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Transcript
Name: _________________________________________
Period: _____
Final Exam Study Guide
•
Ecological Interactions—Chapter 9
1. Define the characteristics of a habitat and a niche
Habitat: where a population lives in an ecosystem
Niche: the role a population plays in its community
2. List the four roles of a niche
a. Type of food an organism eats
b. How it obtains its food
c.
When and how the organism reproduces
d.
Physical conditions required to survive
3. What happens if two organisms are competing for the same niche? Competition
4. How do some organisms survive in an ecosystem where there is competition? Adaptations
5. Describe the interaction between a kingfisher bird and a fish. Use your vocabulary words to describe their
relationship within the ecosystem, which part of the ecosystem they fit in (abiotic/biotic), and where they get
energy. The kingfisher bird is a predator that eats/gets energy from the fish, their prey. They are both
biotic factors in an ecosystem
6. What type of organism forms the base of most food webs? Producers
7. The
chain.
diagram below shows a meadow food
Which organism would be classified as a
tertiary consumer?
Snake
8. _____B_____ Commensalism
9. ____A______ Mutualism
10. ____C______ Parasitism
a. relationship that is positive for both organisms
b. relationship that is positive for one organism and has
no effect on the other
c. relationship that is positive for the parasite and
negative for the host
11. Compare and contrast predation and symbiosis. What is predation? What is symbiosis? How are they alike? How
are they different? One organism benefits in both symbiosis and predation. Predation is when one
organism hunts and kills for food. Symbiosis is where two organisms live in close association with each
other.
12. Use the food web on page 543 in your book. Place an X in the chart under the term that describes each living
thing in the food web. More than one term may be used to describe each organism.
Organism
Algae
Grouper
Nematode
Sea turtle
Parrot fish
Reef shark
Producer
x
Consumer
x
x
x
x
x
Parasite
Host
Predator
Prey
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Use the graph below to answer the following questions.
13. The graph below shows the pH tolerance level for different organisms in a freshwater ecosystem. What would
most likely happen if the pH of the pond water dropped from 5.5 to 3.5?
14. Following a short-term environmental change, which traits are most likely to be passed onto the next generation?
The traits of the organisms that survived the short-term change will most likely be passed onto the next
generation
The graph below shows how the population sizes of lynx and snowshoe hares changed over time. Use the graph to
answer questions 16–19.
15. When the hare population increased, what happened to the lynx population? Why? ? The lynx population also
increased. There were more prey, so the increased limiting factor (food) allowed more predators.
16. How do you think an increase in the lynx population affected the hare population? Why? The increased predator
population caused the hare (prey) population to decrease to do overhunting.
17. What other factors could have caused a decrease in the hare population? Overpopulation could mean that
there wasn’t enough food for them to eat
18. Predict what happened to the two populations between 1935 and 1945. The hare population will increase,
followed by the lynx population.
In 1997, a community decided to get rid of the population of rattlesnakes in the area. The graph below shows what
happened to the populations of rattlesnakes, birds, and rodents. (The rodents included animals such as mice, rats, and
prairie dogs.) Use the graph to answer questions 20–23.
19. Did the bird populations appear to benefit from the elimination of the rattlesnakes? How do you know? No. The
number of birds continued to decrease after the snakes were removed.
20. Did the rodent populations appear to benefit from the elimination of the rattlesnakes? How do you know? The
rodents did benefit from the elimination of snakes. The rodent population increased after the snakes were
removed.
21. What was the main source of food for the rattlesnakes? How can you tell? Rodents. When the snakes
(predators) were eliminated, the rodent population (prey) increased.
22. Why do you think the bird populations decreased sharply after the rattlesnakes were eliminated? There were
more rodents to eat the bird’s eggs.
23. Identify the following organisms from the marine food web:
1. Producers- Phytoplankton
2. Herbivores- Zooplankton, Cod, Krill
3. Omnivores- Cod, Krill
4. Carnivores- Krill, Cod, Squid, Leopard Seal, Pneguin, Killer
Whale, Elephant Seal
5. Which organisms are in competition?
-
Squid, Cod, and Krill
Elephant Seal, Leopard Seal, and Killer Whale
24. Draw a diagram with arrows showing where the energy comes from, ending with the decomposers:
(example: Sun è Producers èDecomposers)
25. Which organism transfers the most energy to the next level? Producers
Seasons, Moon Phases, and Tides—Chapter
27. __B__ Axis
a. The movement of one object around another object
28. __D__ Rotation
b. The imaginary line that passes through Earth’s center and the North and South poles
29. __A__ Revolution
c. The path of an object as it revolves around another object in space
30. __C__ Orbit
d. The spinning motion of a planet around its axis
31. Describe the revolution and rotation period of the moon (how long does it take for both).
It takes 29.5 days for the moon to revolve around the sun and since it rotates at the same speed of
revolution then it also takes 29.5 days to rotate.
32. Explain why only one side of the moon visible from Earth? The speed of the rotation of the moon matches the
speed of its revolution causing us to see the same side of the moon.
33. Explain why we are able to see the moon from Earth? The moon reflects sunlight
34. Explain why we see the different phase of the moon? As the moon revolves around the earth, we see
different portions of the sunlight side.
35. What causes day and night? The Earth’s rotation on its axis
36. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about Earth’s seasons.
a. Earth is closest to the sun when it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere.
b. The hemisphere that is tilted away from the sun has more daylight than the other hemisphere.
c. When it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere.
d. In December, the sun’s rays in the Northern Hemisphere are indirect.
37. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true when the Northern Hemisphere has summer.
a. The Southern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun.
b. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun.
c. The Southern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun.
d. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun.
38. In the diagram above, what season is it in North America? Winter
39. What season is it in South Africa? Summer
40. Would a person at each of the points A, B, and C see the sun? If so, where would the sun be in the sky?
A- Yes (highest in the sky, noon)
B- Yes (on the horizon, sunset)
C- No (midnight)
41. How long would the night be at the North Pole? How do you know? 24 hours because it is winter
42. What is a person standing at point B seeing, sunrise or sunset? Explain. Sunset because the earth rotates
counterclockwise.
43. Complete the table
Earth’s Seasons
Day in Northern
Hemisphere
Approximate Date
Each Year (N.H.)
Length of Daytime
Which Hemisphere is
Tilted Toward the Sun
Summer solstice
Autumnal equinox
Winter solstice
Vernal equinox
June 21
st
September 21
st
December 21
st
March 21
Long day/short nights
Equal day/night
Short day/long night
Equal day/night
Northern
Equator
Southern
Equator
st
44. What causes the phases of the moon, eclipses, and tides? As the moon revolves around the earth, we see
different portions of the sunlight side causing moon phases. At certain times of the year, the sun, moon,
and Earth align in the same plane during a new or full moon causing an eclipse. Tides also follow the
moon in its orbit around the earth causing a change in high and low tides depending on position and the
pull of gravity.
45. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about motions of the moon.
a. The moon revolves around the Earth once a year.
b. The “near side” of the moon always faces Earth.
c. The moon rotates slowly on its axis once every 29.5 days.
d. The moon’s orbit around Earth is an oval shape.
46. How long does the moon stay in each phase? How often does the moon go through a whole set of phases?
29.5 days / 8 moon phases = 3.8 days per moon phase.
47. What does the phase of the moon you see depend on? The position of the moon in relation to the sun and
Earth (how much of the sunlight side you see)
48. Using the diagram above, what phases of the moon would someone on Earth see when the moon is at positions
A - F?
a. New Moon
d. Full Moon
b. Waxing Crescent
e. Waning Gibbous
c.
f.
First Quarter
Third (last) Quarter
49. In what position must the moon be to cause a solar eclipse? Explain your answer. A solar eclipse is when the
sunlight is blocked from getting to Earth so the moon has to be in a new moon position (between the
earth and sun) in order to block the light.
50. What are the two types of eclipses?
a. Solar eclipse
b. Lunar eclipse
51. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about solar eclipses.
a. People in the umbra see only a partial solar eclipse.
b. During a partial solar eclipse, part of the sun remains visible.
c. During a total solar eclipse, the sky is dark.
d. People in the penumbra see a total solar eclipse.
52. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about lunar eclipses.
a. People in Earth’s umbra see a total lunar eclipse.
b. A lunar eclipse occurs at a full moon.
c. During a lunar eclipse, Earth blocks sunlight from reaching the moon.
d. A partial lunar eclipse occurs when the moon passes partly into the umbra of Earth’s shadow.
53. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about tides
a. The point on Earth that is closest to the moon has a high tide.
b. Every location on Earth has two high tides per month.
c. A low tide occurs at the point on Earth farthest from the moon.
d. The water left behind at the point on Earth farthest from the moon has a high tide.
54. Label the pictures below as Spring or Neap Tide
Spring Tide
Neap Tide
Astronomy—Chapter
55. What is the universe? Space and all of the energy and matter in it
56. What is a light year? The distance that light travels through space in one year
57. What is an astronomical unit? The average distance between Earth and the sun- used to measure distances
within the solar system
Match the following
60. __A__ Astronomical unit
a.
Measures distance within our solar system
61. __C__ Parallax
b. Measures distances between galaxies
62. __B__ Light year
c.
Measures distances between nearby stars
63. What are the three main characteristics used to classify stars?
a.
Size
b.
Temperature
c.
Brightness
64. Stars that are much larger than the sun are called Giants/Super Giants
65. Circle the letter of what is revealed by the red color of the supergiant star called Betelgeuse.
a. It is an extremely hot star.
b. It is in a constellation.
c. It is far away.
d. It is a relatively cool star.
66. The amount of light a star gives off is called its Absolute Magnitude
67. The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram shows the relationship between which two variables?
a. x-axis: Temperature
b. y-axis: Brightness
68. An area on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram that runs from the upper left to the lower right and includes more
than 90 percent of all stars is called the Main Sequence
69. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true based on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram.
a. The sun is a main-sequence star.
b. White dwarfs are brighter than supergiants.
c.
Rigel is hotter than Betelgeuse.
d. Polaris is brighter than the sun.
70. The name of our galaxy is: Milkyway
71. Which type of galaxy do we live in? Spiral
72. Describe each type of galaxy:
a. Spiral galaxy arms that spiral outward (youngest galaxy)
b. Elliptical galaxy round (oldest galaxy)
c.
Irregular galaxy irregular shape
74. Describe each type of nebulae—include if it is pre or post stellar
a. Emission nebula- Pre stellar- gives off its own light
b. Reflection nebula- Pre stellar- reflects light from stars
c.
Dark nebula- Pre stellar- blocks out light
d. Planetary nebula- Post stellar- the outter layers of a giant star
e. Supernova nebula- Post stellar- pieces of stars left over after an explosion of a
supergiant
75. Finish the life cycle of a star
low mass Main sequence è Giant è White dwarf / planetary nebula
Nebula è protostar è
high mass Black Hole
Main sequence è Supergiant è Supernova
Neutron Star
76. The diagram below represents spectral data from three different galaxies.
What do the shifts in the spectral lines of distant and very distant galaxies
indicate about the galaxies?
Red shift indicates that the galaxies are moving further away and
the further away they are, the faster they move.
77. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about electromagnetic waves.
a. Different electromagnetic waves have different frequencies.
b. All electromagnetic waves have the same wavelength.
c. Different electromagnetic waves have different wavelengths.
d. All electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed.
Science 8- Astronomy
78. Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about electromagnetic waves.
a. As the wavelength of electromagnetic waves decreases, the frequency increases.
b. Waves with the longest wavelengths have the lowest frequencies.
c. As the frequency of electromagnetic waves decreases, the wavelength increases.
d. Waves with the shortest wavelengths have the lowest frequencies.
a.
b.
c.
d.
f.
e.
g.
79. Use page 308 and 309, in your book, to help you label the electromagnetic spectrum above. Write
the names of the different waves that make up the spectrum from longest to shortest.
a.
Radio
b. Microwave
c.
Infrared
d.
Visible light
e.
Ultraviolet
f.
X-rays
g.
Gamma rays
80. Electromagnetic waves with wavelengths just shorter than those of visible light are called
Ultraviolet
81. Electromagnetic waves with frequencies higher than ultraviolet rays but lower than gamma rays
are X-ray
82. The electromagnetic waves with the shortest wavelengths and the highest frequencies are called
Gamma rays
Force and Motion—Chapter
83. What is the net force?
7N Left
84. Is there motion or no motion?
Motion
85. Is the force balanced or unbalanced?
Unbalanced
5N
17 N
5N
Science 8- Astronomy
86. What is the net force?
17N right
87. Is there motion or no motion?
Motion
88. Is the force balanced or unbalanced?
Unbalanced
3N
7N
7N
89. What is the net force?
0N
90. Is there motion or no motion?
No motion
25N
91. Is the force balanced or unbalanced?
25N
Balanced
92. Which object has an unbalanced force acting on it?
a. A person riding a bicycle at 10 mi/hr
b. A person accelerating down the track at 2.5 m/s
c. An boat sailing at 40.8 mi/hr
d. A soccer ball rolling at 1.5 m/s
93. Alex rode his bicycle 60 kilometers in 4 hours. How fast was he going?
𝟔𝟎 ÷ 𝟒 = 𝟏𝟓 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫
94. Matt says he is faster than Alex. He rode 93 kilometers in 6 hours. What is Matt’s speed, and who
is faster?
𝟗𝟑 ÷ 𝟔 = 𝟏𝟓. 𝟓 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫
95. What is the average speed of a car that travels 90 km in 2 hours, 50 km in 1.5 hour, and 200 km in
3 hours 𝟗𝟎 + 𝟓𝟎 + 𝟐𝟎𝟎 = 𝟑𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦
𝟐 + 𝟏. 𝟓 + 𝟑 = 𝟔. 𝟓 hours
𝟑𝟒𝟎 ÷ 𝟔. 𝟓 = 𝟓𝟐. 𝟑𝟏 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫
96. What is the difference between speed and velocity? Speed is the distance traveled over time
and Velocity is speed with direction
97. How do you determine speed using a graph? You need to find the slope of the line
98. On a speed graph, what is your x-axis & y-axis?
X-axis time
Y-axis distance
Science 8- Astronomy
Calculate each segment’s speed for the graph below
100.
A-B
10 m/s
101.
B-C
0 m/s
102.
C-D
20 m/s
103.
D-E
0 m/s
104.
E-F
20 m/s
105.
F-G
0 m/s
106.
G-H
10 m/s
107. Which point on the graph shows the fastest speed? C-D
108. Acceleration of an object will occur when an object…
a.
Speed up
b.
Slow down
c.
Change direction
Use your own words to define Newton’s three laws:
109. Newton’s first law : an object at rest will stay at rest & an object in motion will stay in motion
unless an outside force is applied.
110. Newton’s second law: if mass increases, acceleration decreases. If force increases,
acceleration increases; F = MA
111.
Newton’s third law: for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
Indicate which of Newton’s three laws are described below.
st
112. 1
The tectonic plates are moving very slowly. The plates have a lot of mass (and inertia), so they
keep moving until an unbalanced force changes the speed or direction of the plates’ motions.
rd
113. 3 The Pacific plate pushes against the North American plate, and the North American plate pushes
against the Pacific plate with the same amount of force.
nd
114. 2 Sometimes a large force like an earthquake causes a tectonic plate to accelerate (move faster).
More force results in greater acceleration (and usually more damage).
nd
115. 2 Because the roller coaster is moving so fast, a lot of force is usually needed to stop a rollercoaster
at the end of the ride. The more cars connected together (more mass), the more force needed to move
the roller coaster.
Science 8- Astronomy
rd
116. 3 The track pushes up (or forward) on the roller coaster, and the roller coaster pushes down (or
backwards) on the track.
st
117. 1 An unbalanced force is needed to make the rollercoaster start moving. Once the rollercoaster is in
motion, its inertia helps it remain in motion with little outside force.
Use one of the following words to complete the sentences below:
Increases
decreases
remains constant
118.
If mass is constant, as a force increases, the acceleration increases
119.
If the force is constant, as the mass increases, the acceleration decreases
Science 8- Astronomy