Download Practice Quiz 1 Quarter IV

Practice Exam: Evolution and Biodiversity
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Spontaneous generation has been offered as an explanation for
a. the birth of live offspring from a mother
b. the germination of a seed.
c. the appearance of maggots on rotting meat.
d. All of the above
2. What did Pasteur do in his experiments on spontaneous generation that other scientists before him had not
done?
a. He boiled the broth in his flasks.
b. He sealed his flasks.
c. He used curve-necked flasks and left them open.
d. He added microorganisms to the broth before he boiled it.
3. The age of Earth is estimated to be
a. 2 million years.
c. 2 trillion years.
b. 2 billion years.
d. 4.6 billion years.
4. The age of fossils, such as those of bones, can often be determined by
a. their magnetism.
b. measuring the amount of a specific radioactive isotope in the fossil bones.
c. analyzing the DNA in the bones.
d. their developmental pattern.
5. Miller and Urey did not use oxygen gas in their apparatus because oxygen
a. is not essential to most forms of life.
b. does not react with ammonia, methane, or hydrogen.
c. would have led to the formation of microorganisms.
d. was not believed to have been present in Earth’s early atmosphere.
6. In their experiment, Miller and Urey produced
a. energy.
c. radioactive isotopes.
b. microorganisms.
d. amino acids.
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The apparatus shown below was used by scientists in the 1950s to re-create the conditions of early Earth.
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7. Refer to the illustration above. Miller and Urey’s apparatus was designed to demonstrate that life on Earth
might have originated from
a. radioactive decay.
c. extraterrestrial life.
b. simple organic molecules.
d. None of the above
8. Refer to the illustration above. Water vapor in the reaction chamber labeled “C” was mixed with all of the
following except
a. ammonia.
c. oxygen.
b. hydrogen.
d. methane.
9. Refer to the illustration above. Gases were circulated through the apparatus. When the mixture reached the
reaction chamber labeled “C,” an electric spark was activated so that
a. they could be removed for analysis.
b. extra nitrogen could be added.
c. lightning discharge through the gases could be simulated.
d. excess carbon monoxide could be removed.
10. RNA
a. was probably the first genetic molecule.
b. can undergo natural selection and thus can evolve.
c. probably evolved before DNA.
d. All of the above
11. RNA
a. has a three-dimensional structure.
c. can act like an enzyme.
b. is a nucleic acid.
d. All of the above
12. The first macromolecules on Earth were
a. probably composed of DNA.
c. probably composed of RNA.
b. proteins.
d. forms of ATP.
13. The surface of Earth is protected from damaging ultraviolet light by
a. oxygen.
c. hydrogen.
b. ozone.
d. nitrogen.
14. Which of the following is thought to have been an important early function of aerobic respiration?
a. It enabled some early organisms to live on land.
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b. It consumed oxygen that could destroy chemicals in early organisms.
c. It protected early organisms from ultraviolet radiation, which damages DNA.
d. All of the above
Many scientists think that early aerobic prokaryotes invaded larger cells and eventually gave rise to
a. chloroplasts.
c. mitochondria.
b. DNA.
d. ribosomes.
Which of the following are examples of fossils?
a. shells or old bones
b. any traces of dead organisms
c. footprints of human ancestors, insects trapped in tree sap, and animals buried in tar
d. All of the above
Animal fossils may form when
a. an animal is buried by sediment.
b. burial takes place on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c. the tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d. All of the above
Darwin conducted much of his research on
a. the Samoan Islands.
c. the Hawaiian Islands.
b. Manhattan Island.
d. the Galapagos Islands.
The finches that Darwin studied differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, the finches
probably
a. all had a common ancestor.
b. had been created by design that way.
c. were descended from similar birds in Africa.
d. ate the same diet.
Darwin thought that the plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast
of South America because
a. their ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galapagos Islands.
b. they had all been created by God to match their habitat.
c. the island organisms had the same nucleotide sequences in their DNA as the mainland
organisms.
d. he found fossils proving that the animals and plants had common ancestors.
According to Darwin, evolution occurs
a. by chance.
b. during half-life periods of 5,715 years.
c. because of natural selection.
d. rapidly.
Organisms well suited to their environment
a. reproduce more successfully than those less suited to the same environment.
b. are always larger than organisms less suited to that environment.
c. always live longer than organisms less suited to that environment.
d. need less food than organisms less suited to that environment.
When Darwin published his theory of evolution, he included all of the following ideas except
a. the idea that species change slowly over time.
b. the idea that some organisms reproduce at a greater rate than others.
c. Mendel’s ideas about genetics.
d. the idea that some organisms become less suited to their environment than others.
The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that
a. species changed over time and never competed with each other.
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b. animals changed, but plants remained the same.
c. giraffes and peppered moths changed constantly.
d. species changed over time by natural selection.
Natural selection is the process by which
a. the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b. organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more
successfully than less well-adapted organisms in the same environment.
c. acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d. All of the above
Natural selection could not occur without
a. genetic variation in species.
c. competition for unlimited resources.
b. environmental changes.
d. gradual warming of the Earth.
Populations of the same species living in different places
a. do not vary.
b. always show balancing selection.
c. have a half-life in relation to the size of the population.
d. become increasingly different as each becomes adapted to its own environment.
Scarcity of resources and a growing population are most likely to result in
a. homology.
c. competition.
b. protective coloration.
d. convergent evolution.
Since natural resources are limited, all organisms
a. must migrate to new habitats.
c. display vestigial structures.
b. must compete for resources.
d. have a species half-life.
____ 30. Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a. they have identical DNA.
b. they all have gill pouches.
c. their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d. they all have the same number of chromosomes.
____ 31. Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of these structures suggests that the organisms
a. share a common ancestor.
c. evolved slowly.
b. all grow at different rates.
d. live for a long time.
____ 32. Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “A” are known as
a. vestigial structures.
c. homologous structures.
b. sequential structures.
d. fossil structures.
____ 33. Which of the following is a vestigial structure?
a. the human tailbone
c. flower color
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b. the bill of a finch
d. fossil cast
Homologous structures in organisms suggest that the organisms
a. share a common ancestor.
c. have a skeletal structure.
b. must have lived at different times.
d. are now extinct.
The beak of a bird and the beak of a giant squid evolved independently and serve the same function. The
beaks are
a. convergent structures.
c. analogous structures.
b. homologous structures.
d. hybrid structures.
The occurrence of the same blood protein in a group of species provides evidence that these species
a. evolved in the same habitat.
b. evolved in different habitats.
c. descended from a common ancestor.
d. descended from different ancestors.
Evidence for evolution includes all of the following except
a. acquired characteristics.
b. similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
c. the fossil record.
d. homologous structures.
The theory of evolution predicts that
a. closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences.
b. if species have changed over time, their genes should have changed.
c. closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences.
d. All of the above
Cytochrome c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human
cytochrome c contains 104 amino acids. The following table compares cytochrome c from a number of other
organisms with human cytochrome c.
Organism
Chimpanzees
Chickens
Dogs
Rattlesnakes
Rhesus monkeys
Yeasts
Number of cytochrome c amino acids
different from humans
0
18
13
20
1
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Which of the following is not a valid conclusion that can be drawn from these data?
a. Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than rhesus monkeys are.
b. The cytochrome c of chimpanzees differs from that of rhesus monkeys by only one amino
acid.
c. Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens are.
d. The proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical to each other. Therefore
these organisms differ in characteristics that aren’t determined by proteins.
____ 40. The accumulation of differences between species or populations is called
a. gradualism.
c. divergent evolution.
b. adaptation.
d. cumulative differentiation.
____ 41. The process by which two or more species change in response to each other is called
a. compromise.
c. coevolution.
b. parasitism.
d. ecology.
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____ 42. Over millions of years, plants and their pollinators have
a. coevolved.
c. become parasites.
b. crossbred.
d. become competitive.
A Comparison of Dolphins and Sharks
____ 43. Refer to the illustration above. While the shark and dolphin are similar in appearance, they evolved
independently. This is an example of
a. cladistics.
c. convergent evolution.
b. phenetics.
d. divergent evolution.
____ 44. Refer to the illustration above. A shark’s skeleton is made of cartilage while a dolphin’s skeleton is made of
bone. This is one reason the two organisms are placed in different
a. kingdoms.
c. subphyla.
b. phyla.
d. classes.
____ 45. Refer to the illustration above. Because both organisms in the diagram are vertebrates, they are classified in
the same
a. phylum.
c. order.
b. genus.
d. class.
____ 46. A biologist analyzes the DNA sequences in three different primates. The biologist finds that primates “A“ and
“B” have almost exactly the same DNA sequences. The DNA sequences in primate “C” are significantly
different from those of primate “A” and primate “B”. This information allows the biologist to infer that
a. primates “A” and “B” are more closely related to each other than either is to primate “C.”
b. all three primates appeared on Earth at about the same time.
c. either primate “A” or primate “B” must be a direct ancestor of primate “C.”
d. primate “C” must have been the ancestor of both primate “A” and “B.”
____ 47. Which of the following describes a population?
a. dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b. four species of fish living in a pond
c. dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d. roses and tulips in a garden
____ 48. Variation in genotype is caused by
a. mutations only.
b. recombination of genes as a result of sexual reproduction.
c. phenotypes changing more quickly than genotypes.
d. None of the above
____ 49. The number of individuals with a particular phenotype divided by the total number of individuals in the
population is the
a. genotype frequency.
c. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
b. phenotype frequency.
d. allele frequency.
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____ 50. Actual proportions of homozygotes and heterozygotes can differ from Hardy-Weinberg predictions because
of
a. the occurrence of mutations.
b. nonrandom mating among individuals.
c. genetic drift within the population.
d. All of the above
____ 51. Which of the following conditions is required for Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium?
a. No mutations occur.
b. The population is infinitely large.
c. Individuals neither leave nor enter the population.
d. All of the above are required.
____ 52. Natural selection acts
a. on heterozygous genotypes.
c. on phenotypes that are expressed.
b. only on recessive alleles.
d. on all mutations.
____ 53. The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called
a. mutation.
c. nonrandom mating.
b. gene flow.
d. natural selection.
____ 54. Which of the following conditions can cause evolution to take place?
a. genetic drift
c. nonrandom mating
b. migration
d. All of the above
____ 55. Gene flow describes the
a. movement of genes from one generation to the next.
b. movement of genes from one population to another.
c. exchange of genes during recombination.
d. movement of genes within a population because of interbreeding.
____ 56. nonrandom mating : increasing proportion of homozygotes ::
a. migration of individuals : gene flow
b. mutation : major change in allele frequencies
c. Hardy-Weinberg equation : natural selection
d. inbreeding : frequency of alleles
____ 57. What type of population is most susceptible to loss of genetic variability as a result of genetic drift?
a. large populations
c. small populations
b. medium-sized populations
d. populations that fluctuate in size
____ 58. A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is called
a. directional selection.
c. chromosome drift.
b. acquired variation.
d. stabilizing selection.
____ 59. The type of selection that may eliminate intermediate phenotypes is
a. direction selection.
c. polygenic selection.
b. disruptive selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
____ 60. Directional selection tends to eliminate
a. both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
b. one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
c. intermediate phenotypes.
d. None of the above; it causes new phenotypes to form.
____ 61. The large, brightly colored tail feathers of the male peacock are valuable to him because
a. they warn off potential predators.
b. they warn off potential competitors for mates.
c. they attract potential mates.
d. they attract people who provide them with food.
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____ 62. Speciation can occur as a result of geographic isolation because
a. members of a species can no longer find mates.
b. populations that live in different environments may be exposed to different selection
pressures.
c. the biological concept of species defines noninterbreeding individuals as members of
different species.
d. All of the above
____ 63. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at a slow, constant rate is known as
a. gradualism.
c. natural selection.
b. slow motion.
d. adaptation.
____ 64. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through geologic time is known as
a. directional evolution.
c. punctuated equilibrium.
b. directional equilibrium.
d. punctuated evolution.
____ 65. Which of the following is not a form of prezygotic isolation?
a. different months of flowering of two wildflower species
b. species-specific recognition proteins on the surfaces of egg and sperm cells
c. different courtship rituals of different species
d. the formation of a sterile hybrid between two species
____ 66. The science of classifying living things is called
a. identification.
c. taxonomy.
b. classification.
d. speciation.
____ 67. Taxonomy is defined as the science of
a. classifying plants according to their uses in agricultural experiments.
b. studying ribosomal RNA sequencing techniques.
c. grouping organisms according to their charateristics and evoluntionary history.
d. studying reproductive mechanisms and gene flow.
____ 68. As we move through the biological hierarchy from the kingdom to species level, organisms
a. vary more and more.
b. are less and less related to each other.
c. become more similar in appearance.
d. always are members of the same order.
____ 69. Which of the following was not a consideration for Carolus Linnaeus when he developed his system of
nomenclature of organisms?
a. It should include detailed descriptions of an organism in its name.
b. It should assign each organism a unique name.
c. It should assign names using a language that can be recognized worldwide.
d. It should enable scientists to classify organisms according to their presumed evolutionary
relationships to other organisms.
____ 70. The organism Quercus phellos is a member of the genus
a. Plantae.
c. Quercus.
b. phellos.
d. Protista.
____ 71. Poison ivy is also known as Rhus toxicodendron. Its species identifier is
a. poison.
c. ivy.
b. Rhus.
d. toxicodendron.
____ 72. The red maple is also known as Acer rubrum. Its scientific name is
a. red maple.
c. rubrum.
b. Acer.
d. Acer rubrum.
____ 73. The scientific name of an organism
a. varies according to the native language of scientists.
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b. is the same for scientists all over the world.
c. may refer to more than one species.
d. may have more than one genus name.
Scientists don’t use the common names of organisms because
a. an organism may have more than one common name.
b. common names are too ambiguous.
c. an organism rarely has the same name in different languages.
d. All of the above
An organism can have
a. one genus name and one species identifier.
b. one genus name and two species identifiers.
c. two scientific names if it is found on different continents.
d. two genus names but only one species identifier.
Two organisms in the same class but different orders will
a. be in different kingdoms.
c. be in the same phylum.
b. have the same genus name.
d. be members of the same species.
Organisms in different genera
a. may share the second word of their scientific names.
b. may be in the same family.
c. may be in different orders.
d. All of the above
Two organisms in the same order but different families may
a. be more similar than two organisms in different classes.
b. be in the same class.
c. have the same species identifier.
d. All of the above
Kingdoms are divided into phyla, and a phylum is divided into
a. families.
c. orders.
b. classes.
d. genera.
The correct order of the biological hierarchy from kingdom to species is
a. kingdom, class, family, order, phylum, genus, species.
b. kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species.
c. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
d. kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.
The lowest hierarchy level in biological classification is the
a. genus.
c. family.
b. species.
d. order.
Which of the following is the least inclusive classification group?
a. class
c. phylum
b. genus
d. species
class : family ::
a. order : phylum
c. species : genus
b. genus : class
d. phylum : order
Today, biologists classify organisms by their
a. physical similarities.
c. behavioral similarities.
b. chemical similarities.
d. All of the above
Phylogenetic trees depict
a. known evolutionary relationships between organisms.
b. presumed evolutionary relationships based on morphological evidence.
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c. only living organisms.
d. presumed evolutionary relationships based on a variety of types of evidence.
The organism at the base of a phylogenetic tree is
a. the oldest living organism among those depicted in the tree.
b. the common ancestor of all the organisms depicted in the tree.
c. the modern form of the common ancestor of all the organisms depicted in the tree.
d. the simplest organisms among those depicted in the tree.
The DNA sequences of two species of sharks would
a. be more similar than the DNA sequences of a shark and a dolphin.
b. show no discernible differences.
c. be very close to the DNA sequences of a dolphin.
d. indicate how the sharks evolved.
Refer to the illustration above. A branching diagram like the one shown is called a
a. phenetic tree.
c. family tree.
b. cladogram.
d. homology.
Refer to the illustration above. Each unique character, such as dry skin, that is used to assign an organism to a
group is known as a(n)
a. special character.
c. derived character.
b. analogous character.
d. homologous character.
Nearly all single-celled eukaryotes that are either heterotrophic or photosynthetic belong to the kingdom
a. Animalia.
c. Plantae.
b. Fungi.
d. Protista.
Most multicellular, nucleated autotrophs that carry on photosynthesis belong to the kingdom
a. Animalia.
c. Fungi.
b. Eubacteria.
d. Plantae.
Multicellular, nucleated heterotrophs that always obtain food by absorbing nutrients from the environment
belong to the kingdom
a. Animalia.
c. Fungi.
b. Eubacteria.
d. Plantae.
Phylogenetic Tree of the Six Kingdoms
____ 93. Refer to the illustration above. The kingdom represented in box “C” is
a. Archaebacteria.
c. Eubacteria.
b. Protista.
d. Fungi.
____ 94. Refer to the illustration above. The kingdom represented in box “B” is
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a. Archaebacteria.
c. Eubacteria.
b. Protista.
d. Fungi.
Refer to the illustration above. The kingdom represented in box “A” is
a. Archaebacteria.
c. Eubacteria.
b. Protista.
d. Fungi.
An organism that breaks down organic matter, which it then absorbs, is in the kingdom
a. Fungi.
c. Animalia.
b. Plantae.
d. Protista.
Archaebacteria can be distinguished from eubacteria because of differences in their
a. cell walls.
c. gene architecture.
b. cell membranes.
d. All of the above
Simple, non-nucleated organisms that use hydrogen to produce methane are in the kingdom
a. Archaebacteria.
c. Protista.
b. Eubacteria.
d. Fungi.
The three-domain system of classification is based on ____ evidence.
a. embryological
c. molecular
b. fossil
d. morphological
The three domain system of classification is based on similarities and differences in ____ evidence. The sixkingdom system is based on similarities and differences in ____ evidence.
a. DNA; DNA, fossil, embryological, and morphological
b. molecular structure; embryological, fossil, morphological, and molecular structure
c. ribosomal RNA; embryological, fossil, morphological, and a variety of molecular
d. morphological; embryological, fossil, morphological, and a variety of molecular