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EC201 Intermediate Macroeconomics EC201 Intermediate Macroeconomics Lecture 9: Extensions to the IS-LM Model Lecture Outline: - shocks and fluctuations in the IS-LM model; - the credit crunch and the IS-LM model - the IS-LM model with a Taylor Rule Essential reading: Mankiw: Ch. 12 and this lecture note Shocks in the IS-LM model: Short-run Fluctuations1 We have seen how the IS-LM model can be used to explain how economic policy may achieve the full-employment equilibrium. However, we can use the IS-LM model to explain why income fluctuates over time. The reason, according the IS-LM model, is that the IS curve and the LM curve can move over time, changing the equilibrium value of real income over time. We have seen that economic policies can shift the IS and the LM curve up and down. However, we do not think that movement in economic policies can explain short-run fluctuations. For example, it is unlikely that a government wants to create a recession by decreasing government expenditure or by restricting money supply. Furthermore, short-run fluctuations have the property that they are not fully predictable. This means that short-run fluctuations, booms and recessions, have some random component that makes them not completely predictable. To study those facts we need to introduce the concepts of exogenous shocks in our IS-LM model. Exogenous shocks are economic events that cannot be completely anticipated by the people. For example, a change in tastes of consumers may change the aggregate consumption and this will affect the equilibrium level of income. However, this change is exogenous because it cannot be explained by our ISLM model in the way we have developed it. Another example of an exogenous shock that affect our model is a crash in the stock market that will reduce the consumption and investment and so on. Those shocks have the effect to shift the IS and the LM curve over time and those shifts cause the real income to fluctuate. Policy makers started to use the IS-LM model to understand how to stabilise the economy that is subjected to those fluctuations. The reason is that being in a recession can have 1 This section is adapted from William Poole (1970) “Optimal Choice of Monetary Policy Instruments in a Simple Stochastic Macro Model” Quarterly Journal of Economics vol. 84, n.2 pp. 197-216. 1 important economic costs that we would like to avoid. But also a boom can have some costs. For example if the boom lasts for a long period, it means that demand is very high. Higher demand after a while may result in high prices and so high inflation. In particular we will see how monetary policy can be used to stabilise the economic fluctuations. To study how to stabilise the real economy when there are shocks using the IS-LM model we define two different types of shocks: 1) Real shocks: shocks that affect the IS curve (examples: a change in consumer tastes, a crash in the stock market); 2) Monetary shocks: shocks that affect the demand for money (examples: a wave of financial fraud, an increase of internet banking); The issue is the following: the policy maker (in this case the central bank) knows that the economy will face some shocks over time. The policy maker only know that they can be real or monetary but it does not know with certainty which one will occur and when. Moreover the policy maker knows that shocks can be positive or negative but again it does not know which one will occur with certainty. We assume that before any shock is realised the central bank HAS TO COMMIT to a particular policy. By committing we mean that the central bank has to choose a policy and when that is decided it has to stick to it and cannot change it over time. The objective of the central bank is to minimise the effects of the shock on the level of output. Question: what policy should the central bank commit to? Answer: it depends on the type of shock that will hit the economy. Problem: the central bank when it has to decide which policy to commit to does not know the type of shocks that will hit the economy. In particular we are going to look at two possible policies that the central bank can commit to: a) Keeping fixed the money supply (a special case of Money Targeting); b) Keeping fixed the interest rate in the market (a special case of Interest Rate Targeting) So the timing of our model is the following: First the central bank decides a policy, a) or b). Once the decision is made the central bank has to commit to that rule forever. Then a shock is realised and we can see what the effects on output are depending on the rule decided by the central bank. 2 Notice that BY ASSUMPTION the central bank cannot just wait, see which shocks hit the economy and then act accordingly. This will the case where the central bank can use discretion in deciding which policy to use. Here we assume that the central bank has to commit to a rule in advance and before any shock is realised. Even when the shock is realised the central bank has to stick to the rule. 1) Suppose a real shock The IS curve may shift to the left or to the right, depending if the shock is positive or negative. However we do not know with certainty where the IS will end up. ISU LM2 r LM IS LM1 ISL r0 YL Y1 Y0 Y2 YU Y Suppose that the IS curve can shift to ISU or to ISL because of a shock with equal probability. We know that the IS will shift but we do not know where it will end up. What policy does minimise the variation of the output created by a possible real shock? The initial equilibrium is r0, Y0. Suppose that before the real shock occurs the central bank commits in keeping fixed the interest rate in the market (interest rate targeting). To keep constant the interest rate we must move the LM curve to LM1 if the shock moves the IS to ISU. Or we move the LM to LM2 if the IS moves to ISL. As we can notice by doing that, the real income in equilibrium can be YL if the shock moves the IS to ISL, or YU if the shock moves the IS to ISU. The expected variability of income due to the real shock is very large: from Y0 to YL or from Y0 to YU. This is expected because we do not know if the shock is going to be positive or negative. Since there is an equal probability that 3 the real shock is positive or negative there is an equal probability to end up in YL or in YU. Suppose the central bank keeps fixed the money supply (money targeting). In this case the LM does not move, and now the expected variability of real income is much less than before: from Y0 to Y1 or from Y0 to Y2. Conclusion: if the central bank believes that the economy is more likely to face real shocks in the future and it has to commit in advance to a policy rule then it is better to commit to money targeting rule where money supply is kept fixed while the market interest rate is free to change. By doing that the central bank reduces the expected variability of output due to a real shock. 2) Suppose a monetary shock: LML r LM IS LMU r0 YL Y0 YU Y Here the LM can shift to LMU or to LML according to a given shock with equal probability. Suppose now that the central bank commits to an interest rate rule where the interest rate is kept constant. If the LM shifts to LMU, we can decrease the money supply to bring back the system to the original LM. If the LM shifts to LML, we must increase the money supply. By doing this, the interest rate will be stabilised and the expected income fluctuation will be reduced to zero (notice: we don’t know if the shock is positive is positive or negative but it does not matter here. BY fixing the interest rate output will be stabilised no matter what). Conclusion: if the central bank believes that the economy is more likely to face monetary shocks then it is better to commit to an interest rate rule where the interest 4 rate is kept constant. Committing to such a rule ensures that the level of output is stabilised in the event of a monetary shock (positive or negative). Nowadays many central banks (especially in developed countries) conduct monetary by setting first the interest rate in the market and then they supply money according to what is the demand of money in the market at that particular interest rate. This is pretty much the same as an interest rate targeting. Nowadays such policy rule (of setting the interest rate first) is known as Inflation Targeting in the sense that the interest rate is fixed (i.e. targeted) in a way that is consistent with a particular target of inflation that the central bank may have but the idea is very similar to the interest rate targeting rule that we used in our analysis. A question could be: why central banks prefer to set the interest rate instead of targeting money supply? Our analysis provides a simple answer to that question: because central banks may believe that monetary shocks are more likely to hit the economy than real shocks. If that is the case, then committing to a policy rule that sets the interest rate and let money supply to be decided by the market is a better policy because it reduces the possible effects of the monetary shocks on output. Notice that we haven’t explained why the central bank must commit in advance to a rule. This will become clearer when we will discuss the issue of Credibility and Time Inconsistency of monetary policy. The IS-LM model and the Credit Crunch In the Autumn 2008 the world economy entered the deepest recession since the Great Depression. The origin of the crisis was the financial crisis in US in 2007, in the so called “sub-prime” market. The “sub-prime” market is a relatively small part of the mortgage market intended for borrowers with a relatively high probability of not being able to repay their loan. How can it be possible that problems in such a small market can create such a big recession? Furthermore, can we study the current recession using the IS-LM model? To study the credit crunch using the IS-LM model, we need to introduce in the model the role of banks. Implicitly we have the banks in the IS-LM since the interest rate is also the price of credit. However, we need to introduce the role of banks more explicitly. Banks are financial intermediaries, they collect money from savers and lend it to borrowers. Here we consider a commercial 5 bank and not an investment bank. The balance sheet of a commercial bank is given by: Assets Loans Other assets Liabilities Capital Deposits The value of the bank’s assets is mostly the value of the loans it has made to households and firms (although the bank may own other assets, such as the buildings it uses or financial assets such as bonds.) Capital, which appears on the right side, is the difference between the value of the assets and the value of the liabilities since Assets = Capital + Deposits, this the accounting identity for a commercial bank. Leverage: when you buy an asset (financial or real like a house) the leverage is the ratio between how much you borrow and how much your own capital you put up to buy the asset. The capital you put up is called “equity”. As the expression below shows, the smaller the amount of equity for any given value of the asset you buy, the higher the leverage. Debt Debt Leverage = ____________ = _________________________________________ Capital Cost of the investment – Amount borrowed (Debt) For a commercial bank, the leverage is: Assets Capital Consider the leverage for a commercial bank: lower is the level of capital compared to the debt and riskier the bank becomes. This implies that if there is a loss for the bank (for example some customers decide to withdraw the money from the bank, like for the case of Northern Rock), then the bank is in trouble because it may not have enough capital to absorb the loss and it can become insolvent. Loans are the biggest part of commercial bank assets as we can see from the data below: Total bank assets of commercial bank in US December 2008: 9,972 billion $ of which: Loans Government securities Other securities 7,195 (72,2 %) 1,262 (12,6 %) 1,516 (15.2 %) In order to introduce the banking sector in the IS-LM model we need to see the following: when firms want to make investments they will do so by borrowing some 6 money from commercial banks. However, when a firm borrows money from a bank it must pay an interest rate that is normally different (higher) from the interest rate that savers receive from deposits. The rate borrowers have to pay, i.e. the cost of a loan from the bank, ρ, is usually equal to the rate savers receive (i) plus a spread, x: ρ=i+x Here we use i for the interest rate but you should remember that i = r in the IS-LM model. Therefore, when a firm has to decide whether to buy a machine, ρ is the interest rate she has to look at. Investment demand therefore depends on the cost of bank loans (and not simply on the interest rate ) and can be expressed as: I = I (ρ) What determines the spread x between the lending rate ( ρ ) and the deposit rate ( i )? 1) The Banks’ capital: K B . Suppose that the capital of the banks decrease (for example to absorb a loss), then the leverage increases and the banks become riskier. The first reaction of the banks is therefore to reduce their assets, meaning they stop to lend. If banks stop lending, then the spread x increases. 2) The firms’ capital: K F . If a firm wants to make an investment A, it has to borrow A from a bank. Suppose the firm has a level of capital K F . The level of capital K F is used as to guarantee the loan. If the firm fails to repay the loan then bank can get K F . It is clear that if A > K F , then the capital is not enough to guarantee the loan and so the investment for the bank becomes riskier and it has to charge a higher lending interest rate, therefore the spread x increases. Therefore anything that makes the Banks’ capital and/or the Firms’ capital to decrease will increase the lending rate and therefore it will reduce the Firms’ investments. Given those information we can write the IS equation as: Y = C (Y − T ) + I (i + x( K B , K F )) + G where x( K B , K F ) means that the spread x depends on the banks’ capital and firms’ capital as outlined above. The LM equation is the usual one: M = L(Y , i ) P Now suppose that for any reason, the capital of the banks decreases. For example, suppose that some borrowers do not repay their loans and so the bank needs to use its capital to cover for that. The leverage of the bank increases and so the bank becomes 7 riskier. The bank then can look for new capital, but this takes time and it may be difficult, or can reduce their assets for example by stopping to lend money. We know that when the capital of the bank is reduced the spread x increases and so the cost of borrowing for the firms increases and investment decreases. Now suppose that for any reason, also the capital of firms decreases, for example because the stock market is going down. Also this effect will increase the spread x and this will reduce investment even further. Graphically, a reduction in investment shifts the IS curve to the left: The new equilibrium is now E’ where real output is now lower. Notice that the nominal interest rate is reduced after the shift of the IS curve, however this is not very helpful since for firms is now relevant the lending rate that is the nominal interest rate plus the spread x. Notice that the reduction in the interest rate is consistent with what happened in reality, where the interest rate is indeed decreased over the crisis. This shows how a change in the level of capital of commercial banks and firms can have indeed an effect in the equilibrium level of real output. From a policy point of view there are two things that we can do (possible at the same time): 1) We can try to increases government expenditure and try to shift the IS to the right. This is what many governments have done during the crisis by putting money into the system to nationalise some of the troubled institutions; 2) The central bank can increase money supply and try to shift the LM to the right. This is indeed what happened during the crisis. 8 Graphically we can have the following situation: The IS shifts to the left because of the decrease in the capital of Banks and firms. The new IS curve is IS’ and the equilibrium is E’. By increasing government expenditure, the IS can shift to the right, for example to IS’’. By increasing money supply the LM shifts to the right. However, as we can see from the graph, we may have the case in which there is not a positive interest rate consistent with the previous equilibrium of Y (Y*), and we may be stuck to Y’’ that is much lower. This is exactly a situation consistent with the liquidity trap studied previously. How long are we going to be stuck to the low equilibrium? This depends on how effective are the policies used. After a while the low interest rate associated with more liquidity in the system may start to restore investment spending and so the IS will start shifting to the right and we can escape the liquidity trap. A Final Note on the Monetary Policy instrument In the IS-LM model by definition monetary policy meant a change in money supply which will then result in a change in the interest rate as a consequence of the initial 9 change in the money supply. However, we know that most of the central banks, move (i.e. change or control) the interest rate first and then let the money supply level be decided by the demand for money in the market at that particular interest rate. In practice central banks tend to target the overnight interest rate – the interest rate banks charge one another on overnight loans. By setting first the interest rate, money supply becomes endogenous since it depends on the level of the interest rate that the central bank wants to achieve (this is the opposite of our assumption on the IS-LM model where money supply was assumed to be exogenous). In the US that interest rate is called the federal funds rate. In UK that interest rate use to be called the repo but it is now called the Bank Rate. Until the 1980s most central banks used a monetary policy known as Monetary Targeting. The central bank had a target about the level (or growth) of the money supply and so it changes money supply to achieve that target. In this case the LM curve that is derived for an exogenous money supply makes sense in describing such a policy. However, nowadays monetary targeting is out of fashion. Inflation targeting is now becoming more popular. Inflation targeting means that the central bank has a target over the inflation rate (say 2%) and it changes the interest rate accordingly to reach that target. In this case money supply is endogenous since it depends on the interest rate chosen by the central bank. The LM curve makes less sense for such a policy. Why do central banks set interest rates instead of the money supply? 1) They are easier to measure than the money supply. 2) The central bank might believe that monetary shocks are more prevalent than IS shocks. We have seen this in the first section of this lecture note. How does it work an inflation targeting policy? The graph below explains the monetary transmission mechanism according to the Bank of England. 10 The monetary transmission mechanism explains how monetary policy, in this case changing the short-run interest rate affects economic activity and so inflation. In the IS-LM model we do not have inflation; however we can still model it in such a way that the central bank changes the interest rate instead of money supply as monetary policy. As you may guess there are many interest rates in the economy that are relevant (interest rates that banks charge borrowing firms, interest rate on mortgages, etc. etc.). The central bank controls directly only one interest rate (the interest rate at which it lends to other banks overnight). However by controlling that single interest rate it is like controlling all others interest rates (especially short-run rates) in the economy. This is because interest rates tend to move together over time. This is shown in the following graph taken by the Central Bank of Canada. The central bank of Canada controls directly only the Bank of Canada Rate, but every time that rate is changed (increased or decreased) also all other interest rates in the economy will also change and in the same direction. The IS-LM model with the Taylor Rule As we noted above, monetary policy is done by setting the interest rate and so money supply becomes endogenous and not exogenous as we have assumed in deriving the LM curve. How do we change the IS-LM to take into account this issue? 11 First we need to know how monetary policy is conducted. Central banks perform monetary policy to achieve low and stable inflation and to avoid large fluctuations in output and employment due to shocks. A rule for monetary policy that has been proposed is the Taylor Rule. This is a rule proposed by John Taylor (economist at Stanford) in 1993 that appeared to be consistent with the actual behaviour of the Federal Reserve (and also of other central bank institutions). The idea is that the Central Bank is targeting a particular interest rate to respond to changes in the inflation and in the real economic activity (changes in Real GDP). Suppose that the Central Bank wants to achieve an inflation rate of 2%. This is the inflation target of the central bank. Then the typical Taylor Rule is: Y −Y i = π + 2 + 0.5(π − 2) − 0.5 Y where 100 x Y −Y = GDP gap = = percent by which real GDP is below its natural Y rate (denoted by Y ). If π = 2 (actual inflation is equal to the target) and output is at its natural rate, then interest rate is targeted at 4 percent (meaning that the central bank sets the interest rate at 4%). For each one-point increase in π, monetary policy is automatically tightened to raise the interest rate by 1.5. For each one percentage point that GDP falls below its natural rate, monetary policy automatically eases to reduce the interest rate by 0.5. In the graph below we see how the interest rate implied by the Taylor Rule matches the interest rate set by the Federal Reserve in US (the federal funds rate). 12 It appears indeed that the Taylor Rule was consistent with the behaviour of the FED since 1987. Therefore, it is like the FED was implicitly behaving according to the Taylor Rule even if the FED has never officially communicated to the public that it followed that rule. If this is the way monetary policy is conducted we can use this Taylor Rule in our IS-LM model instead of the LM curve. Consider the following version of the Taylor Rule: i = i + ϕ π (π − π ) + ϕ Y (Y − Y ) 1) Equation 1) looks slightly different than the empirical version of the Taylor Rule described above but it is exactly the same thing. In equation 1) i is the natural nominal interest rate that is the interest rate that the central bank would set if both inflation and real output were at the target (for example, the 4% described above), π is the actual inflation rate, π is the target inflation rate, Y is real output (real GDP) and Y is the target output that is equal to the natural level (full employment). The coefficients ϕ π and ϕ Y are positive and denotes the responsiveness of monetary policy to deviations of inflation from the target and of output from the target respectively. Since we are in the IS-LM world prices are fixed in the short-run (meaning inflation is zero) and therefore our Taylor Rule can be written as: i = i + ϕ Y (Y − Y ) 2) We call equation 2) the TR schedule when prices are fixed and so inflation is zero. Notice that in this case the nominal interest rate and the real interest rate are the same 13 as in the usual IS-LM model. This tells us that the central bank raises the interest rate whenever output is above the natural level and it decreases the interest rate whenever output is below the target. In this case monetary policy is particularly passive. The TR schedule is positively sloped in the (i, Y)-space since ϕ Y > 0 , like the LM curve. Here we use the nominal and not real interest rate, but with fixed price it does not make any difference which one you use. However, the central bank in reality does control directly the nominal interest rate (not the real). Graphically the IS-TR model looks like: i TR i IS Y Y This is pretty much similar to the IS-LM model. Assume for simplicity that the IS and the TR schedules intersect at the natural level of output. Now we can see the impact of a change in fiscal policy (i.e. a shift in the IS curve) on output and the interest rate, taking the endogenous change in money supply into account. Suppose an increase in public expenditure so that the IS curve shifts to the right to IS’. 14 i TR i’ i IS’ IS Y Y’ YA Y The result is an increase in output above the target and so the response of the central bank is to increase the nominal interest rate as described by the Taylor Rule. Notice the slight difference with the IS-LM model. In the IS-LM model the increase in the interest rate after an increase in public expenditure (crowding out) is due to the changes in the money market (higher Y means higher money demand, for a given money supply, interest rate must increase). Here, the increase in the interest rate is due to the fact that the central bank is following a Taylor Rule. Notice that the fluctuations in output is reduced because if the interest rate was kept constant the new level of output would have been YA > Y’. What happens here in the money market? Still an increase in public expenditure increases the money demand. However, now the central bank changes the money supply in such a way to achieve the interest rate prescribed by the Taylor Rule. Then we can ask the following: will the result we had be equal to one we would obtain with an LM curve? Or another way to say: is the TR schedule the same as the LM curve? The answer is generally no. To see this, we bring together the IS-TR model with the money market equilibrium: 15 i (M / P) ( M / P)1 i TR ia C B D La i’ IS’ A i L IS M/P Y Y’ Suppose that after the increase in output money demand increases from L to La. The new interest rate in the money market, if money supply remains fixed, should be ia, that is higher than the interest rate set by according to the Taylor Rule. In particular, we should be at point C in the old IS-LM model, and the LM curve should be steeper than the Taylor Rule (the LM curve will be the curve that connects point A with point C. So depending on how the money demand reacts to changes in output we may have a different response in terms of the interest rate depending if we use the IS-LM or the IS-TR model (obviously we can have also the case where the TR schedule is steeper than the LM curve). In this case the central bank will increase the money supply in order to reach point D on the money demand schedule La, since that will guarantee the interest rate i’ to arise in equilibrium. How do we model a change in monetary policy in the IS-TR model? For example the central bank may change the natural interest rate. This will shift the TR schedule. Another possibility is that central bank may change the way it responds to deviation of output from the natural level. In this case it will be the parameter ϕ Y to change. This will rotate the TR schedule. However, as you can see the qualitative results of the IS-LM model are still the same even if we consider a more realistic form of monetary policy. What is different is the mechanism behind those results (for example, we still have the crowding out effect, but here the way it arises is different from the way it arises in the classical IS-LM model). Another main difference with the IS-LM model, is that here the Central Bank does not decide to be expansionary or contractionary. In the IS-LM model, by setting the level of money supply, the central bank can decide to increase money supply in 16 Y order to increase output (expansionary monetary policy). In the IS-TR model, the Central Bank merely reacts to economic conditions according to the rule it follows (in this case a Taylor Rule). This seems to be consistent with what central banks tend to do in normal times: caring about price stability without trying to affect too much economic output. However, you should notice that during the last credit crunch some central banks (Bank of England, Federal Reserve) have adopted the quantitative easing approach that is like the increasing money supply in the original IS-LM model. 17