Download do not open the examination paper until you are told by the

EXAMINATION NUMBER:
DO NOT OPEN THE EXAMINATION PAPER UNTIL
YOU ARE TOLD BY THE SUPERVISOR TO BEGIN
DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
BIOLOGY 3201
PUBLIC EXAMINATION
JUNE 2001
Value: 100 marks
Time: 3 hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Candidates are required to do all items.
2.
This examination consists of the following parts:
Part I - 75 multiple choice - 75%
Part II - constructed response - 25%
3.
Answers to multiple choice items are to be shaded on the computer scorable answer sheet.
All other items are to be answered in this booklet.
4.
Be sure to write your Examination Number in the space provided above.
5.
Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank spaces throughout
Part II.
REGULATIONS FOR CANDIDATES
Candidates are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to their
conduct during the examinations. These were explained by the chief supervisor prior to the first
session, and have been posted for further reference near the entrance to the examination room.
Candidates should ensure that they understand and comply with all requirements governing the
following matters:
) Materials required
) Punctuality
) Leaving the room
) Use of handheld calculator
) Use of pen or pencil
) Use of unauthorized means, and penalties
) Completion of required information
) Materials not permitted
) Communication and movement during the
examination
PART I
SECTION A
Total Value: 75%
Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the computer scorable answer sheet.
1.
Which biome receives the most rain?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
In which biome would you find vertical stratification?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
1st order consumer
2nd order consumer
3rd order consumer
decomposer
Which relationship is illustrated by the interaction between a shark and the remora fish, in
which the remora is benefitted while the shark is not affected?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
abyssal
littoral
neritic
profundal
Which level of a food chain refers to a wolf when it eats a deer?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5.
desert
forest
grassland
tundra
Which zone is transitional between land and sea?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
grassland
temperate deciduous forest
tropical rain forest
tundra
commensalism
competition
mutualism
parasitism
Which is a probable pioneer organism?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
fern
lichen
maple
pine
7.
Which process is responsible for the majority of energy entering the biosphere?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8.
decomposition
photosynthesis
protein synthesis
respiration
Which has the greatest biomass?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
beetles
grass
lions
vulture
2
9.
Which is the most important role of bacteria and fungi in a community of living organisms?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
Which statement about forests is INCORRECT?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11.
desert
grassland
temperate deciduous forest
tropical rain forest
If carbon dioxide were withdrawn from the biosphere, which organisms would be the first to
experience negative biological effects?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13.
They are a renewable natural resource.
They are shrinking all over Earth.
They only produce lumber and paper.
They prevent soil erosion.
In which biome is plant life population density the lowest?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
causing diseases
decomposition of organic matter
fixation of nitrogen
synthesis of antibiotics
decomposers
primary consumers
producers
secondary consumers
What is the primary outcome of the “greenhouse effect”?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14.
Which statement about biomes is INCORRECT?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
changes in the Earth’s distance from the sun
global air circulation
ocean currents
the tilt of the Earth’s axis
Which is NOT a desert animal adaptation to low amounts of water and high temperatures?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19.
competition
temperature
water
wind
Which causes the Earth’s seasons?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18.
benthic
coral reef
deep-sea
estuary
Which is an important biotic factor in ecosystems?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
17.
Biomes are major terrestrial communities.
Biomes are separate entities because they have sharp, well-defined boundaries.
Temperature and precipitation account for most of the variation between biomes.
There are climatic differences between biomes.
A meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced
sunlight reaching the Earth’s surface by seventy percent for one year. Which marine
community would be LEAST affected?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16.
greater plant growth
higher air temperatures
less rainfall
stronger wind currents
being active only during the night
dark-colored fur
living in burrows
long ears
Which term is the most specific in today’s system of classification?
(A)
(B)
class
family
(C)
(D)
20.
Which structure helps transport food in Tracheophytes?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21.
Always undergo metamorphosis.
Breathe through their skin.
Generally reproduce on land by laying shelled eggs.
Usually excrete their wastes as urine.
Which term is illustrated by an organism that produces more offspring than the environment
can support?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24.
arthropods
mollusks
roundworms
sponges
Which is a characteristic of reptiles?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
23.
cuticle
phloem
rhizoids
xylem
Based on developmental trends, which represents the simplest phylum?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
22.
genus
species
biotic potential
carrying capacity
environmental resistance
limiting factor
Which factor has the LEAST effect on human population doubling time?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
age of first reproduction
death rate
environmental conditions
number of offspring
4
25.
In which organ are sperm cells stored?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26.
What do all protists have in common?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
27.
crustaceans
insects
millipedes
spiders
The reduction of which hormones causes menstruation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30.
Fertilization requires water.
Spores are more common than seeds.
Seeds are produced in cones.
Stems are nonvascular.
Which has two pairs of antennae?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29.
eukaryotic
marine
multicellular
photosynthetic
Which evolutionary trend is associated with higher order plants?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28.
epididymis
prostate
seminal vesicles
urethra
estrogen and progesterone
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and estrogen
luteinizing hormone (LH) and estrogen
luteinizing hormone (LH) and progesterone
Assume that rabbits feed entirely on small shrubs and that foxes feed on the rabbits. What
might be the major short term effect if ALL foxes were eliminated?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Rabbits would decrease.
Rabbits would decrease and shrubs increase.
Rabbits would not be affected.
Shrubs would decrease.
31.
What factor is causing the changes in the graph from point C onward?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The population birth rate is less than the population death rate.
The population is being heavily preyed upon.
The population has reached its carrying capacity.
The population has run out of food.
5
32.
Malthus predicted that disease, starvation, and war would constantly reduce the human
population and keep it in check. The world population today is 4 to 5 times as large as it was
in his day and still climbing. Which statement best explains this situation?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33.
Why is the term cold-blooded NOT very appropriate for reptiles?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
Agriculture has become far more efficient than Malthus could have envisioned.
Birth rates and death rates have increased greatly to keep population in check.
Malthus realized the potential of modern warfare.
Malthus underestimated the effect of disease.
Reptiles regulate body temperature by using various mechanisms such as behavioral
adaptations.
Reptiles swallow large prey whole to provide enough food to generate body heat.
The metabolism of reptiles can generate internal heat for temperature control.
The scales of reptiles rid excess body heat by radiation to the environment.
Which population graph best represents the growth of the human population?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6
35.
Which structure produces eggs?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36.
What is the main reason sponges are limited to feeding on small food particles?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37.
anaphase
metaphase
prophase
telophase
What process results in double-stranded chromosomes?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39.
Their digestion is entirely intracellular.
Their cell membranes are highly selective.
They have an incomplete digestive tract.
They lack a mechanism for bringing food into their bodies.
In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes first become visible?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38.
1
2
3
4
formation of cell plates
formation of spindle fibers
replication of chromosomes
synapsis of homologous chromosomes
What type of chromosome mutation occurs when a part of one chromosome breaks off and
is transferred to a non-homologous chromosome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
addition
deletion
inversion
translocation
40.
What type of organism is mated with an unknown organism in a test cross?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
41.
heterozygous for the trait
homozygous dominant for the trait
homozygous recessive for the trait
same genotype as the organism being tested
What is the process of mRNA production from DNA called?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
transcription
transduction
transformation
translation
8
42.
What does RNA contain?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43.
Which term describes the allele which is not expressed in the phenotype of an individual who
has a heterozygous genotype?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
44.
heterozygous tall x heterozygous tall
homozygous tall x heterozygous tall
homozygous tall x homozygous tall
homozygous tall x homozygous short
Which cross could yield some organisms homozygous recessive for both genes?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47.
chromosome
gene
nucleotide
nucleus
Which cross BEST illustrates the Law of Dominance?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
codominant
dominant
incomplete dominance
recessive
What is the basic unit of heredity?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
45.
deoxyribose sugar
double helix
thymine
uracil
Ttrr x Ttrr
TtRr x ttRR
ttRR x Ttrr
TTRr x ttRr
In certain species of plants, when red-flowers are crossed with white-flowers the offspring all
have pink-flowers. What is the probability of two pink-flowered parents producing a whiteflowered offspring?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
0
14
12
34
9
48.
What is the major role of vitamin A in regeneration?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49.
decreases the amount of meiosis
decreases the amount of mitosis
increases the amount of meiosis
increases the amount of mitosis
Which of these genetic conditions would NOT be grouped with the others?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
baldness
colour blindness
duchenne muscular dystrophy
hemophilia
10
Use the following table to answer question 50
Amino Acids coded by RNA Condons
Second Letter
U
First Letter
U
C
A
G
50.
UUU
UUC
UUA
UUG
CUU
CUC
CUA
CUG
AUU
AUC
AUA
C
A
UCU
UCC
Serine
UCA
UCG
CCU
CCC
Proline
CCA
CCG
ACU
ACC
Threonine
ACA
UAU
UAC
UAA
UAG
CAU
CAC
CAA
CAG
AAU
AAC
AAA
AUG Initiation
Codon
ACG
AAG
GUU
GUC
Valine
GUA
GUG
GCU
GCC
Alanine
GCA
GCG
GAU
GAC
GAA
GAG
Phenylalanine
Leucine
Leucine
Isoleucine
Tyrosine
Stop Codon
Stop Codon
Histidine
Glutamine
Asparagine
Lysine
Aspartic
Acid
Glutamic
Acid
G
UGU
UGC
UGA
UGG
CGU
CGC
CGA
CGG
AGU
AGC
AGA
AGG
GGU
GGC
GGA
GGG
U
C
Stop Codon A
Tryptophan G
U
C
Arginine
A
G
U
Serine
C
A
Arginine
G
U
C
Glycine
A
G
Cysteine
A central portion of a gene has the sequence CAA GCG AUA CUG. What would be the
sequence of amino acids coded by this gene?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
51.
argenine - glutamic acid - alanine - proline
glutamine - alanine - isoleucine - leucine
lysine - asparagine - phenylalanine - threonine
serine - glycine - valine - cysteine
The initial sequence of DNA is TCC GGC. A point mutation occurred, resulting in the
sequence TAC GGC. Which of these situations would result?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The encoding would start again where the new A nucleotide was inserted.
The nucleotide sequence arginine-proline would be produced.
The nucleotide sequence methionine proline would be produced.
Protein synthesis would stop.
11
52.
Why does the genetic code have to be at least a triplet code?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
53.
An anticodon is always composed of two nitrogen bases.
It takes four nitrogen bases to code for one amino acid.
There had to be enough different combinations for twenty amino acids.
There is only one code for each amino acid.
At which stage will the chromosomes have the least amount of DNA in a nucleus?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
interphase
metaphase
prophase
telophase
12
54.
Which gene produced mRNA with the sequence AUACG?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55.
Which statement best describes the pedigree below?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
autosomal dominant
autosomal recessive
sex-linked dominant
sex-linked recessive
13
56.
There was a mix-up in a hospital nursery. The doctor wanted to determine which one of
two babies belonged to the Lindsey’s. The chart below gives the blood types of the
Lindsey’s and the two babies.
Mrs. Lindsey - Type AB
Mr. Lindsey - Type O
Baby Jane - Type A
Baby Mike - Type O
Based on the information above, which baby belongs to the Lindsey’s?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
57.
Which term describes the flipper of a sel and the wing of a bird?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58.
Baby Jane
Baby Mike
Either Baby Jane or Baby Mike
Neither Baby Jane or Baby Mike
acquired characteristics
analogous structures
homologous structures
isolating mechanisms
The diagram below represents a cross-section of undisturbed rock layers.
layer A
layer B
layer C
layer D
A scientist discovers bones of a complex vertebrate species in layers B and C. In which
layer would an earlier, less complex form of this vertebrate most likely first appear?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
D
14
59.
Which method can NOT determine the period of time in the earth’s geologic history when
a certain animal fossil shell was fossilized?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60.
What does the presence of certain, apparently useless structures in the human body, such
as the appendix and the muscles in the outer ear indicate?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61.
Better adapted individuals survive to produce offspring.
Species tend to produce more offspring than can survive.
The environment is responsible for eliminating less fit individuals.
Variations in traits are caused by mutation and recombination.
Which sequence of evolutionary relationship is consistent with the fossil record?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63.
Humans can regenerate organs at will.
Humans had remote ancestors who used these structures.
Humans have always been as they are today.
These structures have helped humans to survive.
Which statement is part of the modern evolutionary theory, but NOT Darwin’s original
theory?
(A)
(C)
(D)
(B)
62.
carbon dating the shell
comparing the relative position of the rock layer to other rock layers
conducting chemical analysis of the shell
finding index fossils in the same rock layer as the fossil
fishes-amphibians-reptiles-birds
fishes-birds-reptiles-amphibians
reptiles-amphibians-birds-fishes
reptiles-birds-fishes-amphibians
Which step is necessary for the formation of two or more species from an ancestral parent
population?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
adaptation
isolation
selection
variation
15
64.
Who is generally given credit for the original hypothesis that life originated spontaneously
from energy passing through the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
65.
What are the two most important groups of molecules associated with the modern origin
of life theory?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
66.
adaptation
competition
reproduction
variability
Which animal probably appeared on earth first?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
69.
anatomical similarity
comparative biochemistry
comparative embryology
geographical distribution
What characteristic of a population enables natural selection?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
68.
amino acids and fats
carbohydrates and lipids
carbohydrates and nitrates
nucleotides and proteins
It is thought that all citrus fruit trees evolved from a common ancestor because of their
common ability to synthesize citric acid. What type of evidence of evolution is this?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
67.
Darwin
Miller
Oparin
Urey
dinosaur
fish
horse
man
What is the primary directing force in evolution?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
competition between members of a species
efficiency of homeostasis
the environment
the movement of plants and animals
16
70.
The allele for dark fur colour is dominant to the allele for light fur colour. If there are only
16% of the members of a population that have light fur colour, what percentage of the
population should be heterozygous for dark fur colour?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24%
36%
48%
84%
PART I
SECTION B
Fishery
Total Value: 5%
Do EITHER Section B or Section C
71.
What is the enlarged oil filled front skull of a whale called?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
72.
Why are aquatic biomes more stable than terrestrial biomes?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
73.
cod
flounder
sculpin
tuna
What is a salt water animal that breaths air with lungs and bears live young?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
75.
Oxygen is not present.
Photosynthesis does not occur.
Temperatures do not fluctuate widely.
Water is always present.
Which is NOT demersal?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
74.
baleen
blow hole
hump
melon
cod
lobster
shark
whale
Which is a benthic organism?
17
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
capelin
lobster
seal
whale
PART I
SECTION C
Forestry
Total Value: 5%
76.
Which organism is an indicator species of the taiga biome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
77.
Which statement BEST describes the formation of annual rings in wood?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
78.
Spring and summer xylem are of equal diameter.
Spring xylem consists of large cells compared to the summer xylem.
Spring xylem consists of small cells compared to the summer xylem.
Summer xylem is produced before the spring xylem and is pushed outward by the
vascular cambium.
Which term BEST describes a forest capable of producing more than 35 m3 of
merchantable timber per hectare?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
79.
conifer
epiphyte
liana
lichen
climax forest
productive
stable forest
thicket
What is the purpose of the xylem and phloem?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
photosynthesis
protection
reproduction
transport
18
80.
Which is the only conifer tree to shed its needles?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
balsom fir
black spruce
larch
yellow birch
PART II
Total Value: 25%
Do ALL questions in this part.
Value
2
81a.
Explain the chromosome theory of inheritance.
Value
1
b.
What are TWO environmental causes of genetic mutations?
Value
2
82.
In a certain type of wasp, yellow wings (Y) are dominant to blue wings (Y), and long
antennae (L) are dominant to short (I). What are the expected genotypic and
phenotypic ratios of a cross between a homozygous yellow, heterozygous long male
and a blue-winged female heterozygous long antennae? Show all work.
19
The genotypic ratio is:
The phenotypic ratio is:
20
Value
1
83a.
Describe ONE method which may be used to detect the genetic disorder Down’s
Syndrome in a fetus.
Value
1
b.
As a genetic counsellor, what TWO pieces of advice might you give to a couple who
have discovered they are carrying a child with a genetic disorder?
Value
3
84.
Describe the make up of the earth’s atmosphere and show an understanding of the
earth’s atmosphere connection to life including:
(i)
composition of gases vital to life
(ii) role in protection against radiation
21
(iii) role in climate control
22
Value
1
85a.
What is the relationship between the relative age of sediments (rock) and the relative
age of fossils contained within the rock layers?
Value
2
b.
Explain how the colour change in the peppered moth (industrial melanism) supports
Darwin’s explanation of evolution.
Value
1
c.
Explain why the woodpecker finch was able to evolve on the Galapogas Island, but was
not able to evolve on the South American mainland.
Value
2
86a.
Explain why the mosses (Bryophytes) are generally small in size, and live only in wet
habitats.
23
17
Value
3
b.
Compare the differences in heart structure among the fish, amphibians and mammals.
c.
Describe ONE recent development that relates to surrogate motherhood.
Value
1
24
Do EITHER 87 OR 88 .
FISHERY
Value
87.
3
The level of salinity and how often it changes is an important factor that affects the
density and variety of organisms that live near the ocean.
a.
Name and briefly describe THREE main zones of a rocky seashore.
b.
Explain how salinity levels affect the species which live in each.
Value
2
25
FORESTRY
Value
3
88a.
The spruce budworm, hemlock looper and balsam woolly aphid are three insect pests
common to Newfoundland forest. If you were a Newfoundland forester give one
method of control for each of the above pests.
b.
You have just been given a ten hectare plot of forest land that you will use as a source
of fuel. What forest management techniques would you use to ensure stability in the
future?
Value
2
26