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* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
1. Which of the following muscles attaches to the olecranon process? a. Triceps – O: long head -- infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, short head -humurous b. Biceps – O: superior glenoid tubercle to radial tuberosity c. Coracobrachialis d. Brachialis Short head biceps, coracobrachialis, pec minor from coracoid process 2. The ________________is located between the epidermis and the dermis: a. Ground substance b. Basement membrane c. Granular cell layer d. Basal cell layer epidermis 1st layer: corneum (except in palms of hands and soles of feet) 2nd layer: lucideum 3rd layer: granulosum spinosum or malphighii germanatum (where the pigment is) (tyrosine is the hormone related to pigment) basement membrane dermis 3. If there is a fracture of the acetabular process which of the following structures will also be affected: a. Fibrous capsule b. Ligament to the head of the femur c. Pelvic viscera d. Anterior superior iliac spine The obturator artery goes through head of femur; any damage there will also affect hip; obturator artery is Legg-Cavel Purse disease (AVN of femoral head) Ligamentum teres femoris is what attaches the femur to the acetabulum 4. Cryptorchism is a cause of sterility because it produces which of the following: a. Torsion of the testes b. Psychological disturbace c. Increased temperature in the testes d. Decreased blood flow to the testes 5. Which of the following bones contains the superior, middle and inferior nasal concha: a. Maxillary b. Sphenoid c. Ethmoid d. Vomer Concha are all in the ethmoid; olfactory runs through cribriform plate in ethmoid bone 6. The ________ nerve innervates the teres major muscle a. Lower subscapular – to teres major Upper subscapular – subscapularis Dorsal scapular – rhomboid, scaps Axillary – deltoids, teres minor Thoracodorsal – lats Long thoracic nerve – serratus anterior (What does damage to the long thoracic nerve cause? Scapular winging) In back, only brachial plexus are dorsal rami??? 7. Which of the following nerves innervates the rhomboid muscle and the levator scapulae: a. Dorsal scapular 8. If the scapula moves anterior and lateral, the motion is called: a. Retraction – rhomboids b. Protraction – done by serratus anterior c. Rotation -d. Elevation – traps and levator scap 9. Which of the following muscles attaches to the superficial portion of ribs 1 through 8: a. Serratus anterior b. Pectoralis minor c. Subscapularis d. Supraspinatus The lady between two majors: lats between b. c. d. e. f. 10. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the rib cage: a. Transverses abdominus b. Serratus posterior inferior c. Multifidus – from TVP’s and mammilaries into spinous process d. Longissimus “I like standing” or “I love spines”: iliocostalis: ribs to ilium Longissimus: ribs to sacrum Spinalis: spinous to spinous “Some more rigidity” (contralateral rotators; stabilize spine) Semispinalis Multifidus Rotators 11. Which of the following muscles is located between the erector spinae muscles and the inferior portion of the kidney a. Transversus abdominus – from deep to superficial: transversus abdominus, rectus abdominus, internal obliques, external obliques b. Psoas major c. Quadratus lumborum – T12 and 12th rib to iliac crest; lateral trunk flexor d. Multifidus 12. Which of the following dermatomes supplies sensation to the anterolateral thigh: a. L2, L3 – lateral femoral cutaneous nerve; see it with people who are heavy or wear tight pants; meralgia paresthetica, a compressive neuropathy b. S2, S3, S4 c. L4, L5 d. L1, L2 13. Which of the following is a diarthrodial joint: a. Synovial joint b. Fibrous joint c. Interosseous membrane d. Fibrocartilage Diarthrodial – freely moveable Synarthrodial – immovable (suture) Amphiarthrodial – slightly moveable (SI joint, intervertebral disc) Fibrous joint – sphenoid, and other bones that expand during respiration; sphenoid is often considered to be the first vertebrae Interosseous membrane – syndesmosis; between radius and ulna and tibia and fibula Fibrocartilage – intervertebral discs, symphysis pubis 14. Which of the following muscles is responsible for rotation of the tibia medially: a. Popliteus – one of most common reasons for knee pain; popliteus locks knee b. Gastrocnemius c. Rectus femoris d. Soleus 15. The first cuneiform bone articulates with the _________ and the ________ bones. a. Talus; first metatarsal b. Calcaneus; first metatarsal c. Cuboid; first metatarsal d. Navicular; first metatarsal st 1 cuneiform is medial (with navicular and 1st meta), 2nd is intermediate (with navicular and 2nd meta), 3rd is lateral (navicular and 3rd meta), cuboid (with 4th and 5th meta) 16. Which of the following is a dicondyloid joint: a. Tibio-femoral joint b. Glenohumeral joint c. Hip joint d. Talocrural joint Dicondyloid – 2 condyles; another ex: talocrural/ talocalcaneal joint 17. Which of the following bones is not part of the knee joint: a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Femur d. Patella 18. Which of the following multinucleated cells remodels bone: a. Osteoclasts -- break down bone; inhibited by calcitonin; stimulated by parathyroid hormone b. Osteoblasts – (are not multinucleated); lay down bone; inhibited by parathyroid hormone c. Osteocytes d. osteoprogenitor 19. In which joint is the deltoid ligament located a. Hip b. Wrist c. Ankle d. Knee Deltoid ligament: tibia, calcaneus, navicular are the bones involved 20. The articular disc in the distal radioulnar joint articulates with which of the following bones: a. Scaphoid b. Lunate c. Hamate d. Capitate The radius and ulna articulate with both scaphoid and lunate, but the disc is on the lunate side Lunate – most commonly dislocated bone in body Scaphoid – most commonly fractured bone in body Scaphoid = Navicular 21. Which of the following cells produces osteoid: a. Osteoblasts – lays down bone matrix (osteoid); osteoid = “pre-bone” because it isn’t calcified yet b. Osteocytes c. Osteoclasts d. Osteoprogenitor – precursor to osteoblast 22. The detrusor muscle is found in which of the following areas: a. Urinary bladder b. Ureter c. Urethra d. Ejaculatory duct 23. The posterior fornix of the vagina forms the boundary for which of the following: a. Vesicouterine pouch – b/w bladder and uterus b. Vesicorectal pouch – b/w bladder and rectum c. Rectouterine pouch – b/w rectum and uterus; pouch of Douglas d. Urinary bladder 24. The common hepatic artery is a branch of which of the following: a. Celiac trunk – gives rise to common hepatic, spleenic, l and r gastric b. Superior mesentery artery – duodenum to 1st 2/3 of transverse colon; comes off of aorta c. Thoracic aorta d. Inferior mesentery artery – comes off of aorta; from last 1/3 of transverse colon on 25. Which of the following nerves supply general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue: a. CN VII – taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue b. Lingual nerve c. CN XII d. CN IX – taste and general sensation to posterior 1/3 26. During the act of swallowing, the posterior entrance to the nasal cavity is blocked by the ________________, thereby preventing aspiration: a. Soft palate – closes off nasal pharynx b. Tongue c. Hard palate d. Epiglottis – closes off trachea 27. In which of the following areas does spermatogenesis occur: a. Seminiferous tubules – where sperm are made b. Vas deferens – where sperm is stored c. Ejaculatory duct d. Interstitial cells of Leydig – produce testosterone e. Epididimus – where sperm mature 28. Which of the following divides the posterior triangle of the neck into a superior and inferior half: a. Posterior belly of the digastric – innervated by CN VII b. Inferior omohyoid – divides posterior triangle c. Superior omohyoid – divides anterior triangle of neck d. Anterior belly of the digastric – CN V 29. The thymus gland is located in the _________________ mediastinum: a. Superior b. Middle c. Anterior d. Posterior 30. The ureter lies anterior to which of the following structures: a. Psoas – comes from body, disc, and TVP’s of L1-L5 and inserts into lesser trochantor of femur b. Inferior vena cava c. Quadratus lumborum d. Abdominal aorta 31. The _______________ is a thin muscle that lies just below the rhomboid muscle: a. Serratus posterior superior – innervated by dorsal rami of ________ b. Trapezius c. Levator scapulae d. Spenius cervicis 32. Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus is most apt to damage which of the following nerves: a. Axillary – fracture at surgical neck b. Radial – fracture mid-shaft c. Median d. Ulnar 33. Which of the following ligaments holds the long head of the biceps tendon in the intertubercular groove: a. Transverse humeral b. Coracoacromial c. Coracohumeral d. Coracoclavicular 34. The bronchi are innervated by which of the following nerves: a. Intercostals b. Grater splanchnic c. Vagus d. Glossopharyngeal – CN IX; goes to stylopharyngeus 35. The sesamoid bones in the foot is located in which of the following tendons: a. Flexor hallicus brevis b. Flexor hallicus longus c. First lumbrical d. Adductor hallicus In thumb: flexor pollicus brevis 36. The tendon of which muscle attaches to the base of the radial styloid process: a. Extensor carpi ulnaris b. Brachioradialis – “the ½ supinator muscle” c. Pronator quadratus d. Extensor pollicus longus 37. Which of the following muscles attaches to the spine of the scapula, acromion and distal clavicle: a. Trapezius b. Levator scapulae – from C1 to C4 to tip of scapula; anterior head carriage messes it up c. Teres major – from scapula to humerus d. Rhomboid minor – from middle of scapula to C7-T1 e. Rhomboid major – from middle of scapula to T2-T5 Minor muscle is always superior to major 38. Which of the following segmental levels supplies motor function to the anterolateral leg: a. L5, S1 – common fibular/peroneal nerve b. L1, L2 c. L2, L3 d. S3, S4 L4 to tibialis anterior; L5-S1, all other muscles of anterior leg; S2 to fibularis longus and brevis 39. Which of the following joints contains a labrum: a. Hip – (also shoulder) b. TMJ c. Wrist d. Proximal radioulnar Labrum is a fibrous articulation 40. Which of the following is an extension of the anterior aspect of the glenohumeral capsule: a. Clavicular coracoid ligament b. Acromioclavicular ligament c. Glenohumeral ligament d. Transverse humeral ligament – holds down biceps tendon e. Coracoclavicular ligament – made up of trapezoid and conoid ligaments 41. The medial and lateral lines of the linea aspira on the posterior femur become the ________________. a. Supracondylar ridges b. Intertrochanteric crest c. Greater trochanter d. Lesser trochanter Linea aspira is attachment of adductor magnus 42. Which of the following muscles can be palpated laterally in the ischiorectal fossa: a. Obturator internus b. Obturator externus c. Pubococcygeus d. Coccygeus Obturator internus is on inside of obturator foramen; obturator externus is on outside of obturator foramen; both are external rotators 43. The true pelvis is located: 44. Plantarflexion and inversion of the foot produces damage to which ligament: a. Anterior talofibular – m/c sprained ligament in ankle b. Calcaneofibular – next ligament to sprain c. Posterior talofibular d. Deltoid -- very rarely injured 45. Which of the following lies anterior to the thyroid gland: a. Strap muscles – like a belt; sternohyoidius, sternothyroidius b. Trachea c. Esophagus d. Recurrent laryngeal nerve 46. Which of the following muscles is the main internal rotator of the shoulder: a. Subscapularis – lats and pecs are other “big ones” b. Teres minor c. Infraspinatus d. Supraspinatus 47. The medial pterygoid muscle is supplied by the _____________ nerve. a. Trigeminal b. Facial c. Glossopharyngeal d. Hypoglossal Muscles of mastication are all innervated by V3: temporalis, internal pterygoid, masseter, external pterygoid (TIME) 48. The main function of the oval window is: a. To transmit the sonic vibrations of the ossicles to the perilymph b. To transmit vibrations to the endolymph c. Sensing organ of hearing d. Sensing organ of balance The oval window is fluid filled; the ossicles pound on the oval window, stimulating perilymph to move which stimulates hair cells which then depolarize the cochlear nerve 49. The vocal cords attach to the thyroid cartilage and __________________. a. Arytenoid cartilages b. Cricoid cartilage c. Cuneiform cartilages d. Corniculate cartilages 50. The costal joint in a child is composed of __________________ cartilage: a. Hyaline b. Fibrous c. Elastic d. Fibrocartilage In adult, it calcifies: costo-chondral calcification 51. The ___________ rib is at the junction of the manubrium and body of the sternum: a. 1st b. 2nd -- at the angle of Louis c. 3rd d. 4th 52. Inability to flex the distal phalanx of the big toe may be due to a lesion of which nerve: a. Tibial – innervates flexor hallicus longus; innervates plantar flexors in the posterior compartment of leg: gastroc, soleus, plantaris b. Lateral plantar – off tibial nerve; innervates lateral foot c. Medial plantar – off of tibial nerve; innervates medial foot (interosseous muscles) d. Deep peroneal – (deep fibular); innervates tibialis anterior and fibularis tertius e. Superior fibular nerve – fibularis longus and brevis 53. Which of the following is the most superficial vein: a. Sural – sural vein is deep in medial leg; sural nerve is superficial to lateral leg b. Lesser saphenous -c. Popliteal d. Femoral 54. Which vessel is described as having thin tunica media, thick tunica adventitia and valves in the lumen: a. Lymph vessel b. Capillary c. Veins d. Large elastic artery Tunica media is muscular layer; tunica adventitia is outer portion which contains the vaso vasorum and nervi nervorum 55. The lens and the cornea are derived from which of the following: a. Surface ectoderm – the cornea and lens come from pia and arachnoid, which is surface ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Somites Sclera comes from dura mater which is mesoderm 56. The medial plantar nerve innervates which of the following muscles: a. First lumbrical b. Second lumbrical c. Adductor hallicus d. Abductor digiti minimi All the rest: lateral plantar 57. Which of the following ducts opens into the vestibule of the mouth: a. Parotid – aka Stenson’s duct; comes in opposite to 2nd molar; only secretes serous fluid, for lubrication b. Wharton’s c. Submandibular d. Sublingual Other mucous glands secrete serous and mucous fluid; mucous is thicker and can pick up dust, viruses, etc., that we don’t want in there 58. The pleural cavity is lined by which of the following cell types: a. Simple squamous – capillaries and alveoli; used for gas exchange b. Flat mesothelial cells – form of stratified squamous; friction resistant c. Simple columnar – for absorption d. Simple cuboidal – involved in secretion 59. Which of the following types of epithelium is found in the nose: a. Pseudostratified columnar b. Stratified squamous c. Simple squamous d. Transitional The entire respiratory tract is pseudostratified ciliated columnar, until alveoli where it changes to simple squamous for gas exchange Gas exchange is performed by Type I pneumocytes Type II pneumocytes secrete surfactant to keep alveoli from collapsing 60. The thoracic crura of the diaphragm attaches to which vertebrae a. T5-T7 b. T8-T10 c. T12-L1 d. L1-L3 Crura are the tendons of the diaphragm; on the left, L1-L2; on right, L1-2-3; the crura blends into the central tendon; the aortic hiatus passes through the crura at T12 (crus) 61. Which of the following is the origin of the semitendinosus: a. Ischial tuberosity – the pes anserine (on tibia); say grace before tea: sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus b. Ischial spine c. Anterior superior iliac spine d. Anterior inferior iliac spine Semimembranosis blends into common tendon, but is not considered part of pes anserine; semimembranosis and semitendonosis are biceps 62. Which of the following was formed by intramembranous bone formation? a. Radius b. Clavicle c. Scapula d. Calcaneus All bones in the body are preformed in cartilage: enchondral 2 major exceptions: clavicle and parietal bone if neither clavicle or parietal bone is among the answers, pick a skull bone 63. The right common carotid artery branches from which of the following arteries: a. Aorta b. Right subclavian c. Brachiocephalic trunck – anything on right comes off of it d. vertebral Left common carotid and left subclavian come off a aortic arch 64. In which part of the mediastinum is the heart located: a. Superior b. Middle c. Anterior d. Posterior 65. Bones and joints in the extremities are derived from: a. Somatic lateral mesoderm b. Splanchnic mesoderm – organs c. Ectoderm – nerves d. Myotome – muscles Bones and connective tissue come from mesoderm; extremities are lateral, midline structures are medial 66. The intermediate cuneiform articulates distally with the _____ metatarsal. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 2nd and 3rd d. 4th 67. Which of the following is the cell type for the corpus spongiosum a. Stratified columnar b. Simple squamous c. Erectile tissue d. Transitional tissue 68. Which of the following is the cause of a penile erection: a. Arterial dilation of the corpus cavernosum b. Increased muscle contraction c. Decreased sympathetic firing d. Increased sympathetic firing The cavernosum is where the blood flows in; spongiosum is the erectile tissue itself 69. The horizontal fissure separates which lobes of the lung: a. Right superior and right middle b. Left superior and left middle c. Right middle and right inferior d. Left superior and left inferior Horizontal separates right upper and right middle Oblique in right separates middle right and lower right lobes In left, oblique fissure separates upper and lower 70. Which of the following connective tissues surround each muscle fascicle: a. Perimysium – around fascicle b. Endomysium – around muscle fiber c. Epimysium – around whole muscle ?? d. Perineurium e. Endoneurium 71. Which of the following nerves supplies the gracilis muscle a. Obturator b. Femoral c. Superior gluteal d. Tibial 72. The posterior costal pleura extends to which of the following thoracic levels: a. T8 b. T10 c. T12 – stops where ribs end d. T9 73. Which of the following is a synonym for a dust cell: a. Type I alveolar cell b. Type II alveolar cell c. Macrophages d. Goblet cells 74. Which two bones make up a joint known as a schindylesis a. Ethmoid and vomer – make up septum b. Ethmoid and sphenoid c. Sphenoid and occipital d. Frontal and ethmoid 75. Muscle spindles aid in which of the following: a. Muscle tension b. Proprioception – mechanoreception is the more current term c. Muscle firing d. Vibratory sensation 76. The horizontal fissure of the lung is located at which spinal level: a. T6 b. T4 c. T3 d. T8 ?? 4th costal cartilage, but which spinal level?? 77. Which of the following bones articulates proximally with the distal radius: a. Lunate b. Trapezium – articulates with scaphoid c. Pisiform d. Capitate 78. Which of the following muscles supplies anterior support to the glenohumeral joint: a. Infraspinatus b. Subscapularis – from subscapular fossa to the lesser tubercle of humerus c. Teres minor d. Teres major 79. The annular ligament is found in which of the following joints: a. Proximal radioulnar – holds radial head in place b. Distal radioulnar c. Tibiofemoral d. Glenohumeral 80. Which of the following structures passes through the right and left crura of the diaphragm: a. Inferior vena cava b. Vagus nerve c. Esophagus d. Aorta 81. Which of the following attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula: a. Pectoralis minor b. Pectoralis major c. Brachialis d. Triceps 82. Which of the following are derivatives of the paramesonephric duct: a. Ureter b. Uterus c. Ovaries d. Testes The urinary system is considered the mesonephric duct; are midline; reproductive system surrounds it? 83. Which of the following bones has only one articulation: a. Pisiform b. Hamate c. Trapezium d. Scaphoid 84. Which of the following is an external rotator of the shoulder a. Supraspinatus – abductor b. Infraspinatus – also teres minor c. Teres major d. Pectoalis major 85. Which of the following glands commonly undergoes calcific changes: a. Pineal – circadian rhythm; melatonin b. Suprarenal c. Parathyroid d. Thyroid 86. The pituitary gland sits in a depression of which bone: a. Frontal b. Sphenoid c. Ethmoid d. Maxillary 87. Which of the following dorsiflexes the foot: a. Peroneus tertius b. Peroneus brevis – plantar flexor c. Peroneus longus – plantar flexor d. Soleus – plantar flexor Tibialis anterior is the main dorsiflexor 88. The tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii is found in which of the following: a. Trochlear fossa b. Olecranon fossa c. Radial groove d. Intertubercular groove 89. The cupula is located in the: a. Cervical pleura b. Diaphragmatic pleura c. Costal pleura d. Meiastinal pleura 90. Which cranial nerve innervates the esophagus: a. Vagus b. Hypoglossal – tongue c. Glossopharyngeal – stylopharyngeus d. Accessory – traps, SCM 91. The brachial plexus goes through which of the following muscles: a. Scalenus anterior and posterior b. Scalenus medius and posterior c. Scalenus anterior and medius d. Scalenus anterior and SCM Scalenus anterior and medius attach to 1st rib; scalenus posterior attaches to 2nd rib 92. Which of the following is not a border of the foramen of Winslow? a. Anteriorly the portal vein, hepatic artery and bile duct b. Posteriorally the inferior vena cava c. Superiorally the quadrate lobe of the liver d. Inferiorally the superior part of the duodenum Foramen of Winslow = epiploic foramen; passageway b/w greater and lesser omentum Greater omentum goes from greater curvature of stomach to the transverse colon Lesser omentum goes from lesser curvature of stomach to the liver 93. Which part of the fallopian tube contains the uterine ostium: a. Isthmus b. Ampulla c. Infundibulum d. Fimbria Ostium – “door” or “opening” The opening for the egg to get from the ovary to the uterine tube is through the abdominal ostium, which is in the infundibulum Infundibulum – stalk with fimbria 94. Taenia coli are features of which structure: a. Fundus b. Cardiac c. Haustra d. Pylorus 95. Which of the following is an outgrowth of the hepatic diverticulum: a. Spleen b. Duodenum c. Cystic duct d. Stomach 96. The floor of the palatine tonsils lies on which of the following: a. Palatopharyngeus and middle constrictor b. Palatopharyngeus and superior constrictor c. Palatoglossus and styloglossus d. Stylopharyngeus and hyoglossus 97. The tail of the pancrease is in contact with the ____________. a. Spleen b. Liver c. Duodenum d. Sigmoid colon 98. The vermiform appendix is an outpouching of which of the following: a. Ascending colon b. Duodenum c. Ileum d. Cecum 99. The insertion of the patellar tendon is the ____________________. a. Tibial tuberosity b. Fibula c. Medial condyle of the tibia d. Lateral condyle of the tibia 100. The submental artery is a branch of the _______________ artery. a. Temporal b. Posterior auricular c. Mentalis d. Facial 101. The lymph nodes of the breast drain into the __________. a. Pectoral nodes b. Parasternal nodes c. Abdominal nodes d. Supraclavicular nodes 102. Which of the following nerves runs anterior to the psoas muscle: a. Genitofemoral – L1-L2 b. Obtuator c. Femoral d. Spenic 103. Which part of the uterine tube contains the abdominal ostium: a. Isthmus b. Ampulla c. Infundibulum d. Fimbria