Download Chemistry Semester 1 Practice Final

Chemistry Semester 1 Practice Final
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Chemistry Semester 1 Practice Final
Matching
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. mixture
d. reactant
b. product
e. heterogeneous mixture
c. phase
f. vapor
1. gaseous state of substance that is a liquid or solid at room temperature
ANSWER: F
2. a physical blend of two or more components
ANSWER: A
3. part of a sample having uniform composition and properties
ANSWER: C
4. not uniform in composition
ANSWER: E
5. a substance formed in a chemical reaction
ANSWER: B
6. starting substance in a chemical reaction
ANSWER: D
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. proton
d. electron
b. nucleus
e. neutron
c. atom
7. the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element
ANSWER: C
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8. a positively charged subatomic particle
ANSWER: A
9. a negatively charged subatomic particle
ANSWER: D
10. a subatomic particle with no charge
ANSWER: E
11. the central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons
ANSWER: B
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. mass number
d. atomic mass
b. atomic mass unit
e. isotope
c. atomic number
12. atoms with the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus of an
atom
ANSWER: E
13. the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
ANSWER: A
14. the number of protons in the nucleus of an element
ANSWER: C
15. the weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of an element
ANSWER: D
16. one-twelfth the mass of a carbon atom having six protons and six neutrons
ANSWER: B
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a. electronegativity
f. periodic law
b. ionization energy
g. cation
c. atomic radius
h. period
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Chemistry Semester 1 Practice Final
d. metal
e. transition metal
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i. group
j. electrons
17. horizontal row in the periodic table
ANSWER: H
18. vertical column in the periodic table
ANSWER: I
19. A repetition of properties occurs when elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic
number.
ANSWER: F
20. type of element that is a good conductor of heat and electric current
ANSWER: D
21. type of element characterized by the presence of electrons in the d orbital
ANSWER: E
22. one-half the distance between the nuclei of two atoms when the atoms are joined
ANSWER: C
23. type of ion formed by Group 2A elements
ANSWER: G
24. subatomic particles that are transferred to form positive and negative ions
ANSWER: J
25. ability of an atom to attract electrons when the atom is in a compound
ANSWER: A
26. energy required to remove an electron from an atom
ANSWER: B
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Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
27. A theory is a ____.
a. proposed explanation for an observation
b. well-tested explanation for a broad set of observations
c. summary of the results of many observations
d. procedure used to test a proposed explanation
ANSWER: B
28. Which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information?
a. revising a hypothesis
c. making an observation
b. designing an experiment
d. stating a theory
ANSWER: C
29. All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____.
a. mass
c. melting point
b. color
d. ability to rust
ANSWER: D
30. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water?
a. It has a boiling point of 100 C.
b. It is a colorless liquid.
c. It is composed of hydrogen and oxygen.
d. Sugar dissolves in it.
ANSWER: C
31. Which of the following are considered physical properties of a substance?
a. color and odor
c. malleability and hardness
b. melting and boiling points
d. all of the above
ANSWER: D
32. A vapor is which state of matter?
a. solid
b. liquid
c. gas
d. all of the above
ANSWER: C
33. Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its container?
a. solid
c. gas
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b. liquid
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d. both b and c
ANSWER: B
34. Which state of matter takes both the shape and volume of its container?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. both b and c
ANSWER: C
35. Which state of matter expands when heated and is easy to compress?
a. gas
c. solid
b. liquid
d. all of the above
ANSWER: A
36. Which of the following is a physical change?
a. corrosion
c. evaporation
b. explosion
d. rotting of food
ANSWER: C
37. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
a. air
c. steel
b. salt water
d. soil
ANSWER: D
38. Separating a solid from a liquid by evaporating the liquid is called ____.
a. filtration
c. solution
b. condensation
d. distillation
ANSWER: D
39. Which of the following is true about compounds?
a. They can be physically separated into their component elements.
b. They have compositions that vary.
c. They are substances.
d. They have properties similar to those of their component elements.
ANSWER: C
40. A substance that can be separated into two or more substances only by a chemical change is
a(n) ____.
a. solution
c. mixture
b. element
d. compound
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ANSWER: D
41. What is one difference between a mixture and a compound?
a. A compound consists of more than one phase.
b. A compound can only be separated into its components by chemical means.
c. A mixture can only be separated into its components by chemical means.
d. A mixture must be uniform in composition.
ANSWER: B
42. The chemical symbol for iron is ____.
a. fe
c. Fe
b. FE
d. Ir
ANSWER: C
43. Which of the following represents a compound?
a. H
c. H2 O
b. H-3
d. O-16
ANSWER: C
44. The chemical formula of a compound does NOT indicate the ____.
a. identity of the elements in the compound
b. how elements are joined in the compound
c. the composition of the compound
d. relative proportions of the elements in the compound
ANSWER: B
45. What do chemical symbols and formulas represent, respectively?
a. elements and compounds
b. atoms and mixtures
c. compounds and mixtures
d. elements and ions
ANSWER: A
46. All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT ____.
a. bending
c. rusting
b. melting
d. polishing
ANSWER: C
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47. A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____.
a. is split
c. decays
b. is painted
d. is cut
ANSWER: C
48. The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in
scientific notation?
a.
c.
1.54 10 m
1.54 10 m
b.
1.54
10
m
d.
1.54
10
m
ANSWER: D
49. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____.
a.
c.
5.008 10 km
5.008 10 km
b.
50.08 10
km
d.
5.008
10 km
ANSWER: A
50. The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____.
a. precision
c. reproducibility
b. accuracy
d. usefulness
ANSWER: B
51. Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant figures?
a. 0.007 m
c.
7.30 10 km
b. 7077 mg
d. 0.070 mm
ANSWER: C
52. How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003 4 kg?
a. two
c. five
b. four
d. This cannot be determined.
ANSWER: A
53. The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is a(n) ____.
a. atom
c. proton
b. electron
d. neutron
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ANSWER: A
54. Why did J. J. Thomson reason that electrons must be a part of the atoms of all elements?
a. Cathode rays are negatively-charged particles.
b. Cathode rays can be deflected by magnets.
c. An electron is 2000 times lighter than a hydrogen atom.
d. Charge-to-mass ratio of electrons was the same, regardless of the gas used.
ANSWER: D
55. Which of the following is true about subatomic particles?
a. Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle.
b. Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle.
c. Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle.
d. The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton.
ANSWER: D
56. The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____.
a. neutrons and electrons
c. protons and neutrons
b. electrons only
d. protons and electrons
ANSWER: C
57. As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is
thought to be true?
a. Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the
volume of the atom.
b. The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
c. Electrons are distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the
volume of the atom.
d. The nucleus is made of electrons and protons.
ANSWER: C
58. The nucleus of an atom is ____.
a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons
b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons
c. negatively charged and has a high density
d. negatively charged and has a low density
ANSWER: A
59. An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral
atom of the element are ____.
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a. 152 protons and 76 electrons
b. 76 protons and 0 electrons
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c. 38 protons and 38 electrons
d. 76 protons and 76 electrons
ANSWER: D
60. The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____.
a. atomic number
c. atomic mass
b. nucleus number
d. mass number
ANSWER: D
61. What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent?
a. the atomic number
c. the sum of the protons and electrons
b. the mass number
d. twice the number of protons
ANSWER: B
62. All atoms of the same element have the same ____.
a. number of neutrons
c. mass numbers
b. number of protons
d. mass
ANSWER: B
63. Isotopes of the same element have different ____.
a. numbers of neutrons
c. numbers of electrons
b. numbers of protons
d. atomic numbers
ANSWER: A
64. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus?
a. It decreases.
c. It stays the same.
b. It increases.
d. It doubles.
ANSWER: A
65. The principal quantum number indicates what property of an electron?
a. position
c. energy level
b. speed
d. electron cloud shape
ANSWER: C
66. How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
ANSWER: B
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ANSWER: B
67. What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 5
ANSWER: D
68. What is the maximum number of orbitals in the p sublevel?
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. 5
ANSWER: B
69. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second principal energy level?
a. 2
c. 18
b. 8
d. 32
ANSWER: B
70. When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron ____.
a. always doubles its energy
b. absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy
c. absorbs a quantum of energy
d. moves closer to the nucleus
ANSWER: C
71. If the spin of one electron in an orbital is clockwise, what is the spin of the other electron in
that orbital?
a. zero
c. counterclockwise
b. clockwise
d. both clockwise and
counterclockwise
ANSWER: C
72. What types of atomic orbitals are in the third principal energy level?
a. s and p only
c. s, p, and d only
b. p and d only
d. s, p, d, and f
ANSWER: C
73. What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p?
a. 2d
c. 3f
b. 3d
d. 4s
ANSWER: D
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ANSWER: D
74. What is the number of electrons in the outermost energy level of an oxygen atom?
a. 2
c. 6
b. 4
d. 8
ANSWER: C
75. What is the electron configuration of potassium?
a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
c. 1s 2s 3s 3p 3d
b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
ANSWER: D
76. If three electrons are available to fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals, how will the electrons be
distributed in the three orbitals?
a. one electron in each orbital
b. two electrons in one orbital, one in another, none in the third
c. three in one orbital, none in the other two
d. Three electrons cannot fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals.
ANSWER: A
77. How many half-filled orbitals are in a bromine atom?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
ANSWER: A
78. Stable electron configurations are likely to contain ____.
a. filled energy sublevels
b. fewer electrons than unstable configurations
c. unfilled s orbitals
d. electrons with a clockwise spin
ANSWER: A
79. How are the frequency and wavelength of light related?
a. They are inversely proportional to each other.
b. Frequency equals wavelength divided by the speed of light.
c. Wavelength is determined by dividing frequency by the speed of light.
d. They are directly proportional to each other.
ANSWER: A
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80. The light given off by an electric discharge through sodium vapor is ____.
a. a continuous spectrum
c. of a single wavelength
b. an emission spectrum
d. white light
ANSWER: B
81. Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron ____.
a. drops from a higher to a lower energy level
b. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level
c. moves within its atomic orbital
d. falls into the nucleus
ANSWER: A
82. Which of the following quantum leaps would be associated with the greatest energy of emitted
light?
a. n = 5 to n = 1
c. n = 2 to n = 5
b. n = 4 to n = 5
d. n = 5 to n = 4
ANSWER: A
83. According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving particle is
known, what other quantity CANNOT be known?
a. mass
c. spin
b. charge
d. velocity
ANSWER: D
84. Each period in the periodic table corresponds to ____.
a. a principal energy level
c. an orbital
b. an energy sublevel
d. a suborbital
ANSWER: A
85. The modern periodic table is arranged in order of increasing atomic ____.
a. mass
c. number
b. charge
d. radius
ANSWER: C
86. Who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the
properties of missing elements?
a. Henry Moseley
c. John Dalton
b. Antoine Lavoisier
d. Dmitri Mendeleev
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ANSWER: D
87. Which of the following categories includes the majority of the elements?
a. metalloids
c. metals
b. liquids
d. nonmetals
ANSWER: C
88. To what category of elements does an element belong if it is a poor conductor of electricity?
a. transition elements
c. nonmetals
b. metalloids
d. metals
ANSWER: C
89. In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the
number of electrons given correctly?
a. In, 49 protons, 49 electrons
c. Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons
b. Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons
d. F, 19 protons, 19 electrons
ANSWER: A
90. What element has the electron configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p ?
a. nitrogen
b. selenium
c. silicon
d. silver
ANSWER: C
91. Which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the noble gases?
a. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely filled.
b. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are partially filled.
c. The electrons with the highest energy are in a d sublevel.
d. The electrons with the highest energy are in an f sublevel.
ANSWER: A
92. Elements that are characterized by the filling of p orbitals are classified as ____.
a. groups 3A through 8A
c. inner transition metals
b. transition metals
d. groups 1A and 2A
ANSWER: A
93. Which of the following elements is a transition metal?
a. cesium
c. tellurium
b. copper
d. tin
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ANSWER: B
94. What are the Group 1A and Group 7A elements examples of?
a. representative elements
c. noble gases
b. transition elements
d. nonmetallic elements
ANSWER: A
95. How does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table?
a. It tends to decrease.
c. It first increases, then decreases.
b. It tends to increase.
d. It first decreases, then increases.
ANSWER: B
96. How does atomic radius change from left to right across a period in the periodic table?
a. It tends to decrease.
c. It first increases, then decreases.
b. It tends to increase.
d. It first decreases, then increases.
ANSWER: A
97. What causes the shielding effect to remain constant across a period?
a. Electrons are added to the same principal energy level.
b. Electrons are added to different principal energy levels.
c. The charge on the nucleus is constant.
d. The atomic radius increases.
ANSWER: A
98. What element in the second period has the largest atomic radius?
a. carbon
c. potassium
b. lithium
d. neon
ANSWER: B
99. Which of the following factors contributes to the increase in atomic size within a group in the
periodic table as the atomic number increases?
a. more shielding of the electrons by the highest occupied energy level
b. an increase in size of the nucleus
c. an increase in number of protons
d. fewer electrons in the highest occupied energy level
ANSWER: A
100. Which of the following statements is NOT true about ions?
a. Cations are positively charged ions.
b. Anions are common among nonmetals.
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c. Charges for ions are written as numbers followed by a plus or minus sign.
d. When a cation forms, more electrons are transferred to it.
ANSWER: D
101. In which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the ions?
a. Na , Mg , Al
c. Rb , Ba , P
b. K , Sr , O
d. N , O , F
ANSWER: B
102. In which of the following groups of ions are the charges all shown correctly?
a. Li , O , S
c. K , F , Mg
b. Ca , Al , Br
d. Na , I , Rb
ANSWER: B
103. What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?
a. cesium
c. calcium
b. helium
d. fluorine
ANSWER: A
104. What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?
a. cesium
c. calcium
b. helium
d. fluorine
ANSWER: D
105. Which statement is true about electronegativity?
a. Electronegativity is the ability of an anion to attract another anion.
b. Electronegativity generally increases as you move from top to bottom
within a group.
c. Electronegativity generally is higher for metals than for nonmetals.
d. Electronegativity generally increases from left to right across a period.
ANSWER: D
106. As you move from left to right across the second period of the periodic table ____.
a. ionization energy increases
c. electronegativity decreases
b. atomic radii increase
d. atomic mass decreases
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ANSWER: A
107. How many valence electrons are in an atom of magnesium?
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. 5
ANSWER: A
108. How many valence electrons does a helium atom have?
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. 5
ANSWER: A
109. How many valence electrons are in a silicon atom?
a. 2
c. 6
b. 4
d. 8
ANSWER: B
110. How does calcium obey the octet rule when reacting to form compounds?
a. It gains electrons.
b. It gives up electrons.
c. It does not change its number of electrons.
d. Calcium does not obey the octet rule.
ANSWER: B
111. How many electrons does barium have to give up to achieve a noble-gas electron
configuration?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
ANSWER: B
112. What is the formula of the ion formed when potassium achieves noble-gas electron
configuration?
a.
c.
K
K
b.
K
d.
K
ANSWER: B
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113. Which of the following occurs in an ionic bond?
a. Oppositely charged ions attract.
b. Two atoms share two electrons.
c. Two atoms share more than two electrons.
d. Like-charged ions attract.
ANSWER: A
114. What is the name of the ionic compound formed from lithium and bromine?
a. lithium bromine
c. lithium bromium
b. lithium bromide
d. lithium bromate
ANSWER: B
115. What is the formula for sodium sulfate?
a. NaSO
c. Na(SO )
b. Na SO
d. Na (SO )
ANSWER: B
116. What is the formula for potassium sulfide?
a. KS
c. KS
b. K S
d. K S
ANSWER: B
117. Which of the following is the correct skeleton equation for the reaction that takes place when
solid phosphorus combines with oxygen gas to form diphosphorus pentoxide?
a. P(s) O (g) → PO (g)
c. P(s) O2 (g) → P O (s)
b. P(s)
O(g) → P O (g)
d. P O (s) → P (s)
O (g)
ANSWER: C
118. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?
AlCl + NaOH
Al(OH)
NaCl
a. 1, 3, 1, 3
b. 3, 1, 3, 1
c. 1, 1, 1, 3
d. 1, 3, 3, 1
ANSWER: A
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Chemistry Semester 1 Practice Final
119. When the equation Fe
a. 1
b. 2
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Cl
FeCl is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl ?
c. 3
d. 4
ANSWER: C
120. Which of the following statements is NOT true about what happens in all chemical reactions?
a. The ways in which atoms are joined together are changed.
b. New atoms are formed as products.
c. The starting substances are called reactants.
d. The bonds of the reactants are broken and new bonds of the products are
formed.
ANSWER: B
121. In every balanced chemical equation, each side of the equation has the same number of ____.
a. atoms of each element
c. moles
b. molecules
d. coefficients
ANSWER: A
122. In a combustion reaction, one of the reactants is ____.
a. hydrogen
c. oxygen
b. nitrogen
d. a metal
ANSWER: C
123. The type of reaction that takes place when one element reacts with a compound to form a new
compound and a different element is a ____.
a. combination reaction
c. single-replacement reaction
b. decomposition reaction
d. double-replacement reaction
ANSWER: C
124. In a double-replacement reaction, the ____.
a. products are always molecular
b. reactants are two ionic compounds
c. reactants are two elements
d. products are a new element and a new compound
ANSWER: B
125. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a. The only way to determine the products of a reaction is to carry out the
reaction.
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b. All chemical reactions can be classified as one of five general types.
c. Complete combustion has occurred when all the carbon in the product is in
the form of carbon dioxide.
d. A single reactant is the identifying characteristic of a decomposition
reaction.
ANSWER: B
126. Which of the following is a balanced equation representing the decomposition of lead(IV)
oxide?
a. PbO
Pb 2O
c. Pb O
2Pb O
b. PbO
Pb
O
d. PbO
Pb
O
ANSWER: B
127. How many hydrogen atoms are in 5 molecules of isopropyl alcohol, C H O?
a.
5
(6.02
10 )
b. 5
c. 35
d.
35
(6.02
10 )
ANSWER: C
128. Which of the following elements exists as a diatomic molecule?
a. neon
c. nitrogen
b. lithium
d. sulfur
ANSWER: C
129. Avogadro's number of representative particles is equal to one ____.
a. kilogram
c. kelvin
b. gram
d. mole
ANSWER: D
130. How many atoms are in 3.5 moles of arsenic atoms?
a.
c.
5.8 10 atoms
2.1 10 atoms
b.
7.5
10 atoms
d.
1.7
10
atoms
ANSWER: C
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Chemistry Semester 1 Practice Final
1/15/08 11:35 AM
131. The mass of a mole of NaCl is the ____.
a. molar mass
c. molecular mass
b. atomic mass
d. gram atomic mass
ANSWER: A
132. What is the molar mass of AuCl3 ?
a. 96 g
b. 130 g
c. 232.5 g
d. 303.6 g
ANSWER: D
133. What is conserved in the reaction shown below?
N (g) + 3F (g) → 2NF (g)
a. atoms only
b. mass only
c. mass and atoms only
d. moles only
ANSWER: C
134. In every chemical reaction, ____.
a. mass and molecules are conserved c. mass and atoms are conserved
b. moles and liters are conserved
d. moles and molecules are conserved
ANSWER: C
135. In the reaction 2CO(g) + O (g) → 2CO (g), what is the ratio of moles of oxygen used to
moles of CO produced?
a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 1:2
d. 2:2
ANSWER: C
136. How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO?
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) → 3Fe(s) + Al O (s)
a. 1.2 mol
b. 0.8 mol
c. 1.6 mol
d. 2.4 mol
ANSWER: B
137. Calculate the number of moles of Al O that are produced when 0.60 mol of Fe is produced in
the following reaction.
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Chemistry Semester 1 Practice Final
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s)
a. 0.20 mol
b. 0.40 mol
1/15/08 11:35 AM
3Fe(s) + Al O (s)
c. 0.60 mol
d. 0.90 mol
ANSWER: A
138. How many moles of glucose, C H O , can be "burned" biologically when 10.0 mol of
oxygen is available?
C H O (s) + 6O (g) → 6CO (g) + 6H O(l)
a. 0.938 mol
b. 1.67 mol
c. 53.3 mol
d. 60.0 mol
ANSWER: B
139. Aluminum reacts with sulfuric acid to produce aluminum sulfate and hydrogen gas. How many
grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250 g H SO completely reacted with
aluminum?
a. 0.85 g
b. 290 g
c. 450 g
d. 870 g
ANSWER: B
A
140. How many moles of H PO are produced when 71.0 g P O
reacts completely to form H
PO ?
a. 0.063 5 mol
b. 1.00 mol
c. 4.00 mol
d. 16.0 mol
ANSWER: B
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