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Part I. The best choice (50%)
I. In modern proteomic analysis the amino acid sequence of a protein can be determined by
b. tandem mass spectrometry.
a. 2D gel electrophoresis.
d. analysis using protein chips with appropriate probes.
c. determining its nucleotide sequence.
2. DNA microarray technology is used to measure the
a. levels large numbers of specific proteins expressed by cells
c. levels of large numbers of specific RNAs expressed by cells
b. DNA content of cells
d. genetic complexity of cells of interest.
3. Which of the following is not true for transposable elements?
a. They reproduce as independent replicons like plasmids.
b. The insertions could lead to increase expression of nearby gene.
c. They may carry drug resistance genes in addition to the transposition sequence.
d. They move about the chromosomes or plasmids by cut-and-paste or replicative transposition.
4. Phage T4 protects its DNA from cleavage by host restriction enzymes via
a. rapid replication
b. substituting glucosylated hydroxymethylcytosine for cytosine.
c. inactivating restriction enzymes
d. methylating bases.
5. Metagenomics, also called environmental genomics, is
a. used to learn more about the diversity and metabolic potential of microbial communities
b. to take census of microbial populations by determining the presence and level of classes of genes
c. able to obtain a considerable amount of proteorhodopsin sequences from marine microorganisms in the ocean
d. a1l of the choices
6. Molecular chronometers are used
a. to measure amount of evolutionary change over time.
c. as parameters for numerical taxonomy.
b. to determine the genetic similarity.
d. as parameters for phonetic classification.
7. Which of the following statements about protozoa is not true?
a. Entameoba histolytica is known to use tsetse flies as intermediate host.
b. No effective vaccine against trypanosomiasis is due to its variable surface antigens (protein coat)
c. Pneumocystis carinii causes diseases almost exclusively in immunocompromised hosts.
d. Trichomoniasis is a disease caused by a flagellate.
8. Which ofthe following statements is not true of protists?
a. AI l possess cilia or flagella.
b. Moisture is absolutely essential to their existence.
c. Most are free living.
d. They make up a substantial fraction of the marine plankton.
9. Which of the following is not true for genetic element transferred in bacteria?
a. Conjugation is mainly mediated by plasmid, while transduction by bacteriophage.
b. Transformation frequency of cells is dependent to the competence.
c. Conjugation is the transfer of genetic information by direct cell to cell contact.
d. Transduction is the uptake of a naked DNA fragment by a cell.
'
10. Tlie second edition of Bergqv's Manual classifies bacteria
a. phonetically.
b. phylogenetically.
c. numerically.
d. none of the choices.
1 1 . 0.5 in1 of a 10" dilution of a virus preparation yields 80 plaques. What is the number of PFU per ml?
a. 1.6 x lo7
b. 1.6 x lo6
c.
4.0 x lo6
d. 4.0 x 1 o7
12. Which of the following islare not true about viral envelopes?
a. The envelope proteins are virus specific.
b. The envelope are composed of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates.
c. Tliey are typical lipid monolayers with embedded proteins.
d. The envelope lipids and carbohydrates are derived from tlie host
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13. Tlie avian flu virus H5N1, was most probably resulted from
a. the interference of large ainouiits of defective interference (DI) particles
b. reassortiiient of genomes when two different strains infect the same cell.
c. the accllinulation of mutations in HA and NA
d. an abnormal assembly of the virus progeny
14. Listeria monocjjtogenes which could cause severe listeriosis in pregnant women, is an important
a. foodborne infection
b. sexual transmitted infection
c. airborne infection
d. insect-borne iiifectioii
15. Wliich ofthe following is not true about the current genome analysis?
a. The highly radiation resistant Dienococcus radiodurans has more DNA repair genes than E. coli.
b. The minimum number of genes needed by a free-living cell is approximately 250 to 350.
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis has more than 250 genes devoted to lipid metabolism.
d. Chlamydia trachornatis genome has no septum forming geneftsZ.
16. In which of tlie following would the action of the drug be considered pl-iniarily bacteriostatic?
a. The niiliimal lethal concentration (MLC) is equal to the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC).
b. The MLC is much lower than the MIC.
c. The MLC is 10-20 times higher than the MIC.
d. The MLC is 2-4 times higher than the MIC.
17. Which of tlie following is not true?
a. Bz3dobacterium bij?dus is a pioneer colonizer of the human iritestinal tract
b. Body odor and acne vulgaris are caused by Propionibacteriurn acnes
c. Helicobacterpylori is a major causing agent of peptic ulcer
d. Primary atypical pneumonia in human is caused by Mycobacteriurn tube~~culosis
18. Which ofthe following is considered a newly emergent disease?
a. Escherichia coli 0 157:H7
b. SARS
c. MRSA and ESBL
d. all of the choices
19. Which of tlie following statements is not true?
a. Lactococcus lactis is associated with dental caries
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin resident and also an opportunistic pathogen
c. Streptococcuspyogenes causes diseases including scarlet fever, acute glomeruloiiephritis, and rheumatic fev
d. S. pyogeves could be differentiated from S. pneurnoniae using the Lancefield grouping system
20. The quantity of virus can be determined by
b. measurement of cytopathic effects
a. differential centrifugation
d. all of the choices
c. hemagglutination assay
21. Retroviruses have a +ssRNA as their genome. In order to complete an infection, they must first make a
molecule, which they use to direct the synthesis of mRNA.
a. dsRNA
b. &DNA
c. DNA:RNA hybrid
d. -ssRNA
22. Which of the following viruses could cause cancer?
b. Human papilloma virus
a. Epstein-Bar virus
c. Hepatitis C virus
d. all of tlie choices
23. Who of tlie following separated tobacco mosaic virus particles into protein and nucleic acid?
b. Ellerman aiid Bang
a. Loeffler and Froscli
c: Bawden and Pirie
d. Tvanowski and Jeiiner
24. Which of the following may be used to transcribe viral genes?
a. unmodified host RNA polymerase
b. modified host RNA polymerase
c. phage-specific RNA polymerase
d. all of the choices
25. Wliich of tlie followiiig is not true?
a. Dengue virus is an ai-thropod-borne virus
b. In addition to nasopharyngeal carcinoma, EBV could also cause adult T-cell leukemia
c. Mimivirus is the largest known DNA virus.
d. For DNA viruses, transcription ~isuallyuses host RNA polymerase except for poxvirus.
26. The reactivated form of chickenpox is cal led
b; mononucleosis
c. herpes zoster
a. rubella
27. Methanogenic Arclraea are
a. obligate anaerobes that produce methane.
c. obligate aerobes that produce methane.
b. obligate anaerobes that consume methane.
d. obligate aerobes that consume methane.
28. Archael promoters are most simiiar to those of
a. viruses.
b. bacteria.
c. eucaryotes.
29. Gliding motility can be used to propel bacteria
a. through the air only.
b. through liquids only.
d. along,the framework of the cytoskeleton of host cells.
30. TIie spirochetes include the causative agents for
a. gonorrhoeae.
b. Lyme disease.
d. roseola
c. plague.
d. both viruses and bacteria.
c. across solid substrates only.
d. whooping cough.
3 1 . Systems biology is
a. quantitative study of biological processes as integrated systems
b. to understand the interactions between sub-cellular components
c. involved global measurements of subcellular dynamics of the expression of gene, protein and metabolite
. .
d. all of the clioices
32; Legionnaires' disease is so named because
a. it caused a large epidemic among members of the French Foreign Legion.
b. it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion.
c. it was a common infection among foot soldiers.
d. it was first identified as a mosquito-borne disease
33. Members of the genus Rhizobium
a. infect broad-leaved plants and cause crown gall disease. b. are free living soil bacteria that fix nitrogen.
c. grow symbiotically in root nodules of legumes where they fix nitrogen.
d. are important nitrifying bacteria that convert nitrite to nitrate.' 34. Mineralization refers to
a. the utilization of minerals as energy sources. b. the breakdown of organic materials to inorganic materials.
c. the release of various minerals from ores.
d. the incorporation of i ~ ~ o r g a lmaterial
~ic
into organic materials
35. Bacteria that naturally exhibit bioluminescence have been found in which of the following genera?
a. Vibrio
b. Shigella
c. Pasteurella
d. Salmonella
36. Which ofthe following is not true of Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
a. It causes crown gall disease when it carries a tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid.
b. It has been used to introduce foreign DNA into plant cells
c. It transforms plant cells into proliferating tumor cells
d. none of the choices
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37. Which ofthe following is(are) not true of mycoplasmas?
a. They are Gram positive bacteria.
b. They are difficult to detect in mammalian cell cultures.
c. They cannot synthesize peptidoglycan precursors and hence resistant to penicillin
d. They cannot synthesize peptidoglycan precursors and hence susceptible to penicillin
38. Which of the following statements is not true ofBacillus?
a. B, subtilis is a useful nlodel for the study of gene regulation, cell division and cell differentiation.
b. B. anthracis contains parasporal body which is currently used as a biological insecticide.
c. B. cereus is a causative agent of food poisoning and can infect human.
d. B. sphaericu.~produces proteins toxic for mosquito larvae and may be useful in controlling malaria
39. Which of the following is not the characteristics of actinomycetes?
a. They are high G+C content G(+) bacteria
b. Mycobacterium cause tuberculosis and leprosy in humans.
c. Streptomycetes are best known for their synthesis of a vast array of antibiotics
d. They form substrate mycelia and aerial mycelia, and desiccation resistant endospores
40. Which of the following is not true about fungi?
a. The fungus used in the production of saki and soy sauce is Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
b. The common bread mold Rhizopus stolonifer belongs to the Zygomycota.
c. The Glomeromycota are mycorrhiza fungi associated with the roots of many vascular plants.
d. Spores produced by budding are called blastospores.
41. The asexual reproduction in fungi can be accomplished by
a. A. transverse fission of a parent cell into two daughter cells.
c. budding of somatic vegetative cells.
b. hyphal fragmentation.
d. all of the choices
42. Wliich of the following is not a proper description of antimicrobial drugs?
a. Semisynthetic drugs are cheinically modified natural products of niicroorganisms
b. Antibiotics given by injection is a parenteral route of administration.
c. Topical application is a most desirable property of antimicrobial drugs
d. The ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose is called the therapeutic index.
43. Which of the following statements is not true about antibiotics
a. Aminoglycoside antibiotics bind to the 30s ribosomal subunit.
b. Genes for antibiotic resistance may be present both on the chromosoine and on plasmids
c. Penicillins inhibit the transpeptidation reaction in cell wall synthesis
d. Vancomycin interference with RNA and DNA synthesis
44. Wliicli oftlie following opportunistic mycosis is commonly associated with nosocomial infections?
a. Candidiasis
b. Aspergillosis c. Cryptococosis d. all of these
45. Which of the following drugs has been shown to reduce the duration and symptoms of influenza A?
a. acyclovir
b. methicillin
c. AZT
d. amantadine
46. Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a disease associated with a ?
a. slow virus
b. virusoid
c. prion
d. viroid
47. Which of the following statements is not true of Prion(s)?
a. They are proteinaceous infectious particle which pass through the 100 nm filter and still transmits disease
c. They cause infections of domestic animals and humans
b. Tliey are most related with viroids and virusoids.
d. They are cellular proteins encoded by the gene on human chromosome 20
48. Congenital rubella syndrome usually occurs in the time frame of the
a. first trimester of pregnancy.
b. second trimester of pregnancy.
c. third trimester of pregnancy.
d. entire pregnancy.
49. The Nobel prize in Physiology or Medicine 2008 awards discoveries of two viruses causing human severe
diseases. They are
a. Human papilloma virus (HPV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
b. SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome) virus and HPV
c. SARS and HIV
d. Avian flu virus and SARS virus
50. DPT (diphtheria- pertussis- tetanus) vaccine is a(n)
a. l ive-attenuated vaccine
b. subunit vaccine
c. DNA vaccine
d. inactivated virus vaccine
Part 11
Please choose one answer for each of the following questions (50%)
5 1 . Which study that led to division of prokaryotic organisms into the Bacteria and the Archaea:
a. DNA topology
b. rRNA diversity
c. cell morphology
d. cell composition
52. Which of the following development of microbiology is not true:
a. Leeuwenhoek developed the microscope to observe virus first.
b. Louis Pasteur's work with san neck flasks demolishes the spontaneous generation.
c. Koch's postulates prove directly the causal relationship between a microorganism and a specific
disease.
d. Edward Jenner used the material from cowpox lesions as a vaccine to smallpox.
53. In Acid-fast staining, the bacteria could be identified as "Red" by their:
a. ric h lipid content of cell wall
b. polysaccharides of capsule
d. rich protein content of cell membrane
c. peptidoglycan of cell wall
54. Which of the following is true for the Gram negative (G(-)) and Gram positive (G(+)) bacteria:
a. The G(-) bacteria could be stained as purple by Gram staining.
b. The cell envelope of G(+) bacteria is negative charge.
c. The G(-) bacteria have large amounts of teichoic acids to bind peptidoglycan covalently.
d. The G(+) bacteria have more proteins in their periplasmic space than G(-) bacteria.
55. Which of the following is true for bacteria plasmids?
a. They are double-strand DNA molecules and replicate dependent with chromosome.
b. No linear plasmids are found.
c. Conjugative plasmids have genes for the construction of pili.
d. All of the choices.
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56. When you culture the Escherichia coli in isotonic medium with penicillin, and then transfer then into
pure water. E. coli will
a. sporogenesis
b. plasmolysis
c. germination
d. fusion
57. Some prokaryotes have slime layer. It is the specific structure:
a. outside of the cell wall
b . that help pathogenic bacteria resist phagocytosis by host
c. composed by polysaccharides
d. All of the choices.
58. While put a small glass capillary containing nutrient into a suspension of motile bacteria without any
nutrient, the bacteria will move toward the tip of the capillary. The phenomenon is called
a. positive chemotaxis.
b. negative chemotaxis.
c. positive chemostat
d. negative chemostat
59. Staphylococcus aureus is a kind of
a. autotrophs
b. lithotrophs
c. phototrophs
d. Chemotrophs
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60. Which of the following resolution (d) of the objective lens could make the highest magnifying power of
microscope?
b. d= 10 pm
c . d = l pm
d. d= 100 nm
a. d= 100 pm
61. Which of the following is not true for bacteria inclusion bodies?
a. The poly-P-hydroxybutyrate is a kind of organic inclusion bodies for storage carbon source.
b. The inclusion bodies can reduce osmotic pressure.
c. The magnetosome is used by some bacteria to storage magnesium.
d. All of the choices.
I
62. The difference between endospores and vegetative cells is :
a. The vegetative cells are resistant to lysozyme, but the endospores are not.
b. The vegetative cells have higher calcium content than endospores.
c. The endospores could refract light under phase-contrast microscope.
d. The endospores present higher mRNA for protein synthesis than vegetative cells.
63. About flagella:
a. The regeneration of flagella is constructed by flagellin self-assembly.
b. The direction of flagellar rotation is determinated by methylation of sensory protein.
c. The flagellar hook links the filament to its basal body and acts as a flexible coupling.
d. All of the choices.
64. Comparison of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells:
a. The prokaryotic cells have 80s ribosome, but the eukaryotic cells have 70s ribosome.
b. The microfilament is the specific structure in prokaryotic cells.
c. The nuclear envelope is the specific structure in eukaryotic cells, and it is continuous with the
endoplasmic reticulum at several points.
d. The cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotic cells usually presents sterols, but the eukaryotic cells
usually lacks sterols.
65. Sexual reproduction in eukaryotic microorganisms involves the coming together and fusing of two -.
a. gametes
b. chromosome
c. phagosome
d. vacuole
66. Which of the following is true for Archaea?
a. Archaeal cell walls lack peptidoglycan.
b. Archaea could be stained as Gram (+) or Gram (-).
c. The archaeal membranes can be lipid monolayer or bilayers.
d. All of the choices.
67. The specific dyes are used to stain the specific structures. We usually used
(A )
endospores, and used (B ) to stain the capsule of bacteria.
b. A= malachite green, B= eosin
a. A= eosin, B= methylene blue
d. A= India ink, B= safranine
c. A= malachite green, B= India ink
to stain
68. The following table is the duplicate result of serial dilution for spreading 100 pl diluted sample X in
nutrient agar. The original concentration of sample X is
CFU/ml .
a. 4 . 2 10'
~
1om5
1o - ~
Dilute conc.
CFU
(63,45)
(400,440)
b. 5.4~10'
c. 4 . 0 ~ 1 0 ~
1o - ~
(395)
d. 4 . 5 ~ 1 0 ~
69. Selective media favor the growth of particular microorganisms. Which of the following is not selective
media?
c. Nutrient agar with ampicillin.
d. All of the choices.
a. Blood agar. b. MacConkey agar.
70. In eukaryotic cells, the secretion protein was:
a. synthesized at smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. transported from trans face to cis faces of Golgi apparatus.
c. modified and packed as secretory vesicle at Golgi apparatus.
d. marked by ubiquitin for release.
71. Which of the following is not the function for endocytic pathway in microorganism?
a. Recycle molecules in the membrane.
b. Bring materials into the cell from the outside.
c. Many virus use endocytic pathway to enter host cells
d. Reconstruct the location of cellular organelles.
72. Which of the following is not true about facilitated diffision?
a. It is a kind of diffusions, and it doesn't use any carrier protein.
b. No metabolic energy input is required.
c. The mechanism is driven by concentration gradients.
d. The mechanism is reversible.
73. Escherichia coli uptakes glucose from outside by
a. antiporter
b. symporter
c. group translocation
d. ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporter
74. When microorganisms are cultivated in a closed system, the population is most uniform in terms of
chemical and physiological properties during:
a. lag phase
b. exponential phase
c. stationary phase
d. senescence phase
75. Given a exponential phase bacterial culture with 3 . 2 ~lo5 cells per ml, and it take the culture to reach a
density of 5.12 x lo6 cells per ml for 8 hours. The generation time of the culture is:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hour
c. 4 hour
d. 8 hour
76. The growth of microorganism is affected by:the chemical and physical nature of their surroundings.
Which of the following is true?
a. Halophiles require high pressures to grow.
b. Mesophiles grow at 55°C or higher.
c. Barophilies grow rapidly at very low pH.
d. None of the choices.
77. When inoculating an unknown bacterium in a motility test tube, the growth of the bacterium was
presented as the figure. The bacterium may be:
b. Staphylococcus aureus
a. Escherichia coli
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Clostridium botulium
78. Which of the following method could be used to sterilize oils?
b. Dry heat sterilization
a. Steam sterilization
c. Radiation
d. Filtration
79. Suppose you have a sample contaminated by Salmonella spp. (D60= 0.5 min, Z value = 5°C). How long
would you achieve 12D sterilization by heating your food at 70°C?
a. 0.06 min
b. 0.6 min
c. 6 min
d. 60 min
80. Alcohols are the most widely used disinfectants. Which of the following is true?
a. The effect of disinfection of 95% ethanol is better than 75% ethanol.
b. The alcohols could effect on bacteria and their spores.
c. Isopropanol could denature proteins and dissolve membrane lipids of bacteria.
d. The primary mechanism of alcohols damage is formation of thymine dimmers in bacteria DNA.
8 1. In allosteric regulation, effector molecules usually
b. irreversibly and covalently.
a. reversibly and covalently.
d. irreversibly and noncovalently.
c. reversibly and noncovalently.
82. In the absence of externally supplied electron acceptors, many microorganisms perform internally
balanced oxidation-reduction reactions of organic compounds with the release of energy. This process
called:
a. respiration
b. fermentation
c.photosynthesis
d. anabolism
83. In a branched pathway with many end products, an abundance of one of the end products will usually
inhibit:
a. the first step in the set of pathways.
b. the first committed step in the branch of the pathway leading to the production of that particular
product.
c. the last step before the branch leading to the production of that particular end product.
d. the last step in the production of that particular product.
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84. Pathways that function both catabolically and anabolically are called amphibolic pathways. Which of the
following is not amphibolic pathways:
b. pentose phosphate pathway
a. glycolysis pathway
d. None of the choices.
c. tricarboxylic acid cycle
85. About Tricarboxylic acid cycle:
a. The prokaryotic cells processes this cycle on cell membrane and the eukaryotic cells processes this
cycle on cytoplasmic matrix.
b. The cycle generates two COz molecules, and three NADH molecules, one FADH2 and one GTP for
each glucose molecule oxidized.
c. Tricarboxylic acid cycle is inhibited while absent 02.
d. In this cycle, succinyl-CoA should be reduced to succinate and generation GTP by oxidative
phosphorylation.
86. Which of the following is not true for pentose phosphate pathway:
a. It can operate either aerobically or anaerobically.
b. It produces important intermediates for supplying vitamin B6 formation in bacteria.
c. The major electron acceptor in this pathway is FAD.
d. None of the choices.
87. According to the chemiosmotic hypothesis, energy in microorganism is synthesized by
b. enzyme phosphorylation
a. proton motive force
c. substrate-level phosphorylation
d. photo-phosphorylation
88. Paracoccus denitrijicans, a gram-negative, facultative anaerobic bacterium, could use
as electron acceptor under anaerobic condition.
b. H2S
c. C02
d. Nosa. H20
89. While culturing Saccharomyces cerevisiae with glucose under anaerobic condition, the major end
product of glucose is:
a. acetate
b. ethanol
c. lactate
d. butanol
90. Which of the following bacteria could convert light energy to chemical energy?
b. Purple nonsulfur bacteria
a. Cyanobacteria
d. All of the choices.
c. Green sulfur bacteria
91. Which of the following test could not identify the differences betweenEscherichia coli and Enterobacter
aerogenes?
b. Citrate test
c. Catalase test
d. Voges-Proskauer test
a. Indole test
92. Many bacteria produce agents that inhibit or kill closely related species are called:
a. antibiotics
b. bacteriocins
c. hemolysins
d. enterotoxins
93. About peptidoglyan synthesis of bacteria: .:
a. Ubiquinol carrier pentapeptide across membrane.
b. The formation of the peptide cross-links between adjacent glycan chains is by protein
glycosylation.
c. The reaction occurs in the ribosome.
d. During dividing bacteria, the new unit of wall material was added within openings by structure
autolysis.
94. Rhizobiurn Iegurninosarurn can use nitrogenase to convert gaseous nitrogen to:
d. glutamine
a. ammonia
b. nitrite
c. nitrate
95. Which of the following is not true for Calvin Cycle?
a. The mechanism occurs in carboxysomes in prokaryotic microbials.
b. The mechanism fixes C02 to carbohydrate.
c. The mechanism occurs in autotrophs.
d. The mechanism generates ATP by oxidative phosphorylation.
96. The plasmid curing in dividing bacteria results from:
a. non-parallel replication during dividing.
b. plasmid degradation during dividing.
c. the integration of plasmid into chromosome.
d. plasmid-plasmid fusion.
97. It is very important to preserve cultures of interest for industrial microbiology. For the longest
preservation, which of the following method could be used to keep stable microbials?
a. Mineral oil slant at refrigerator.
b. Freezing in growth media with cryopreservation agent.
c. Freeze-drying (lyophilization).
d. Periodic transfer to new media.
98. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. The fimbriae of prokaryotes are responsible for attachment or motility.
b. The membrane lipids of psychrotrophs are more unsaturated.
c. The endotoxins of bacteria often resulted from the peptidoglycan of cell wall.
d. The fungi usually grow at lower water activity condition than bacteria.
99. The secondary metabolites of microorganism are produced during:
a. lag phase
b. exponential phase
c. stationary phase
d. senescence phase
100. The major reductive amination pathway for incorporation of nitrogen into amino acids initially involves
the production of:
a. tryptophan.
b. cysteine.
c. arginine.
d. glutamate.