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REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. When assigning a scientific name to an organism: A) the species name is capitalized B) the species name is placed first C) the species name can be abbreviated D) both genus and species names are capitalized E) both genus and species names are italicized or underlined 2. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism? B) protozoa C) bacteria D) viruses E) fungi A) mosquito 3. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis? A) Joseph Lister B) Ignaz Semmelweis C) Robert Koch D) Louis Pasteur E) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek 4. Which of the following is a scientific name? D) Bacillus subtilis E) bacilli A) bacteria B) Protista C) species 5. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that: A) cause human disease B) lack a cell nucleus C) are infectious particles D) are too small to be seen with the unaided eye E) can only be found growing in laboratories 6. Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized? A) cell wall B) fimbriae C) cell membrane D) capsule E) all of the choices are correct 7. The bacterial chromosome: A) is located in the cell membrane B) contains all the cell's plasmids C) is part of the nucleoid D) forms a single linear strand of DNA E) all of the choices are correct 8. The function of bacterial endospores is: A) convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants B) reproduction and growth C) protection of genetic material during harsh conditions D) storage of excess cell materials E) sites for photosynthesis 9. Endospores are: A) metabolically inactive B) resistant to heat and chemical destruction C) resistant to destruction by radiation D) living structures E) all of the choices are correct 10. Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial: A) cell walls membranes C) capsules D) slime layers E) inclusions 11. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as: nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils B) cell A) lymph 12. Nonspecific chemical defenses include: A) lysozyme B) lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat C) skin's acidic pH and fatty acids D) stomach hydrochloric acid E) all of the choices are correct Page 1 13. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is: A) lactic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) lysozyme D) histamine E) bile 14. The reticuloendothelial system: A) is a support network of connective tissue fibers B) originates in the cellular endothelia (basal lamina) C) provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs D) is heavily populated with macrophages E) all of the choices are correct 15. Comprise 3–7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages: A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes 16. The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are: A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes 17. All of the following pertain to interferon except: A) protein B) produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells C) includes alpha, beta, and gamma types D) inhibit viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression E) increase capillary permeability and vasodilation 18. Diapedesis is the: A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues 19. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except: A) the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin B) nasal hairs C) flushing action of tears and blinking D) flushing action of urine E) phagocytic white blood cells 20. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called: A) antibodies C) activated macrophages D) plasma cells E) Bursa cells B) sensitized T cells 21. Class II MHC genes code for: A) certain secreted complement components B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells E) all of the choices are correct 22. Superantigens are: A) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign B) cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens D) those that evoke allergic reactions E) none of the choices are correct 23. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response Page 2 24. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA A) IgM only B) IgG only 25. An example of artificial passive immunity would be: A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct 26. The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where: A) immune responses to antigen occur B) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes C) antigen is filtered from the blood D) antigen is filtered from tissue fluid E) T lymphocytes complete maturation 27. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions: A) are the result of genetic expression B) function in recognition of self molecules C) receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system D) aid in cellular development E) all of the choices are correct 28. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except: A) foreign to the immune system B) molecular complexity C) large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000 D) large polymers made up of repeating subunits E) cells or large, complex molecules 29. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response 30. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is: A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM 31. The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are: A) Type 1 only B) Type 1 and Type 4 C) Type 4 only D) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 E) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4 32. All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except: C) IgE D) complement E) foreign cells A) IgM B) IgG 33. Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause: A) recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs B) fever and anemia C) systemic shock and kidney failure D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E) all of the choices are correct Page 3 34. What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters that body for a second time? A) degranulation B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability 35. Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? A) degranulation B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability 36. Autoimmunity is typically due to: A) transfusion reaction B) IgE and mast cells C) IgG and IgM D) graft rejection E) a deficiency in T-cell development 37. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in: A) serum sickness B) delayed hypersensitivity C) anaphylaxis D) hemolytic disease of the newborn E) all of the choices are correct 38. Contact dermatitis involves: A) a sensitizing and provocative dose B) allergen entering the skin C) T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines D) itchy papules and blisters E) all of the choices are correct 39. Protists include: A) yeasts and molds B) algae and protozoa C) helminths D) all of the choices are correct E) none of the choices are correct 40. Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of: A) protozoa C) fungi D) bacteria E) all of the choices are correct 41. The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the: A) ribosome C) nucleus D) golgi apparatus E) lysosome B) algae B) nucleolus 42. Host cells of viruses include: A) human and other animals B) plants and fungi C) bacteria D) protozoa and algae E) all of the choices are correct 43. Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except: A) type of nucleic acid B) type of capsid C) presence of an envelope D) biochemical reactions E) number of strands in the nucleic acid 44. Viruses have all the following except: A) definite shape D) ability to infect host cells E) ultramicroscopic size Page 4 B) metabolism C) genes 45. Host range is limited by: A) type of nucleic acid in the virus B) age of the host cell C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane D) size of the host cell E) all of the choices are correct 46. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. A) nucleus, cytoplasm B) cytoplasm, cell membrane C) cell membrane, cytoplasm D) cytoplasm, nucleus E) nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum 47. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called: A) latent B) oncogenic C) prions D) viroids E) delta agents 48. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the: A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) all of the choices are correct 49. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the: A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) all of the choices are correct 50. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called: A) saprobes B) parasites C) autotrophs D) lithoautotrophs E) phototrophs 51. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample. A) cell, cell B) cell, colony C) colony, cell D) species, colony E) generation, cell 52. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in: A) bacterial conjugation B) transformation C) generalized transduction D) specialized transduction E) all of the choices are correct 53. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the: A) primer B) Okazaki fragment C) template D) rolling circle E) replication fork 54. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation 55. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation Page 5 56. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A) cells die at increasingly greater rates B) only older cells die in a culture C) cells in a culture die at a constant rate D) upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time E) cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed 57. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called: A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs 58. Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include: A) low toxicity for human tissues B) high toxicity against microbial cells C) do not cause serious side effects in humans D) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids E) all of the choices are correct 59. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths: A) do not cause many human infections B) are not affected by antimicrobics C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult D) are parasites found inside human cells E) because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria 60. All infectious diseases: A) are contagious B) only occur in humans C) are caused by microorganisms or their products D) are caused by vectors E) involve viruses as the pathogen 61. Infection occurs when: A) contaminants are present on the skin B) a person swallows microbes in/on food C) a person inhales microbes in the air D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues E) all of the choices are correct Page 6