Download RPQP07 - cucet 2017

RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
-4-
PART – A
Directions : Fill in the blank with suitable option from those provided below to make the
given sentence grammatically correct.
1. Please vote for the member ————— has done the most for your village.
A) whom you believe
B) who you believed
C) that you believe
D) that you believed
Directions :The given sentence contains an error in the part in bold letters. Replace the
marked phrase with the option that best renders the meaning.
2. Most department stores offer customers the option that you may exchange your
purchases within ten days.
A) to exchange yours
B) of exchanging yours
C) that exchanges their
D) of exchanging their
Directions :Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can be substituted for the
given words/sentence in the following question :
3. One who talks continuously
A) avaricious
B) impecunious
C) loquacious
D) voracious
Directions : Select, from the alternatives given under the keyword (word in capital letters),
a suitable word that conveys more or less the same meaning as the word in capital letters.
4. ASSENT
A) distant
B) leave
C) confidence
D) consent
Directions : Select, from the alternatives given under the keyword (word in capital letters),
a suitable word that is more or less opposite in meaning to the keyword.
5. BASHFUL
A) bold
B) sinful
C) beautiful
D) useful
Directions : Choose the correct option from the four given below to complete the following
sentence :
6. The teacher took no ___________ the absentees.
A) notice about
B) notice of
C) notice from
D) notice to
*RPQP02*
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RP-QP – 02
Directions : Fill in the blanks with the option that best fits the meaning of the given
sentence as a whole.
7. The speech ——— with subtle threats has resulted in ——— tension in the sensitive
areas of the city.
A) started, reduced
B) replete, escalating
C) forced, dissolving
D) followed, remitting
Directions : From the given parts P, Q, R, S which correct option, forms a meaningful
sentence ?
8. P on the banks of the river Yamuna
R a snake charmer is a
A) RQPS
B) PQRS
Q person who moves
S with different types of snakes
C) QSPR
D) SRQP
Directions : Choose the correct substitute from the options, that best expresses the meaning
of the idiom/phrase marked in bold letters in the given sentence.
9. After the death of his father Ramesh is playing ducks and drakes with his inherited
property.
A) resting after work
B) spending lavishly
C) horse trading
D) fooling others
Directions : For the given word, match the dictionary definition on the left (PQRS) with
their corresponding usage on the right (1234). Out of the four possibilities given below
the table, select the correct combination that has all the definitions and usages most closely
matched.
10. POCKET
Dictionary Definition
P An enclosed space
Q A small isolated group of people
R A supply of money
S Put in one’s pocket
A) P1, Q2, R3, S4
C) P2, Q4, R3, S1
Usage
1. The trapped miners found a pocket of air.
2. He pocketed the change.
3. They dipped into the tax-payer’s pockets.
4. They lived in pockets.
B) P2, Q3, R1, S4
D) P1, Q4, R3, S2
RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
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11. Choose the appropriate answer for the following :
Ottawa : Canada : : Canberra : ?
A) Argentina
C) Sri Lanka
B) Switzerland
D) Australia
12. Which number will come in blank space ?
19, 2, 38, 3, 114, 4, __
A) 228
B) 256
C) 352
D) 456
13. A is father of C and D is son of B. E is the brother of A. If C is the sister of D, how is
B related to E ?
A) Daughter
B) Brother-In-law
C) Husband
D) Sister-In-law
14. A is three times as old as B. C was twice as old as A four years ago. In four years
time, A will be 31. What is the present age of B and C respectively ?
A) 9, 46
B) 9, 50
C) 10, 46
D) 10, 50
15. How many Parallelograms are there in the following figure ?
A) 12
C) 29
B) 20
D) 30
16. The temples of Khajuraho were built by the rulers of which of the following dynasties ?
A) Baghela
B) Parmar
C) Bundela
D) Chandela
17. What is the difference in value between a country’s imports and exports ?
A) Balance of payment
B) Credit balance
C) Balance of trade
D) Balance of power
*RPQP02*
RP-QP – 02
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18. The current Chief Information Commissioner is
A) R.K. Mathur
B) S.Y. Duraishi
C) K.G. Balakrishnan
D) Deepak Sandhu
19. Which of the following is not the main organ of the U.N.O. ?
A) General Assembly
B) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation
C) Security Council
D) Trusteeship Council
20. Choose the correct option
(8/88) × 8888088 = ?
A) 808008
C) 808088
B) 808080
D) 8008008
21. The average of the two digit numbers, which remains the same when the digits
interchange their positions, is :
A) 33
B) 44
C) 55
D) 66
22. 860% of 50 + 50% of 860 = ?
A) 430
B) 516
C) 860
D) 960
23. The sale price of an article including the sales tax is Rs. 616. The rate of sales tax is
10%. If the shopkeeper has made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is
A) Rs. 500
B) Rs. 515
C) Rs. 550
D) Rs. 600
24. If 15% of x = 20% of y, then x : y is
A) 3 : 4
C) 17 : 16
B) 4 : 3
D) 16 : 17
25. A and B can do a piece of work in 5 days; B and C can do it in 7 days; A and C can do
it in 4 days. Who among these will take the least time if put to do it alone ?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) Data inadequate
RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
-8-
PART – B
26. Number of unpaired electrons in
O
,
2
O
N
2
O
,
are respectively
A) one, two, two
B) zero, two, one
C) two, one, one
D) one, one, two
27. The order of increasing basicity for A12O3, B2O3, BaO, CO2, Cl 2O7 and SO3 is
A) CO2<SO3<Cl2O7<Al2O3<B2O3<BaO
B) BaO<Cl2O7<CO2<SO3<B2O3<Al2O3
C) Cl2O7<SO3<CO2<B2O3<Al2O3<BaO
D) B2O3<CO2<Cl2O7<SO3<Al2O3<BaO
28. The compound which exhibits Jahn Teller distortion is
A) [Mn(H2O)6]3+
B) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
C) [Cr(H2O) 6]3+
D) [Fe(CN)6]4–
29. Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom ?
B) SF4
A) XeF4
C) I3–
D) ClO3–
30. The crystal field stabilization energy of low spin d4 octahedral complex is
A)
B)
!
2
!
C)
2
#
#
&
2
D)
#
31. B6H10 and B5H9 respectively are examples of
A) nido and arachno boranes
B) closo boranes
C) nido and closo boranes
D) nido boranes
&
#
!
2
*RPQP02*
RP-QP – 02
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32. Identify the nitrogen compounds I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the scheme given below.
A)
B)
C)
D)
I=NO2, II = HNO3, III = NO, IV = N2O4, V = NO2, VI = NH4+
I = HNO3, II = NO, III = N2O4, IV = NO 2, V = NH4+, VI = NO
I = N2O4, II = NO, III = HNO3, IV = N2O4, V = NO2, VI = NH4+
I = NO2, II = N2O4, III = NO, IV = HNO 3, V = NO2, VI = NH4+
33. Both geometrical and optical isomerisms are shown by
A) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
D) [Cr(ox) 3]3–
34. Terms arise from a p1d1 configuration are
A) 1F and 3F
B) 1P and 3P
C) 1P and 6S
D) 3P and 1D
35. The order of increasing rate of substitution by H2O for the complexes [Co(NH3)6]3+ ,
[Rh(NH3)6]3+, [Ir (NH3)6]3+, [Mn(H2O)6]2+ , [Ni(H2O) 6]2+ is
A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Rh(NH3)6]3+ < [Ir(NH3)6]3+ <[Mn(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+
B) [Ir(NH3)6]3+< [Rh(NH3)6]3+<[CO(NH3)6]3+< [Ni(H2O) 6]2+< [Mn(H2O)6]2+
C) [Rh(NH3)6]3+< [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Ir(NH3)6]3+< [Mn(H2O) 6]2+<[Ni(H2O)6]2+
D) [Mn(H2O) 6]2+<[Co(NH3)6]3+<[Ni(H2O)6]2+<[Rh(NH3)6]3+< [Ir(NH 3)6]3+
36. (
#
– Cp) (CO)2Fe (CH2CH3) does not undergo
A) there is no
-elimination because
-hydrogen
B) Fe-C-C-H unit is not in a coplanar conformation
C) there is no vacant site on the metal, cis-to the alkyl
D) there are no d electrons for the metal to back donate into
orbital of C-H
RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
-10-
37. Number of metal-metal bonds in Rh4(CO)12 are
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
38. Which of the following statements about complexes that form between metals, Mn+,
and EDTA in aqueous solution is true ?
A) Metal-EDTA complexes have an equilibrium concentration that is independent of pH.
B) The presence of other complexing ligands in solution affects the equilibrium
concentrations of metal-EDTA complexes.
C) Metal-EDTA complexes are less stable than the corresponding metal-amine
complexes.
D) Metal-EDTA complexes are usually highly coloured.
39. A solution containing 1 mg of iron (as the thiocyanate complex) in 100 mL was
observed to transmit 25% of the incident light compared to an appropriate blank.
What would be the absorbance of a solution of iron four times as concentrated ?
(log 2 = 0.301)
A) 0.602
B) 2.408
C) 0.25
D) 0.01
40. The metals present in the metalloenzymes carboxypeptidase, hydrogenase,
aminopeptidases are respectively
A) Zinc, Iron, Manganese
B) Iron, Zinc, Magnesium
C) Zinc, Manganese, Iron
D) Manganese, Iron, Zinc
41. The correct order of acidic nature
A) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
C) H2O > H2S > H2Te > H 2Se
B) H2S > H2O > H2Se > H2Te
D) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
42. Which one of the following pair (metal complex and the magnetic property) is correct ?
A) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ , diamagnetic
B) [Co(CN)6]3–, diamagnetic
C) [Zn(H2O)6]2+, paramagnetic
D) [CoF6]3–, diamagnetic
43. In the inner-sphere mechanism of redox reactions of transition metal complexes
A) the two complexes come into contact without sharing a bridging ligand
B) H2O is a better bridging ligand than are soft bases with only one pair of electrons to
donate to the metal centers
C) the electron transfer is rarely the rate determining step
D) good bridging ligands are those with more than one pair of electrons to donate to the
two metal centers
*RPQP02*
RP-QP – 02
-11-
44. On oxidative addition of H 2 to the complex [IrCl(CO)(PPh 3 ) 2 ] (transchlorocarbonylbis (triphenylphosphine) iridium (I), also known as Vaska’s complex,
result in the final product
A)
B)
C)
D)
45. Which of the following contains 18-valence electrons ?
A) HCo(CO)4
B) HCo(CO)3
C) RhH(CO)(PPh3)2
D) Rh(PPh3)2Cl
46. In the Rieske-type of [2Fe-2S] cluster
A) Two histidine-nitrogen atoms are coordinated to one of the iron atoms and the other
iron atom is coordinated by cysteine sulphur atoms
B) Two iron atoms are coordinated by all cysteine sulphur atoms
C) Two iron atoms are coordinated by all histidine nitrogen atoms
D) Two histidine-nitrogen atoms are coordinated to one of the iron atoms and the other
iron atom is coordinated by methionine sulphur atoms
47. The metal-carbene shown below and the nature of carbene carbon are
A) Fischer carbene, nucleophilic
C) Schrock carbene, nucleophilic
B) Fischer carbene, electrophilic
D) Schrock carbene, electrophilic
48. The 14.4 keV gamma source used in 57Fe-Mossbauer Spectroscopy is
A) 60Co
B) 59Co
C) 57Co
D) 56Co
RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
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49. Number of lines observed in the Electron Paramagnetic Spectrum of Cu2+ is
A) three lines
B) six lines
C) two lines
D) four lines
50. Complete and balance the following equation. The missing term is
239Pu
+ alpha particle
_________ + neutron
A) 2 115Ag
B) 2 106 Rh
C) 235U
51. Identify HUMO and LUMO among the following
D) 242Cm
-MOs of 1,3-butadiene
1
1
1
1
1
1
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) II and IV
D) I and IV
52. Identify the lowest and the highest
I
II
III
IV
V
1
8
-MOs of benzene
VI
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) V and VI
D) I and VI
53. Arrange the following in the order of increasing acidity
H
C
H
=
C
I
I
C
C
H
H
I
I
I
I
I
V
A) I<II<III<IV
B) II < III<IV<I
C) II<I<IV<III
D) I<IV<III<II
*RPQP02*
RP-QP – 02
-13-
54. Match the Hammett
values of -0.07, +0.61, +0.79 and -0.78 with substituents
p-OCH3, p-CF3, p-F and p-NO2
A) p-OCH3 +0.79, p-CF3 +0.61, p-F – 0.07 and p-NO2 – 0.78
B) p-OCH3 – 0.78, p-CF3 +0.61, C:p-F – 0.07 and p-NO2 +0.79
C) p-OCH3 +0.79, p-CF3 -0.07, C:p-F +0.61 and p-NO2 – 0.78
D) p-OCH3 – 0.07, p-CF3 +0.61, p-F +0.79 and p-NO2 – 0.78
55. Arrange the following compounds in the order of decrease in aromaticity
S
I
A) I>II>III
I
O
I
I
B) III>II>I
I
I
C) II>III>I
D) II>I>III
56. Arrange the following compounds in the order of increase in polarity
O
O
O
O
I
I
A) I<II<III
I
B) III<II<I
57. Indicate whether the Hammett
I
I
I
C) II<III<I
D) II<I<III
values will be (+) ve or (–) ve for the substituents
I : p-OCH3, II : p-CF3, III : p-CH3, IV : p-COOCH3.
A) I and III (+) ve, II and IV (–) ve
B) I and II (+) ve, III and IV (–) ve
C) I and III (–) ve, II and IV (+) ve
D) I and II (–) ve, III and IV (+) ve
58. Most and least negative
compounds
value expected for the SN1 reactions of the following
C
H
l
C
C
H
!
!
H
C
!
C
C
H
!
H
!
C
C
H
H
C
!
H
C
H
l
C
C
C
l
l
l
!
C
!
C
l
Z
Z
Z
Z
I
I
A) IV and III
I
I
I
V
I
I
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) II and IV
RP-QP – 02
-14-
*RPQP02*
59. Indicate whether the kinetic isotopic effect expected for the following reactions is
expected to be primary or secondary kinetic isotopic effect.
A) I Primary II Secondary, III Primary
B) I Primary, II Primary, III Secondary
C) I Secondary, II Primary, III Secondary D) I Secondary, II Secondary, III Primary
60. Indicate whether the entropy of activation is expected to be (–) ve or (+) ve for the
following reactions.
A) I (+) ve, II (+) ve, III (–) ve
C) I (+) ve, II (–) ve, III (–) ve
B) I (+) ve, II (–) ve, III (+) ve
D) I (–) ve, II (+) ve, III (–) ve
61. Select reagents for the following transformations from the reagents I or II or III.
A) X = II, Y = III and Z = I
C) X = II, Y = I and Z = III
B) X = I, Y= II and Z = III
D) X = I, Y= III and Z = II
*RPQP02*
RP-QP – 02
-15-
62. Select most appropriate X, Y and Z from I or II or III reagents for the following
transformation.
O
C
O
R
R
B
-
C
-
R
X
B
Y
Z
!
H
e
a
t
O
R
O
=
B
-
C
R
R
B
-
C
O
R
B
!
!
R
I
I
A)
B)
C)
D)
I
I
I
I
X : I, Y : III, Z : II
X : I, Y : II, Z : III
X : II, Y : III, Z : I
X : II, Y : I, Z : III
63. Select the most appropriate reagents X, Y and Z from I or II or III for the following
transformations.
+
K
C
H
O
C
H
!
3
H
H
(
H
C
3
)
S
3
i
O
X
K
S
i
(
C
H
)
3
C
3
H
3
Y
Z
H
H
C
!
C
H
2
H
5
3
C
C
H
2
5
C
3
H
C
2
H
5
+
K
C
H
3
H
O
H
H
3
H
3
C
3
C
C
l
C
O
O
O
H
C
H
(
H
3
C
)
3
S
C
2
H
5
i
C
H
2
5
I
I
I
I
A) X : II, Y : I, Z : III
C) X : II, Y : III, Z : I
I
I
B) X : III, Y : II, Z : I
D) X : I, Y : II, Z : III
64. Select most appropriate reagents X, Y and Z from I or II or III for the following
conversions
Z
A
l
(
C
H
)
!
!
C
C
p
T
i
C
H
l
X
C
p
T
i
O
C
l
A
l
(
C
H
)
!
O
H
Y
C
C
p
T
i
A
l
(
C
H
)
!
O
C
C
l
H
O
"
I
A) X : I, Y : III, Z : II
C) X : III, Y : I, Z : II
I
I
I
I
I
B) X : II, Y : I, Z : III
D) X : II, Y : III, Z : I
RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
-16-
65. Select most appropriate reagents X, Y and Z from I or II or III for the following
epoxidations
O
O
X
O
Y
O
O
H
O
H
Z
O
C
[
[
H
O
+
N
a
O
H
T
i
(
O
P
r
i
)
+
D
i
e
t
h
y
l
t
a
r
t
a
r
a
t
e
+
t
-
B
u
O
O
H
O
O
O
H
]
"
]
C
I
I
I
A)
B)
C)
D)
l
I
I
I
X : II, Y : III, Z :I
X : III, Y : I, Z : II
X : I, Y : III, Z : II
X : II, Y : I, Z : III
66. Identify the optically active compounds among the following :
C
H
H
!
C
H
H
!
H
H
C
C
H
N
H
N
!
!
C
C
C
H
!
N
N
C
C
H
H
!
!
H
H
1
1
1
1
1
1
8
1
A) I and II
C) II and III
B) III and IV
D) I and III
67. Assign configurations for the following optically active compounds
N
H
N
H
C
C
N
H
C
O
O
H
H
!
C
1
A)
B)
C)
D)
I : R, II : S, III : R
I : R, II : R, III : R
I : S, II : R, III : S
I : S, II : S, III : R
1
1
O
O
H
1
1
1
O
O
H
*RPQP02*
RP-QP – 02
-17-
68. Assign configurations for the following compounds
H
C
H
C
!
!
H
C
!
C
H
O
O
C
!
C
H
!
C
H
H
C
!
O
O
C
!
C
O
O
C
H
!
H
C
!
I
I
I
I
A) I : E, E, II : E, Z, III : Z, Z
C) I : E, E, II : Z, Z, III : E, Z
I
I
B) I : Z, Z, II : E, E, III : E, Z
D) I : E, Z, II : E, E, III : Z, Z
69. Indicate favorable reactions among I, II, III and IV
C
H
!
H
C
C
H
!
!
H
H
C
H
C
!
!
H
H
C
H
O
N
a
!
H
H
C
H
O
!
N
a
H
H
I
H
C
!
H
I
H
1
1
H
1
H
C
!
C
H
!
H
P
h
O
H
P
h
O
O
P
h
H
C
O
C
P
h
H
1
1
1
8
1
A) I and III
B) II and IV
C) I and IV
D) III and IV
70. Predict the configurations of the compounds I, II and III.
C
H
C
H
C
O
N
H
C
H
N
H
C
H
C
H
B
r
N
N
a
O
B
O
O
C
-
-
O
a
/
H
g
r
B
H
r
N
=
O
H
(
H
O
O
C
-
C
H
-
O
H
H
O
O
C
-
-
O
-
)
-
L
a
c
t
1
1
4
A) I : R, II : R, III : S
C) I : S, II : R, III : S
1
i
c
a
c
i
d
H
1
1
1
B) I : R, II : S, III : R
D) I : R, II : R, III : R
71. Propose a structure for the compound with the following 1H NMR data :
1.90 (m, 4H), 2.40 (t, 2H), 4.26 (t, 2H)
A)
B)
C)
D)
RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
-18-
72. Identify the following terpenoids :
A) I : Isopinocampheol, II : Geraniol, III : Borneol, IV : Menthol
B) I : Borneol, II : Menthol, III : Isopinocampheol, IV : Geraniol
C) I : Geraneol, II : Menthol, III : Borneol, IV : Isopinocampheol
D) I : Isopinocampheol, II : Menthol, III : Borneol, IV : Geraniol
73. In the broadband decoupled 13C NMR spectrum, the number of signals appearing
for the two pyrenediols P and Q (shown below) respectively would be
O
H
H
O
O
H
H
O
2
3
A) 6 and 6
B) 6 and 5
C) 5 and 6
D) 5 and 5
74. Select the right combination for the reaction shown below :
0
0
2
3
A)
B)
C)
D)
Photochemical conditions; DIS rotation; H’s shown in Q are anti to each other
Thermal conditions; DIS rotation; H’s shown in Q are syn to each other
Photochemical conditions; CON rotation; H’s shown in Q are syn to each other
Thermal conditions; CON rotation; H’s in Q are anti to each other
*RPQP02*
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75. Identify the following medicinal compounds
C
C
O
O
l
H
O
O
H
H
H
O
R
N
S
N
O
O
O
O
O
N
O
N
O
N
H
H
O
H
C
O
O
H
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
8
A) I: Paracetamol, II : S-Amlodipine, III :Penicillin, IV : Aspirin
B) I: Aspirin, II :S-Amlodipine, III : Penicillin, IV : Paracetamol
C) I: Paracetamol, II : Penicillin, III : S-Amlodipine, IV : Aspirin
D) I : Aspirin, II : Penicillin, III : S-Amlodipine, IV : Paracetamol
76. A perfect gas expands reversibly at a constant temperature of 298 K so that its volume
doubles. What is the change in the molar internal energy of the gas ?
B) 0 J mol–1
A) 2.27 kJ mol–1
C) +1.72 kJ mol–1
D) – 2.27 kJ mol–1
77. Which of the following statements is always true for a reaction in which there is no
non-expansion work ?
U = qp
A)
B)
H= qp
C)
U=0
D)
H= 0
78. Which of the following conditions is necessary for a reaction to be spontaneous ?
Ssur +
Ssur +
Ssur –
Ssys > 0
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ssys > 0
Ssys < 0
Ssys > 0
79. Which of the following statements is always true for a system at equilibrium under
conditions of constant temperature and pressure ?
B) G = 0
A) S> 0
C) dG =
@
M
m
a
x
D)
S = 0
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80. Calculate the probability that a particle in a one-dimensional box of length a is
found to between 0 and a/2.
A) 0.33
B) 0.75
C) 0.25
D) 0.50
81. Calculate the entropy change when 2.0 mol of a perfect gas A and 3.0 mol of a
perfect gas B mix spontaneously.
B) + 2.8 J K–1
A) +28 J K–1
C) 0 J K–1
D) +5.6 J K–1
82. Term symbol for the ground state electronic configuration of He2+ is
A)
C)
K
C
B)
D)
K
K
83. A particle confined in a 2-dimensional square box with dimension a, has energy
equal to 50 h2/( 8ma2) in a state . What is the degeneracy of the state?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
84. In ground state perturbation theory, second-order correction to energy
A) is always negative or zero
B) is always positive
C) can have any sign (positive or negative)
D) always same as the first-order correction to the energy
85. How many nodes does a 4d orbital have ?
A) 3, of which 1 is an angular node and 2 are radial nodes
B) 2, of which 1 is an angular node and 1 a radial node
C) 3, of which 2 are angular nodes and 1 a radial node
D) 3, of which all are angular nodes
86. What group is obtained by deleting from S6 point group the symmetry operation i
(inverse) ?
B) S3
A) C3
C) C3v
D) D3
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87. The dipole moment of hydrogen chloride, HCl, is 1.91 D and the bond length is
0.917 Å. Calculate the fractional charge on the hydrogen and chlorine atoms.
A) 0.43 e
B) 1.45 e
C) 1.22 e
D) 2.45 e
88. Consider these standard electrode potentials :
Mg2+(aq) + 2e–
Zn2+(aq) + 2e –
Mg(s) E0 = –2.36 V
Zn(s)
0
E = –0.76 V
What is the cell potential for the voltaic cell produced when two half cells are
connected ?
A) –3.12 V
B) +3.12 V
C) –1.60 V
D) +1.60 V
89. Which quantity will not change for a sample of gas in a sealed rigid container when
it is cooled from 100 C to 75 C at constant volume ?
A) The average speed of the molecules
B) The average energy of the molecules
C) The pressure of the gas
D) The density of the gas
90. Sodium crystallizes in a bcc lattice of side length 4.3 Å. What is the density of the
metal ?
A) 0.96 g/cc
B) 0.43 g/cc
C) 1.92 g/cc
D) 0.75 g/cc
91. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis ?
A) Potential energy is released to form free energy
B) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
C) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
D) Oxygen is taken and carbon dioxide and water vapor are given out
RP-QP – 02
*RPQP02*
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92. The ionization energy of electron from the ground state of hydrogen atom is
13.6 eV. The ionization energy of electron from the first excited state of Li 2+ is
A) 3.4 eV
B) 30.6 eV
C) 122.4 eV
D) 20.4 eV
93. Which of the following best describes formation of
bonds ?
A) They are formed by the axial overlap of orbitals
B) They are formed by the sideways overlap of s and p- orbitals
C) They are formed by the axial overlap of either s or p- orbitals
D) They are formed by the sideways overlap of parallel orbitals
94. The commutator of momentum and position operators in x-direction [ px, x] is
A)
E
B)
D
E
D
C)
D)
D
D
95. If the reduced mass of a diatomic molecule is doubled without changing its force
constant, the vibrational frequency of the molecule will be
A)
B)
times the original frequency
times the original frequency
C) twice the original frequency
D) unchanged
96. The intrinsic viscosity depends on the molar mass as
constants k and
are dependent on
A) Solvent-polymer together
B) Interactions between the polymers
C) Solvent only
D) Polymers only
[
h
]
K
M
. 93. The empirical
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RP-QP – 02
97. A thermodynamic equation that relates the chemical potential to the composition of
a mixture is known as
A) Gibbs – Helmholtz equation
B) Joule – Thomson equation
C) Debye – Huckel equation
D) Gibbs – Duhem equation
98. The packing fraction of simple cubic, body centered cubic and face centered cubic
structures are respectively
A) 0.52, 0.74, 0.68
B) 0.52, 0.68, 0.74
C) 0.68, 0.52, 0.74
D) 0.74, 0.52, 0.68
99. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
A) Molecular orbitals built out of atomic orbitals are orthonormal
B) Valence bond theory is built explicitly through non-orthogonal set of atomic orbital
C) Molecular orbital theory of simple hydrogen molecule predicts the wavefunction to
be covalent only
D) The singlet wave function of a two electron system has a antisymmetric spin part
100. Which of the following is not correct for physical adsorption ?
A) Adsorption on solid is reversible
B) Adsorption is spontaneous
C) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature
D) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative
____________
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
*RPQP02*