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STATE BUDGET EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION OF
HIGHER PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION
“ASTRAKHAN STATE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY”
MINISTRY OF HEALTH PROTECTION
OF RUSSIAN FEDERATION
Bairamova A. S.
Kirillova T.S.
The Tests in Microbiology
(it is especially for Foreign Students of Medical Specialities)
Astrakhan - 2015
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Bairamova A. S., Kirillova T.S. The Tests in Microbiology
– Astrakhan, ASMU, 2015, 38 p.
The tests are compiled by Bairamova A.S., Reader, Candidate of Biological Sciences, Microbiology and Virology Department of ASMU; Kirillova T.S., Doctor of Phylology, Professor,
Head of Foreign Languages Department, ASMU.
This booklet consists of two parts. The first one contains the
tests in morphology, physiology, ecology and genetics of bacteria,
viruses, fungi and protozoa and also for the division: “Fundamentals of Infection”. It reveals some questions concerning the development of infectious process and the participation of microorganisms in it. The second part contains the tests in Special Microbiology: Bacteriology, Virology and Parasitology. These tests are
worked out according to academic syllabus in microbiology for
medical students and are intended for foreign students. It can also
be used for independent study by the students of other faculties.
Reviewers:
Serdyukov A.G. - Doctor of Medicine, Professor, Head of Social
Health Department, ASMU;
Selitskaya M.E. – reader of ASU, Honoured Professor of ASU.
ISBN 978-5-4424-0120-2
The Tests are printed according to the decision of the editorial publishing council of Astrakhan State Medical University.
© Bairamova A.S., Kirillova T.S.
© Astrakhan State Medical University, 2015.
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Preface
Microbiology and immunology belong to basic subjects the knowledge of which is necessary to the doctors,
all medical workers as these sciences help to decide important problems of clinical, medico-prophylactic and theoretical medicine.
The contemporary facts prove that about 70% of all
registered diseases are considered to be infectious and in
the pathogenesis of many non-infectious diseases (malignant tumours, atherosclerosis, psychic, nervous, autoimmune and others) the microbes may play the direct or indirect role.
So without the knowledge of microbiology and immunology it should be impossible not only to decrease the
infections morbidity and to liquidate the in- hospital opportunistic infections but also to decide many problems in
such important aspects of medicine as allergology, immunopathology, oncology, transplantology, obstetrics and
gynecology, surgery and to decide some sanitary- hygienic
and ecological questions.
To make knowledge of these subjects strong it is
necessary to train using tasks which are contained in this
methodical work- out. They may be used by students after
learning the special material. The tests are grouped into
the following 2 parts: Part I includes "Morphology and
structure of microorganisms", "Physiology and ecology of
microorganisms", "The notion of bacteria genesis", "The
Fundamentals of Infection "; Part II includes “Special microbiology – Bacteriology, Parasitology, Virology".
The correct answers to each part are given at the end
of the methodical work-out.
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PART I
Morphology and Structure of microorganisms
1. The founder of scientific microbiology is:
a) Antony van Leeuwenhoek
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Alexander Flemming
d) Paul Erlich
2. Using the microscopical method one can study the
following properties of bacteria:
a) Morphological
b) Cultural
c) Biochemical
d) Toxigenical
3. The complex staining methods of bacteria are used
for researching of:
a) Movement
b) Biochemical properties
c) Structure of bacterial cell
d) Virulence
4. The morphology of bacteria depends on:
a) Nutrition medium
b) Cellular wall
c) Used dye
d) Method of fixation of preparation
4
5. According to their shapes all bacteria are differed
on:
a) Bacilli, bacteria
b) Rods, cocci, mycoplasmas
c) Cocci, rods, spiral
d) Clostridium, bacilli
6. The result of Gram stain method depends on:
a) Morphology
b) Structure of cytoplasmic
membrane
c) Nutrition medium
d) Structure of cellular wall
7. The first person who discovered the microorganism was:
a) Robert Koch
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Antony van Leeuwenhoek
d) Theodor Escherich
8. The obligatory structural components of bacterial
cell are (everything is correct, except):
a) Cellular envelope
b) Cytoplasm
c) Flagella
d) Nucleoid
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9. What method is applied for staining the tuberculosis rods?
a) Burri-Gins
b) Ziehl-Neelsen
c) Gram
d) Romanowski – Giemsa
10.The spore of bacterium is:
a) Extra chromosomal factor of
heredity
b) Method of reproduction
c) Rest form
d) Uncultivated form
11.What bacteria form the spore?
a) Staphylococcus, rods
b) Bacillus, Clostridium
c) Streptococcus, Spirochaetes
d) Vibrio, Actinomycetes
12.The plasmids determine:
a) The formation of cellular
wall
b) Drug`s resistance
c) Gram`s method staining
d) Sizes of bacteria
13.Which agent lacks one of the nucleic acid type
(DNA or RNA)?
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a) Viruses
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Protozoa
14.Which agent simultaneously contains both DNA
and RNA?
a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Viroids
d) Plasmids
15.Which structure is not a part of the bacterial cell
envelope?
a) Peptidoglycan
b) Lipopolysacchride
c) Capsule
d) Flagella
16. Which component is present in a gram-negative
bacteria but not in a gram-positive ones?
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipid A
c. Flagella
d. Capsule
17.Which component is present in a gram - positive
bacteria but not in a gram- negative ones?
a) Peptidoglycan
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b) Capsule
c) Flagella
d) Teichoic acid
18.Bacteria that lack cell walls and do not synthesize
the precursors of peptidoglycan are called:
a) Spirochetes
b) Chlamydiae
c) Mycoplasmas
d) L-forms
19.Bacteriophages are:
a) Obligatory parasites of viruses
b) Obligatory parasites of bacteria
c) Cause of infectious diseases
d) Eukaryotes
20.For reproduction of bacteriophages it may be used:
a) The artificial nutrious media
b) Bacterial culture
c) Monoline of diploid cell
d) Embryonated chick egg
21. The minimal size of microbe which could be seen
through the light-optical microscope is:
a. 0.2 nm
b. 0.2 mcm
c. 0.02 mcm
d. 0.5 mcm
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22. The immersion lens of microscope is marked with:
a. red strip
b. yellow strip
c. blue strip
d. white strip
23. Which of the microbes are the prokaryotic ones:
a. viruses
b. protozoa
c. fungi
d. bacteria
24. The obligatory structural components of bacterial
cell are:
a. capsule
b. plasmids
c. inclusion bodies
d. ribosomes
25. Which of the microbes are the eukaryotic one:
a. viruses
b. protozoa
c. bacteriophages
d. bacteria
26. Bacterial cell includes:
a. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
c. ribosomes 70S
d. ribosomes 80S
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27. The differentiation of bacterial cell wall type is
occurred on the next step of Gram staining method:
a. staining of the smear with crystal-violet
b. staining of the smear with solution of Lugol
c. washing of the smear with 95o
alcohol
d. staining of the smear with fuchsin
28. The spore-forming bacteria are:
a. Vibrio
b. Bacillus
c. Mycobacterium
d. Staphylococcus
29. Sizes of the different types of virions vary:
a. from 25 to 300 nm
b. from 100 to 1000 nm
c. from 0.5 to 1 mcm
d. from 1 to 10 mcm
30. The strucrural components of the viruses are:
a. both RNA and DNA
b. ribosome
c. plasmid
d. capsid
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Physiology and Ecology of microorganisms.
Basic elements of bacteria genetics
31. The growth rate of bacteria during the exponential
phase is:
a. Zero
b. Increasing
c. Constant
d. Decreasing
32. The growth rate of bacteria during the maximum
stationary phase of growth is:
a. Zero
b. Increasing
c. Constant
d. Decreasing
33. Most microorganisms pathogenic for human being
grow the best in the laboratory when cultures are
incubated at:
a. 15-20oC
b. 20-30oC
c. 30-37oC
d. 38-40oC
34. The ability to use compounds and ions instead oxygen as terminal oxidants in respiration is a widespread microbial trait. This capacity is called:
a. Photosynthesis
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b. Anaerobic respiration
c. Substrate phosphorylation
d. Nitrogen fixation
35. Mutation in bacteria can occur with the help of the
following mechanisms:
a. Base substitutions
b. Deletions
c. Insertions
d. All of the above
36. The form of genetic exchange in which donor
DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is:
a. Transformation
b. Conjugation
c. Transduction
d. Horizontal transfer
37. The formation of a matching pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires:
a. Lyses of the donor
b. A sex pilus
c. Transfer of both strands of DNA
d. Integration of a transposon
38. The total destruction of all microorganisms on
some object is called:
a. Aseptics
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b. Antiseptics
c. Disinfection
d. Sterilization
39. The destruction of definite group of pathogenic
microorganisms in environment is called:
a. Aseptics
b. Antiseptics
c. Disinfection
d. Sterilization
40. The measure system that prevents the germ penetration into the tissues of the human organism
from environment is named:
a. Aseptics
b. Antiseptics
c. Disinfection
d. Sterilization
41. The bactericidal effect of all disinfectants is increased with the amount of concentration, except:
a. Chloramine
b. H2O2
c. Phenol
d. 70o ethanol
42. The microbes are killed in a steam sterilizer – autoclave by following factor:
a. Pressure
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b. Temperature
c. Steam
d. Gamma-rays
43. The nutrition medium which is used for the definite species isolation is called:
a. Liquid
b. Selective
c. Solid
d. Differential
44. The nutrition medium which is used for biochemical identification of bacteria is called:
a. Liquid
b. Selective
c. Solid
d. Differential
45. The nutrition medium for cultivation of certain
microorganisms is chosen according to:
a. Antigen structure
b. Morphology
c. Physiology
d. Virulence
46. The technique for getting of pure culture is:
a. mechanical disassociation of
bacterial cells in a solid medium
b. inoculation in the “color row”
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c. using of the liquid medium only
d. infection of sensitive laboratory
animals only
47. According to their optimal temperature the clinical
significant microorganisms are:
a. Thermopiles
b. Psychrophiles
c. Mesophiles
d. Aero tolerance
48. According to type of anabolism most of the clinical significant bacteria are:
a. autotrophy
b. heterotrophy
c. aerobes
d. anaerobes
49. Obligate anaerobes are:
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Enterobacteria
d. Clostridium
50. The culture media which are belonged to simple
(basic) ones are:
a. Endo agar, Giss media
b. bismuth sulfite agar, yolk salt
medium
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c. nutritious agar, nutritious
broth
d. blood agar, chocolate agar
51. The culture media which are belonged to the differential ones are:
a. Endo agar, Giss media
b. bismuth sulfite agar, yolk salt
medium
c. nutritious agar, nutritious
broth
d. blood agar, chocolate agar
52. How many of agar is it necessary to add into the
liquid medium for getting solid one?
a. 0.3 - 0.7%
b. 0.7 – 1.0%
c. 1.5 – 2.0%
d. 3.0 – 4.0%
53. What culture media are used for definition of saccharolytical properties of bacteria?
a. Giss media
b. nutritious agar
c. nutritious broth
d. blood agar
54. The single species of bacterial population that is
grown in a cultural media is called:
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a. colony
b. clone
c. pure culture
d. strain
55. The bacterial cell conglomeration on the solid culture media is called:
a. colony
b. clone
c. pure culture
d. strain
56. The pathogenic bacteria belong to the following
group according to their optimal temperature for
growth:
a. psychrophilic
b. mesophilic
c. thermophilic
d. halophilic
57. The nutrition media are sterilized by means of:
a. dry heat
b. boil
c. UV-rays
d. Autoclave
58. What method is used for sterilization of laboratory
dishes and instruments?
a. boil
b. dry heat
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c. thermostate
d. pasteurization
59. The extrachromosomal genetic elements of heredity are:
a. prophages
b. insertion sequences (ISelements)
c. transposons
d. plasmids
60. The transmission of genetic material from one
bacterial cell to another by means of bacteriophages
is called:
a. transformation
b. transduction
c. conjugation
d..mutations
Fundamentals of Infection
61. The main pathogenic factors of Gram-negative
bacteria are:
a. Spore
b. Endotoxin
c..Cell inclusions
d. Flagella
62. The main virulence factors most of Gram-positive
bacteria are:
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Cell shape
Spore
Endotoxin
Exotoxin
63. The measure of microbial pathogenicity is:
a. virulence
b. specificity
c. parasitism
d. commensalism
64. The natural reservoir of infection may be the:
a. dirty dishes
b. bacteria carrier
c. food products
d. toys
65. The organism state by which bacteria are reproduced in bloodstream is called:
a. exoinfection
b. endoinfection
c. bacteremia
d. sepsis
66. The secondary infection that is occurred by the
same germ after recovering is called:
a. monoinfection
b. superinfection
c. reinfection
d. relaps
19
67. Name the form of infectious process in which
germ presence in host organism long time but
doesn’t appear any pathogenic properties and
doesn’t excrete in environmental:
a. bacteria carry
b. latent infection
c. long-lasting infection
d. acute infection
68. Name the factors promoting colonization of bacteria in host organism:
a. bacteriocins
b. adhesions
c. endotoxin
d. Ig-A protease
69. Name the invasion factors of bacteria:
a. hyaluronidase
b. coagulase
c. peptidoglycan
d. endotoxin
70. Sign the quality of exotoxin:
a. found only in gram-negative
bacteria
b. weakly immunogenic
c. highly toxic and specific for
cell-target
d. not converted to toxoid
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PART II
SPECIAL MICROBIOLOGY:
BACTERIOLOGY,
VIROLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
1. Indicate the basic pathogenic factor of Staphylococcus aureus
a) erithrogenic toxin
b) plasmocoagulase
c) catalase
d) beta-lactamase
2. Latin name of gonorrhea germ is …
3. What property doesn’t have the gonococcus?
a) Gram-negative diplococci
b) Gram-positive chains
c) the low resistance in environment
d) the absence of growth on the simple nutritious media
4. Latin name the most virulent species of genus
Streptococcus is …
5. What medium is applied for growing Bordetella
pertussis ?
a) yolk salt agar
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b) casein-charcoal agar
c) simple nutritious agar
d) bismuth sulphite agar
6. Latin name the most virulent species of genus
Staphylococcus is …
7. What symptom is not present in whooping cough
disease (pertussis)?
a) inflammation of back wall pharynx mucous
b) paroxysmal coughing
c) diarrhea
d) fever
8. According to the oxygen utilization the germ of
tetanus is:
a) strong aerobe
b) strong anaerobe
c) microaerophyle
d) facultative anaerobe
9. The source of anaerobic clostridia infection is:
a) sick man
b) sick animal
c) carriers – man or animal
d) soil
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10. Latin names of pathogenic clostridium species are
…
11. The following symptoms as trismus, muscle constriction, opisthotonus may be the signs of:
a) gas gangrene
b) gonorrhea
c) tetanus
d) botulism
12. The germs of tuberculosis are:
a) encapsulated
b) spore forming
c) rapidly growing
d) acid-fast
13. Latin name of tuberculosis germ is …
14. The method of leprosy germ cultivation is:
a) simple nutritious media cultivation
b) complex nutrious media cultivation
c) rabbits inoculation
d) armadillos inoculation
15. Sign the incorrect statement concerning Escherichia coli:
a) Gram-negative rod
b) doesn’t grow on the simple nutritious
media
23
c) biochemically active
d) peritrichous
16. What kind of medium is applied for the primary
isolation of Salmonella?
a) Endo – medium
b) milk-salt agar
c) simple nutritious agar
d) bismuth sulphite agar
17. Latin name of typhoid fever (typhus abdominalis)
germ is …
18. The bacteremia is the characteristic stage of:
a) Cholera
b) Shigellosis
c) Typhoid Fever
d) Escherichiosis
19. The method of cholera express-diagnosis is:
a) Gram-staining method
b) the solid media inoculation
c) agglutination reaction
d) immunofluorescence reaction
20.For specific prophylaxis of anthrax may be applied by:
a) alive vaccine
b) inactive vaccine
24
c) anatoxin (toxoid)
d) specific bacteriophages
21. Latin name of anthrax germ is …
22. Sign the morphological properties of plague germ:
a) Gram-positive spore forming rod
b) Gram-negative lengthy rod
c) Gram-negative bipolar ovoid rod
d) Gram-negative diplococcus
23. The source of brucellosis infection is:
a) sick man
b) sick animal
c) carriers – man or animal
d) soil
24. The primary period of syphilis is characterized by
the following symptom:
a) maculopapular rash anywhere on the
bode
b) high temperature
c) ulcer at the site of infection (hard chancre)
d) syphilitic hepatitis
25. The germ of Lyme Disease has the following
property:
a) Gram-negative short rod
25
b) Gram-negative spiral bacteria with the
few large irregular flexures
c) immovable
d) pink by Romanowski – Giemsa’s method
26. What method is used for the laboratory diagnosis
during secondary period of syphilis?
a) microscopic method
b) serologic one
c) bacteriologic one
d) biological one
27. Latin name of syphilis germ is …
28. The basic method of staphylococci infection diagnosis is:
a) microscopic method
b) bacteriologic one
c) serologic one
d) allergic one
29. The basic virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes is:
a) urease
b) capsule
c) protein M
d) oxidase
26
30. What property isn’t characterized in meningococcus?
a) high resistance in environment
b) encapsulate
c) growth on complex nutritious media containing blood or serum
d) Gram-negative diplococci
31. Latin name of epidemic meningitis germ is …
32. Latin name of Lyme Disease germ is …
33. What nutritious medium is used for Corynebacterium diphtheria cultivation?
a) McConky agar
b) milk salt agar
c) tellurite blood agar
d) Lowenstein-Jensen selective medium
34. What kind of symptom is not typical one for diphtheria?
a) close film (or “pseudomembrane”) forming over tonsils, pharynx or larynx
b) fever
c) sore throat
d) diarrhea
35. What immunobiological preparation should be
applied for the planned prophylaxis of tetanus?
27
a)
b)
c)
d)
antibiotics
tetanus immunoglobulin (antitoxin)
tetanus toxoid (anatoxin)
inactivated vaccine
36. The paralysis of voluntary muscles is developed
in:
a) scarlet fever
b) tuberculosis
c) gas gangrene
d) botulism
37. The pathogenic factor of tuberculosis germ is:
a) exotoxin
b) endotoxin
c) cord-factor
d) acid-fast
38. The organ injured by leprosy germ is:
a) peripheral nerves and skin
b) lungs
c) gut
d) bones
39. The advantage of bacteriological method is:
a) trustworthy
b) fast result
c) safety for personal
d) lasting long
28
40. Sign incorrect statement concerning Shigella:
a) Presence of endotoxin and exotoxin
b) Gran-negative rod
c) peritrichous
d) ferment of glucose
41. What kind of method isn’t used for diagnosis of
Typhoid Fever?
a) serological method
b) hemoculture one
c) coproculture one
d) microscopic one
42. The clinic symptom of Cholera is:
a) fever
b) bloody diarrhea
c) profuse diarrhea
d) rash
43. The natural reservoir of Vibrio cholera is:
a) water
b) soil
c) air
d) animal
44. Sign the incorrect thing for anthrax germ property:
a) large Gram-positive rod
b) presence of capsule
29
c) spore forming rod
d) low resistance in environment
45. The plague rods grow on the solid nutrition media
like:
a) S-form of colony
b) R-form of colony
c) Mucous colony
d) Creepers growth
46. Borrelia are germs of:
a) syphilis
b) Lyme disease
c) Q – fever
d) whooping cough
47. The property that characterizes secondary period
of syphilis is:
a) regional lymph nodes increasing
b) breaking down internal organs
c) development of granulomatous lesion
(gummas)
d) forming of ulcer (hard chancre)
48. Sign the most specific serological reaction in diagnosis of syphilis:
a) Wasserman’s reaction
b) micro precipitation reaction with cardiolipin antigen
30
c) immunofluorescence reaction
d) agglutination reaction
49. Sign the incorrect statement concerning the germ
of epidemic typhus:
a) morphological polymorphism
b) readily growth on cultural media
c) readily multiply in yolk bag of hen’s embryos
d) readily multiply in cell culture
50. Which kind of Protozoa can cause the intrauterine
infection of fetus?
a) Toxoplasma
b) Plasmodium malaria
c) Leishmania
d) Entamoeba histolytica
51. The final host of Toxoplasma gondii is:
a) human
b) bird
c) cat
d) cattle
52. Latin names of germs cause the cutaneous leishmaniasis is …
53. Latin name of germ causes the visceral leishmaniasis is …
31
54. This is characterized the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica:
a. the presence of flagella
b. the presence of 4 nuclei
c. the presence of 8 nuclei
d. the presence of LPS (lipopolysaccharid)
55. Use the method for laboratory microbiologic diagnosis of malaria:
a) feces microscopy
b) cultural isolation of germ from nutritious
medium
c) inoculation into the yolk bag of hen’s
embryos
d) peripheral blood smears microscopy
56.Which of the following parasites is the germ of
visceral leishmaniasis:
a) Leishmania major
b) Leishmania tropica
c) Leishmania brasiliensis
d) Leishmania donovani
57. The genome of influenza virus contains:
a) negative-sense single-stranded segmented
RNA
b) positive-sense single linear RNA
c) circular DNA
d) diploid single-stranded RNA
32
58.Rabies occurs after:
a) eating of not enough boiled meat
b) inhalation of infected air
c) sexual contact
d) biting of sick animal
59. What is used for the specific prophylacxis of
hepatitis B:
a) living vaccine
b) inactivated vaccine
c) recombinant vaccine
d) toxoid
60. Measles is characterized by the following symptoms:
a) jaundice, increasing of liver and spleen
b) inflammation of salivary glands
c) rash
d) paralysis
61. What quality isn’t characterized by delta-virus:
a) defective RNA containing virus
b) multiplies together with HBV
c) causes infectious disease together with
HBV
d) causes infectious disease itself
62. Brill-Zinsser disease is connected with:
a) endemic typhus
33
b) relapse of epidemic typhus
c) spotted fever
d) Q fever
63. What quality is the characteristic of malaria:
a) fever, anemia, destroying circulation of
the blood
b) diarrhea, abdominal pain, blooded feces
c) lymphatic nodes increasing, meningoencephalitis
d) skin ulcer, necrosis, hard scar
64. Hydrophobia, aerophobia, hallucination, excitement are the symptoms of:
a) influenza
b) measles
c) poliomyelitis
d) rabies
65.The target cells for HIV are:
a) T lymphocytes helpers
b) T lymphocytes killers
c) B lymphocytes
d) erythrocytes
66.What kind of viruses aren’t the represents of genus Enterovirus:
a) Coxsackie-viruses
b) polioviruses
34
c) ECHO viruses
d) hepatitis A virus
67. The advantage of serological method is:
a) Trustworthy
b) The ability of early using
c) safety for personal
d) lasting long
68. The disadvantage of bacteriological method is:
a) Trustwirthy
b) The ability of early using
c) safety for personal
d) lasting long
69. Methods of laboratory diagnosis of viral infections
do not include:
a) microscopy
b) Culture system
c) Allergy reaction
d) Indication of specific site of nucleic acids
70.The way of transmission of Q-fever is:
a) fecai-oral
b) respiratory
c) vector-borne transmission
d) all written above
35
ANSWERS TO TESTS
PART I
Morphology and Structure of microorganisms
1b, 2a, 3c, 4b, 5c, 6d, 7d, 8c, 9b, 10c, 11b, 12b,
13a, 14a, 15d, 16b, 17d, 18c, 19b, 20b, 21b, 22d,
23d, 24d, 25b, 26c, 27c, 28b, 29a, 30d.
Physiology and Ecology of microorganisms
Basic elements of bacteria genetics
31c, 32d, 33c, 34b, 35d, 36c, 37b, 38d, 39c, 40a,
41d, 42b, 43b, 44d, 45c, 46a, 47c, 48b, 49d, 50c,
51a, 52c, 53a, 54c, 55a, 56b, 57d, 58b, 59d, 60b.
Fundamentals of Infection
61b, 62d, 63a, 64b, 65c, 66c, 67b, 68b, 69a, 70c.
36
PART II
Special Microbiology: Bacteriology, Virology and
Parasitology
1b, 2 Neisseria gonorrhoeae, 3b, 4 Streptococcus
pyogenes, 5b, 6 Staphylococcus aureus, 7c, 8b,
9d, 10 Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum,
11c, 12d, 13 Mycobacterium tuberculosis, 14d,
15b, 16d,17 Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi,
18c, 19d, 20a, 21 Bacillus anthracis, 22c, 23b,
24c, 25b, 26b, 27 Treponema pallidum, 28b, 29c,
30a, 31 Nesseria meningitides, 32 Borrelia
burgdorferi, 33c, 34d, 35c, 36d, 37c, 38a, 39a,
40c, 41d, 42c, 43a, 44d, 45b, 46b, 47b, 48c, 49b,
50a, 51c, 52 Leishmania tropica, Leishmania major, 53 Leishmania donovani, 54b, 55d, 56d, 57a,
58d, 59c, 60c, 61d, 62b, 63a, 64d, 65a, 66d, 67a,
68d, 69c, 70d.
37
Bairamova Alla Semyenovna
Kirillova Tatyana Sergeevna
The Tests in Microbiology
(it is especially for Foreign Students of Medical Specialities)
Технический редактор – Нигдыров В.Б.
ISBN 978-5-4424-0120-2
Подписано к печати 29.01.2015г.
Гарнитура Times New Roman. Формат
Уч. печ. л. – 2,2
Заказ № 3931 Тираж 150 экз.
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Издательство Астраханского государственного медицинского университета
414000, г. Астрахань, ул. Бакинская, 121
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