into the soil moving downward, dissolving harmful chemicals along
the way and carrying them into the water table. This liquid is called …
A. leachate
B. pollutant
C. acid water
D. limestone
29. An environment where there is no oxygen is called …
A. anabolic
B. aerobic
C. anaerobic
D. antibiotic
30. WHMIS was set up by the federal government to provide information on hazardous
materials used in the …
A. Science Labs
B. Research Centres
C. Workplaces
D. Households
ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES and TECHNOLOGIES
31. The laws of electric charges include all of the following, EXCEPT…
A. opposite charges attract each other
B. opposite charges repell each other
C. similar (like) charges repel each other
D. charged objects attract neutral objects
32. This agency is responsible for ensuring all electrical devices are safe to use
A. WHMIS Council
B. Canadian Safety Agency
C. Canadian Standards Association
D. Canadian Electrical Device Safety Council
33. The process used to split molecules into their individual elements is called …
A. anodizing
B. electricity
C. electrolysis
D. electroplating
34. Toasters, electric kettles and coffee makers are appliances in the home that convert
electrical energy into …
A. mechanical energy
B. thermal energy
C. chemical energy
D. sound energy
35. Drills, saws, vacuums, fans and food processors are all examples (applications) of this
type of energy conversion …
A. mechanical energy to sound energy
B. electrical energy to chemical energy
C. mechanical energy to thermal energy
D. electrical energy to mechanical energy
36. Garbage is another source of fuel used to generate electrical energy. The particular type
of garbage used is called …
A. biomass
B. bioaccumulation
C. biological matter
D. bioengineered sluge
37. The efficiency of a device is the ratio of the useful energy that comes out of a device to
the total energy that goes in. A light bulb gives off 5J of useful light energy for every
100J of electrical energy used to make it work. What is the efficiency of the light bulb?
A. 5 %
B. 20 %
C. 95 %
D. 105 %
38. Alberta uses a large amount of coal to generate electricity because it can be mined very
easily. Strip mining has this negative impact.
A. soil contamination occurs and cannot be reversed
B. dangerous chemicals can leach into the water table
C. all species of animals lose their habitat permanently
D. the original natural environment cannot be fully restored
39. Storing and transmitting information that is converted into numbers is accomplished by
different technologies. A compact CD player scans these numbers with the use of a …
A. laser
B. silicon chip
C. photodetector
D. electromagnetic coil
40. A hard drive in a computer is able to read and write information. The transmission of
information happens when the hard drive sends information to the central processor after
it …
A. stores the information
B. writes the information
C. reads the information
D. converts the information
SPACE EXPLORATION
41. Arabian Astronomers used an instrument, called an astrolabe to …
A. measure a star’s height above the horizon
B. identify details in the far reaches of the night sky
C. measure the angle between the Moon and any given star
D. Make accurate charts of star positions predict the movement of stars
42. At the end of the life cycle of a star it explodes in a catastrophic event called a …
A. massive
B. supergiant
C. black hole
D. supernova
43. Solar winds pass the Earth at an average speed of 400 km/s. This protects us from the
devastating effects of the solar winds …
A. Earth’s ozone
B. Earth’s gravity
C. Earth’s atmosphere
D. Earth’s magnetic field
44. To locate an object in the sky, two questions must be solved. How high is it in the sky?
and in what direction is it? The term that identifies the compass direction is …
A. zenith
B. azimuth
C. altitude
D. astroplane
45. What did the Chinese of the 1st Century build to demonstrate their understanding and use
of rockets?
A. a ‘pigeon’
B. a satellite
C. fireworks
D. arrows
46. GPS satellites enable you to find out your exact position on the Earth at any time. 24
GPS satellites are orbiting the Earth at all times. To use the GPS system you need to get
a signal from …
A. 2 of them
B. 3 of them
C. 4 of them
D. 6 of them
47. Interferometry is a technique of using telescopes in combination. The advantage of using
two or more telescopes together is that astronomers are able to ……
A. work together
B. see more detail
C. hypothesize about images
D. create more colorful images
48. Radio Interferometry, the combinations of many radio telescopes enables astronomers to
improve performance and accuracy of images. They can more accurately measure
position if they are …
A. further apart
B. closer together
C. closer to sea level
D. at a higher altitude
49. Parallax is the apparent shift in position of a nearby object when the object is viewed from
two different positions. Astronomers use a star’s parallax to determine …
A. it’s orbital velocity and rotation compared to the Earth
B. it’s actual distance from our Sun, measured in parsecs
C. what angles to use when they triangulate the star’s distance from Earth
D. the degree of shift that will account for its relative position in the night
sky
50. A hazard for satellites in space is the Sun. Without adequate protection from a surge of
electrically charged particles (a ‘coronal mass ejection’ – also called ‘solar flares’) this
could occur …
A. orbital failure
B. fried electrical circuits
C. misdirection of signals
D. system software glitch
Grade 9 (Modified) FINAL Achievement Exam
You may do your rough work in this booklet and mark the answer you are choosing for each
question, THEN, transfer your answers onto the SCANTRON Answer Card provided.
All test items in this exam have been covered on previous unit tests and quizzes.
You must stay for 90 minutes to complete the exam.
If you require more time to complete the exam 30 additional minutes will be allowed.
If you are unsure of a question, raise your hand and wait for the teacher to respond to you.
There are many different species of fish in the Ocean.
This is referred to as DIVERSITY. That is where you will start with this test.
BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY
1. Although the same species may have the same basic structure, variations exist within the
same species. The variations among the members of a population is referred to as …
A. genetic diversity
B. biotic diversity
C. species diversity
D. living diversity
2. A type of interdependence among living things is called symbiosis. There are several
types of symbiosis. The differences between each type are determined by how beneficial
or harmful the relationship is. When both species in the relationship benefit, it is called …
A. mutualism
B. colonialism
C. parasitism
D. commensalism
3. Not every member of every species is exactly the same. There are differences, called
variations, which make the individuals within a species unique. This variation within a
species is called …
A. commonality
B. variability
C. selectivity
D. genetics
4. Those characteristics or variations that have a wide range of forms are …
A. obnoxious
B. discrete
C. overbearing
D. continuous
5. In a class activity students recorded the results of Left Thumb on top vs Right Thumb on
top. The data they collected indicated that ‘hand-clasping preference’ was …
A. unrelated
B. discrete
C. isolated
D. continuous
6. There are different forms of reproduction in organisms. Asexual reproduction involves
only one parent. A hydra reproduces asexually when it produces a smaller version of
itself by …
A. budding
B. binary fission
C. spore production
D. vegetative reproduction
7. The process that produces two new cells with the same number of chromosomes is
called …
A. meiosis
B. mitosis
C. pollination
D. fertilization
8. A trait that will always be visible in the offspring of purebred parents despite the apparent
difference in the parents is called a …
A. hybrid trait
B. recessive trait
C. observable trait
D. dominant trait
9. Sometimes organisms have adaptations that suit them only to a very specific set of
environmental conditions. Biologists call this natural cause of extinction …
A. inter-specialization
B. overspecialization
C. super-specialization
D. adaptive specialization
SAFETY IN THE SCIENCE LAB
10. One of the chemicals used in a science reaction lab has the symbol shown below on its
container. The student using this substance has to be careful because the chemical is
A. toxic
B. corrosive
C. poisonous
D. bio-hazardous
11. A container has the safety label shown below. Most likely the bottle contains
A. hydrochloric acid
B. radioactive uranium
C. bio-hazardous infectious material
D. oxygen gas
MATTER and CHEMICAL CHANGE
12.The difference between an element and a compound is that an element …
A. is a pure substance and a compound is a mixture
B. is only one substance, while a compound has more than one substance
C. can be made into a mixture, but a compound cannot
D. can be a pure substance, while a compound cannot be a pure substance
13. How many elements are present in 2 molecules of aspirin? The formula for aspirin is
C9H8O4.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 21
D. 42
14. The muffler of Mark's car rusted out very quickly. Perhaps all of the following factors
contributed to the rapid rusting except
A. excessive heat
B. large surface area
C. low grade of fuel used
D. high concentration of water vapor
15. The first chemists lived before 8000 B.C. Because metals had not been discovered,
humans used only simple tools made from these …
A. plants and animal remains
B. rocks, scissors and paper
C. wood pulp and ink
D. stones and bones
13
26.98
Aluminium
Al
16. In the element excerpt above - taken from the Periodic Table - 13 refers to the …
A. atomic mass
B. reactivity
C. atomic number
D. atomic weight
17. A group of ions ‘ that act as one ’ are called …
A. aqueous ions
B. molecular ions
C. subatomic ions
D. polyatomic ions
18. When sodium (a very reactive metal) is placed in chlorine (a green gas), the sodium
explodes with a bright yellow flame. As it burns, this white, coarse-grained powder is
produced
A. salt
B. alum
C. sugar
D. baking soda
19. A chemical reaction takes place when two or more …
A. substances are mixed
B. ionic compounds are mixed
C. molecular compound are mixed
D. substances combine to form new substances
20. The following reaction takes place in the cells in your body.
food + oxygen
carbon dioxide + water + energy that is used to keep cells alive
( C6H12O6 ) ( O2 )
( CO2 )
This word equation represents …
A. transpiration
B. combustion
C. cellular respiration
D. photosynthesis
( H 2O )
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
21. To avoid waste chemicals dissolving or corroding some items in a sanitary landfill site,
this is used …
A. gravel and bacteria
B. gravel and compacted soil
C. plastic liner and compacted clay
D. biodegradable liner and pebbles
22. Although clarity seems to be a good indicator of water quality, there are some problems
with this way of determining water quality. One reason is because ...
A. sour
B. sweet
C. harmful
D. corrosive
23. Fats, oils and waxes are compounds composed of many carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
atoms. Animals and plants produce them. These compounds are also known as ...
A. lipids
B. proteins
C. nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates
24. A correct explanation of the following statement – “The LD50 of DDT is 87mg/kg, for rats,
by mouth.” is...
A. 50 rats will die if they eat 87 mg of DDT
B. 50% of the test population of rats will die if given 87 mg of DDT
C. 50 rats will die if they are given less than the 87mg/kg of DDT
D. 50% of the rat test population will survive if given 87mg/kg of body
weight of DDT
25. The pollutant which is also identified as the ‘silent killer’ is …
A. ozone
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide
Certain aquatic invertebrates are called biological indicators because they are indicators of water
quality.
Use these Illustrations to answer the next question
1.
2.
3.
26. The biological indicator represented in illustration # 2 is a …
A. midge larva
B. stonefly larva
C. water boatman
D. mosquito larva
4.
27. Substances can be transported in air in three ways. The direction and distance these
substances travel are determined by various factors. In Alberta airborne substances are
carried eastward because of the ...
A. Westerlies
B. Jet Stream
C. Rocky Mountains
D. Rotation of the Earth
28. Some water can soak into the soil moving downward, dissolving harmful chemicals along
the way and carrying them into the water table. This liquid is called …
A. leachate
B. pollutant
C. acid water
D. limestone
29. An environment where there is no oxygen is called …
A. anabolic
B. aerobic
C. anaerobic
D. antibiotic
30. WHMIS was set up by the federal government to provide information on hazardous
materials used in the …
A. Science Labs
B. Research Centres
C. Workplaces
D. Households
ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES and TECHNOLOGIES
31. The laws of electric charges include all of the following, EXCEPT…
A. opposite charges attract each other
B. opposite charges repell each other
C. similar (like) charges repel each other
D. charged objects attract neutral objects
32. This agency is responsible for ensuring all electrical devices are safe to use
A. WHMIS Council
B. Canadian Safety Agency
C. Canadian Standards Association
D. Canadian Electrical Device Safety Council
33. The process used to split molecules into their individual elements is called …
A. anodizing
B. electricity
C. electrolysis
D. electroplating
34. Toasters, electric kettles and coffee makers are appliances in the home that convert
electrical energy into …
A. mechanical energy
B. thermal energy
C. chemical energy
D. sound energy
35. Drills, saws, vacuums, fans and food processors are all examples (applications) of this
type of energy conversion …
A. mechanical energy to sound energy
B. electrical energy to chemical energy
C. mechanical energy to thermal energy
D. electrical energy to mechanical energy
36. Garbage is another source of fuel used to generate electrical energy. The particular type
of garbage used is called …
A. biomass
B. bioaccumulation
C. biological matter
D. bioengineered sluge
37. The efficiency of a device is the ratio of the useful energy that comes out of a device to
the total energy that goes in. A light bulb gives off 5J of useful light energy for every
100J of electrical energy used to make it work. What is the efficiency of the light bulb?
A. 5 %
B. 20 %
C. 95 %
D. 105 %
38. Alberta uses a large amount of coal to generate electricity because it can be mined very
easily. Strip mining has this negative impact.
A. soil contamination occurs and cannot be reversed
B. dangerous chemicals can leach into the water table
C. all species of animals lose their habitat permanently
D. the original natural environment cannot be fully restored
39. Storing and transmitting information that is converted into numbers is accomplished by
different technologies. A compact CD player scans these numbers with the use of a …
A. laser
B. silicon chip
C. photodetector
D. electromagnetic coil
40. A hard drive in a computer is able to read and write information. The transmission of
information happens when the hard drive sends information to the central processor after
it …
A. stores the information
B. writes the information
C. reads the information
D. converts the information
SPACE EXPLORATION
41. Arabian Astronomers used an instrument, called an astrolabe to …
A. measure a star’s height above the horizon
B. identify details in the far reaches of the night sky
C. measure the angle between the Moon and any given star
D. Make accurate charts of star positions predict the movement of stars
42. At the end of the life cycle of a star it explodes in a catastrophic event called a …
A. massive
B. supergiant
C. black hole
D. supernova
43. Solar winds pass the Earth at an average speed of 400 km/s. This protects us from the
devastating effects of the solar winds …
A. Earth’s ozone
B. Earth’s gravity
C. Earth’s atmosphere
D. Earth’s magnetic field
44. To locate an object in the sky, two questions must be solved. How high is it in the sky?
and in what direction is it? The term that identifies the compass direction is …
A. zenith
B. azimuth
C. altitude
D. astroplane
45. What did the Chinese of the 1st Century build to demonstrate their understanding and use
of rockets?
A. a ‘pigeon’
B. a satellite
C. fireworks
D. arrows
46. GPS satellites enable you to find out your exact position on the Earth at any time. 24
GPS satellites are orbiting the Earth at all times. To use the GPS system you need to get
a signal from …
A. 2 of them
B. 3 of them
C. 4 of them
D. 6 of them
47. Interferometry is a technique of using telescopes in combination. The advantage of using
two or more telescopes together is that astronomers are able to ……
A. work together
B. see more detail
C. hypothesize about images
D. create more colorful images
48. Radio Interferometry, the combinations of many radio telescopes enables astronomers to
improve performance and accuracy of images. They can more accurately measure
position if they are …
A. further apart
B. closer together
C. closer to sea level
D. at a higher altitude
49. Parallax is the apparent shift in position of a nearby object when the object is viewed from
two different positions. Astronomers use a star’s parallax to determine …
A. it’s orbital velocity and rotation compared to the Earth
B. it’s actual distance from our Sun, measured in parsecs
C. what angles to use when they triangulate the star’s distance from Earth
D. the degree of shift that will account for its relative position in the night
sky
50. A hazard for satellites in space is the Sun. Without adequate protection from a surge of
electrically charged particles (a ‘coronal mass ejection’ – also called ‘solar flares’) this
could occur …
A. orbital failure
B. fried electrical circuits
C. misdirection of signals
D. system software glitches