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國立臺南大學 生態科學與技術學系
生態學 期末考題
(A 卷)
日期：2013 年 01 月 18 日(週五) 上午 9:10—11:30 學生人數：35 位 教師：鄭先祐
※Each question only with one correct choice, select the best one.
※Each correct choice, count 2 points, two wrong choices deduct 1 point.
1. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The ecological footprint of the average American is much larger than that of the average
person in the world.
(B) Ecological footprints of populations are generally static; they do not change much.
(C) Ecological footprints can be used to estimate carrying capacities.
(D) Ecological footprints are calculated based on several sources of information, including
agricultural productivity, resource use, and pollution.
(E) All of the above are true.
2. Which of the following populations would be expected to remain stable in size? (Note: r is the
exponential growth rate; λ is the population growth rate)
(A) A population with an r of 1
(B) A population with a λ of 1
(C) A population with an r of 0
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) Both (B) and (C)
3. A continuously growing population of alligators has a population size of 1,000 and its intrinsic
rate of increase is 0.05 per year. Assuming that this rate of increase remains the same, about
how long should it take for the population to reach 4,000? (Note: e is about 2.3 and the
natural logarithm of 2 is about 0.70)
(D) 28 years (E) 40 years
(A) 4.6 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 14 years
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of the regulation of population size by
density-dependent factors?
(A) The number of possible territories for robins is limited; thus when population sizes are high,
a lower proportion of individuals can produce offspring.
(B) Upon overcrowding, some desert pupfish will migrate to other ponds if given the
opportunity.
(C) In conditions of high density, mice are more susceptible to mortality from heat stress.
(D) Predation on mosquito-fish is high, regardless of population size.
(E) All of the above
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5. What was the difference between the treatment and the control groups in Arcese and Smith’s
studies of the effects of density on song sparrows ?
(A) Additional young birds were added to the treatment group.
(B) Additional young birds were added to the control group.
(C) Predators were removed from the treatment group.
(D) The control group was provided with extra food.
(E) The treatment group was provided with extra food.
6. Which of the following is an assumption of the logistic equation?
(A) The per capita growth rate is a constant.
(B) The per capita growth rate declines with increasing density.
(C) Density-dependent factors are regulating population growth.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(E) Both (B) and (C)
7. The total area of productive ecosystems required to support a particular individual or
population is known as its
(C) logistic growth curve
(A) carrying capacity
(D) survivorship curve
(B) ecological footprint
(E) None of the above
8. Which of the following was demonstrated by Davidson and Andrewwartha in their studies of
thrips (Thrips imagines)?
(A) Density-independent factors increase the size of populations when population size is low.
(B) Annual fluctuations in population size were due primarily to density-dependent factors.
(C) Annual fluctuations in population size could be predicted based on rainfall and temperature
data.
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
9.
Which of the following about logistic growth is true?
(A) The carrying capacity is the maximum population size that can be supported by the
environment indefinitely.
(B) At high densities, logistic growth is similar to exponential growth.
(C) Logistic growth is similar to exponential growth.
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
10. During the 1950s and 1960s, the cattle egret wes quickly colonizing Florida. Which pattern of
population growth best describes that of the cattle egret at that time?
(A) Deterministic stochasticity
(D) Logistic growth
(B) Large, random fluctuations
(E) population cycles.
(C) Exponential growth
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11. Which of the following statements about population fluctuations is true?
(A) Population fluctuations can be caused by changes in density-dependent factors.
(B) Population fluctuations can be caused by changes in density-independent factors.
(C) All natural populations fluctuate in size.
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above.
12. Which of the following is most likely to lead to population cycles?
(A) Demographic stochasticity
(B) genetic drift
(C) delayed density dependence
(D) Habitat fragmentation
(E) logistic growth
13. According to May’s model. A population that experiences delayed density-dependence can
exhibit either logistic growth, dampened oscillations, or fluctuate forever in a stable limit cycle.
Whichever one of these patterns is actually exhibited by a population depends upon the
product of the ___________ and the ____________.
(A) Population growth rate under ideal conditions; starting population size
(B) Population growth rate; time lag
(C) Starting population size; time lag
(D) Time lag; degree of demographic stochasticity
(E) Time lag; carrying capacity
14. Assuming that their average population growth rates and all other factors are equal, which of
the following populations would most likely be at risk for extinction?
(A) A large population with low variation in its growth rate
(B) A large population with high variation in its growth rate
(C) A small population with low variation in its growth rate
(D) A small population with high variation in its growth rate
(E) All have equal risk; population size and variation in growth rate do not influence extinction
risk.
15. Which of the following statements about genetic drift is false?
(A) Genetic drift can rapidly reduce the variability of small populations.
(B) Genetic drift is a process by which chance events influence which alleles are transmitted to
the next generation.
(C) Genetic drift is an Allee effect.
(D) Genetic drift can cause harmful alleles to occur at high frequency.
(E) All of the above are true.
16. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Levins’s metapopulation model?
(A) Once a patch is colonized, its population quickly reaches carrying capacity such that
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population dynamics within patches can be ignored.
(B) A very large number of identical habitat patches exist.
(C) The spatial arrangement of patches determines that rate at with patches will receive
colonists.
(D) All patches have the same probability of extinction
(E) All of the above are assumptions of the model.
17. Which of the following statements about Thomas and Jones’s work on skipper butterflies is
false?
(A) The probability of extinction was higher for populations in small patches than for those in
large patches.
(B) The probability of colonization was higher for small patches than for large patches.
(C) Populations in patches far from another occupied patch had a higher probability of going
extinct than those close to another occupied patch.
(D) Patches far from another occupied patch had a lower probability of being colonized than
did patches near another occupied patch.
(E) All of the above are true.
18. Which of the following would most likely present a barrier to a population’s experiencing the
benefits of the rescue effect?
(A) Inbreeding
(B) delayed density dependence
(C) deterministic stochasticity
(D) Genetic drift
(E) isolation by distance
19. Which of the following helped the Black Sea recover during the 1990s?
(A) The rescue effect
(B) Reduction in eutrophication
(C) The arrival of a comb jelly, Beroe, that fed on Mnemiopsis
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) Both (B) and (C)
20. Due to their low density, females of a species of turtles are having difficulty finding mates. As a
result, the population’s growth rate has been low, despite ample resources. This is an example
of (A) Allee effects
(B) environmental stochasticity
(C) genetic drift
(D) Isolation by distance
(E) None of the above
21.
Which of the following statements about clownfish is true?
(A) Most clownfish that live in the same anemone are related to one another.
(B) Most clown fish spend considerable portions of their adult lives outside of an anemone.
(C) Clownfish may help the anemone by eating its parasites.
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
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22. Suppose an anemone contains one female and three male clownfish. Which male is most likely
to change into a female if the female dies?
(A) The male most closely related to the original female
(B) The smallest male
(C) The decision is based upon a series of fights
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(D) The breeding male
(E) None of the above; male clownfish do not change sex.
23. Which of the following statements about the r-K continuum is true?
(A) Most species are at one extreme or the other.
(B) Most species are intermediate between the two extremes.
(C) The distinction between r- and K-selection is more useful when comparing distantly related
species as opposed to those that are closely related.
(D) The distinction between r- and K-selection is more useful when comparing organisms that
live in vey different environments as opposed to those living in similar environments.
(E) Both (B) and (C)
24. According to Grime’s classification scheme, processes that destroy plant biomass are called
(A) ruderals
(B) semelparous factors
(C) stress
(C) Ontogenetic niches
(E) disturbances
25. According to Grime, competitive plants should predominate in environments in which stress is
__________ and disturbance is _________.
(A) Low; low
(B) low; high
(C) high; low
(D) high; intermediate
(E) High; high
26. Which of the following statements about size-number trade-offs is true?
(A) Size-number trade-offs are rarely, if ever, seen in organisms that lack parental care.
(B) Size-number trade-offs are observed among species.
(C) Size-number trade-offs are observed within species
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) Both (B) and (C)
27. In cod fishing, older and larger fish are more likely to be retained in nets. Which of the
following is a consequence of this overexploitation?
(A) Selection has led to increased growth rates
(B) Selection has let to decreases in the size of fish at the age of maturity.
(C) Selection has led to increases in the age of fish at the age of maturity
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) Both (B) and (C)
28. Under which of the following conditions should an organism allocate more resources to
reproduction than to growth?
(A) Long lifespan
(B) increasing fecundity with body size
(C) Low adult survival rates
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of the above
29. According to Grime’s classification of plants, which of the following categories of plants would
most likely experience low stress but high disturbance?
(A) Ruderal (B) stress tolerant
(C) competitive (D) Paedomorphic
(E) isogameic
30. Northern populations of the western fence lizard lay _______ eggs per clutch and _____ eggs
than do more southern populations.
(A) More; larger
(B) more; smaller
(C) fewer; larger
(D) Fewer; smaller
(E) the same number; larger
31. Some Aleutian Islands are surrounded by urchin barrens while others are surrounded by kelp
forests. Which of the following is the primary explanation for these differences?
(A) Kelp forest islands and urchin barren islands differ with respect to oceanic currents.
(B) Kelp eat urchins, thus preventing their establishment.
(C) The kelp forest islands experience a substantially warmer climate than do the urchin barren
islands.
(D) Grazing by urchins prevents the formation of kelp forests.
(E) None of the above.
32. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) If little is known about the distance that sexually reproducing organisms or their gametes
move, the area that constitutes a single population is difficult to estimate.
(B) Population abundances change over time and space.
(C) A population may consist of a series of patches of individuals that are isolated in space but
are connected by dispersal.
(D) Most organisms have similar capacities for dispersal.
(E) All of the above are true.
33. A powerful ice storm in 1998 felled a large proportion of trees across much of northern
New England, New York state, and southeast Canada. Although the storm led to declines
in abundance for many species of birds, it created opportunities for other bird species.
The abundance of the Dark-eyed Junco, a ground forager, increased after the storm .
With regard to its effects on the abundance of the Dark-eyed Junco, the 1998 storm would
be considered a(n)
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(A) Biotic feature of the environment
(B) Facilitator
(C) Abiotic feature of the environment
(D) Disturbance event
(E) Dispersal event
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34. Which of the following best explains why the mammal families in the Philippines are more
similar to those in Africa than those in New Guinea?
(A) Continental drift
(B) Biotic features of the environment
(C) Africa’s closer proximity to the Philippines
(E) none of the above
(D) High dispersion rates
35. A researcher studying apple maggot flies marks 180 apple maggot flies in an apple orchid in
Michigan. The next day, she collects 70 flies, and finds that 14 are marked. If the assumptions
of the mark-recapture method are met, what is the best estimate for the number of apple
maggot flies in that orchid?
(A) 180
(B)900
(C) 980
(D)1800
(E) 2540
36. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the mark-recapture method of estimating
population size?
(A) No individuals are born between the first and second captures.
(B) No individuals die between the first and second captures.
(C) individuals do not move into the study site between the first and second captures.
(D) individuals do not move out of the study site between the first and second captures.
(E) all of the above are assumptions of the mark-recapture method.
37. GARP (Genetic Algorithm for Rule-set prediction) is most likely to be used in
(A) mark-recapture studies
(B) constructing niche models
(C) area-based counts
(D) assessing dispersal rates
(E) determining patterns of dispersion.
38. Estes and his colleagues speculate that the decline in otters during the 1990s was due to
(A) a sudden increase in the numbers of urchins
(B) killer whales having switched their predation patterns to include more otters.
(C) an outbreak of garp
(D) an infection by hantavirus
(E) None of the above.
39. The population density of ground crickets in Old mill farm is about 15 per square meter.
Assuming that the crickets are randomly distributed, about how many crickets would you expect
in a rectangular section of land that is 6 meters by 2 meters?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 90
(D) 120
(E) 180
40. Investigators from the United States and Mexico made predictions about the distributions of
chameleons in Madagascar. Which of the following statements about their approach is false?
(A) Their approach is called constructing niche models.
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(B) They obtained information from a variety of sources about environmental variables for each
of a series of grid cells.
(C) they used a computer program to develop habitat rules for each species of chameleon.
(D) the accuracy of habitat rules was tested with chameleon location data that had not been
entered into the analysis used to determine the rules.
(E) all of the above are true.
41. Which of the following statements about the marginal value theorem is true?
(A) It predicts that the longer the travel time between food patches, the longer the organism
will stay in a patch.
(B) It predicts that the longer the travel time between food patches, the shorter the organism
will stay in a patch.
(C) It assumes that the rate of energy gain that an animal receives by staying in a patch remains
constant no matter how long the animal stays there.
(D) Both A and C
(E) None of the above.
42. Which of the following are NOT heterotrophs?
(A) Fungi feeding on soil detritus
(B) deer grazing on grass
(C) Parasitic protozoa living in the gut of a pig
(D) Bacteria consuming dissolved organic compounds
(E) Chemosynthetic archaea synthesizing carbohydrates
43. In the process that takes place during the first step of photosynthesis, which is referred to as the
“light reaction”,
(A) CO2 is fixed, producing carbohydrates (B) CO2 is oxidized by solar radiation
(C) water is split to provide electrons to synthesize ATP and NADPH
(D) chlorophyll is oxidized by water.
(E) solar radiation directly stimulates the production of PGA.
44. Benkman’s experiment with five species of birds of the crossbill species complex showed that
each species’ bill morphology had a positive correlation with its preferred pine cone, which also
provided the highest survival rate of each bird type. What major conclusion did Benkman make
in response to this evidence?
(A) The crossbills’ differences are due to past geographical isolation.
(B) The crossbills are currently undergoing evolutionary divergence.
(C) The crossbills that prefer the most common type of cone will eventually outcompete the
others.
(D) All five types of conifers must be protected in order to protect the endangered crossbills.
(E) The crossbills are very flexible in the type of cone they can eat, leading to their success as a
species.
45 --46 Refer to the graph below.
45. Researchers determined that
the optimal food size range for
the oystercatcher was 25-60mm.
The graph supports the optimal
foraging theory for which of the
following reasons?
(A) Oystercatchers selected small
and large mussels but preferred
mussels of medium length.
(B) The available mussels ranged
from 5 to 65 mm in length.
(C) The available mussels fit the
optimal size that was predicted
(D) Oystercatchers did not select
the mussels outside the
optimum range even though
they were abundant.
(E) The graph supports the
optimal foraging theory for all of
the above reasons.
46. According to the graph, oystercatchers _________ in length.
(A) mainly eat mussels that are about 60 mm.
(B) mainly eat mussels that are about 45 mm.
(C) mainly eat mussels that are about 30 mm.
(D) mainly eat mussels that are about 15 mm.
(E) will eat mussels as long as they are 10-60mm.
47. Chlorophyll absorbs __________ light and reflects green wavelengths.
(A) blue
(B) green
(C) red
(D) blue and green
(E) blue and red
48. The biochemical pathway most commonly used by plants and chemosynthetic bacteria to fix
CO2 in order to synthesize carbohydrates is
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(A) glycolysis
(B) the rubisco cycle
(D) the Hatch-Slack-Kortschack pathway
(C) the Calvin cycle
(E) the Krebs cycle
49. In the CAM pathway, CO2 uptake occurs _________ and the Calvin cycle occurs ______.
(A) in the mesophyll cell; in the bundle sheath
(B) in the epidermis; in the bundle sheath
(C) at night; during the day
(D) during the day; at night
(E) during the morning; during the afternoon
50. The experiments of Kenward and colleagues with New Caledonian crows showed that
(A) captive crows are unable to make tools.
(B) the ability of crows to manufacture tools is based on learning
(C) all groups of crows living on the island use the same set of tools.
(D) the ability of crows to manufacture tools is at least partially inherited.
(E) crows that have not been exposed to other tool-making birds are unable to make tools.
51. Which of the following statements about ecology’s role in evolution is true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Although ecological factors greatly affect the likelihood of population extinctions, they
have minimal effects on speciation.
Ecological changes can affect the influence of genetic drift through changes in population
size
Predator-prey interactions can cause large-scale evolution in both the predators and the
prey.
Both (A) and (B)
(E) Both (B) and (C)
52. Which of the following evolutionary process is most likely to inhibit speciation?
(A) Directional selection
(C) Gene flow
(B) Disruptive selection
(D) Genetic drift
(E) mutation
53. Which of the following can constrain the effectiveness of an adaptation?
(A) Lack of genetic variation
(B) Ecological trade-offs
(C) The evolutionary history of the organism
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
54. As a habitat becomes fragmented, the population sizes of the species in the habitat should
___________, genetic drift should have ___________ impact, and genetic variation within
species should ___________.
(A) Increase; increased; increase
(B) increase; increased; decrease
(C) Decrease; increased; decrease
(D) decrease; decreased; increase
(E) Decrease; decreased; decrease
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55. After a mass extinction about two million years ago, the proportion of predatory snails that edge
drill ___________. This change was most likely favored because of changes in
___________________________.
(A) increased; temperature
(B) increased; precipitation patterns
(C) decreased; precipitation patterns
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(D) increased; the numbers of competing and predatory species
(E) decreased; the numbers of competing and predatory species
56. A larger beak improves the ability of a finch to eat large seeds, but decrease its ability to eat
smaller seeds. This is an example of
(A) a maladaptive radiation
(B) disruptive selection
(C) an ecological trade-off
(D) genetic drift
(E) Palumbi’s rule
57. In the apple maggot fly, Rhagoletis pomonella, the frequency of certain alleles increases steadily
as one goes from north to south. This is an example of
(A) An adaptive radiation
(B) a cline
(D) The Hardy-Weinberg law
(C) an inversion
(E) directional selection
58. Which of the following process changes allele frequencies by chance alone?
(A) Disruptive selection
(B) Genetic drift
(C) Gene flow
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) Both (B) and (C)
59. After large seeds became more common, the average beak size of the medium ground finch
increased in size over the course of a few years. This change was most likely a case of
(A) disruptive selection
(B) directional selection
(C) Stabilizing selection
(D) balancing selection
(E) genetic drift
60. Trophy hunting in bighorn sheep has had an inadvertent evolutionary consequence; the sheep
have become__________ and their horns have become __________.
(A) larger; larger
(B)larger; smaller
(C) larger; shaped differently
(D)smaller; larger
(E) smaller; smaller
國立臺南大學 生態科學與技術學系
生態學 期末考題
姓名：_______________ 學號：________________
(A 卷)
編號：________
日期：2013 年 01 月 18 日(週五) 上午 9:10—11:30 學生人數：35 位 教師：鄭先祐
※Each question only one correct choice, select the best one.
※Each correct choice, count 2 points, two wrong choices deduct 1 point.
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※感想與意見
(僅供參考，不計分)A:9,10,7,8,5,6
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