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STATE BUDGET EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION OF HIGHER PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION “ASTRAKHAN STATE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY” MINISTRY OF HEALTH PROTECTION OF RUSSIAN FEDERATION Bairamova A. S. Kirillova T.S. The Tests in Microbiology (it is especially for Foreign Students of Medical Specialities) Astrakhan - 2015 1 УДК:576.8 ББК:52.64 В:18 Bairamova A. S., Kirillova T.S. The Tests in Microbiology – Astrakhan, ASMU, 2015, 38 p. The tests are compiled by Bairamova A.S., Reader, Candidate of Biological Sciences, Microbiology and Virology Department of ASMU; Kirillova T.S., Doctor of Phylology, Professor, Head of Foreign Languages Department, ASMU. This booklet consists of two parts. The first one contains the tests in morphology, physiology, ecology and genetics of bacteria, viruses, fungi and protozoa and also for the division: “Fundamentals of Infection”. It reveals some questions concerning the development of infectious process and the participation of microorganisms in it. The second part contains the tests in Special Microbiology: Bacteriology, Virology and Parasitology. These tests are worked out according to academic syllabus in microbiology for medical students and are intended for foreign students. It can also be used for independent study by the students of other faculties. Reviewers: Serdyukov A.G. - Doctor of Medicine, Professor, Head of Social Health Department, ASMU; Selitskaya M.E. – reader of ASU, Honoured Professor of ASU. ISBN 978-5-4424-0120-2 The Tests are printed according to the decision of the editorial publishing council of Astrakhan State Medical University. © Bairamova A.S., Kirillova T.S. © Astrakhan State Medical University, 2015. 2 Preface Microbiology and immunology belong to basic subjects the knowledge of which is necessary to the doctors, all medical workers as these sciences help to decide important problems of clinical, medico-prophylactic and theoretical medicine. The contemporary facts prove that about 70% of all registered diseases are considered to be infectious and in the pathogenesis of many non-infectious diseases (malignant tumours, atherosclerosis, psychic, nervous, autoimmune and others) the microbes may play the direct or indirect role. So without the knowledge of microbiology and immunology it should be impossible not only to decrease the infections morbidity and to liquidate the in- hospital opportunistic infections but also to decide many problems in such important aspects of medicine as allergology, immunopathology, oncology, transplantology, obstetrics and gynecology, surgery and to decide some sanitary- hygienic and ecological questions. To make knowledge of these subjects strong it is necessary to train using tasks which are contained in this methodical work- out. They may be used by students after learning the special material. The tests are grouped into the following 2 parts: Part I includes "Morphology and structure of microorganisms", "Physiology and ecology of microorganisms", "The notion of bacteria genesis", "The Fundamentals of Infection "; Part II includes “Special microbiology – Bacteriology, Parasitology, Virology". The correct answers to each part are given at the end of the methodical work-out. 3 PART I Morphology and Structure of microorganisms 1. The founder of scientific microbiology is: a) Antony van Leeuwenhoek b) Louis Pasteur c) Alexander Flemming d) Paul Erlich 2. Using the microscopical method one can study the following properties of bacteria: a) Morphological b) Cultural c) Biochemical d) Toxigenical 3. The complex staining methods of bacteria are used for researching of: a) Movement b) Biochemical properties c) Structure of bacterial cell d) Virulence 4. The morphology of bacteria depends on: a) Nutrition medium b) Cellular wall c) Used dye d) Method of fixation of preparation 4 5. According to their shapes all bacteria are differed on: a) Bacilli, bacteria b) Rods, cocci, mycoplasmas c) Cocci, rods, spiral d) Clostridium, bacilli 6. The result of Gram stain method depends on: a) Morphology b) Structure of cytoplasmic membrane c) Nutrition medium d) Structure of cellular wall 7. The first person who discovered the microorganism was: a) Robert Koch b) Louis Pasteur c) Antony van Leeuwenhoek d) Theodor Escherich 8. The obligatory structural components of bacterial cell are (everything is correct, except): a) Cellular envelope b) Cytoplasm c) Flagella d) Nucleoid 5 9. What method is applied for staining the tuberculosis rods? a) Burri-Gins b) Ziehl-Neelsen c) Gram d) Romanowski – Giemsa 10.The spore of bacterium is: a) Extra chromosomal factor of heredity b) Method of reproduction c) Rest form d) Uncultivated form 11.What bacteria form the spore? a) Staphylococcus, rods b) Bacillus, Clostridium c) Streptococcus, Spirochaetes d) Vibrio, Actinomycetes 12.The plasmids determine: a) The formation of cellular wall b) Drug`s resistance c) Gram`s method staining d) Sizes of bacteria 13.Which agent lacks one of the nucleic acid type (DNA or RNA)? 6 a) Viruses b) Bacteria c) Fungi d) Protozoa 14.Which agent simultaneously contains both DNA and RNA? a) Bacteria b) Viruses c) Viroids d) Plasmids 15.Which structure is not a part of the bacterial cell envelope? a) Peptidoglycan b) Lipopolysacchride c) Capsule d) Flagella 16. Which component is present in a gram-negative bacteria but not in a gram-positive ones? a. Peptidoglycan b. Lipid A c. Flagella d. Capsule 17.Which component is present in a gram - positive bacteria but not in a gram- negative ones? a) Peptidoglycan 7 b) Capsule c) Flagella d) Teichoic acid 18.Bacteria that lack cell walls and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan are called: a) Spirochetes b) Chlamydiae c) Mycoplasmas d) L-forms 19.Bacteriophages are: a) Obligatory parasites of viruses b) Obligatory parasites of bacteria c) Cause of infectious diseases d) Eukaryotes 20.For reproduction of bacteriophages it may be used: a) The artificial nutrious media b) Bacterial culture c) Monoline of diploid cell d) Embryonated chick egg 21. The minimal size of microbe which could be seen through the light-optical microscope is: a. 0.2 nm b. 0.2 mcm c. 0.02 mcm d. 0.5 mcm 8 22. The immersion lens of microscope is marked with: a. red strip b. yellow strip c. blue strip d. white strip 23. Which of the microbes are the prokaryotic ones: a. viruses b. protozoa c. fungi d. bacteria 24. The obligatory structural components of bacterial cell are: a. capsule b. plasmids c. inclusion bodies d. ribosomes 25. Which of the microbes are the eukaryotic one: a. viruses b. protozoa c. bacteriophages d. bacteria 26. Bacterial cell includes: a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. ribosomes 70S d. ribosomes 80S 9 27. The differentiation of bacterial cell wall type is occurred on the next step of Gram staining method: a. staining of the smear with crystal-violet b. staining of the smear with solution of Lugol c. washing of the smear with 95o alcohol d. staining of the smear with fuchsin 28. The spore-forming bacteria are: a. Vibrio b. Bacillus c. Mycobacterium d. Staphylococcus 29. Sizes of the different types of virions vary: a. from 25 to 300 nm b. from 100 to 1000 nm c. from 0.5 to 1 mcm d. from 1 to 10 mcm 30. The strucrural components of the viruses are: a. both RNA and DNA b. ribosome c. plasmid d. capsid 10 Physiology and Ecology of microorganisms. Basic elements of bacteria genetics 31. The growth rate of bacteria during the exponential phase is: a. Zero b. Increasing c. Constant d. Decreasing 32. The growth rate of bacteria during the maximum stationary phase of growth is: a. Zero b. Increasing c. Constant d. Decreasing 33. Most microorganisms pathogenic for human being grow the best in the laboratory when cultures are incubated at: a. 15-20oC b. 20-30oC c. 30-37oC d. 38-40oC 34. The ability to use compounds and ions instead oxygen as terminal oxidants in respiration is a widespread microbial trait. This capacity is called: a. Photosynthesis 11 b. Anaerobic respiration c. Substrate phosphorylation d. Nitrogen fixation 35. Mutation in bacteria can occur with the help of the following mechanisms: a. Base substitutions b. Deletions c. Insertions d. All of the above 36. The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is: a. Transformation b. Conjugation c. Transduction d. Horizontal transfer 37. The formation of a matching pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires: a. Lyses of the donor b. A sex pilus c. Transfer of both strands of DNA d. Integration of a transposon 38. The total destruction of all microorganisms on some object is called: a. Aseptics 12 b. Antiseptics c. Disinfection d. Sterilization 39. The destruction of definite group of pathogenic microorganisms in environment is called: a. Aseptics b. Antiseptics c. Disinfection d. Sterilization 40. The measure system that prevents the germ penetration into the tissues of the human organism from environment is named: a. Aseptics b. Antiseptics c. Disinfection d. Sterilization 41. The bactericidal effect of all disinfectants is increased with the amount of concentration, except: a. Chloramine b. H2O2 c. Phenol d. 70o ethanol 42. The microbes are killed in a steam sterilizer – autoclave by following factor: a. Pressure 13 b. Temperature c. Steam d. Gamma-rays 43. The nutrition medium which is used for the definite species isolation is called: a. Liquid b. Selective c. Solid d. Differential 44. The nutrition medium which is used for biochemical identification of bacteria is called: a. Liquid b. Selective c. Solid d. Differential 45. The nutrition medium for cultivation of certain microorganisms is chosen according to: a. Antigen structure b. Morphology c. Physiology d. Virulence 46. The technique for getting of pure culture is: a. mechanical disassociation of bacterial cells in a solid medium b. inoculation in the “color row” 14 c. using of the liquid medium only d. infection of sensitive laboratory animals only 47. According to their optimal temperature the clinical significant microorganisms are: a. Thermopiles b. Psychrophiles c. Mesophiles d. Aero tolerance 48. According to type of anabolism most of the clinical significant bacteria are: a. autotrophy b. heterotrophy c. aerobes d. anaerobes 49. Obligate anaerobes are: a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Enterobacteria d. Clostridium 50. The culture media which are belonged to simple (basic) ones are: a. Endo agar, Giss media b. bismuth sulfite agar, yolk salt medium 15 c. nutritious agar, nutritious broth d. blood agar, chocolate agar 51. The culture media which are belonged to the differential ones are: a. Endo agar, Giss media b. bismuth sulfite agar, yolk salt medium c. nutritious agar, nutritious broth d. blood agar, chocolate agar 52. How many of agar is it necessary to add into the liquid medium for getting solid one? a. 0.3 - 0.7% b. 0.7 – 1.0% c. 1.5 – 2.0% d. 3.0 – 4.0% 53. What culture media are used for definition of saccharolytical properties of bacteria? a. Giss media b. nutritious agar c. nutritious broth d. blood agar 54. The single species of bacterial population that is grown in a cultural media is called: 16 a. colony b. clone c. pure culture d. strain 55. The bacterial cell conglomeration on the solid culture media is called: a. colony b. clone c. pure culture d. strain 56. The pathogenic bacteria belong to the following group according to their optimal temperature for growth: a. psychrophilic b. mesophilic c. thermophilic d. halophilic 57. The nutrition media are sterilized by means of: a. dry heat b. boil c. UV-rays d. Autoclave 58. What method is used for sterilization of laboratory dishes and instruments? a. boil b. dry heat 17 c. thermostate d. pasteurization 59. The extrachromosomal genetic elements of heredity are: a. prophages b. insertion sequences (ISelements) c. transposons d. plasmids 60. The transmission of genetic material from one bacterial cell to another by means of bacteriophages is called: a. transformation b. transduction c. conjugation d..mutations Fundamentals of Infection 61. The main pathogenic factors of Gram-negative bacteria are: a. Spore b. Endotoxin c..Cell inclusions d. Flagella 62. The main virulence factors most of Gram-positive bacteria are: 18 a. b. c. d. Cell shape Spore Endotoxin Exotoxin 63. The measure of microbial pathogenicity is: a. virulence b. specificity c. parasitism d. commensalism 64. The natural reservoir of infection may be the: a. dirty dishes b. bacteria carrier c. food products d. toys 65. The organism state by which bacteria are reproduced in bloodstream is called: a. exoinfection b. endoinfection c. bacteremia d. sepsis 66. The secondary infection that is occurred by the same germ after recovering is called: a. monoinfection b. superinfection c. reinfection d. relaps 19 67. Name the form of infectious process in which germ presence in host organism long time but doesn’t appear any pathogenic properties and doesn’t excrete in environmental: a. bacteria carry b. latent infection c. long-lasting infection d. acute infection 68. Name the factors promoting colonization of bacteria in host organism: a. bacteriocins b. adhesions c. endotoxin d. Ig-A protease 69. Name the invasion factors of bacteria: a. hyaluronidase b. coagulase c. peptidoglycan d. endotoxin 70. Sign the quality of exotoxin: a. found only in gram-negative bacteria b. weakly immunogenic c. highly toxic and specific for cell-target d. not converted to toxoid 20 PART II SPECIAL MICROBIOLOGY: BACTERIOLOGY, VIROLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY 1. Indicate the basic pathogenic factor of Staphylococcus aureus a) erithrogenic toxin b) plasmocoagulase c) catalase d) beta-lactamase 2. Latin name of gonorrhea germ is … 3. What property doesn’t have the gonococcus? a) Gram-negative diplococci b) Gram-positive chains c) the low resistance in environment d) the absence of growth on the simple nutritious media 4. Latin name the most virulent species of genus Streptococcus is … 5. What medium is applied for growing Bordetella pertussis ? a) yolk salt agar 21 b) casein-charcoal agar c) simple nutritious agar d) bismuth sulphite agar 6. Latin name the most virulent species of genus Staphylococcus is … 7. What symptom is not present in whooping cough disease (pertussis)? a) inflammation of back wall pharynx mucous b) paroxysmal coughing c) diarrhea d) fever 8. According to the oxygen utilization the germ of tetanus is: a) strong aerobe b) strong anaerobe c) microaerophyle d) facultative anaerobe 9. The source of anaerobic clostridia infection is: a) sick man b) sick animal c) carriers – man or animal d) soil 22 10. Latin names of pathogenic clostridium species are … 11. The following symptoms as trismus, muscle constriction, opisthotonus may be the signs of: a) gas gangrene b) gonorrhea c) tetanus d) botulism 12. The germs of tuberculosis are: a) encapsulated b) spore forming c) rapidly growing d) acid-fast 13. Latin name of tuberculosis germ is … 14. The method of leprosy germ cultivation is: a) simple nutritious media cultivation b) complex nutrious media cultivation c) rabbits inoculation d) armadillos inoculation 15. Sign the incorrect statement concerning Escherichia coli: a) Gram-negative rod b) doesn’t grow on the simple nutritious media 23 c) biochemically active d) peritrichous 16. What kind of medium is applied for the primary isolation of Salmonella? a) Endo – medium b) milk-salt agar c) simple nutritious agar d) bismuth sulphite agar 17. Latin name of typhoid fever (typhus abdominalis) germ is … 18. The bacteremia is the characteristic stage of: a) Cholera b) Shigellosis c) Typhoid Fever d) Escherichiosis 19. The method of cholera express-diagnosis is: a) Gram-staining method b) the solid media inoculation c) agglutination reaction d) immunofluorescence reaction 20.For specific prophylaxis of anthrax may be applied by: a) alive vaccine b) inactive vaccine 24 c) anatoxin (toxoid) d) specific bacteriophages 21. Latin name of anthrax germ is … 22. Sign the morphological properties of plague germ: a) Gram-positive spore forming rod b) Gram-negative lengthy rod c) Gram-negative bipolar ovoid rod d) Gram-negative diplococcus 23. The source of brucellosis infection is: a) sick man b) sick animal c) carriers – man or animal d) soil 24. The primary period of syphilis is characterized by the following symptom: a) maculopapular rash anywhere on the bode b) high temperature c) ulcer at the site of infection (hard chancre) d) syphilitic hepatitis 25. The germ of Lyme Disease has the following property: a) Gram-negative short rod 25 b) Gram-negative spiral bacteria with the few large irregular flexures c) immovable d) pink by Romanowski – Giemsa’s method 26. What method is used for the laboratory diagnosis during secondary period of syphilis? a) microscopic method b) serologic one c) bacteriologic one d) biological one 27. Latin name of syphilis germ is … 28. The basic method of staphylococci infection diagnosis is: a) microscopic method b) bacteriologic one c) serologic one d) allergic one 29. The basic virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes is: a) urease b) capsule c) protein M d) oxidase 26 30. What property isn’t characterized in meningococcus? a) high resistance in environment b) encapsulate c) growth on complex nutritious media containing blood or serum d) Gram-negative diplococci 31. Latin name of epidemic meningitis germ is … 32. Latin name of Lyme Disease germ is … 33. What nutritious medium is used for Corynebacterium diphtheria cultivation? a) McConky agar b) milk salt agar c) tellurite blood agar d) Lowenstein-Jensen selective medium 34. What kind of symptom is not typical one for diphtheria? a) close film (or “pseudomembrane”) forming over tonsils, pharynx or larynx b) fever c) sore throat d) diarrhea 35. What immunobiological preparation should be applied for the planned prophylaxis of tetanus? 27 a) b) c) d) antibiotics tetanus immunoglobulin (antitoxin) tetanus toxoid (anatoxin) inactivated vaccine 36. The paralysis of voluntary muscles is developed in: a) scarlet fever b) tuberculosis c) gas gangrene d) botulism 37. The pathogenic factor of tuberculosis germ is: a) exotoxin b) endotoxin c) cord-factor d) acid-fast 38. The organ injured by leprosy germ is: a) peripheral nerves and skin b) lungs c) gut d) bones 39. The advantage of bacteriological method is: a) trustworthy b) fast result c) safety for personal d) lasting long 28 40. Sign incorrect statement concerning Shigella: a) Presence of endotoxin and exotoxin b) Gran-negative rod c) peritrichous d) ferment of glucose 41. What kind of method isn’t used for diagnosis of Typhoid Fever? a) serological method b) hemoculture one c) coproculture one d) microscopic one 42. The clinic symptom of Cholera is: a) fever b) bloody diarrhea c) profuse diarrhea d) rash 43. The natural reservoir of Vibrio cholera is: a) water b) soil c) air d) animal 44. Sign the incorrect thing for anthrax germ property: a) large Gram-positive rod b) presence of capsule 29 c) spore forming rod d) low resistance in environment 45. The plague rods grow on the solid nutrition media like: a) S-form of colony b) R-form of colony c) Mucous colony d) Creepers growth 46. Borrelia are germs of: a) syphilis b) Lyme disease c) Q – fever d) whooping cough 47. The property that characterizes secondary period of syphilis is: a) regional lymph nodes increasing b) breaking down internal organs c) development of granulomatous lesion (gummas) d) forming of ulcer (hard chancre) 48. Sign the most specific serological reaction in diagnosis of syphilis: a) Wasserman’s reaction b) micro precipitation reaction with cardiolipin antigen 30 c) immunofluorescence reaction d) agglutination reaction 49. Sign the incorrect statement concerning the germ of epidemic typhus: a) morphological polymorphism b) readily growth on cultural media c) readily multiply in yolk bag of hen’s embryos d) readily multiply in cell culture 50. Which kind of Protozoa can cause the intrauterine infection of fetus? a) Toxoplasma b) Plasmodium malaria c) Leishmania d) Entamoeba histolytica 51. The final host of Toxoplasma gondii is: a) human b) bird c) cat d) cattle 52. Latin names of germs cause the cutaneous leishmaniasis is … 53. Latin name of germ causes the visceral leishmaniasis is … 31 54. This is characterized the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica: a. the presence of flagella b. the presence of 4 nuclei c. the presence of 8 nuclei d. the presence of LPS (lipopolysaccharid) 55. Use the method for laboratory microbiologic diagnosis of malaria: a) feces microscopy b) cultural isolation of germ from nutritious medium c) inoculation into the yolk bag of hen’s embryos d) peripheral blood smears microscopy 56.Which of the following parasites is the germ of visceral leishmaniasis: a) Leishmania major b) Leishmania tropica c) Leishmania brasiliensis d) Leishmania donovani 57. The genome of influenza virus contains: a) negative-sense single-stranded segmented RNA b) positive-sense single linear RNA c) circular DNA d) diploid single-stranded RNA 32 58.Rabies occurs after: a) eating of not enough boiled meat b) inhalation of infected air c) sexual contact d) biting of sick animal 59. What is used for the specific prophylacxis of hepatitis B: a) living vaccine b) inactivated vaccine c) recombinant vaccine d) toxoid 60. Measles is characterized by the following symptoms: a) jaundice, increasing of liver and spleen b) inflammation of salivary glands c) rash d) paralysis 61. What quality isn’t characterized by delta-virus: a) defective RNA containing virus b) multiplies together with HBV c) causes infectious disease together with HBV d) causes infectious disease itself 62. Brill-Zinsser disease is connected with: a) endemic typhus 33 b) relapse of epidemic typhus c) spotted fever d) Q fever 63. What quality is the characteristic of malaria: a) fever, anemia, destroying circulation of the blood b) diarrhea, abdominal pain, blooded feces c) lymphatic nodes increasing, meningoencephalitis d) skin ulcer, necrosis, hard scar 64. Hydrophobia, aerophobia, hallucination, excitement are the symptoms of: a) influenza b) measles c) poliomyelitis d) rabies 65.The target cells for HIV are: a) T lymphocytes helpers b) T lymphocytes killers c) B lymphocytes d) erythrocytes 66.What kind of viruses aren’t the represents of genus Enterovirus: a) Coxsackie-viruses b) polioviruses 34 c) ECHO viruses d) hepatitis A virus 67. The advantage of serological method is: a) Trustworthy b) The ability of early using c) safety for personal d) lasting long 68. The disadvantage of bacteriological method is: a) Trustwirthy b) The ability of early using c) safety for personal d) lasting long 69. Methods of laboratory diagnosis of viral infections do not include: a) microscopy b) Culture system c) Allergy reaction d) Indication of specific site of nucleic acids 70.The way of transmission of Q-fever is: a) fecai-oral b) respiratory c) vector-borne transmission d) all written above 35 ANSWERS TO TESTS PART I Morphology and Structure of microorganisms 1b, 2a, 3c, 4b, 5c, 6d, 7d, 8c, 9b, 10c, 11b, 12b, 13a, 14a, 15d, 16b, 17d, 18c, 19b, 20b, 21b, 22d, 23d, 24d, 25b, 26c, 27c, 28b, 29a, 30d. Physiology and Ecology of microorganisms Basic elements of bacteria genetics 31c, 32d, 33c, 34b, 35d, 36c, 37b, 38d, 39c, 40a, 41d, 42b, 43b, 44d, 45c, 46a, 47c, 48b, 49d, 50c, 51a, 52c, 53a, 54c, 55a, 56b, 57d, 58b, 59d, 60b. Fundamentals of Infection 61b, 62d, 63a, 64b, 65c, 66c, 67b, 68b, 69a, 70c. 36 PART II Special Microbiology: Bacteriology, Virology and Parasitology 1b, 2 Neisseria gonorrhoeae, 3b, 4 Streptococcus pyogenes, 5b, 6 Staphylococcus aureus, 7c, 8b, 9d, 10 Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum, 11c, 12d, 13 Mycobacterium tuberculosis, 14d, 15b, 16d,17 Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, 18c, 19d, 20a, 21 Bacillus anthracis, 22c, 23b, 24c, 25b, 26b, 27 Treponema pallidum, 28b, 29c, 30a, 31 Nesseria meningitides, 32 Borrelia burgdorferi, 33c, 34d, 35c, 36d, 37c, 38a, 39a, 40c, 41d, 42c, 43a, 44d, 45b, 46b, 47b, 48c, 49b, 50a, 51c, 52 Leishmania tropica, Leishmania major, 53 Leishmania donovani, 54b, 55d, 56d, 57a, 58d, 59c, 60c, 61d, 62b, 63a, 64d, 65a, 66d, 67a, 68d, 69c, 70d. 37 Bairamova Alla Semyenovna Kirillova Tatyana Sergeevna The Tests in Microbiology (it is especially for Foreign Students of Medical Specialities) Технический редактор – Нигдыров В.Б. ISBN 978-5-4424-0120-2 Подписано к печати 29.01.2015г. Гарнитура Times New Roman. Формат Уч. печ. л. – 2,2 Заказ № 3931 Тираж 150 экз. ___________________________________________________ Издательство Астраханского государственного медицинского университета 414000, г. Астрахань, ул. Бакинская, 121 ____________________________________________________________________ 38 39