Download Which of the following muscles attaches to the olecranon process

1. Which of the following muscles attaches to the olecranon process?
a. Triceps – O: long head -- infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, short head -humurous
b. Biceps – O: superior glenoid tubercle to radial tuberosity
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Brachialis
Short head biceps, coracobrachialis, pec minor from coracoid process
2. The ________________is located between the epidermis and the dermis:
a. Ground substance
b. Basement membrane
c. Granular cell layer
d. Basal cell layer
epidermis
1st layer: corneum (except in palms of hands and soles of feet)
2nd layer: lucideum
3rd layer: granulosum
spinosum or malphighii
germanatum (where the pigment is) (tyrosine is the hormone related to pigment)
basement membrane
dermis
3. If there is a fracture of the acetabular process which of the following structures
will also be affected:
a. Fibrous capsule
b. Ligament to the head of the femur
c. Pelvic viscera
d. Anterior superior iliac spine
The obturator artery goes through head of femur; any damage there will also affect hip;
obturator artery is Legg-Cavel Purse disease (AVN of femoral head)
Ligamentum teres femoris is what attaches the femur to the acetabulum
4. Cryptorchism is a cause of sterility because it produces which of the following:
a. Torsion of the testes
b. Psychological disturbace
c. Increased temperature in the testes
d. Decreased blood flow to the testes
5. Which of the following bones contains the superior, middle and inferior nasal
concha:
a. Maxillary
b. Sphenoid
c. Ethmoid
d. Vomer
Concha are all in the ethmoid; olfactory runs through cribriform plate in ethmoid bone
6. The ________ nerve innervates the teres major muscle
a. Lower subscapular – to teres major
Upper subscapular – subscapularis
Dorsal scapular – rhomboid, scaps
Axillary – deltoids, teres minor
Thoracodorsal – lats
Long thoracic nerve – serratus anterior (What does damage to the long
thoracic nerve cause? Scapular winging)
In back, only brachial plexus are dorsal rami???
7. Which of the following nerves innervates the rhomboid muscle and the levator
scapulae:
a. Dorsal scapular
8. If the scapula moves anterior and lateral, the motion is called:
a. Retraction – rhomboids
b. Protraction – done by serratus anterior
c. Rotation -d. Elevation – traps and levator scap
9. Which of the following muscles attaches to the superficial portion of ribs 1
through 8:
a. Serratus anterior
b. Pectoralis minor
c. Subscapularis
d. Supraspinatus
The lady between two majors: lats between
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
10. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the rib cage:
a. Transverses abdominus
b. Serratus posterior inferior
c. Multifidus – from TVP’s and mammilaries into spinous process
d. Longissimus
“I like standing” or “I love spines”:
iliocostalis: ribs to ilium
Longissimus: ribs to sacrum
Spinalis: spinous to spinous
“Some more rigidity” (contralateral rotators; stabilize spine)
Semispinalis
Multifidus
Rotators
11. Which of the following muscles is located between the erector spinae muscles and
the inferior portion of the kidney
a. Transversus abdominus – from deep to superficial: transversus
abdominus, rectus abdominus, internal obliques, external obliques
b. Psoas major
c. Quadratus lumborum – T12 and 12th rib to iliac crest; lateral trunk flexor
d. Multifidus
12. Which of the following dermatomes supplies sensation to the anterolateral thigh:
a. L2, L3 – lateral femoral cutaneous nerve; see it with people who are
heavy or wear tight pants; meralgia paresthetica, a compressive
neuropathy
b. S2, S3, S4
c. L4, L5
d. L1, L2
13. Which of the following is a diarthrodial joint:
a. Synovial joint
b. Fibrous joint
c. Interosseous membrane
d. Fibrocartilage
Diarthrodial – freely moveable
Synarthrodial – immovable (suture)
Amphiarthrodial – slightly moveable (SI joint, intervertebral disc)
Fibrous joint – sphenoid, and other bones that expand during respiration; sphenoid is
often considered to be the first vertebrae
Interosseous membrane – syndesmosis; between radius and ulna and tibia and fibula
Fibrocartilage – intervertebral discs, symphysis pubis
14. Which of the following muscles is responsible for rotation of the tibia medially:
a. Popliteus – one of most common reasons for knee pain; popliteus locks
knee
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Rectus femoris
d. Soleus
15. The first cuneiform bone articulates with the _________ and the ________ bones.
a. Talus; first metatarsal
b. Calcaneus; first metatarsal
c. Cuboid; first metatarsal
d. Navicular; first metatarsal
st
1 cuneiform is medial (with navicular and 1st meta), 2nd is intermediate (with navicular
and 2nd meta), 3rd is lateral (navicular and 3rd meta), cuboid (with 4th and 5th meta)
16. Which of the following is a dicondyloid joint:
a. Tibio-femoral joint
b. Glenohumeral joint
c. Hip joint
d. Talocrural joint
Dicondyloid – 2 condyles; another ex: talocrural/ talocalcaneal joint
17. Which of the following bones is not part of the knee joint:
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Femur
d. Patella
18. Which of the following multinucleated cells remodels bone:
a. Osteoclasts -- break down bone; inhibited by calcitonin; stimulated by
parathyroid hormone
b. Osteoblasts – (are not multinucleated); lay down bone; inhibited by
parathyroid hormone
c. Osteocytes
d. osteoprogenitor
19. In which joint is the deltoid ligament located
a. Hip
b. Wrist
c. Ankle
d. Knee
Deltoid ligament: tibia, calcaneus, navicular are the bones involved
20. The articular disc in the distal radioulnar joint articulates with which of the
following bones:
a. Scaphoid
b. Lunate
c. Hamate
d. Capitate
The radius and ulna articulate with both scaphoid and lunate, but the disc is on the lunate
side
Lunate – most commonly dislocated bone in body
Scaphoid – most commonly fractured bone in body
Scaphoid = Navicular
21. Which of the following cells produces osteoid:
a. Osteoblasts – lays down bone matrix (osteoid); osteoid = “pre-bone”
because it isn’t calcified yet
b. Osteocytes
c. Osteoclasts
d. Osteoprogenitor – precursor to osteoblast
22. The detrusor muscle is found in which of the following areas:
a. Urinary bladder
b. Ureter
c. Urethra
d. Ejaculatory duct
23. The posterior fornix of the vagina forms the boundary for which of the following:
a. Vesicouterine pouch – b/w bladder and uterus
b. Vesicorectal pouch – b/w bladder and rectum
c. Rectouterine pouch – b/w rectum and uterus; pouch of Douglas
d. Urinary bladder
24. The common hepatic artery is a branch of which of the following:
a. Celiac trunk – gives rise to common hepatic, spleenic, l and r gastric
b. Superior mesentery artery – duodenum to 1st 2/3 of transverse colon;
comes off of aorta
c. Thoracic aorta
d. Inferior mesentery artery – comes off of aorta; from last 1/3 of transverse
colon on
25. Which of the following nerves supply general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the
tongue:
a. CN VII – taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue
b. Lingual nerve
c. CN XII
d. CN IX – taste and general sensation to posterior 1/3
26. During the act of swallowing, the posterior entrance to the nasal cavity is blocked
by the ________________, thereby preventing aspiration:
a. Soft palate – closes off nasal pharynx
b. Tongue
c. Hard palate
d. Epiglottis – closes off trachea
27. In which of the following areas does spermatogenesis occur:
a. Seminiferous tubules – where sperm are made
b. Vas deferens – where sperm is stored
c. Ejaculatory duct
d. Interstitial cells of Leydig – produce testosterone
e. Epididimus – where sperm mature
28. Which of the following divides the posterior triangle of the neck into a superior
and inferior half:
a. Posterior belly of the digastric – innervated by CN VII
b. Inferior omohyoid – divides posterior triangle
c. Superior omohyoid – divides anterior triangle of neck
d. Anterior belly of the digastric – CN V
29. The thymus gland is located in the _________________ mediastinum:
a. Superior
b. Middle
c. Anterior
d. Posterior
30. The ureter lies anterior to which of the following structures:
a. Psoas – comes from body, disc, and TVP’s of L1-L5 and inserts into
lesser trochantor of femur
b. Inferior vena cava
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Abdominal aorta
31. The _______________ is a thin muscle that lies just below the rhomboid muscle:
a. Serratus posterior superior – innervated by dorsal rami of ________
b. Trapezius
c. Levator scapulae
d. Spenius cervicis
32. Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus is most apt to damage which of the
following nerves:
a. Axillary – fracture at surgical neck
b. Radial – fracture mid-shaft
c. Median
d. Ulnar
33. Which of the following ligaments holds the long head of the biceps tendon in the
intertubercular groove:
a. Transverse humeral
b. Coracoacromial
c. Coracohumeral
d. Coracoclavicular
34. The bronchi are innervated by which of the following nerves:
a. Intercostals
b. Grater splanchnic
c. Vagus
d. Glossopharyngeal – CN IX; goes to stylopharyngeus
35. The sesamoid bones in the foot is located in which of the following tendons:
a. Flexor hallicus brevis
b. Flexor hallicus longus
c. First lumbrical
d. Adductor hallicus
In thumb: flexor pollicus brevis
36. The tendon of which muscle attaches to the base of the radial styloid process:
a. Extensor carpi ulnaris
b. Brachioradialis – “the ½ supinator muscle”
c. Pronator quadratus
d. Extensor pollicus longus
37. Which of the following muscles attaches to the spine of the scapula, acromion and
distal clavicle:
a. Trapezius
b. Levator scapulae – from C1 to C4 to tip of scapula; anterior head carriage
messes it up
c. Teres major – from scapula to humerus
d. Rhomboid minor – from middle of scapula to C7-T1
e. Rhomboid major – from middle of scapula to T2-T5
Minor muscle is always superior to major
38. Which of the following segmental levels supplies motor function to the
anterolateral leg:
a. L5, S1 – common fibular/peroneal nerve
b. L1, L2
c. L2, L3
d. S3, S4
L4 to tibialis anterior; L5-S1, all other muscles of anterior leg; S2 to fibularis longus and
brevis
39. Which of the following joints contains a labrum:
a. Hip – (also shoulder)
b. TMJ
c. Wrist
d. Proximal radioulnar
Labrum is a fibrous articulation
40. Which of the following is an extension of the anterior aspect of the glenohumeral
capsule:
a. Clavicular coracoid ligament
b. Acromioclavicular ligament
c. Glenohumeral ligament
d. Transverse humeral ligament – holds down biceps tendon
e. Coracoclavicular ligament – made up of trapezoid and conoid ligaments
41. The medial and lateral lines of the linea aspira on the posterior femur become the
________________.
a. Supracondylar ridges
b. Intertrochanteric crest
c. Greater trochanter
d. Lesser trochanter
Linea aspira is attachment of adductor magnus
42. Which of the following muscles can be palpated laterally in the ischiorectal fossa:
a. Obturator internus
b. Obturator externus
c. Pubococcygeus
d. Coccygeus
Obturator internus is on inside of obturator foramen; obturator externus is on outside of
obturator foramen; both are external rotators
43. The true pelvis is located:
44. Plantarflexion and inversion of the foot produces damage to which ligament:
a. Anterior talofibular – m/c sprained ligament in ankle
b. Calcaneofibular – next ligament to sprain
c. Posterior talofibular
d. Deltoid -- very rarely injured
45. Which of the following lies anterior to the thyroid gland:
a. Strap muscles – like a belt; sternohyoidius, sternothyroidius
b. Trachea
c. Esophagus
d. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
46. Which of the following muscles is the main internal rotator of the shoulder:
a. Subscapularis – lats and pecs are other “big ones”
b. Teres minor
c. Infraspinatus
d. Supraspinatus
47. The medial pterygoid muscle is supplied by the _____________ nerve.
a. Trigeminal
b. Facial
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Hypoglossal
Muscles of mastication are all innervated by V3: temporalis, internal pterygoid,
masseter, external pterygoid (TIME)
48. The main function of the oval window is:
a. To transmit the sonic vibrations of the ossicles to the perilymph
b. To transmit vibrations to the endolymph
c. Sensing organ of hearing
d. Sensing organ of balance
The oval window is fluid filled; the ossicles pound on the oval window, stimulating
perilymph to move which stimulates hair cells which then depolarize the cochlear nerve
49. The vocal cords attach to the thyroid cartilage and __________________.
a. Arytenoid cartilages
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Cuneiform cartilages
d. Corniculate cartilages
50. The costal joint in a child is composed of __________________ cartilage:
a. Hyaline
b. Fibrous
c. Elastic
d. Fibrocartilage
In adult, it calcifies: costo-chondral calcification
51. The ___________ rib is at the junction of the manubrium and body of the
sternum:
a. 1st
b. 2nd -- at the angle of Louis
c. 3rd
d. 4th
52. Inability to flex the distal phalanx of the big toe may be due to a lesion of which
nerve:
a. Tibial – innervates flexor hallicus longus; innervates plantar flexors in the
posterior compartment of leg: gastroc, soleus, plantaris
b. Lateral plantar – off tibial nerve; innervates lateral foot
c. Medial plantar – off of tibial nerve; innervates medial foot (interosseous
muscles)
d. Deep peroneal – (deep fibular); innervates tibialis anterior and fibularis
tertius
e. Superior fibular nerve – fibularis longus and brevis
53. Which of the following is the most superficial vein:
a. Sural – sural vein is deep in medial leg; sural nerve is superficial to lateral
leg
b. Lesser saphenous -c. Popliteal
d. Femoral
54. Which vessel is described as having thin tunica media, thick tunica adventitia and
valves in the lumen:
a. Lymph vessel
b. Capillary
c. Veins
d. Large elastic artery
Tunica media is muscular layer; tunica adventitia is outer portion which contains the vaso
vasorum and nervi nervorum
55. The lens and the cornea are derived from which of the following:
a. Surface ectoderm – the cornea and lens come from pia and arachnoid,
which is surface ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Somites
Sclera comes from dura mater which is mesoderm
56. The medial plantar nerve innervates which of the following muscles:
a. First lumbrical
b. Second lumbrical
c. Adductor hallicus
d. Abductor digiti minimi
All the rest: lateral plantar
57. Which of the following ducts opens into the vestibule of the mouth:
a. Parotid – aka Stenson’s duct; comes in opposite to 2nd molar; only
secretes serous fluid, for lubrication
b. Wharton’s
c. Submandibular
d. Sublingual
Other mucous glands secrete serous and mucous fluid; mucous is thicker and can pick up
dust, viruses, etc., that we don’t want in there
58. The pleural cavity is lined by which of the following cell types:
a. Simple squamous – capillaries and alveoli; used for gas exchange
b. Flat mesothelial cells – form of stratified squamous; friction resistant
c. Simple columnar – for absorption
d. Simple cuboidal – involved in secretion
59. Which of the following types of epithelium is found in the nose:
a. Pseudostratified columnar
b. Stratified squamous
c. Simple squamous
d. Transitional
The entire respiratory tract is pseudostratified ciliated columnar, until alveoli where it
changes to simple squamous for gas exchange
Gas exchange is performed by Type I pneumocytes
Type II pneumocytes secrete surfactant to keep alveoli from collapsing
60. The thoracic crura of the diaphragm attaches to which vertebrae
a. T5-T7
b. T8-T10
c. T12-L1
d. L1-L3
Crura are the tendons of the diaphragm; on the left, L1-L2; on right, L1-2-3; the crura
blends into the central tendon; the aortic hiatus passes through the crura at T12 (crus)
61. Which of the following is the origin of the semitendinosus:
a. Ischial tuberosity – the pes anserine (on tibia); say grace before tea:
sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus
b. Ischial spine
c. Anterior superior iliac spine
d. Anterior inferior iliac spine
Semimembranosis blends into common tendon, but is not considered part of pes anserine;
semimembranosis and semitendonosis are biceps
62. Which of the following was formed by intramembranous bone formation?
a. Radius
b. Clavicle
c. Scapula
d. Calcaneus
All bones in the body are preformed in cartilage: enchondral
2 major exceptions: clavicle and parietal bone
if neither clavicle or parietal bone is among the answers, pick a skull bone
63. The right common carotid artery branches from which of the following arteries:
a. Aorta
b. Right subclavian
c. Brachiocephalic trunck – anything on right comes off of it
d. vertebral
Left common carotid and left subclavian come off a aortic arch
64. In which part of the mediastinum is the heart located:
a. Superior
b. Middle
c. Anterior
d. Posterior
65. Bones and joints in the extremities are derived from:
a. Somatic lateral mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm – organs
c. Ectoderm – nerves
d. Myotome – muscles
Bones and connective tissue come from mesoderm; extremities are lateral, midline
structures are medial
66. The intermediate cuneiform articulates distally with the _____ metatarsal.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 2nd and 3rd
d. 4th
67. Which of the following is the cell type for the corpus spongiosum
a. Stratified columnar
b. Simple squamous
c. Erectile tissue
d. Transitional tissue
68. Which of the following is the cause of a penile erection:
a. Arterial dilation of the corpus cavernosum
b. Increased muscle contraction
c. Decreased sympathetic firing
d. Increased sympathetic firing
The cavernosum is where the blood flows in; spongiosum is the erectile tissue itself
69. The horizontal fissure separates which lobes of the lung:
a. Right superior and right middle
b. Left superior and left middle
c. Right middle and right inferior
d. Left superior and left inferior
Horizontal separates right upper and right middle
Oblique in right separates middle right and lower right lobes
In left, oblique fissure separates upper and lower
70. Which of the following connective tissues surround each muscle fascicle:
a. Perimysium – around fascicle
b. Endomysium – around muscle fiber
c. Epimysium – around whole muscle ??
d. Perineurium
e. Endoneurium
71. Which of the following nerves supplies the gracilis muscle
a. Obturator
b. Femoral
c. Superior gluteal
d. Tibial
72. The posterior costal pleura extends to which of the following thoracic levels:
a. T8
b. T10
c. T12 – stops where ribs end
d. T9
73. Which of the following is a synonym for a dust cell:
a. Type I alveolar cell
b. Type II alveolar cell
c. Macrophages
d. Goblet cells
74. Which two bones make up a joint known as a schindylesis
a. Ethmoid and vomer – make up septum
b. Ethmoid and sphenoid
c. Sphenoid and occipital
d. Frontal and ethmoid
75. Muscle spindles aid in which of the following:
a. Muscle tension
b. Proprioception – mechanoreception is the more current term
c. Muscle firing
d. Vibratory sensation
76. The horizontal fissure of the lung is located at which spinal level:
a. T6
b. T4
c. T3
d. T8
?? 4th costal cartilage, but which spinal level??
77. Which of the following bones articulates proximally with the distal radius:
a. Lunate
b. Trapezium – articulates with scaphoid
c. Pisiform
d. Capitate
78. Which of the following muscles supplies anterior support to the glenohumeral
joint:
a. Infraspinatus
b. Subscapularis – from subscapular fossa to the lesser tubercle of humerus
c. Teres minor
d. Teres major
79. The annular ligament is found in which of the following joints:
a. Proximal radioulnar – holds radial head in place
b. Distal radioulnar
c. Tibiofemoral
d. Glenohumeral
80. Which of the following structures passes through the right and left crura of the
diaphragm:
a. Inferior vena cava
b. Vagus nerve
c. Esophagus
d. Aorta
81. Which of the following attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula:
a. Pectoralis minor
b. Pectoralis major
c. Brachialis
d. Triceps
82. Which of the following are derivatives of the paramesonephric duct:
a. Ureter
b. Uterus
c. Ovaries
d. Testes
The urinary system is considered the mesonephric duct; are midline; reproductive system
surrounds it?
83. Which of the following bones has only one articulation:
a. Pisiform
b. Hamate
c. Trapezium
d. Scaphoid
84. Which of the following is an external rotator of the shoulder
a. Supraspinatus – abductor
b. Infraspinatus – also teres minor
c. Teres major
d. Pectoalis major
85. Which of the following glands commonly undergoes calcific changes:
a. Pineal – circadian rhythm; melatonin
b. Suprarenal
c. Parathyroid
d. Thyroid
86. The pituitary gland sits in a depression of which bone:
a. Frontal
b. Sphenoid
c. Ethmoid
d. Maxillary
87. Which of the following dorsiflexes the foot:
a. Peroneus tertius
b. Peroneus brevis – plantar flexor
c. Peroneus longus – plantar flexor
d. Soleus – plantar flexor
Tibialis anterior is the main dorsiflexor
88. The tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii is found in which of the
following:
a. Trochlear fossa
b. Olecranon fossa
c. Radial groove
d. Intertubercular groove
89. The cupula is located in the:
a. Cervical pleura
b. Diaphragmatic pleura
c. Costal pleura
d. Meiastinal pleura
90. Which cranial nerve innervates the esophagus:
a. Vagus
b. Hypoglossal – tongue
c. Glossopharyngeal – stylopharyngeus
d. Accessory – traps, SCM
91. The brachial plexus goes through which of the following muscles:
a. Scalenus anterior and posterior
b. Scalenus medius and posterior
c. Scalenus anterior and medius
d. Scalenus anterior and SCM
Scalenus anterior and medius attach to 1st rib; scalenus posterior attaches to 2nd rib
92. Which of the following is not a border of the foramen of Winslow?
a. Anteriorly the portal vein, hepatic artery and bile duct
b. Posteriorally the inferior vena cava
c. Superiorally the quadrate lobe of the liver
d. Inferiorally the superior part of the duodenum
Foramen of Winslow = epiploic foramen; passageway b/w greater and lesser omentum
Greater omentum goes from greater curvature of stomach to the transverse colon
Lesser omentum goes from lesser curvature of stomach to the liver
93. Which part of the fallopian tube contains the uterine ostium:
a. Isthmus
b. Ampulla
c. Infundibulum
d. Fimbria
Ostium – “door” or “opening”
The opening for the egg to get from the ovary to the uterine tube is through the
abdominal ostium, which is in the infundibulum
Infundibulum – stalk with fimbria
94. Taenia coli are features of which structure:
a. Fundus
b. Cardiac
c. Haustra
d. Pylorus
95. Which of the following is an outgrowth of the hepatic diverticulum:
a. Spleen
b. Duodenum
c. Cystic duct
d. Stomach
96. The floor of the palatine tonsils lies on which of the following:
a. Palatopharyngeus and middle constrictor
b. Palatopharyngeus and superior constrictor
c. Palatoglossus and styloglossus
d. Stylopharyngeus and hyoglossus
97. The tail of the pancrease is in contact with the ____________.
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Duodenum
d. Sigmoid colon
98. The vermiform appendix is an outpouching of which of the following:
a. Ascending colon
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Cecum
99. The insertion of the patellar tendon is the ____________________.
a. Tibial tuberosity
b. Fibula
c. Medial condyle of the tibia
d. Lateral condyle of the tibia
100.
The submental artery is a branch of the _______________ artery.
a. Temporal
b. Posterior auricular
c. Mentalis
d. Facial
101.
The lymph nodes of the breast drain into the __________.
a. Pectoral nodes
b. Parasternal nodes
c. Abdominal nodes
d. Supraclavicular nodes
102.
Which of the following nerves runs anterior to the psoas muscle:
a. Genitofemoral – L1-L2
b. Obtuator
c. Femoral
d. Spenic
103.
Which part of the uterine tube contains the abdominal ostium:
a. Isthmus
b. Ampulla
c. Infundibulum
d. Fimbria