Download Splanchnology. Central nervous system and organs of sense

Splanchnology. Central nervous system and organs of sense.
Vessels and nerves of head
Text tests questions
1. In what age milk canines erupt?
A. 6-9 months
B. 9-12 months
C. 12-15 months
D. * 16-20 months
E. 20-24 months
2. In what age milk first molars erupt?
A. 6-9 months
B. 9-10 months
C. * 12-15 months
D. 16-20 months
E. 20-24 months
3. In what age milk incisors erupt?
A. * 6-9 months
B. 9-12 months
C. 12-15 months
D. 16-20 months
E. 20-24 months
4. In what age milk second molars erupt?
A. 6-9 months
B. 9-10 months
C. 12-15 months
D. 16-20 months
E. * 20-24 months
5. In what age permanent canines erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. * 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
6. In what age permanent first molars erupt?
A. * 6-7 years
B. 7-9 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
7. In what age permanent first premolars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. * 10-12 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
8. In what age permanent incisors erupt?
A. * 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
9. In what age permanent second molars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. * 13-16 years
E. 17-30 years
10. In what age permanent second premolars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. * 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
11. In what age permanent third molars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. * 17-30 years
12. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. * tooth root
B. tooth crown
C. tooth cervix
D. pulp cavity
E. canal of tooth root
13. What doe s form mylohyoid muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. * Mouth diaphragm
14. What does communicate oral cavity with pharynx?
A. Vestible
B. Retromolar space
C. Tonsillar fossa
D. * Fauces
E. Frenulum
15. What does cover the cementum?
A. pulp cavity
B. crown
C. * root
D. dental alveoli
E. apical foramen
16. What does cover the enamel ?
A. pulp cavity
B. root
C. * crown
D. apical foramen
E. dental alveoli
17. What does fix teeth to alveoli?
A. Dentine
B. Enamel
C. * Periodont
D. Gum
E. Pulp
18. What does form anterior belly of digastric muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. * Mouth diaphragm
19. What does form lateral wall of mouth vestibule?
A. Lips
B. Palate
C. * Cheeks
D. Mouth diaphragm
E. Inner surface of Teeth
20. ?What does form upper wall of mouth cavity?
A. Cheek
B. Lip
C. * Palate
D. Mouth diaphragm
E. Teeth
21. What is function of soft palate?
A. Pushes the food during swallowing
B. Mixes the food during mastication
C. * Separates the nasopharynx during swallowing
D. Communicates the oral cavity and pharynx
E. Communicates the nasopharynx during breathing
22. What is function of tongue?
A. Pushes the food during swallowing
B. Mixes the food during mastication
C. Taste sensation
D. Takes part in spoken speeking
E. * All of above
23. What is located in cavity of the tooth?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. * Pulp
24. What is located inside in tooth root?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. * Canal
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
25. What is soft tissue of tooth?
A. Dentine
B. Enamel
C. Periodont
D. Gum
E. * Pulp
26. Where is situated buccinator muscle?
A. * Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. Mouth diaphragm
27. Where is situated genioglossus muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. * Mouth diaphragm
28. Where is situated orbicularis oris muscle?
A. Cheek
B. * Lips
C. Phauces
D. Soft palate
E. Mouth diaphragm
29. Where is situated uvulae muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. * Soft palate
E. Mouth diaphragm
30. Which duct opens on the cheeks into vestibule of mouth cavity opposite the
second superior molar ?
A. A: sublingual gland
B. B: thyroid gland
C. D: parotid gland
D. * E: submandibular gland
E. C: all above mentioned
F. Submandibular
G. Buccal
H. Palatine
I. Parotid
J. Sublingual
31. Which fold of mucous membrane communicate gums with lips?
A. Vestible
B. Fauces
C. Palatoglossal arch
D. Tonsillar fossa
E. * Frenulum
32. Which glands are located above the mylohyoid muscle?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. * Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
33. Which glands are located closer to incisors?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. * Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
34. Which glands are located in retromandibular fossa?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. * Parotid
E. Parathyroid
35. Which glands are located under auricle?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. * Parotid
E. Parathyroid
36. Which glands are located under mylohyoid muscle?
A. * Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
37. Which glands belong to large salivary glands ?
A. Labial
B. Buccal
C. Palatine
D. Parathyroid
E. * Parotid
38. Which glands belong to small salivary glands ?
A. Submandibular
B. * Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
39. Which milk teeth number (amount) is 8?
A. * molars;
B. premolars;
C. canines;
D. medial incisors
E. lateral incisors
40. Which milk teeth number (amount) is 8?
A. first molars
B. second molars
C. premolars
D. canines
E. * incisors
41. Which muscle form base (lower wall) of the mouth cavity?
A. Geniohyoid
B. Stylohyoid
C. * Mylohyoid
D. Digastric
E. Genioglossus
42. Which papillae are located in border between body and root of the tongue?
A. filiform
B. fungiform
C. conic
D. * vallate
E. foliate
43. Which papillae are located on margines of the tongue?
A. filiform
B. fungiform
C. conic
D. vallate
E. * foliate
44. Which papillae are responsible for feeling of bitter taste?
A. filiform
B. fungiform
C. conic
D. * vallate
E. foliate
45. Which papillae carry taste buds with taste receptors?
A. filiform
B. * fungiform
C. conic
D. foramen cecum
E. vater’s
46. Which papillae located between tongue root and body?
A. Foliate
B. * Vallatae
C. Fungiform
D. Conical
E. Filiform
47. Which papillae located on tongue margins?
A. * Foliate
B. Vallatae
C. Fungiform
D. Conical
E. Filiform
48. Which substance cover the crown of the tooth?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. * Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
49. Which substance cover the root of the tooth?
A. Dentin
B. * Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
50. Which substance form both the root and the crown of the tooth?
A. * Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
51. Which surfaces of second premolar is medial?
A. Vestibular
B. Buccal
C. * Lingual
D. Contact
E. Occlusal
52. Which taste papillae are located on dorsal surface of the tongue?
A. filiform
B. * fungiform
C. conic
D. vallate
E. foliate
53. Which teeth have two tubercles on crown?
A. incisor
B. canine
C. * premolar
D. 1st molar
E. 2d molar
54. Which tissue fix the tooth in the alveola?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. * Periodontium
E. Pulp
55. Which tooth has 1 root?
A. 1st lower molar
B. 2d lower molar
C. * Lower canine
D. 1st Upper molar
E. 2d Upper molar
56. Which tooth has 2 roots?
A. * Lower molar
B. Lower premolar
C. Lower canine
D. Upper molar
E. Upper premolar
57. Which tooth has 3 roots?
A. Lower molar
B. Lower premolar
C. Lower canine
D. * Upper molar
E. Upper premolar
58. Which tooth has chisel-shaped crown?
A. * incisor
B. canine
C. premolar
D. 1st molar
E. 2d molar
59. Which tooth has conic-shaped crown?
A. incisor
B. * canine
C. premolar
D. 1st molar
E. 2d molar
60. Choose correct sentence:
A. Pharynx extends from C4 to level of C7 vertebra.
B. Pharynx extends from C2 to level of C6 vertebra.
C. Pharynx extends from skull to level of C4 vertebra.
D. * Pharynx extends from skull to level of C6 vertebra.
E. Pharynx extends from skull to level of Th1 vertebra.
61. Describe the skeletotopy of the Larynx:
A. base of skull - C6 vertebrae
B. base of skull - C4 vertebrae
C. * C4 - C6 vertebrae
D. C2 - C6 vertebrae
E. C4 - C7 vertebrae
62. How does the Nasopharynx communicate with nasal cavity ?
A. Through the auditory tube
B. * Through the choanae
C. Through the fauces
D. Through the nasal meatus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
63. How does the pharynx communicate with tympanic cavity ?
A. * Through the auditory tube
B. Through the choanae
C. Through the fauces
D. Through the aditus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
64. How is the pharynx communicated with larynx ?
A. Through the auditory tube
B. Through the choanae
C. Through the fauces
D. * Through the aditus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
65. How is the pharynx communicated with oral cavity ?
A. Through the auditory tube
B. Through the choanae
C. * Through the fauces
D. Through the nasal meatus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
66. In which level does oesophagus empty to stomach?
A. Th-10
B. * Th-11
C. Th-12
D. L-1
E. L-2
67. In which level does oesophagus start?
A. C-5
B. * C-6
C. C-7
D. Th-1
E. Th-2
68. The patient erroneously drank the solution of the acetic acid. Which membrane
of the esophagus was damaged mostly?
A. muscular
B. serous
C. adventitia
D. muscle and serous
E. * mucous.
69. Topography of the duodenum:
A. extends from Th11 (left side) to level of L1(right side) vertebra
B. extends from Th12 (left side) to level of L2 (right side) vertebra
C. extends from L1 (right side) to level of L4 (left side) vertebra
D. extends from Th12 (left side) to level of L2 (right side) vertebra
E. * extends from L1 (right side) to level of L2 (left side) vertebra
70. Topography of the oesophagus:
A. extends from C4 to level of Th10 vertebra
B. extends from C5 to level of L1 vertebra
C. * extends from C6 to level of Th11 vertebra
D. extends from C7 to level of Th12 vertebra
E. extends from C7 to level of Th10 vertebra
71. Topography of the stomach (from cardiac to pyloryc openings)?
A. extends from Th9 to level of Th11 vertebra
B. extends from Th10 to level of Th12 vertebra
C. * extends from Th11 to level of L1vertebra
D. extends from Th12 to level of L2 vertebra
E. extends from Th12 to level of L3 vertebra
72. What do choanae communicate?
A. pharynx and larynx
B. pharynx and esophagus
C. pharynx and oral cavity
D. * pharynx and nasal cavity
E. pharynx and tympanic cavity
73. What does aditus communicate?
A. * pharynx and larynx
B. pharynx and esophagus
C. pharynx and oral cavity
D. pharynx and nasal cavity
E. pharynx and tympanic cavity
74. What does Eustachian tube communicate?
A. pharynx and larynx
B. pharynx and esophagus
C. pharynx and oral cavity
D. pharynx and nasal cavity
E. * pharynx and tympanic cavity
75. What does touch the back stomach wall?
A. diaphragm
B. left liver lobe
C. right liver lobe
D. anterior abdominal wall
E. * spleen
76. What does touch the back stomach wall?
A. diaphragm
B. left liver lobe
C. right liver lobe
D. * transverse colon
E. anterior abdominal wall
77. What does touch the back stomach wall?
A. * diaphragm
B. left liver lobe
C. left kidney
D. right liver lobe
E. anterior abdominal wall
78. What is located back of the esophagus in neck region?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Trachea
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx
E. * Vertebrae
79. What is located front of the esophagus in neck region?
A. Thyroid gland
B. * Trachea
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx
E. Backbone
80. What is located front of the esophagus?
A. Azygos vein
B. Descending aorta
C. Backbone
D. Lung
E. * Pericardium
81. What is located front of the esophagus?
A. Azygos vein
B. Descending aorta
C. * Heart
D. Backbone
E. Lung
82. What is located on the left of esophagus?
A. Azygos vein
B. * Descending aorta
C. Heart
D. Backbone
E. Pericardium
83. What organ does thoracic part of aesophagus touch?
A. Spleen
B. * Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Duodenum
E. Left kidney
84. Where does oesophagus pass through the diaphragm?
A. Central tendom
B. Sternal part
C. Left costal part
D. Right costal part
E. * Lumbar part
85. Where is abdominal (cardiac) constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. * on the level of Th11 vertebrae
86. Where is aortic constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. * on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
87. Where is pharyngeal constriction of esophagus located?
A. * on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
88. Where is pharyngobasilar fascia located?
A. Nose
B. * Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Laryngopharynx
E. Larynx
89. Where is phrenic constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. * on the level of Th9-10 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
90. Where is thoracic (bronchial) constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. * on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
91. Where is torus tubarius located?
A. Nose
B. * Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Laryngopharynx
E. Larynx
92. Where the angular incisura of the stomach located ?
A. * lesser curvatura
B. greater curvatura
C. cardiac ostium
D. pyloric ostium
E. fundus
93. Which coat cover the oesophagus in abdominal region?
A. mucous membrane
B. submucous stratum
C. * serous membrane
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitious coat
94. Which coat cover the oesophagus in neck region?
A. * adventitious membrane
B. mucous membrane
C. submucous stratum
D. serous membrane
E. muscular membrane
95. Which coat cover the oesophagus in thoracic region?
A. mucous membrane
B. submucous stratum
C. serous membrane
D. muscular membrane
E. * adventitious membrane
96. Which component does not form the oesophageal wall in thoracic region?
A. mucous membrane
B. submucous stratum
C. * serous membrane
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitious coat
97. Which component does not form the oesophageal wall in neck region?
A. mucous membrane
B. * serous membrane
C. submucous stratum
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitious coat
98. Which components does not form the pharyngeal wall ?
A. mucous membrane
B. * serous membrane
C. submucous stratum
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitia
99. Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of C7 vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. * pharyngeоesophageal constriction
100.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th4 vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. * aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
101.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th5 vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. * thoracic (bronchial) constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
102.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th9-10
vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. * phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
103.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th11 vertebrae?
A. * abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
104.
Which constriction of the oesiphagus is physiological?
A. bronchial constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. * aortic constriction
E. Pharyngeоesophageal constriction
105.
Which constriction of the oesiphagus is physiological?
A. bronchial constriction
B. * cardiac constriction
C. thoracic constriction
D. phrenic constriction
E. Pharyngeоesophageal constriction
106.
Which folds does mucous membrane of oesophagus form ?
A. * Longitudinal folds
B. Circular folds
C. Semilunar folds
D. Oblique folds
E. Irregular folds
107.
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Which impression is not located on visceral surface of liver?
* cardiac
gastric
renal
duodenal
esophageal
Which layer of oesophageal wall has circular muscles?
* Inner muscular layer
Middle layer
Outer muscular layer
Adventitious membrane
Serous membrane
Which layer of oesophageal wall has longitudinal muscles?
Inner muscular layer
Middle layer
* Outer muscular layer
Adventitious membrane
Serous membrane
Which part of duodenum is hepatoduodenal ligament attached to?
* Superior
Descending
Ascending
Horizontal
Fundus
Which part of stomach is gastro-colic ligament attached to?
cardia
pylorus
fundus
* greater curvatura
lesser curvatura
Which part of stomach is gastro-lienal ligament attached to?
cardia
pylorus
corpus
* greater curvatura
lesser curvatura
Which part of stomach is hepatogastric ligament attached to?
fundus
pylorus
corpus
greater curvatura
* lesser curvatura
Which tonsil located on fornix of the pharynx?
Tubarial
* Pharyngeal
Lingual
Palatine
Aggregated follicles
Which tonsils located in lower part of fauces?
Tubarial
Pharyngeal
* Lingual
Palatine
Aggregated follicles
116.
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B.
C.
D.
E.
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C.
D.
E.
Which tonsils located laterally of the fauces?
Tubarial
Pharyngeal
Lingual
* Palatine
Aggregated follicles
Which tonsils located on lateral walls of the pharynx?
* Tubarial
Pharyngeal
Lingual
Palatine
Aggregated follicles
? What does demarcate right and left lobes the liver?
porta hepatis
* falciform ligament
triangular ligament
coronary ligament
inferior vena cava
Describe relation of the ascending colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the cecum and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
* Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
Peritoneum does not cover the cecum
Describe relation of the descending colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the liver and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position with mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the sigmoid colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the transversal colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
125.
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What does border caudate lobe of the liver?
round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
* venous ligament
triangular ligament
What does border caudate lobe of the liver?
round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
* inferior vena cava
triangular ligament
What does border quadrate lobe of the liver?
* round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
venous ligament
inferior vena cava
What does carry deoxygenated blood from parenchime of the liver?
portal vein
hepatic artery
* hepatic vein
inferior vena cava
venous ligament
What does carry deoxygenated blood into the liver?
* portal vein
hepatic artery
hepatic vein
inferior vena cava
venous ligament
What does demarcate quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver?
* porta hepatis
round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
inferior vena cava
What does demarcate right and left lobes the liver?
porta hepatis
* falciform ligament
triangular ligament
coronary ligament
inferior vena cava
What does located in left inguinal area ?
* sigmoid colon
cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
What does located in left lateral abdominal area ?
duodenum
cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
* descending colon
134.
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B.
C.
D.
E.
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What does located in ridht inguinal area ?
sigmoid colon
* cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
What does located in right lateral abdominal area ?
duodenum
cecum
* ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
What does touch back surface of the liver?
portal vein
hepatic artery
hepatic vein
* inferior vena cava
venous ligament
What does touch quadrate lobe of the liver?
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
venous ligament
inferior vena cava
* gallbladder
What is not an element of hepatic triad?
portal vein
hepatic artery
* hepatic vein
hepatic bile duct
hepatic lymphatic vessels
What is the thickest object touching the liver?
portal vein
hepatic artery
hepatic vein
venous ligament
* inferior vena cava
What is visible near lower margin of the liver?
coronary ligament
triangular ligament
venous ligament
inferior vena cava
* gallbladder
Where do the sinusoid capillaries empty?
* Central vein
Hepatic vein
Sublobular vein
Interlobular vein
Lobar vein
Where the rectal flexurae faced ?
to the right
to the left
forward
* backward
downward
143.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
146.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
149.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
151.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which are peculiarities of colon ?
circular folds
* epiploic appendices
number of layers in the wall
longitudinal folds
presence of submucous layer
Which are peculiarities of colon ?
* haustrae
circular folds
longitudinal folds
submucous layer
serous membrane
Which folds does anal canal have?
* longitudinal folds
transverse folds
circular folds
semilunar folds
oblique folds
Which folds does colon have ?
longitudinal folds
circular folds
transverse folds
* semilunar folds
oblique folds
Which folds does rectal ampulla have?
longitudinal folds
* transverse folds
circular folds
semilunar folds
oblique folds
Which impression located on the right lobe of the liver ?
* suprarenal
splenic
gastric
esophageal
cardiac
Which impression located on the right lobe of the liver ?
cardiac
* colic
splenic
gastric
esophageal
Which impression located on the right lobe of the liver ?
splenic
gastric
* duodenal
esophageal
cardiac
Which impressions located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
Renal
Adrenal
Gastric
Duodenal
* Cardiac
152.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
153.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
154.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
155.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
156.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
157.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
158.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which impressions located on the left lobe of the liver ?
Renal
Adrenal
* Gastric
Duodenal
colic
Which impressions located on the right lobe of the liver ?
* renal
splenic
gastric
esophageal
cardiac
Which ligament is located near hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* teres ligament
Which ligament is located near hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* venous ligament
Which ligament located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
* falciform ligament
hepatogastric ligament
hepatoduodenal ligament
Which ligament start from hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatoduodenal ligament
Which ligament start from hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatogastric ligament
Which ligament start from visceral surface of the liver ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatogastric ligament
Which ligament start from visceral surface of the liver ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatoduodenal ligament
161.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
162.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
163.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
164.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
165.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
166.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
167.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
168.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
169.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which ligaments located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
hepato-gastric ligament
hepato-duodenal ligament
* right triangular ligament
Which ligaments located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
* left triangular ligament
hepato-gastric ligament
hepato-duodenal ligament
Which ligaments located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
* triangular ligament
hepato-gastric ligament
hepato-duodenal ligament
Which ligaments located on the visceral surface of the liver ?
Falciform ligament
* ligamentum teres
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
Which ligaments located on the visceral surface of the liver ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
* venous ligament
coronal ligament
Which membrane does not transverse colon have?
muscular membrane;
serous membrane;
* adventitia membrane;
mucous membrane;
Submucous layer.
Which organs touch left lobe of the liver ?
* heart
spleen
colon
kidney
duodenum
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
* suprarenal gland
spleen
stomach
esophagus
heart
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
spleen
stomach
esophagus
* kidney
heart
170.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
171.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
174.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
176.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
177.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
178.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
spleen
stomach
esophagus
heart
* colon
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
heart
spleen
stomach
esophagus
* gallbladder
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
heart
spleen
stomach
esophagus
* duodenum
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
spleen
colon
kidney
* stomach
duodenum
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
spleen
colon
kidney
duodenum
* esophagus
Which vessels form the sinusoid capillaries?
Central vein
Hepatic vein
Interlobular artery
Interlobular vein
* Both Interlobular artery and Interlobular vein
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ascending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
Choose correct sentence about relation of the uterus and peritoneum?
Peritoneum covers the neck of the uterus
Peritoneum does not cover the uterus
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
* Broad ligaments have two peritoneal sheets
Peritoneum covers one surface of the ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
* Peritoneum does not cover posterior surface
Intraperitoneal position
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
F. Extraperitoneal position
What is not formed by peritoneum ?
A. ligament
B. mesentery
C. * sphincter
D. greater omentum.
E. lesser omentum
What is not formed by peritoneum ?
A. ligament
B. mesentery
C. * none of above
D. greater omentum.
E. lesser omentum
What is not located in lesser omentum?
A. Portal vein
B. Common bile duct
C. Hepato-gastric ligament
D. * Gastro-colic ligament
E. Hepato-duodenal ligament
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. * Retroperitoneal position
D. Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
E. Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
D. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for adrenal glands
E. Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. * Peritoneum covers the adrenal glands
D. Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
E. Peritoneum does not form mesentery for adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the adrenal glands
D. Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the adrenal glands
E. * Peritoneum covers one surface of the adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
C. * Adrenal glands is positioned in retroperitoneal space
D. Intraperitoneal position
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
E. Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. * Mesoperitoneal position
C. Retroperitoneal position
D. Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
E. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Extraperitoneal position
C. Retroperitoneal position
D. * Peritoneum covers the ascending colon
E. Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the ascending colon
D. * Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Extraperitoneal position
C. * Peritoneum does not form any ligaments here
D. Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
E. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Extraperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
D. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for descending colon
E. Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Extraperitoneal position
C. Retroperitoneal position
D. * Peritoneum covers the descending colon
E. Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the descending colon
D. * Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the descending colon
E. Peritoneum covers one surface of the descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
B. Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
C. * Peritoneum does not cover posterior surface
D. Intraperitoneal position
E. Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Extraperitoneal position
C. * Peritoneum does not form any ligaments here
D. Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
E. Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
197.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
198.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
199.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
200.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
201.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
202.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
203.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
204.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
205.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Mesoperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
* Peritoneum forms mesocolon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
* Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the transverse colon
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the transverse colon
Peritoneum covers one surface of the transverse colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not cover posterior surface
* Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Mesoperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
* Peritoneum forms gastrocolic ligament
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
What relation of the peritoneum and descending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the duodenum
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for duodenum
206.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
207.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
208.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
209.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
210.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
211.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
212.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
213.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
214.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the duodenum
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the duodenum
* Peritoneum covers one surface of the duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
* Duodenum is positioned in retroperitoneal space
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the pancreas
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the pancreas
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the pancreas
* Peritoneum covers one surface of the pancreas
215.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
216.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
217.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
218.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
219.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
220.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
221.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
222.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
223.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
* Pancreas is positioned in retroperitoneal space
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
* none of above
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum form mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the pancreas
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the pancreas
* none of above
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
* none of above
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and transverse colon?
* Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
224.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
225.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
226.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
227.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
228.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
229.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
230.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
231.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
232.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the ureter
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the ureter
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the ureter
* Peritoneum covers one surface of the ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
* Ureter is positioned in retroperitoneal space
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
Peritoneum does not cover the uterus
* Peritoneum forms mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum does not form broad ligament
Peritoneum covers all surfaces of the uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
Peritoneum does not cover the uterus
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
* Peritoneum forms broad ligaments
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
Peritoneum covers neck of the uterus
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
* Peritoneum does not cover vaginal part of the neck
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
Broad ligaments have one peritoneal sheet
Peritoneum covers the neck of the uterus
233.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
234.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
235.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
236.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
237.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
238.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
239.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
240.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
241.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
* Peritoneum does not cover vaginal part of the neck
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
Broad ligaments have one peritoneal sheet
Peritoneum covers the neck of the uterus
?Which organ has three surfaces, covered by peritoneum ?
intraperitoneal
* mesoperitoneal
extraperitoneal
retroperitoneal
none of above
Which organ has three surfaces, covered by peritoneum ?
intraperitoneal
* none of above
extraperitoneal
retroperitoneal
none of above
Arrangement of root of left lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
* Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
Arrangement of root of left lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
* Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
Arrangment of root of right lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
* Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
Arrangment of root of right lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
* Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
How many segments are there in inferior left lung lobe?
1
2
3
4
*6
How many segments are there in inferior left lung lobe?
1
2
3
4
*6
242.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
243.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
244.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
245.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
246.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
247.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
248.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
250.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How many segments are there in inferior right lung lobe?
1
2
3
4
*5
How many segments are there in middle right lung lobe?
1
*2
3
4
5
How many segments are there in superior left lung lobe?
1
2
3
*4
6
How many segments are there in superior right lung lobe?
1
2
*3
4
5
How many segments are there in superior right lung lobe?
1
2
*3
4
5
What are biggest parts of the kidney?
Lobes
Lobules
Acynuses
* Segments
Nephrons
What are biggest parts of the lung ?
Bronchi
Acynuses
Segments
* Lobes
Lobules
What are kidney segments consist off?
Pelvis
Lobules
Nephrons
Cortex
* Lobes
What do bronchioles continue?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
* Intrasegmental bronchi
251.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
253.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
254.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
257.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
258.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
259.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What do intrasegmental bronchi continue?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
What do intrasegmental bronchi continue?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
What do lobar bronchi continue?
* Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
What do lobar bronchi continue?
* Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
What do open to alveolar sacs?
Bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Respiratory bronchioles
Terminal bronchioles
What do principal bronchi continue?
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
* Trachea
Larynx
What do respiratory bronchioles continue?
Principal bronchi
Bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Terminal bronchioles
What do segmental bronchi continue?
Principal bronchi
* Lobar bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
What do terminal bronchioles continue?
Trachea
Principal bronchi
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
* Bronchioles
260.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
261.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
262.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
263.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
264.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
265.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
267.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
268.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What does separate horizontal fissure of lung?
Superior and inferior lobes
* Superior and middle lobes
Inferior and middle lobes
Root and superior lobe
Hilum and middle lobe
What does separate oblique fissure of left lung?
* Superior and inferior lobes
Superior and middle lobes
Inferior and middle lobes
Root and superior lobe
Hilum and middle lobe
What does separate oblique fissure of right lung?
Superior and inferior lobes
Superior and middle lobes
* Inferior and middle lobes
Root and superior lobe
Hilum and middle lobe
What is morpho-functional unit of lung?
Lobe
Lobule
Bronchi
* Acynus
Pleura
What parts are separated by lung fissurae?
* Lobes
Lobules
Bronchi
Acynus
Segments
Where does air get from alveolar sacs at exhalation?
Bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Respiratory bronchioles
Terminal bronchioles
Where does air get from bronchioles at exhalation?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
* Intrasegmental bronchi
Where does air get from intrasegmental bronchi at exhalation?
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Where does air get from larynx at exhalation?
Trachae
* Pharynx
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.
275.
276.
277.
E. Principal bronchi
Where does air get from lobar bronchi at exhalation?
A. * Principal bronchi
B. Segmental bronchi
C. Terminal bronchiole
D. Subsegmental bronchi
E. Branches of segmental bronchi
Where does air get from nasal cavity at inhalation?
A. Larynx
B. * Pharynx
C. Trachae
D. Principal bronchi
E. Segmental bronchi
Where does air get from principal bronchi at exhalation?
A. Lobar bronchi
B. Segmental bronchi
C. Terminal bronchiole
D. Larynx
E. * Trachea
Where does air get from respiratory bronchioles at exhalation?
A. Principal bronchi
B. Bronchioles
C. Intrasegmental bronchi
D. * Terminal bronchioles
E. Segmental bronchi
Where does air get from segmental bronchi at exhalation?
A. Principal bronchi
B. * Lobar bronchi
C. Terminal bronchiole
D. Branches of segmental bronchi
E. Subsegmental bronchi
Where does air get from terminal bronchioles at exhalation?
A. Trachea
B. Principal bronchi
C. Lobar bronchi
D. Segmental bronchi
E. * Bronchioles
Where does air get from trachea at exhalation?
A. * Larynx
B. Lobar bronchi
C. Principal bronchi
D. Segmental bronchi
E. Terminal bronchiole
Where does air get in alveolar sacs at inhalation from?
A. Bronchioles
B. Segmental bronchi
C. Terminal bronchioles
D. Intrasegmental bronchi
E. * Respiratory bronchioles
Where does air get in bronchioles at exhalation from?
A. * Terminal bronchioles
B. Lobar bronchi
C. Principal bronchi
D. Segmental bronchi
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
E. Intrasegmental bronchi
Where does air get in bronchioles at inhalation from?
A. Segmental bronchi
B. * Intrasegmental bronchi
C. Trachea
D. Lobar bronchi
E. Principal bronchi
Where does air get in intrasegmental bronchi at exhalation from?
A. Segmental bronchi
B. Terminal bronchioles
C. * Bronchioles
D. Lobar bronchi
E. Principal bronchi
Where does air get in intrasegmental bronchi at inhalation from?
A. Trachea
B. Lobar bronchi
C. Principal bronchi
D. * Segmental bronchi
E. Terminal bronchiole
Where does air get in larynx at inhalation from?
A. Principal bronchi
B. Trachae
C. * Pharynx
D. Lobar bronchi
E. Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in lobar bronchi at exhalation from?
A. Principal bronchi
B. * Segmental bronchi
C. Terminal bronchiole
D. Subsegmental bronchi
E. Branches of segmental bronchi
Where does air get in lobar bronchi at inhalation from?
A. Branches of segmental bronchi
B. Subsegmental bronchi
C. * Principal bronchi
D. Segmental bronchi
E. Terminal bronchiole
Where does air get in nasal cavity at exhalation?
A. Larynx
B. * Pharynx
C. Trachae
D. Principal bronchi
E. Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in principal bronchi at exhalation from?
A. * Lobar bronchi
B. Segmental bronchi
C. Terminal bronchiole
D. Larynx
E. Trachea
Where does air get in principal bronchi at inhalation from?
A. * Trachea
B. Larynx
C. Lobar bronchi
D. Segmental bronchi
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
294.
295.
E. Terminal bronchiole
Where does air get in respiratory bronchioles at exhalation from?
A. * Alveolar sacs
B. Bronchioles
C. Intrasegmental bronchi
D. Terminal bronchioles
E. Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in respiratory bronchioles at inhalation from?
A. Bronchioles
B. Principal bronchi
C. Segmental bronchi
D. Intrasegmental bronchi
E. * Terminal bronchioles
Where does air get in segmental bronchi at exhalation from?
A. Principal bronchi
B. Lobar bronchi
C. Terminal bronchiole
D. Respiratory bronchiole
E. * Branches of segmental bronchi
Where does air get in segmental bronchi at inhalation from?
A. * Lobar bronchi
B. Principal bronchi
C. Terminal bronchiole
D. Branches of segmental bronchi
E. Subsegmental bronchi
Where does air get in terminal bronchioles at exhalation from?
A. * Respiratory bronchioles
B. Principal bronchi
C. Lobar bronchi
D. Segmental bronchi
E. Bronchioles
Where does air get in terminal bronchioles at inhalation from?
A. Trachea
B. * Bronchioles
C. Lobar bronchi
D. Principal bronchi
E. Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in trachea at inhalation from?
A. Principal bronchi
B. * Larynx
C. Lobar bronchi
D. Segmental bronchi
E. Terminal bronchiole
Where does an interchange of gases take place?
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Pulmonary veins
C. * Capillaries of alveoli
D. Bronchial arteries
E. Interlobular lymph vessels
Where does an interchange of gases take place?
A. Bronchioles
B. * Alveolar sacs
C. Segmental bronchi
D. Terminal bronchioles
296.
297.
298.
299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
E. Intrasegmental bronchi
Where does an oxygen pass to the blood?
A. Terminal bronchioles
B. Intrasegmental bronchi
C. Respiratory bronchioles
D. * Alveolar sacs
E. Bronchioles
Where does urine get in proximal convoluted tubule from?
A. Henle’s loop
B. distal convoluted tubule
C. * nephron’s capsule
D. blood capillaries
E. collecting tubule
Which part of airways does not contain the cartilages in the wall?
A. Lobar bronchi
B. Principal bronchi
C. * Terminal bronchiole
D. Segmental bronchi
E. Subsegmental bronchi
Which wall of trachea contains the muscle?
A. Lateral
B. Front
C. Right
D. Left
E. * Back
Which wall of trachea does not contain the cartilages?
A. Front
B. * Back
C. Right
D. Left
E. Bifurcation
Which wall of trachea touches the oesophagus?
A. Lateral
B. Front
C. * Back
D. Right
E. Left
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * caput
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * lobuli
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * cauda
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
313.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * corpus
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * coni
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * ductus
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * ductuli aberrantes
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * caput
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * lobuli
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * cauda
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * corpus
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * coni
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
314.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * ductus
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * ductuli aberrantes
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
A. * caput
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * fascia spermatica externa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * fascia cremasterica
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * fascia spermatica interna
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * vestigium processus vaginalis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * fascia spermatica externa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * fascia cremasterica
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * fascia spermatica interna
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
A. * vestigium processus vaginalis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * basis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * pars proximalis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * zona glandularum periurethralium
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * apex prostatae
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * basis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * pars proximalis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * zona glandularum periurethralium
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
A. * apex prostatae
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * polus superior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * polus inferior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * facies lateralis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * facies medialis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * margo anterior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * margo posterior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica vaginalis testis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lamina parietalis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
349.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lamina visceralis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica serosa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tela subserosa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica albuginea
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica vasculosa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tubuli seminiferi contorti
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tubuli seminiferi recti
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lig. epididymis superius
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * sinus epididimys
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * mediastinum
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * septula testis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lobuli
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * parenchyma
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * rete
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * ductuli efferentes
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * polus superior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * polus inferior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * facies lateralis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
365.
366.
367.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * facies medialis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * margo anterior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * margo posterior
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica vaginalis testis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lamina parietalis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lamina visceralis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica serosa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tela subserosa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica albuginea
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
368.
369.
370.
371.
372.
373.
374.
375.
376.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tunica vasculosa
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tubuli seminiferi contorti
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * tubuli seminiferi recti
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lig. epididymis superius
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lig. epididymis inferius
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * sinus epididimys
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * mediastinum
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * septula testis
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * lobuli
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
377.
378.
379.
380.
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * parenchyma
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * rete
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
A. * ductuli efferentes
B. tunica spongiosa
C. crista urethralis
D. stratum circulare
E. sinus prostaticus
What does empty to ejaculatory ducts?
A. Tubuli contortii
B. Tubuli recti
C. Rete testis
D. * Seminal vesicle
E. Prostate gland
What does pass through urogenital diaphragm?
A. * Membranous part of urethra
B. Spongiuos part of urethra
C. Prostatic part of urethra
D. Urethra in glans penis
E. Urethra in bulb of the penis
What is positioned in inguinal canal?
A. Tubuli contortii
B. Tubuli recti
C. Epididimis
D. Seminal vesicle
E. * Spermatic cord
Where does urine pass from membranous part of urethra?
A. Pelvic part of ureter
B. Intramural part of ureter
C. Prostatic part of urethra
D. * Spongious part of urethra
E. Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass from prostatic part of urethra?
A. Pelvic part of ureter
B. Intramural part of ureter
C. * Membranous part of urethra
D. Spongious part of urethra
E. Urinary bladder
?Where does urine pass from urinary bladder?
A. ureter
B. * urethra
C. papillary duct
D. major calices
386.
387.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
394.
E. renal pelvis
Where does urine pass from urinary bladder?
A. Pelvic part of ureter
B. Intramural part of ureter
C. Membranous part of urethra
D. * Prostatic part of urethra
E. Spongious part of urethra
?Where does urine pass from urinary bladder?
A. ureter
B. * urethra
C. papillary duct
D. major calices
E. renal pelvis
Where does urine pass into membranous part of urethra from?
A. Pelvic part of ureter
B. Intramural part of ureter
C. * Prostatic part of urethra
D. Spongious part of urethra
E. Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass into prostatic part of urethra from?
A. Pelvic part of ureter
B. Intramural part of ureter
C. Membranous part of urethra
D. Spongious part of urethra
E. * Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass into spongious part of urethra from?
A. Pelvic part of ureter
B. Intramural part of ureter
C. Prostatic part of urethra
D. * Membranous part of urethra
E. Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass into urinary bladder from?
A. Abdominal part of ureter
B. * Intramural part of ureter
C. Membranous part of urethra
D. Prostatic part of urethra
E. Spongious part of urethra
Where ejaculatory ducts are opened?
A. Membranous part of urethra
B. Spongiuos part of urethra
C. * Prostatic part of urethra
D. Urethra in glans penis
E. Urethra in bulb of the penis
Where is external (voluntary) urethral sphincter positioned?
A. Spongiuos part of urethra
B. Prostatic part of urethra
C. Urethra in glans penis
D. * Membranous part of urethra
E. Urethra in bulb of the penis
Where is internal (involuntary) urethral sphincter positioned?
A. Membranous part of urethra
B. Spongiuos part of urethra
C. * Prostatic part of urethra
D. Urethra in glans penis
E. Urethra in bulb of the penis
Where is internal urethral ostium located?
A. Membranous part of urethra
B. Spongiuos part of urethra
C. * Prostatic part of urethra
D. Urethra in glans penis
E. Urethra in bulb of the penis
396.
Where is permanent bend of the urethra (in male) located?
A. * Membranous part of urethra
B. Spongiuos part of urethra
C. Prostatic part of urethra
D. Urethra in glans penis
E. Urethra in bulb of the penis
397.
Where sperm cells are produced?
A. * Tubuli contortii
B. Tubuli recti
C. Rete testis
D. Seminal vesicles
E. Prostate gland
398.
Which scrotal coat consists of serous membrane?
A. External seminal fascia
B. Internal seminal fascia
C. Tunica dartos
D. * Vaginal tunica
E. Cremaster
399.
Which scrotal coat is derivate of internal oblique abdominis muscle?
A. External seminal fascia
B. Internal seminal fascia
C. Tunica dartos
D. Vaginal tunica
E. * Cremaster
400.
Which scrotal coat is derivate of subcutaneous connective tissue?
A. External seminal fascia
B. Internal seminal fascia
C. * Tunica dartos
D. Vaginal tunica
E. Cremaster
401.
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
the:
A. major labia
B. minor labia
C. vestibule of vagina
D. * uterus
E. mons pubis
402.
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
the:
A. major labia
B. minor labia
C. vestibule of vagina
D. * uterine tubes
E. mons pubis
403.
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
the:
A. major labia
395.
B.
C.
D.
E.
404.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
405.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
406.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
407.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
408.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
409.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
410.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* ovaries
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* vagina
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* uterus
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* uterine tubes
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* ovaries
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* vagina
mons pubis
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
* clitoris
411.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
412.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
413.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
414.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
415.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
417.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
418.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
* minor labia
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
* clitoris
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except
ovaries
* minor labia
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
* A hilum
B plicae palmatae
C istmus uteri
D paracervix
E tunica spongiosa
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
* A facies medialis
B plicae palmatae
C istmus uteri
D paracervix
E tunica spongiosa
419.
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
* A hilum
B plicae palmatae
C istmus uteri
D paracervix
E tunica spongiosa
420.
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
A. * A facies medialis
B. B plicae palmatae
C. C istmus uteri
D. D paracervix
E. E tunica spongiosa
421.
Proper ovaric ligament is attached to:
A. free margin of the ovary
B. mesenteric margin of the ovary
C. * uterine extremity of the ovary
D. tubarius extremity of the ovary
E. medial surface of the ovary
422.
Proper ovaric ligament is attached to:
A. free margin of the ovary
B. mesenteric margin of the ovary
C. * uterine extremity of the ovary
D. tubarius extremity of the ovary
E. medial surface of the ovary
423.
Proper ovaric ligament is attached to:
A. free margin of the ovary
B. mesenteric margin of the ovary
C. * uterine extremity of the ovary
D. tubarius extremity of the ovary
E. medial surface of the ovary
424.
Suspensory ovaric ligament is attached to:
A. free margin of the ovary
B. mesenteric margin of the ovary
C. uterine extremity of the ovary
D. * tubarius extremity of the ovary
E. medial surface of the ovary
425.
Uterine tube has some parts except:
A. uterine part
B. isthmus
C. neck
D. * ampulla
E. infundibulum
426.
A hormone from the pituitary gland initiates the production of sperm cells.
What is the name of this hormone?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. * Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Gonadotropin hormone
D. Gametogenesis hormone
E. Antidiuretic hormone
427.
A hormone from the pituitary gland initiates the production of sperm cells.
What is the name of this hormone?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. * Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Gonadotropin hormone
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
D. Gametogenesis hormone
E. Antidiuretic hormone
428.
Calcitonin
A. is secreted by the parathyroid glands.
B. is secreted by the adrenal glands.
C. levels increase when blood calcium levels decrease.
D. * causes blood calcium levels to decrease.
E. insufficiency results in weak bones and tetany
429.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
430.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
431.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
432.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
433.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
434.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
435.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
436.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
437.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
438.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
439.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
440.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
441.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
442.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
443.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
444.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
445.
446.
447.
448.
449.
450.
451.
452.
453.
E. all of the above.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
LH and FSH
A. are produced in the hypothalamus.
B. production is increased by TSH.
C. * promote the production of gametes and reproductive hormones.
D. inhibit the production of prolactin.
E. all of the above.
Melatonin
A. is produced by the posterior pituitary.
B. production increases as day length increases.
C. * inhibits the development of the reproductive system.
D. increases GnRH secretion from the hypothalamus.
E. decreases the tendency to sleep.
Oxytocin is responsible for
A. preventing milk release from the mammary glands.
B. preventing goiter.
C. * c. causing contraction of the uterus.
D. maintaining normal calcium levels.
E. increasing metabolic rate.
The adenohypophysis is known as the ____.
A. posterior pituitary
B. * anterior pituitary
C. adrenal cortex
D. thymus gland
E. Tuberal part
The adenohypophysis is known as the ____.
A. posterior pituitary
B. * anterior pituitary
C. adrenal cortex
D. thymus gland
E. Tuberal part
The adrenal medulla
A. produces steroids.
B. has cortisol as its major secretory product.
C. decreases its secretions during exercise.
D. * is formed from a modified portion of the sympathetic division of the
ANS.
E. all of the above.
The adrenal medulla
A. produces steroids.
B. has cortisol as its major secretory product.
C. decreases its secretions during exercise.
D. * is formed from a modified portion of the sympathetic division of the
ANS.
E. all of the above.
The hypothalamohypophysial portal system
A. contains one capillary bed.
B. carries hormones from the anterior pituitary to the body.
454.
455.
456.
457.
458.
459.
460.
461.
462.
C. carries hormones from the posterior pituitary to the body.
D. * carries hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
E. carries hormones from the hypothalamus to the posterior
The pancreas releases insulin and also ____.
A. * glucagon
B. cortisol
C. androgens
D. aldosterone
E. Oxytocin
The pituitary gland
A. develops from the floor of the brain.
B. develops from the roof of the mouth.
C. is stimulated by neurohormones produced in the midbrain.
D. secretes only three major hormones.
E. * both a and b.
The posterior pituitary gland releases ____.
A. * Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. C. Gonadotropin hormone
D. D. Gametogenesis hormone
E. Antidiuretic hormone
F. the antidiuretic hormone
G. parathormone
H. calcitonin
I. adrenocorticotropic hormone
J. Gonadotropin hormone
Thyroid gland consists of
A. * right and left lobes, isthmus
B. right and left lobes
C. isthmus and pyramidal portion
D. superior and inferior paired lobes
E. superior and inferior lobes, isthmus
?Thyroid gland consists of
A. * right and left lobes, isthmus
B. right and left lobes
C. isthmus and pyramidal portion
D. superior and inferior paired lobes
E. superior and inferior lobes, isthmus
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
A. III-V cervical vertebrae
B. III-VI cervical vertebrae
C. * IV-VI cervical vertebrae
D. IV-VII cervical vertebrae
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
A. III-V cervical vertebrae
B. III-VI cervical vertebrae
C. * IV-VI cervical vertebrae
D. IV-VII cervical vertebrae
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
A. III-V cervical vertebrae
B. III-VI cervical vertebrae
C. * IV-VI cervical vertebrae
D. IV-VII cervical vertebrae
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
A.
B.
C.
D.
463.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
464.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
465.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
466.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
467.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
468.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
469.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
470.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
471.
A.
III-V cervical vertebrae
III-VI cervical vertebrae
* IV-VI cervical vertebrae
IV-VII cervical vertebrae
What does produce Thyroid gland?
Parathormone
Melatonin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
* Calcitonin
Oxytocin
What does produce Thyroid gland?
Parathormone
Melatonin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
* Calcitonin
Oxytocin
What does produce Thyroid gland?
Parathormone
Melatonin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
* Calcitonin
Oxytocin
What does produce Thyroid gland?
Parathormone
Melatonin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
* Calcitonin
Oxytocin
What gland produces epinephrine?
Adrenal cortex
* Adrenal medulla
Adenohypophysis
Neurohypophysis
Pineal body
What is morphological unit of Thyroid gland?
Segment
Acynus
Thyroxine
Lobe
* Lobule
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
The zygote
The placenta
The uterus
* The zygote and placenta
All of the above
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
The zygote
The placenta
The uterus
* The zygote and placenta
All of the above
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
The zygote
B.
C.
D.
E.
The placenta
The uterus
* The zygote and placenta
All of the above
472.
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
A. The zygote
B. The placenta
C. The uterus
D. * The zygote and placenta
E. All of the above
473.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of
thesehormones increases?
A. glucagon
B. * insulin
C. GH
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine
474.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of these
hormones increases?
A. glucagon
B. * insulin
C. GH
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine
475.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of
thesehormones increases?
A. glucagon
B. * insulin
C. GH
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine
476.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of
thesehormones increases?
A. glucagon
B. * insulin
C. GH
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine
477.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * hypophysis
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
478.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * adrenal medulla
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
479.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * hypophysis
C. adrenal cortex
480.
481.
482.
483.
484.
485.
486.
487.
488.
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * adrenal medulla
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * hypophysis
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * adrenal medulla
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thymus
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thyroid
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thymus
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
489.
490.
491.
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
497.
D. paraganglia
E. * thyroid
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thymus
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thyroid
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which hormone acts as a negative feedback to calcitonin?
A. * Parathormone
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenalin
D. Androgens
E. Oxytocin
Which hormone acts as a negative feedback to calcitonin?
A. * Parathormone
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenalin
D. Androgens
E. Oxytocin
A collection of cell bodies located outside the CNS is called
A. A tract
B. A nerve
C. A nucleus
D. A trunk
E. * A ganglion
All of the following tracts decussate EXCEPT the
A. lateral corticospinal tract
B. lateral spinothalamic tract
C. rubrospinal tract
D. all of the above
E. * posterior spinocerebellar tract
Although brains of males average about 10% larger than females:
A. males are thought to have about 5% greater intelligence
B. females are thought to have about 5% greater intelligence
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * no correlation exists between brain sizes and intelligence
498.
At the synapse:
A. impulses can pass in either direction.
B. two nerve fibres come in direct contact with each other.
C. an electrical "spark" will jump the gap.
D. both A and B above are correct
E. * impulses can pass from an axon of one neuron to the dendron
(dendrite) of the next neuron
499.
At what vertebra does the spinal cord end?
A. C1
B. L5
C. C3
D. T1
E. * L1
500.
At what vertebra does the spinal cord start?
A. C3
B. L1
C. T1
D. L5
E. * C1
501.
Between what vertebrae may a needle be inserted during a spinal tap?
A. L4 & L5
B. L2 & L3
C. L1 & L2
D. Th12 & L1
E. * L3 & L4
502.
Collection of cell bodies located outside the CNS is called
A. tract
B. nerve
C. nucleus
D. trunk
E. * ganglion
503.
Gray matter of the central nervous system consists of:
A. myelinated neurons only
B. pia mater and arachnoid
C. post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers
D. nerve tracts
E. * cell bodies and unmyelinated neurons
504.
If the posterior root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed person
would lose:
A. willed movement related to that pathway
B. reflex activity only, related to that pathway
C. sensory perception related to that pathway
D. none of the above
E. * both reflex activity and sensation related to that pathway
505.
In what area of the spinal cord do the spinal cord tracts lie?
A. anterior horn
B. posterior horn
C. gray commissure
D. A and B
E. * white matter
506.
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B.
C.
D.
E.
507.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
508.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
509.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
510.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
511.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
512.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
513.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
514.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
515.
A.
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* tractus rubrospinalis
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* pars cervicalis of spinal cord
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* pars sacralis of spinal cord
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* pars thoracica of spinal cord
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* pars lumbalis of spinal cord
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* intumescentia cervicalis
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* funiculus lateralis
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* funiculus anterior
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
rhombencephalon
medulla oblongata
diencephalon
telencephalon
* funiculus posterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
B.
C.
D.
E.
516.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
517.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
518.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
519.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
520.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
521.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
522.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
523.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
524.
A.
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* fasciculus proprius anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* funiculus anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* funiculus lateralis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* tractus raphespinalis anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* fibrae olivospinales
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* tractus spinothalamicus anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* tractus tectospinalis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* tractus pontoreticulospinalis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* tractus interstitiospinalis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
area postrema
B.
C.
D.
E.
pons
lemniscus medialis
plexus choroideus
* fibrae reticulospinales
525.
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus vestibulospinalis medialis
526.
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus corticospinalis anterior
527.
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus vestibulospinalis lateralis
528.
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * fasciculus sulcomarginalis
529.
Indicate structure which take part in formation of funiculus posterior of
spinal cord
A. lobus temporalis
B. pons
C. dura matter
D. arachnoid matter
E. * fibrae gracilispinales
530.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * tegmentum mesencephali
531.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * cerebellum
532.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * hypothalamus
533.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
534.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
535.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
536.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
537.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
538.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
539.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
540.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
541.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
542.
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* substantia nigra
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* parietal lobe
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* funiculus cuneafus
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* III ventricle
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* truncus encephali
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* diencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* telencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* prosencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* cerebellum
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
543.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
544.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
545.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
546.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
547.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
548.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
549.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
550.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
551.
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* mesencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* metencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* pons
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
C tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* medulla oblongata
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* bulbus
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* rhombencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* myelencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* encephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* thalamus
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* lobus temporalis
552.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * hypothalamus
553.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * epithalamus
554.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * lobus occipitalis
555.
Neural pathways by which sensory impulses from receptors reach
effectors without involving the brain are called:
A. association pathways
B. corticospinal tracts
C. none of the above
D. all of the above
E. * spinal reflexes
556.
Neurons
A. are held in place by glial cells.
B. transmit electrical messages throughout the nervous system.
C. are the basic units of the nervous system.
D. none of the above
E. * are characterized by all of the above
557.
Position of the central canal:
A. Midbrain
B. Diencephalon
C. Brain stem
D. Hind brain
E. * Spinal cord
558.
Position of the filum terminale on adults:
A. L 1 - Co 1 vertebrae
B. C 1 - S 1 vertebrae
C. C 1 - L 2 vertebrae
D. C 2 - L 2 vertebrae
E. * L 2 - Co 2 vertebrae
559.
Position of the filum terminale on adults:
A. L 1 – Co 1 vertebrae
B. C 1 – S 1 vertebrae
C. C 1 – L 2 vertebrae
D. C 2 – L 2 vertebrae
E. * L 2 - Co 2 vertebrae
560.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
561.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
562.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
563.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
564.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
565.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
566.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
567.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
568.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Position of the lumbosacral enlargement on adults:
Th 11 vertebrae
L 1 vertebrae
L 2 vertebrae
S 1 vertebrae
* Th 12 vertebrae
Position of the spinal cord on adults:
C 8 – Co 2 vertebrae
C 2 – Th 8 vertebrae
C 1 – S 1 vertebrae
C 2 – L 2 vertebrae
* C 1 - L 2 vertebrae
Position of the spinal cord on adults:
C 8 - Co 2 vertebrae
C 2 - Th 8 vertebrae
C 1 - S 1 vertebrae
C 2 - L 2 vertebrae
* C 1 - L 2 vertebrae
Position of the terminal ventricle:
Midbrain
Diencephalon
Brain stem
Hind brain
* Spinal cord
Position of the terminal ventricle:
Midbrain
Diencephalon
Brain stem
Hind brain
* Spinal cord
Segment of spinal cord is ….
Portion of spinal cord between upper and lower spinal roots
Portion of spinal cord with membranes
White matter and gray matter
Anterior and posterior horns
* Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
The autonomic nervous system is involved with
the nerves connected to the senses and skeletal muscles.
voluntary responses
only sensory nerves.
a and b
* involuntary responses such as the regulation of blood vessels and
glands
The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the:
glial cell
dendrite
reflex
axon
* neuron
The brain is part of the:
peripheral nervous system.
splanchnic nervous system.
somatic nervous system
autonomic nervous system.
E. * central nervous system
569.
?The cell bodies of sensory neurons whose fibers enter the cord by the
dorsal root are found in the:
A. autonomic ganglia.
B. basal nuclei.
C. ventral root.
D. ventral root ganglion.
E. * dorsal root ganglion
570.
The central nervous system (CNS) consists of:
A. the spinal cord and spinal nerves
B. the cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
C. the brain and cranial nerves.
D. the peripheral and autonomic nervous systems.
E. * the brain and spinal cord
571.
The central nervous system consists of the brain and
A. The cranial nerves
B. The spinal nerves
C. The ganglia
D. The sympathetic trunks
E. * The spinal cord
572.
The central nervous system consists of the brain and
A. The cranial nerves
B. The spinal nerves
C. The ganglia
D. The sympathetic trunks
E. * The spinal cord
573.
The function of the central nervous system is
A. to send out messages to muscles.
B. to send out messages to glands and organs.
C. to receive, process and interpret incoming information
D. none of the above
E. * all of the above
574.
The junctions between the ends of axons and muscle cell membranes
are called:
A. sliding filaments
B. actin and myosin junctions
C. synapses
D. dendrites
E. * neuromuscular junctions
575.
The part of a nerve cell which is adjacent to the neuromuscular junction is
the:
A. axon
B. medulla
C. motor end plate
D. receptor
E. * dendrite
576.
The peripheral nervous system
A. is made up of the brain and spinal cord.
B. depends exclusively on sensory neurons.
C. depends exclusively on motor neurons.
D. A and B
E. * handles the central nervous system's input and output
577.
The sensory or afferent nerve fibers carry information:
A. away from the visceral nervous system.
B.
C.
D.
E.
away from the ANS
away from the CNS to the ANS.
away from the CNS.
* toward the CNS
578.
What are groups of nerve cell bodies in the CNS called?
A. central area
B. nerves
C. tracts
D. ganglia
E. * nuclei
579.
What are the two anatomical subdivisions of the nervous system?
A. the afferent division and the efferent division
B. the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * the central and the peripheral nervous systems
580.
What detects the amount of stretch or tension in skeletal muscles, their
tendons, and joints?
A. pressure receptors
B. cutaneous receptors
C. heat receptors
D. pain receptors
E. * proprioceptors
581.
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. anterior spinocerebellar tract
D. posterior spinocerebellar tract
E. * anterior pyramidal tract
582.
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * vestibulospinal tract
583.
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * reticulospinal tract
584.
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * tectospinal tract
585.
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * reticulospinal tract
586.
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
587.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
588.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
589.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
590.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
591.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
592.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
593.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
594.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
595.
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
ventral spinocerebellar tract
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
* vestibulospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
ventral spinocerebellar tract
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
* tectospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
ventral spinocerebellar tract
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
* tectospinal tract
What do anterior horns contain?
sensory nucleus
proper nucleus
thoracic nucleus
lateral intermediate nucleus
* motor nucleus
What do anterior horns contain?
sensory nucleus
proper nucleus
thoracic nucleus
lateral intermediate nucleus
* motor nucleus
What do lateral funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
* ventral spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal trac
* ventral spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
* rubrospinal tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
* rubrospinal tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
596.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
597.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
598.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
599.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
600.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
601.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
602.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
603.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
604.
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
* ventral spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
* dorsal spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
fasciculus cuneatus
fasciculus gracilis
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
* dorsal spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral horns contain?
sensory nucleus
motor nucleus
proper nucleus
thoracic nucleus
* lateral intermediate nucleus
What do lateral horns contain?
sensory nucleus
motor nucleus
proper nucleus
thoracic nucleus
* lateral intermediate nucleus
What do posterior funiculi contain?
anterior corticospinal tract
tectospinal tract
spinothalamic tract
fasciculus gracilis
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
What do posterior funiculi contain?
anterior corticospinal tract
tectospinal tract
spinothalamic tract
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
* fasciculus cuneatus
What do posterior funiculi contain?
anterior corticospinal tract
tectospinal tract
spinothalamic tract
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
* fasciculus gracilis
What do posterior funiculi contain?
anterior corticospinal tract
tectospinal tract
spinothalamic tract
dorsal spinocerebellar tract
* fasciculus cuneatus
What do posterior horns contain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
605.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
606.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
607.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
608.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
609.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
610.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
611.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
612.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
613.
motor nucleus
lateral intermediate nucleus
medial intermediate nucleus
central canal
* thoracic nucleus
What do posterior horns contain?
motor nucleus
lateral intermediate nucleus
medial intermediate nucleus
central canal
* thoracic nucleus
What is found in the central canal of the spinal cord?
extra cerebral spinal fluid
the subarachnoid space
fat
blood
* cerebral spinal fluid
What is the minimum number of neurons that can be involved in a reflex?
3
4
5
1
*2
Where does spinocerebral fluid circulates?
Epidural space
Interpeduncular fossa
Between dura mater and vertebrae
Between pia mater and spinal cord
* Subarachnoidal space
Which nerve is placed in interpeduncular fossa ?
1st cranial nerve
2nd cranial nerve
4th cranial nerve
5th cranial nerve
* 3d cranial nerve
Which of following neuron types are pseudounipolar?
somatic motor neurons
neurons in the retina
autonomic motor neurons
visceral motor neurons
* sensory neurons
Which of following neuron types are pseudounipolar?
somatic motor neurons
neurons in the retina
autonomic motor neurons
visceral motor neurons
* sensory neurons
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* septum medianum posterius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
614.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
615.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
616.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
617.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
618.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
619.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
620.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
621.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
622.
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* intumescentia lumbosacralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* conus medullaris
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus nervi phrenici
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* intumescentia cervicalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus posteromedialis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus centralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus nervi accessorii
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus posterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus posteromedialis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
623.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
624.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
625.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
626.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
627.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
628.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
629.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
630.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
631.
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus anteromedialis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus posterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* columna anterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* laminae spinales
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus anterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* nucleus motorius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* substantia alba
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
C crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* substantia gelatinosa centralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* columnae griseae
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
632.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
633.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
634.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
635.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
636.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
637.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
638.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
639.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
640.
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* cornu laterale
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* cornu posterius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* substantia grisea
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* cornu anterius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* pars coccygea (segmenta coccygea)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* canalis centralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* pars thoracica (segmenta thoracica)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* pars lumbalis (segmenta lumbalia)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* pars sacralis (segmenta sacralia)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
641.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
642.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
643.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
644.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
645.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
646.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
647.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
648.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
649.
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* funiculi medulae spinalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* pars cervicalis (segmenta cervicalia)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* sulcus anterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* sulcus posterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* sulcus intermedius posterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* sulcus medianus posterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
basis pedunculi
* filum terminale, pars spinalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
habenula
fovea inferior
* ventriculus terminalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* fissura mediana anterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
basis pedunculi
crus cerebri
fovea inferior
habenula
* conus medullaris
650.
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. crus cerebri
B. fovea inferior
C. habenula
D. basis pedunculi
E. * filum terminale, pars spinalis
651.
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * intumescentia cervicalis
652.
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * intumescentia lumbosacralis
653.
Which of the following describes the gross anatomy of the spinal cord?
A. The maximum width of the spinal cord is approximately 21 mm.
B. The diameter of the cord increases as you proceed from the cervical
segments to the sacral segments.
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * The spinal cord is approximately 45 cm in length
654.
Which of the following is not a spinal reflex?
A. knee jerk
B. ankle jerk
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * swallowing reflex
655.
Which of the following is true about motor neurons?
A. They deliver information to the central nervous system.
B. There are about 10 million motor neurons.
C. A and B only
D. Motor neurons are unipolar
E. * none of the above
656.
Which of the following statements about spinal cord organization is
CORRECT?
A. Descending axons are found only in the ventral funiculus.
B. The ratio of white to gray matter is greatest in the lumbosacral cord.
C. Segments are interconnected by the propriospinal tract.
D. all of the above
E. * Sensory functions are restricted to the dorsal (posterior) region of the
cord
657.
Which of the following statements is true about sensory neurons?
A. There are about 10 million sensory neurons.
B. They deliver information to the central nervous system.
C. Sensory neurons are unipolar.
D. A and B only
E. * all of the above
658.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. a reflex arc is the functional unit of the nervous system
B. effector organs are non-neural structures
C. when a tack pricks the toe of a barefoot person,the tack is the stimulus
D. a reflex always starts at a sensory neuron and ends at a motor neuron
E. * all are correct
659.
Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
A. white and gray matter are part of the central nervous system
B. gray matter is so called because of the density of nerve cell bodies each
containing abundant Nissl substance
C. the term nucleus, when applied to the nervous system designates a
mass of gray matter (i.e., nerve cells)
D. ganglion refers to a cluster of nerve cells (gray matter) usually located
outside the brain and spinal cord
E. * white matter is composed chiefly of unmyelinated fibers
660.
Which sequence best represents the course of an impulse over a reflex
arc?
A. effector, sensory neuron, synapse, motor neuron, receptor
B. receptor, motor neuron, synapse, sensory neuron, effector
C. receptor, sensory neuron, center, interneuron, effector
D. none of the above
E. * receptor, sensory neuron, synapse,motor neuron, effector
661.
Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would most likely result in:
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. a loss of coordination and balance
D. distorted pain perception
E. * loss of visual motor response
662.
Following an auto accident, a man with an obvious head injury was
observed stumbling about the scene. An inability to walk properly and loss of
balance were quite obvious. What brain area was involved?
A. corpus callosum
B. occipital lobe of cerebrum
C. temporal lobe of cerebrum
D. medulla oblongata
E. * cerebellum
663.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus rubropontius
664.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus olivocochlearis
665.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cerebellum
thalamus
spinal cord
optic nerve
* tractus hypothalamospinalis
666.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * genu nervi facialis
667.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * corpus trapezoideum
668.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus mesencephalicus nervi trigemini
669.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * mesencephalon
670.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * pons
671.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * medulla oblongata
672.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * bulbus
673.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis intermedia
674.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * myelencephalon
675.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis anterior
676.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus lateralis
677.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus anterior
678.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus
679.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus trigeminalis
680.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus spinalis nervi trigemini
681.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B.
C.
D.
E.
thalamus
spinal cord
optic nerve
* fibrae spinoolivares
682.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinohypithalamicae
683.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinobulbares
684.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinotectales
685.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinomesencephalicae
686.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinoreticulares
687.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae cerebelloolivares
688.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae rubroolivares
689.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae anuloolivares
690.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * commissura cochlearis pontis
691.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus tegmentalis centralis
692.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus spinocerebellaris anterior
693.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis posterior
694.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus pontoreticulospinalis anterior
695.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinothalamicae
696.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus spinalis
697.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae tectireticulares
698.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. fibrae tectoolivares
B. cerebellum
C. thalamus
D. spinal cord
E. optic nerve
699.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus tectospinalis
700.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae pretectoolivares
701.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus medialis
702.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis posterior
703.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis dorsalis
704.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B.
C.
D.
E.
thalamus
spinal cord
optic nerve
* fasciculus longitudinalis medialis
705.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * raphe pontis
706.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * mesencephalon
707.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus posterior
708.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * bulbus
709.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * myelencephalon
710.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * medulla oblongata
711.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus rubropontius
712.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae cerebelloolivares
713.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus hypothalamospinalis
714.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae rubroolivares
715.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae anuloolivares
716.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * commissura cochlearis pontis
717.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus tegmentalis centralis
718.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus spinocerebellaris anterior
719.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis posterior
720.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B.
C.
D.
E.
thalamus
spinal cord
optic nerve
* tractus pontoreticulospinalis anterior
721.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis intermedia
722.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus lateralis
723.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis anterior
724.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus olivocochlearis
725.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus anterior
726.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus
727.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * genu nervi facialis
728.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus mesencephalicus nervi trigemini
729.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of
tegmentum pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus posterior
730.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * pons
731.
Is the area of the brain that controls wakefulness:
A. Cerebellum
B. Midbrain
C. none of the above
D. all of the above
E. * Reticular activating system (RAS)
732.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus cuneatus
733.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus gracilis
734.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio pyramidum
735.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus gracilis
736.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. ateral ventricle
E. * tractus solitarius
737.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio pyramidum
738.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
739.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus olivocerebellaris
740.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * amiculum olivare
741.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus spinoolivaris
742.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus spinalis nervi trigemini
743.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis posterior
744.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis dorsalis
745.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus tectospinalis
746.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus lohgitudinalis medialis
747.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * lemniscus medialis
748.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fibrae arcuatae internae
749.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio lemnisci medialis
750.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus gracilis
751.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B.
C.
D.
E.
lobus frontalis
corpus callosum
lateral ventricle
* fasciculus cuneatus
752.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fibrae corticoreticulares
753.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio pyramidum
754.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * corticospinal fibers
755.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fibrae corticonucleares bulbi
756.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of
medulla oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus pyramidalis
757.
Reflex centers of the medulla include all of the following except the:
A. cardiovascular center
B. cardiac and vasomotor centers
C. respiratory rhythmicity center
D. none of the above
E. * digestive centers
758.
?The cerebellum aids in maintenance of:
A. visual acuity
B. emotional behavior
C. speech
D. binocular vision
E. * balance and postur
759.
The functions of cerebrospinal fluid are:
A. cushions neural structures
B. transports nutrients, chemical messengers, and waste products
760.
761.
762.
763.
764.
765.
766.
767.
768.
C. Supports the brain
D. none of the above
E. * all of the above
The pons of the brain:
A. contains relay and processing centers for sensory information
B. processes visual and auditory information
C. connects the cerebellum to the brain stem
D. none of the above
E. * all of the above
The region of the brain that regulates heart rate is located in the:
A. cerebellum
B. cerebrum.
C. superior coliculi.
D. none of the above
E. * medulla oblongata
What do anterior lateral sulcus separate?
A. Two pyramids
B. Pyramids and pons
C. Pons and midbrain
D. Cerebellum and pons
E. * Olives and pyramids
What do anterior lateral sulcus separate?
A. Two pyramids
B. Pyramids and pons
C. Pons and midbrain
D. Cerebellum and pons
E. * Olives and pyramids
What do middle cerebellar peducles communicate?
A. Cerebellum and medulla oblongata
B. Medulla oblongata and pons
C. Pons and midbrain
D. Cerebellum and midbrain
E. * Cerebellum and pons
What do middle cerebellar peducles communicate?
A. Cerebellum and medulla oblongata
B. Medulla oblongata and
C. Pons and midbrain
D. Cerebellum and midbrain
E. * Cerebellum and pons
What does anterior lateral sulcus separate?
A. Two pyramids
B. Pyramids and pons
C. Pons and midbrain
D. Cerebellum and pons
E. * Olives and pyramids
What does median foramen (Magendi) communicate?
A. Fourth and third ventricles
B. Third ventricle and aqueduct
C. Central canal and subarachnoid space
D. Central canal and fourth ventricle
E. * Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
What does produce cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Pia mater
B. Dura mater
769.
770.
771.
772.
773.
774.
775.
776.
777.
C. Dural sinus
D. Arachnoid granulation
E. * Choroid plexus
What is NOT part of the brain stem?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Midbrain and cerebellum
E. * Cerebellum
What is the superior end of the central canal continuous with?
A. The Brainstem
B. The Medulla
C. The Cervicla Plexus
D. The 3rd Ventricle of the brain
E. * The 4th Ventricle of the brain
What is the superior end of the central canal continuous with?
A. The Brainstem
B. The Medulla
C. The Cervicla Plexus
D. The 3rd Ventricle of the brain
E. * The 4th Ventricle of the brain
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * olivae
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus posterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * area retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * fibrae arcuatae externae anteriores
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
778.
779.
780.
781.
782.
783.
784.
785.
786.
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pyramids
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus preolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus anterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pyramis bulbi
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * decussatio piramidum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pyramis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * fissura mediana anterior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
787.
788.
789.
790.
791.
792.
793.
794.
795.
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * oliva
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * tuberculum gracile
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus medianus posterior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * fasciculus gracilis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * fasciculus cuneatus
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * tuberculum cuneatum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * corpus restiforme
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * tuberculum trigeminale
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
796.
797.
798.
799.
800.
801.
802.
803.
804.
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus posterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * area retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * fibrae arcuatae externae anteriores
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * oliva
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus preolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * decussatio piramidum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
805.
806.
807.
808.
809.
810.
811.
812.
813.
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus anterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pyramis bulbi
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pyramis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * fibrae arcuatae externae anteriores
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * oliva
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus anterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * sulcus preolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
814.
815.
816.
817.
818.
819.
820.
821.
822.
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * decussatio piramidum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pyramis bulbi
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * fissura mediana anterior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
A. neocortex
B. paleocortex
C. hippocampus
D. cerebellum
E. * pyramis
Where are located pyramids?
A. Pons
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Medulla oblongata
Where are located pyramids?
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Rhomboid fossa
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Medulla oblongata
Where is located fourth ventricle?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Rhomboencephalon
Where is located fourth ventricle?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Rhomboencephalon
Where is located nucleus cuneatus ?
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Rhomboid fossa
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Medulla oblongata
Where is located nucleus cuneatus ?
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Rhomboid fossa
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Medulla oblongata
823.
Where is located trapezoid body?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
824.
Where is located trapezoid body?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
825.
Where is located trapezoid body?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
826.
Which component of the brain controls cardiac centers, the vasomotor
center, and the respiratory rhythmicity center?
A. cerebellum
B. mesencephalon
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * medulla oblongata
827.
Which nerve is placed in interpeduncular fossa ?
A. 1st cranial nerve
B. 2nd cranial nerve
C. 4th cranial nerve
D. 5th cranial nerve
E. * 3d cranial nerve
828.
Which nucleus has accessory nerve?
A. Ambiguus nucleus
B. Mesencephalic nucleus
C. Pontine nucleus
D. Inferior salivary nucleus
E. * Spinal nucleus
829.
Which nucleus has accessory nerve?
A. Ambiguus nucleus
B. Mesencephalic nucleus
C. Pontine nucleus
D. Inferior salivary nucleus
E. * Spinal nucleus
830.
Which nucleus has facial nerve?
A. Ambiguus nucleus
B. Spinal nucleus
C. Mesencephalic nucleus
D. Pontine nucleus
E. * Superior salivary nucleus
831.
Which nucleus has facial nerve?
A. Ambiguus nucleus
B.
C.
D.
E.
832.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
833.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
834.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
835.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
836.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
837.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
838.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
839.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Spinal nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
* Superior salivary nucleus
Which nucleus has glossopharyngeal nerve?
Spinal nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Superior salivary nucleus
* Ambiguus nucleus
Which nucleus has glossopharyngeal nerve?
Spinal nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Superior salivary nucleus
* Ambiguus nucleus
Which nucleus has trigeminal nerve?
Ambiguus nucleus
Solitarius nucleus
Dorsal nucleus
salivary nucleus
* Pontine nucleus
Which nucleus has trigeminal nerve?
Ambiguus nucleus
Solitarius nucleus
Dorsal nucleus
Salivary nucleus
* Pontine nucleus
Which nucleus has vagus nerve?
Solitarius nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
salivary nucleus
* Ambiguus nucleus
Which nucleus has vagus nerve?
Solitarius nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Salivary nucleus
* Ambiguus nucleus
Which of the following is not true of the brainstem in general?
it connects the spinal cord to the thalamus and hypothalamus
damage to the brainstem is usually fatal
most of the cranial nerves enter or exit the brain via the brainstem
it is composed of the medulla, pons, and midbrain
* the brainstem is larger than the cerebellum but smaller than the
cerebrum
Which of the following is/are true?
the medulla is a conduction pathway for impulses between the brain and
the spinal cord
The brain is protected by CSF, meninges and the skull.
most of the cranial nerves enter or exit the brain via the brainstem
none of the above
* all are correct
840.
Which of these is not found in the hindbrain?
pons
cerebellar hemispheres
vermis of cerebellum
decussation of pyramids
* inferior colliculus
841.
Choose the function of the hypothalamus that is false.
A. cardiovascular regulation
B. regulation of sleeping and wakefulness
C. houses pneumotaxic area
D. sexual response
E. * none of the variants
842.
Control of hormone release from the anterior pituitary” is from the:
A. cerebral cortex
B. cerebellum
C. pons
D. medulla oblongata
E. * hypothalamus
843.
Feeling satisfied after a nice meal and not being immediately hungry is a
function of the:
A. pons
B. thalamus
C. cerebral cortex
D. medulla
E. * hypothalamus
844.
In the depth of which groove is gyrus dentatus?
A. * sulcuses of hippocampus
B. collateral sulcuses
C. middle temporal sulcuses
D. upper temporal sulcuses
E. lower temporal sulcuses
845.
In the depth of which groove is insula lobe?
A. central
B. upper temporal
C. * lateral
D. lower frontal
E. postcentral
846.
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * gyrus dentatus
847.
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * cornu Ammonis
848.
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
849.
850.
851.
852.
853.
854.
855.
856.
857.
E. * fimbria
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * digitationes pedis
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * pes hippocampi
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * regio IV cornu Ammonis
Locating sensory information is the function of what part of the cortex?
A. Somatosensory Association Cortex
B. Somatomotor Cortex
C. Broca's Area
D. A and D
E. * Somatosensory Cortex
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria laminae granularis internae
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria occipitalis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria laminae granularis externae
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria laminae molecularis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
858.
859.
860.
861.
862.
863.
864.
865.
866.
E. * lamina pyramidalis interna
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina multiformis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina pyramidalis externa
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina granularis interna
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina molecularis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina granularis externa
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * archiocortex
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * paleocortex
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * strata isocorticis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
867.
868.
869.
870.
871.
872.
873.
874.
875.
E. * hypothalamus
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * epithalamus
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * neurohypophysis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * hypophysis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. spinal nerves
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * truncus corporis callosi
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * optic nerve
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * cerebellum
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * medulla spinalis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * pons
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * medulla oblongata
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * fornix
877.
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * commissura anterior
878.
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * lamina terminalis
879.
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * lobus frontalis
880.
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * lobus occipitalis
881.
Name the biggest part of the brain
A. pons
B. cerebellum
C. * cortex of large hemispheres
D. medulla oblongata
E. midbrain
882.
The anterior pituitary gland receives hypothalamic releasing factors via:
A. direct diffusion through the interstitial spaces
B. transport along nerve axons to the adenohypophysis
C. the systemic arterial system
D. transport through the lymphatic system
E. * a system of vessels in the infundibulum
883.
The central sulcus separates the:
A. parietal lobes
B. occipital lobe and temporal lobe
C. temporal lobe and parietal lobe
D. frontal lobe and ear lobe
E. * frontal lobes and the parietal lobes
884.
The cerebral cortex is characterized by numerous elevated ridges of
tissue called:
A. neural tubes.
B. the cerebral lobes.
C. fissures
876.
D. sulci
E. * none of the above
885.
The four distinct lobes of the cortex are the
A. sensory, auditory, visual and motor lobes.
B. hind, mid, fore and association lobes.
C. front, back, side and top lobes.
D. none of the above
E. * occipital, parietal, temporal and frontal lobes
886.
The largest part of the diencephalon is the:
A. pineal body
B. hypothalamus
C. pituitary gland
D. intermediate mass
E. * thalamus
887.
The occipital lobes:
A. are located within the white matter of the cerebrum.
B. are the most posterior part of the cerebellum.
C. help regulate gross movements performed unconsciously.
D. are part of the peripheral nervous system.
E. * are concerned with vision
888.
The part of the brain concerned with water balance, appetite, and
regulating body temperature, is the:
A. cerebellum.
B. medulla oblongata
C. thalamus.
D. cerebral cortex.
E. * hypothalamus
889.
The thalamus:
A. (1)is the final relay point for ascending sensory information
B. (2)coordinates the pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems
C. (3)secretes hormones
D. all of the above
E. * (1) and (2) only
890.
What centre is located in middle frontal gyrus?
A. Speech area
B. Hearing area
C. Visual cortex
D. Sensory area
E. * Writing centre
891.
What does aqueduct communicate?
A. Third and second ventricles
B. Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
C. Central canal and subarachnoid space
D. Central canal and fourth ventricle
E. * Fourth and third ventricles
892.
What does form lateral wall of III ventricle
A. Fornix
B. Thalamus (upper surface)
C. Epithalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. * Thalamus (medial surface)
893.
What does form lower wall of III ventricle
A. Fornix
B. Thalamus (upper surface)
894.
895.
896.
897.
898.
899.
900.
901.
902.
C. Thalamus (medial surface)
D. Epithalamus
E. * Hypothalamus
What gyruses limited frontal lobe?
A. lateral and precentral
B. lateral and postcentral
C. lower frontal and central
D. * lateral and central
E. upper frontal and central
What gyruses limited parietal lobe?
A. precentral and parieto-occipital
B. central and postcentral
C. central, lateral and transverse occipital
D. * central, lateral, and parieto-occipital
E. central and parieto-occipital
What is authonomic center located ?
A. Thalamus
B. Subthalamic area
C. Epithalamus
D. Optic chiasma
E. * Hypothalamus
What is general sensory center located ?
A. Subthalamic area
B. Epithalamus
C. Metathalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. * Thalamus
What is located in depth of lateral sulcus of hemisphere?
A. Precuneus
B. Operculum
C. Speach area
D. Superior parietal lobule
E. * Insula
What is located on medial surface of hemisphere ?
A. Insula
B. Operculum
C. Hearing area
D. Superior parietal lobule
E. * Precuneus
What separated cerebral hemispheres of the cerebellum?
A. longitudinal cerebral fissura
B. * transvers fissura
C. lateral sulcus
D. central sulcus
E. postcentral sulcus
What separates two cerebral hemispheres?
A. * longitudinal cerebral fissura
B. transvers fissura
C. lateral sulcus
D. central sulcus
E. postcentral sulcus
Where are located supramarginal and angular gyrus?
A. Upper Parietal gyrus
B. Lower frontal gyrus
903.
904.
905.
906.
907.
908.
909.
910.
911.
C. Upper Temporal gyrus
D. Middle frontal gyrus
E. * Lower Parietal gyrus
Where is cortical hearing area located:
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Calcarine sulcus
C. Insula
D. Uncus
E. * Superior temporal gyrus
Where is cortical smell area located:
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Superior temporal gyrus
C. Calcarine sulcus
D. Insula
E. * Uncus
Where is hypophysis attached?
A. Optic chiasma
B. Cerebral peduncle
C. Pons
D. Mammilary body
E. * Tuber cinereum
Where is located postcentral gyrus?
A. between precentral and central sulcuses
B. between precentral and lateral sulcuses
C. between precentral and postcentral sulcuses
D. * between central and postcentral sulcuses
E. between lateral and postcentral sulcuses
Where is located precentral gyrus?
A. * between precentral and central sulcuses
B. between precentral and lateral sulcuses
C. between precentral and postcentral sulcuses
D. between central and postcentral sulcuses
E. between lateral and postcentral sulcuses
Where is mammillary body located:
A. Thalamus
B. Subthalamic area
C. Epithalamus
D. Metathalamus
E. * Hypothalamus
Where is pineal body located:
A. Thalamus
B. Subthalamic area
C. Metathalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. * Epithalamus
Where is visual cortex located:
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Superior temporal gyrus
C. Insula
D. Uncus
E. * Calcarine sulcus
Which analyzer has nuclei that located at the middle frontal gyrus?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. * Motor analyzer written language
D. Universal sensitivity
E. Motor analyzer of oral language
912.
Which gyrus consist of operculum, triangular and orbital parts?
A. middle frontal
B. * lower frontal
C. upper frontal
D. precentral
E. upper temporal
913.
Which of the cerebral lobes is the center for personality, higher
intellectual processes, verbal communication, and the voluntary control of
skeletal muscles?
A. occipital
B. parietal
C. temporal
D. none of the above
E. * frontal
914.
Which of the following describes some of the different hemispheric
functions?
A. The left brain is more active in artistic and intuitive tasks, and the right
brain is more involved in emotional and expressive abilities.
B. The left brain has visual-spatial abilities, while the right brain is more
involved in artistic and creative activities.
C. The right brain is more dominant and the left brain is more subordinate.
D. B and D
E. * The left brain is more active in logic and the right brain is associated
with visual-spatial abilities
915.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the thalamus?
A. it is associated with feelings of rage and aggression
B. it has a type of thermostat which controls normal body temperature
C. it receives sensory impulses from stretch receptors in the viscera
D. branches of it include the largest of the cranial nerves, i.e., trigeminal and
vagus
E. * it is a non-specific interpretation center for most sensory impulses such
as pain, temperature touch, and pressure
916.
Which of the following is not primarily a function of the hypothalamus:
A. regulates body temperature
B. links nervous and endocrine systems
C. regulates food intake (appetite)
D. produces antidiuretic hormone
E. * serves as center for language and memory
917.
Which of the following plays an important role in regulating voluntary
movements?
A. cerebral peduncles
B. postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe
C. basal ganglia
D. hypothalamus
E. * primary motor gyrus of the frontal lobe
918.
Which of the following statements about the cerebral cortex is true?
A. the cortex is the central, white portion of the cerebrum
B. the cells in the right hemisphere control the right side of the body
C. the cortex has sensory and motor nerve tracts
D. none of the above
919.
920.
921.
922.
923.
924.
925.
926.
927.
E. * the cortex is the outer gray area of the cerebrum and is composed of
nerve cell bodies
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * radiation
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * truncus
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * forceps occipitalis
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * tapetum
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * forceps frontalis
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * forceps major
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * radiatio
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * forceps minor
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * stria longitudinalis medialis
928.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * indusium griseum
929.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * stria longitudinalis lateralis
930.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * genu
931.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * truncus
932.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * splenium
933.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * rostrum
934.
Which of these groups will be cut through in a midsaggital section of the
brain?
A. (1)medulla oblongata, pineal body, infundibulum and optic chiasma
B. (2)cerebellum, third and fourth ventricles, and cerebral cortex
C. (2) and (3)
D. (3)bulbus olfactorius
E. * (1) and (2)
935.
Which of these is not one of the basal nuclei within the white matter of the
cerebrum?
A. corpus striatum
B. caudate nucleus
C. putamen
D. none of the above
E. * angular gyrus
936.
“Pleasure Centers” and “Punishment Centers” of the brain are located in
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
mammillary bodies
precentral gyrus
prefrontal area
intermediate mass
* limbic system
937.
Axons that form a fasciculus gracilis (fasciculus of Gaulle), have
proprioceptive impulses from:
A. Bottom half of trunk, head
B. Upper limbs
C. Neck regio of the body
D. * Lower extremities and the lower half of body
E. Thoracic regio of the body
938.
Axons that form a fasciculus gracilis (Gaulle fascicul), carry
proprioceptive impulses from:
A. * Lower extremities and the lower half of body
B. Bottom half of trunk, head
C. Upper limbs
D. Neck
E. Thorax
939.
Certain vascular structures in the brain produce cerebrospinal fluid.
Which of the following is “true” of these structures?
A. they project into the cerebral venous sinuses
B. they constitute what is called a choroid plexus
C. these structures are located in the subarachnoid space
D. they are called arachnoid villi
E. * they are found only in the lateral ventricles
940.
Head of caudate nucleus forms the wall of :
A. Anterior horn of lateral ventricle
B. Posterior horn of lateral ventricle
C. Superior horn of lateral ventricle
D. Central part of lateral ventricle
E. * Inferior horn of lateral ventricle
941.
Hippocampus forms the wall of :
A. Anterior horn of lateral ventricle
B. Posterior horn of lateral ventricle
C. Superior horn of lateral ventricle
D. Central part of lateral ventricle
E. * Inferior horn of lateral ventricle
942.
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * cornu frontale
943.
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * foramen interventriculare
944.
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
945.
946.
947.
948.
949.
950.
951.
952.
953.
954.
D. pons
E. * pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * stria terminalis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * fissura choroidea
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * bulbus cornus posterioris
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * trigonum colaterale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * cornu occipitale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * cornu posterius
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * foramen interventriculare
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. * pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
955.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
956.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
957.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
958.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
959.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
960.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
961.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
962.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
963.
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* foramen interventriculare
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* central part
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* tela choroidea
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* eminentia collateralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* cornu frontale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* bulbus cornus posterioris
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* cornu occipitale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* cornu posterius
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
964.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
965.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
966.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
967.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
968.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
969.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
970.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
971.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
972.
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* cornu temporale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* stria terminalis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* foramen interventriculare
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
rostrum
radiatio corporis callosi
truncus corporis callosi
splenium corporis callosi
* cortex cerebelli
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
rostrum
radiatio corporis callosi
truncus corporis callosi
splenium corporis callosi
* metathalamus
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
rostrum
radiatio corporis callosi
truncus corporis callosi
splenium corporis callosi
* lobus cerebelli posterior
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
rostrum
radiatio corporis callosi
truncus corporis callosi
splenium corporis callosi
* cortex cerebelli
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
rostrum
radiatio corporis callosi
truncus corporis callosi
splenium corporis callosi
* metathalamus
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* lamina
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
973.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
974.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
975.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
976.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
977.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
978.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
979.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
980.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
981.
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* cavum
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* nucleus septalis dorsalis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* nucleus septofimbrialis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* nucleus triangularis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* lamina
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* nucleus septalis precommissuralis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* nucleus septalis lateralis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* organum subfornicale
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
pons
medulla oblongata
medulla spinalis
cerebellum
* nucleus septofimbrialis
?The axones of first neuron of lateral corticospinal tract pass through:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
982.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
983.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
984.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
985.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
986.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
987.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
988.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
989.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
990.
* posterior limb of internal capsule
anterior limb of internal capsule
cerebellar superior peduncles
medulla oblongata
thalamus
The axones of third neuron of anterior spinothalamic tract pass through:
anterior limb of internal capsule
cerebellar superior peduncles
* posterior limb of internal capsule
medulla oblongata
thalamus
?The corpus callosum connects the:
hypothalamus to the pons.
cerebellum to the pons and medulla.
lateral lobes of the cerebellum.
the calluses on the palms of your hands.
* right and left cerebral hemispheres
The first neuron (axon) of anterior corticospinal tract is located in:
Postcentral gyrus
Anterior horn of spinal cord
Anterior funiculus of spinal cord
Red nucleus
* Precentral gyrus
The first neuron (axon) of lateral corticospinal tract passes through:
Extrema capsule
Lentiform nucleus
Claustrum
External capsule
* Internal capsule
The first neuron (axon) of rubrospinal tract is terminated in:
Postcentral gyrus
Anterior funiculus of spinal cord
Red nucleus
Precentral gyrus
* Anterior horn of spinal cord
The first neuron (body) of anterior corticospinal tract is located in:
Spinal ganglion
Anterior horn of spinal cord
Lateral funiculus of spinal cord
Medulla oblongata
* Precentral gyrus
The first neuron axon of Golla’s tract is terminated in:
Lentiform nucleus
Posterior horn of spinal cord
Thalamus
Postcentral gyrus
* Medulla oblongata
The first neuron axon of latelal spinothalamic tract is terminated in:
Spinal ganglion
Nucleus of thalamus
Medulla oblongata
Postcentral gyrus
* Posterior horn of spinal cord
The limbic system includes the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
spinal cord and brain.
cerebellum and brain stem.
cortex and corpus callosum
A and D
* amygdala and hippocampus
991.
The principal connection between the cerebral hemispheres is
A. The pons
B. The fornix
C. The brainstem
D. The cerebral peduncles
E. * The corpus callosum
992.
The second neuron (body) of lateral corticospinal tract is located in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Lateral funiculus of spinal cord
D. Precentral gyrus
E. * Anterior horn of spinal cord
993.
The second neuron axon of Burdach’s tract is terminated in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Posterior horn of spinal cord
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Postcentral gyrus
E. * Nucleus of thalamus
994.
The second neuron axon of latelal spinothalamic tract is terminated in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Posterior horn of spinal cord
C. Internal capsule
D. Postcentral gyrus
E. * Nucleus of thalamus
995.
What's the name of the pain and temperature sensitivity pathway?
A. Tractus spinothalamicus ventralis
B. * Tractus spinothalamicus lateralis
C. Tractus bulbothalamicus
D. Tractus spinocerebellaris ventralis
E. Tractus spinocerebellaris dorsalis
996.
Where are located the bodies of the second neuron of proprioceptive
sensitivity tract?
A. In the anterior thalamic nucleus
B. * In a gracilis and cuneatus nuclei of medulla
C. In the lateral dorsal thalamic nucleus
D. In cortex cells of vermis
E. In the posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus
997.
Where are located the bodies of the third neuron of anterior
spinalthalamic tract?
A. In front thalamic nucleus
B. In a gracilis nuclei of medulla
C. * In the lateral dorsal thalamic nucleus
D. In cortex cells of vermis
E. In the dorsal nucleus of the hypothalamus
998.
Where are located the bodies of the third neuron of anterior
spinalthalamic tract?
A. In the anterior thalamic nucleus
B. In a gracilis and cuneatus nuclei of medulla
C. * In the lateral dorsal thalamic nucleus
D. In cortex cells of vermis
E. In the posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus
999.
Where are located the receptors of lateral spinalthalamic tract?
A. In the tendon, ligamentous
B. Muscle
C. * In the skin, mucous membranes
D. In the articular capsule
E. In the retina
1000.
Where are located the receptors of lateral spinalthalamic tract?
A. Muscle
B. In the tendon, ligamentes
C. In the articular capsule
D. In the retina
E. * In the skin, mucous membranes
1001.
Where is lateral corticospinal tract moving to the opposite side?
A. * In the lower medulla oblongata
B. In spinal cord segments
C. cerebellar inferior peduncles
D. cerebral peduncles
E. With oil medulla
1002.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * pons
1003.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * medulla oblongata
1004.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * grey matter of thalamus
1005.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * white matter of thalamus
1006.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * nucleus lentiformis
1007.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * corpus striatum
1008.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * nervus olfactorius
1009.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * nervus trigeminus
1010.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * pons
1011.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * medulla spinalis
1012.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * grey matter of thalamus
1013.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * white matter of thalamus
1014.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * optic nerve
1015.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * capsula interna
1016.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * corpus striatum
1017.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum
pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * nervus olfactorius
1018.
Which of the following is not found in the hindbrain?
A. fourth ventricle
B. cerebellum
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * lateral ventricles
1019.
Which of the pathways are exteroreceptive?
A. ventralis tractus bulbothalamicus
B. tractus pyramidalis
C. * tractus spinothalamicus lateralis, tractus spinothalamicus
D. tractus spinocerebellaris ventralis
E. tractus spinocerebellaris dorsalis
1020.
Which of these is/are “true”?
A. all of the above
B. the fourth ventricle is a diamond-shaped expansion of the central canal
within the brainstem
C. the third ventricle is a thin chamber lying below the corpus callosum and
septum pellucidum
D. none of the above
E. * the lateral ventricles are two cavities, one in each cerebral hemisphere
1021.
What from meningeal covers have no vesels?
A. Pia
B. Middle
C. Internal
D. Dura
E. * Arachnoidea
1022.
All of the following affirmations relatively to the function of the watery
moisture are true except the…
A. Filling anterior chamber of eyeball
B. Filling posterior chamber of eyeball
C. * Produce by crystalline lens
D. Constantly washing the crystalline lens
E. Flow out to the sinus venous of sclera
1023.
All of the following affirmations relatively to the function of the watery
moisture are true except the…
A. Filling anterior chamber of eyeball
B. Filling posterior chamber of eyeball
C. Flow out to the sinus venous of sclera
D. Constantly washing the crystalline lens
E. * None of these
1024.
?An arterial circle of the brain is create by the following arteries…
A. Main,spinal,internal carotid and back connecting
B. Frontal,middle, and back cerebral,main and frontal connecting
C. Middle cerebral,frontal and back connecting,internal carotid
D. * Frontal and back cerebral,frontal and back connecting,internal carotid
E. Frontal,middle and back cerebral,back connecting
1025.
An arterial circle of the brain is create by the following arteries…
A. Main, spinal, internal carotid and back connecting
B. Frontal,middle, and back cerebral,main and frontal connecting
C. Middle cerebral,frontal and back connecting,internal carotid
D. Frontal,middle and back cerebral,back connecting
E. * None of above
1026.
Cilliary muscle formed by…
A. * Smooth musclefibres
B. Striated muscle fibres
C. On 1/3 from smooth and 2/3 from striated muscle fibres
D. On 2/3 from smooth and 1/3 from striated muscle fibres
E. On 2/3 from nonstriated muscle fibres
1027.
Corpus vitrous located between the…
A. * Crystalline lens and internal surface of retina
B. Cornea and iris
C. Iris and crystalline lens
D. Conjunctiva and cornea
E. Conjunctiva and crystalline lens
1028.
Corpus vitrous located between the…
A. In vitrous fossa
B. Cornea and iris
C. Iris and crystalline lens
D. Conjunctiva and cornea
E. * None of these
1029.
Derivatives of pia mater are the…
A. Big and small sinuses
B. Cistern
C. * Vascular bases of 3 and 4 ventricles
D. Diaphragm of tentorium
E. Phalciphorme proccesus
1030.
Epidural cavity locate between the next structures…
A. * Bone of spinal columna ,and dura mater
B. Dura mater and arachnoidea covers
C. Dura mater and vascular covers
D. Arachnoidea and vascular covers
E. Dura mater and central canal
1031.
Every analyser include the…
A. * Peripheral apparatus,trackts,nevral center in the core of the brain
B.
C.
D.
E.
Trackts
Nevral center in the core of the brain
Connections between nevral centers
Subcortical centers
1032.
Every analyser include the…
A. Subcortical centers
B. Trackts
C. Nevral center in the core of the brain
D. Connections between nevral centers
E. * None of these
1033.
Focussing the light rays involves which of the following?
A. change in the location of the optic disc
B. change in the shape of the cornea
C. change in the relative position of the lens
D. change in the density of the aqueous humor
E. * change in the shape of the lens
1034.
Glaucoma is a condition:
A. characterized by encrustations on the eyelids.
B. results eventually in opacity of the lens or cornea.
C. which may be caused by exposure to ultraviolet (U/V) light.
D. in which the conjunctiva is inflamed due to irritants such as dust or
smoke.
E. * characterized by abnormally high intraocular pressure
1035.
How mach covers has central brain?
A. 2
B. * 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
1036.
If drainage of aqueous humor is blocked at the canal of Schlemm, what
condition results?
A. iritis
B. cataract
C. blepharitis
D. conjunctivitis
E. * glaucoma
1037.
In what succession are distributed meninges of the brain?
A. Pia mater,dura mater ,arachnoidea
B. * Dura mater,pia mater, arachnoidea
C. Dura mater,arachnoidea,pia mater
D. Dura mater,arachnoidea,middle
E. Arachnoidea,middle,internal
1038.
In the eyeball are select…
A. * Anterior and posterior pole
B. Posterior pole
C. Upper pole
D. Lower pole
E. Medial pole
1039.
In the region of central fossae of retina are concentrate…
A. * Only cones
B. Only rods
C. Both rods and cones
D. Layer of pigmental cells
E. Orra cerrata
In the region of central fossae of retina are concentrate…
Retina layer
Only rods
Both rods and cones
Layer of pigmental cells
* None of these
1041.
Internal axe of eyeball names…
A. * Line that joint back surface of cornea and retina
B. Line that joint the most convexed dots of crystaline lens
C. Line that joint cornea and crystalline lens
D. Line that joint crystaline lens and retina
E. Line that joint crystalline lens and iris
1042.
Internal axe of eyeball names…
A. Line that joint back surface of cornea and iris
B. Line that joint the most convex dots of crystalline lens
C. Line that joint cornea and crystalline lens
D. Line that joint crystalline lens and iris
E. * None of above
1043.
Meningitis can be develop in consequence of progressing of the infected
trombone frome nose to the…
A. Upper sagital sinus
B. * Cavernosus sinus
C. Sigmoid sinus
D. Lower sagital sinus
E. Transverse sinus
1044.
Middle brain receive blood from…
A. Internal carotid artery
B. Middle carotid artery
C. Back brain artery
D. * Basilar artery
E. Ponds artery
1045.
On the boundary of the cornea and in the thickness of the sclera lies
down the…
A. * Sinus venosus of sc lerae (shlemm chanal)
B. Venous sulcus
C. Arterial sulcus
D. Ora cerrata
E. Comb ligament
1046.
On the boundary of the cornea and in the thickness of the sclera lies
down the…
A. Comb ligament
B. Venous sulcus
C. Arterial sulcus
D. Ora cerrata
E. * None of these
1047.
The middle thickened part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. * Ciliar body
B. Iris
C. Sclera
D. Cornea
E. Retina
1048.
The middle thickened part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Sclera
1040.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1049.
1050.
1051.
1052.
1053.
1054.
1055.
1056.
1057.
C. Cornea
D. Retina
E. * None of these
The anterior artery of vascular plexus go off from…
A. External carotid artery
B. * Internal carotid artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Back brain artery
E. Middle brain artery
The anterior artery of vascular plexus go off from…
A. External carotid artery
B. Middle brain artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Back brain artery
E. * None of these
The anterior eye’s chamber founded between the…
A. * Cornea and anterior surface of iris
B. Conjunctiva and cornea
C. Crystalline lens and iris
D. Iris and retina
E. Cornea and internal surface of iris
The anterior eye’s chamber founded between the…
A. Cornea and internal surface of iris
B. Conjunctiva and cornea
C. Crystalline lens and iris
D. Iris and retina
E. * None of these
The anterior part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Pupil
B. * Cornea
C. Vitrous body
D. Iris
E. Retina
The anterior part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Pupil
B. Retina
C. Vitrous body
D. Iris
E. * None of these
The anterior part of vascular plexus is named…
A. * Iris
B. Ciliary body
C. Cornea
D. Sclera
E. Pupil
The anterior part of vascular plexus is named…
A. Pupil
B. Ciliary body
C. Cornea
D. Sclera
E. * None of these
The area of the retina containing only cone cells is the:
A. optic disc.
B. .uvea
1058.
1059.
1060.
1061.
1062.
1063.
1064.
1065.
1066.
C. blind spot.
D. b and d are correct.
E. * fovea centralis
The artery vertebrallis pass to the cavity of the skull trough the…
A. Aristate foramen
B. Foramen rotundum
C. * Big occipital foramen
D. Foramen ovale
E. None of these
The back part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Cornea
C. * Sclera
D. Retina
E. Vitrous body
The back part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Cornea
C. Vitrous body
D. Retina
E. * None of these
The back part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. * Proper vascular cover
B. Ciliaris body
C. Ciliaris muscle
D. Ciliaris circle
E. Iris
The back part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Ciliaris body
C. Ciliaris muscle
D. Ciliaris circle
E. * None of these
The back artery of the brain go off from the…
A. Back connecting artery
B. Internal carotid artery
C. * Spinal artery
D. Frontal brain artery
E. Middle brain artery
The back chamber of eyeball locate between the…
A. * Iris and crystalline lens
B. Cornea and iris
C. Conjunctivae and cornea
D. Crystalline lens and retina
E. Crystalline lens and cornea
The back chamber of eyeball locate between the…
A. Conjunctivae and crystalline lens
B. Cornea and iris
C. Conjunctivae and cornea
D. Crystalline lens and retina
E. * None of these
The back connecting artery go off from the…
A. External carotid artery
B. * Internal carotid artery
1067.
1068.
1069.
1070.
1071.
1072.
1073.
1074.
1075.
C. Basilar artery
D. Back brain artery
E. Middle brain artery
The basilar artery walk away from the…
A. Back connecting artery
B. Internal carotid artery
C. * Spinal artery
D. Frontal cerebral artery
E. Middle cerebral artery
The cerebrospinal liqud getting to subarachnoid space from the…
A. Arachnoid granulations
B. Vascular plexus
C. * Fourth ventricle
D. Aqueduct cerebri
E. Third ventricle
The cerebrospinal liqud getting to subarachnoid space from the…
A. Arachnoid granulations
B. Vascular plexus
C. Third ventricle
D. Aqueduct cerebri
E. * None of these
The cerebrospinal liquid is find in the…
A. Epidermal space
B. Subdural space
C. * Subarachnoid space
D. In central canal
E. Epidural space
The cerebrospinal liquid is find in the…
A. Epidermal space
B. Subdural space
C. Epidural space
D. In central canal
E. * None of these
The cerebrospinal liquid return to the venous system with the help of…
A. Cerebral veins
B. * Arachnoid granulations
C. Vascular plexus
D. Aqueduct cerebrum
E. Opening in 3-d ventricle
The cerebrospinal liquid return to the venous system with the help of…
A. Cerebral veins
B. Opening in 4-th ventricle
C. Vascular plexus
D. Aqueduct cerebrum
E. * None of these
The constriction of the muscle ciliaris stipulate the…
A. * Accommodation of the eye
B. Adaptation of the eye
C. Convergention of the eye
D. Nistagm of the eye
E. Correction of the eye
The covers of the eyeball are…
A. * Outer fibrous,middle vascular,internal sensitive
B. Middle vascular
C. Internal sensitive
D. Middle muscular
E. Internal mucous cover
1076.
The covers of the eyeball are…
A. Internal mucous cover
B. Middle vascular
C. Internal sensitive
D. Middle muscular
E. * None of these
1077.
The crystalline lens fixed to the cilliary body by the…
A. * Cilliary ligament
B. Comb ligament
C. Crown ligament,muscle that constrict pupil
D. Muscle that dilate pupil
E. Ora cerrata
1078.
The crystalline lens fixed to the cilliary body by the…
A. Ora cerrata
B. Comb ligament
C. Crown ligament,muscle that constrict pupil
D. Muscle that dilate pupil
E. * None of these
1079.
The crystalline lens has form of the…
A. * Biconvex lens
B. Biconcave lens
C. Disc 4-mm thick
D. Sphere
E. Cylinder
1080.
The doctor made punction at patient with meningeal symptoms,what was
puncted?
A. * Spatium subarachnoideum
B. Spatium subdurale
C. Spatium epidurale
D. Cavumtrigeminale
E. Cistern cerebellomedularis posterior
1081.
The doctor made punction at patient with meningeal symptoms,what was
puncted?
A. Cisterna cerebellomedularis posterior
B. Spatium subdurale
C. Spatium epidurale
D. Cavum trigeminale
E. * None of these
1082.
The external axle of eye is named…
A. * The line that connect anterior and back pole
B. The line that connect upper and lower pole
C. The line that connect middle and lateral pole
D. The line that connect anterior and upper pole
E. The line that connect back and lower pole
1083.
The external axle of eye is named…
A. The line that connect upper and back pole
B. The line that connect upper and lower pole
C. The line that connect middle and lateral pole
D. The line that connect anterior and upper pole
E. * None of these
1084.
The eye is consist from…
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1085.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1086.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1087.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1088.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1089.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1090.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1091.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1092.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1093.
* Eyeball and optic nerve with it’scovers
Optic nerve with it’s covers
Hiasma
Optic trackt
Fissure calcanea
The eye is consist from…
Fissure calcanea
Optic nerve with it’s covers
Hiasma
Optic trackt
* None of these
The focal distance at long-sighted patients is…
* Longer than internal axle of eyeball
Shorte than internal axle of eyeball
The same that internal axle
Don’t get on the internal axle ofeyeball
All of above
The focal distance at short-sighted patients is…
Longer than internal axle of eyeball
* Shorter than internal axle of eyeball
The same that internal axle
Don’t get on the internal axle ofeyeball
All of above
The inner menix in contact with the brain is
The choroid
The dura mater encephali
The dura mater spinalis
The arachnoid mater
* The pia mater
The inner menix in contact with the brain is
The dura mater
The arachnoid mater
The choroid
All answers are right
* The pia mater
The internal (sensitive) cover of eyeball names…
* Retina
Cornea
Iris
Ependima
Sclerae
The macula of retina is named …
* A Region on the discus of the optic nerve
Central fossa
Layer of pigment cells
Ora cerrata
Region of iris
The macula of retina is named …
Region of iris
Central fossa
Layer of pigment cells
Ora cerrata
* None of these
The middle artery of brain go off from the…
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1094.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1095.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1096.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1097.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1098.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1099.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1101.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
External carotid artery
* Internal carotid artery
Basilar artery
Back brain artery
Anterior artery of vascular plexus
The nucleus of the eyeball is formed from the…
* Aqueous liquor of the anterior and posterior chambers,crystalline
lens,vitrous body
Crystalline lens
Vitrous body
Cilliary body
Sclera
The nucleus of the eyeball is formed from the…
Aqueous liquor
Crystalline lens
Vitrous body
Cilliary body
* None of these
The opening in the center io iris named…
* Pupil
Optic fissure
Optic canal
Internal optic way
External optic way
The opening in the center io iris named…
Foramen
Optic fissure
Optic canal
Internal optic way
* None of these
The ophthalmic artery pass into the orbit through…
Upper orbital fissure
Lower orbital fissure
* Optic canal
Acustic meatus
None of these
The optic disc marks the:
most optically sensitive point of the retina.
.the region in the retina where the ganglion cells are located.
junction between the iris and the ciliary body
the latest recording techniques on CDs
* exit of the Optic nerve, II
The organ of vision include…
Fissure calcanea
* Eyeball and accessory parts of it
Accessory parts of eyeball
Hiasma of optic nerve
Optic trackt
The organ of vision include…
Fissure calcanea
Optic trackt
Accessory parts of eyeball
Hiasma of optic nerve
* None of these
The organ of vision locatedain…
* Fossa oculus
Optic canal
Upper fissure oculus
Frontal cranial fossa
Occipital part of brain
1103.
The organ of vision perceive…
A. * Light
B. Sounde
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. Sense
1104.
The organ of vision perceive…
A. Change of position
B. Sounde
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. * None of these
1105.
The outer fibrous coating of the eyeball is the:
A. ciliary body.
B. retina.
C. choroid.
D. none of the above
E. * sclera
1106.
The part’s of vascular plexus of the eyeball are exept…
A. Muscle ciliaris
B. * Sclera,cornea
C. Proprea vascular plexus
D. Cilliary body
E. Iris
1107.
The patient has an inflammation of internal ear with lesion of meningeal
coversбвщсещк supposed that infection spread trough the…
A. * Aqueducts vestibule
B. Fossa subarcuata
C. Hiatus canalis n. petrosi majoris
D. Hiatus canalis n.petrosi minoris
E. Fissure petrosquamosa
1108.
The patient has trauma of soft tissues and parietal bones at the region of
arrow-shaped seam,what structure may be damaged?
A. * Middle pole
B. Posterior pole
C. Upper pole
D. Lower pole
E. None of these
F. ANSWER: E
G. Superior sagittal sinus
H. Sinus transverses
I. Sinus petrosus superior
J. Sinus rectus
K. Inferior sagittal sinus
1109.
The patient has trauma of soft tissues and parietal bones at the region of
arrow-shaped seam,what structure may be damaged?
A. Inferior sagittal sinus
B. Sinus transverses
1102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
C. Sinus petrosus superior
D. Sinus rectus
E. * None of these
1110.
The patient has trauma of the arch of skull,whath sinuses may be
damaged?
A. * Superior sagittal
B. Superior petrosus
C. Inferior petrosus
D. Inferior sagittal
E. Sigmoid
1111.
The photoreceptors in the eye are found in the:
A. choroid coat.
B. cornea.
C. sclera.
D. all of the above
E. * retina
1112.
The sphincter of pupil is..
A. * Placed circular and innervate by nucleus of the 3-d pair nerve
B. Innervate by nucleus of the 3-d pair nerve
C. Innervate by nucleus of the 9-th pair nerve
D. Take innervations from spinociliaris center
E. Placed horizontal
1113.
The substance of the crystalline lens is…
A. Colourless and soft
B. Transparent and smooth
C. * Solid,colourless andtransparent
D. Don’t have vessels and nerves
E. Have nerves and vessels
1114.
The substance of the crystalline lens is…
A. Colourless and soft
B. Transparent and smooth
C. Have vessels and nerves
D. Don’t have vessels and nerves
E. * None of these
1115.
The transparent anterior portion of the sclera is the:
A. choroid.
B. retina.
C. ciliary body
D. A and B
E. * cornea
1116.
The visual axle of eyeball connect the…
A. * Anterior pole and central fossa of retina
B. Back surface ofcornea and retina
C. Anterior and back poles
D. Crystalline lens and retina
E. Upper and lower poles
1117.
The visual axle of eyeball connect the…
A. Upper and lower poles
B. Back surface ofcornea and retina
C. Anterior and back poles
D. Crystalline lens and retina
E. * None of these
1118.
The watery moisture create in…
A. * Processes of ciliary body
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sinus venousus of sclera
Proper vascular cover
Arterial circle of iris
Central artery of retina
1119.
The watery moisture create in…
A. Chroid plexus
B. Sinus venosus of sclera
C. Proper vascular cover
D. Arterial circle of iris
E. * None of above
1120.
To the group of contact analysers are carried the next…
A. Analyser of visceral sensitivity
B. Analyser of taste
C. * Analyser of pain,temperature and sensor sensitivity
D. Analyser of muscle-joint sensitivity
E. Analyser of hearing
1121.
To the group of distant analysers are carried the next…
A. Analyser of visceral sensitivity
B. Analyser of taste sensitivity
C. Analyser of muscle-joint sensitivity
D. Analyser of pain,temperature and sensor sensitivity
E. * None of these
1122.
To the group of the distant analysers are carried next…
A. * Analyser of smell,hearing and sight
B. Analyser of muscle-joint sensitivity
C. Analyser of pain,temperature and sensor sensitivity
D. Analyser of taste sensitivity
E. Analyser of visceral sensitivity
1123.
Trough what opening fourth ventricle connected with third.?
A. Monrouey
B. * Silviev aqueduct
C. Lushka
D. Majendi
E. Forel
1124.
Trough what opening fourth ventricle connected with subarachnoid
space?
A. Monrouey
B. Silviev aqueduct
C. * Lushka
D. Pirogov
E. Forel
1125.
Trough what opening lateral ventricle connected with third.
A. * Monrouey
B. Silvieu aqueduct
C. Lushka
D. Majendi
E. Forel
1126.
What does ora serrata separate?
A. choroidea and cornea
B. choroidea and sclera
C. retina and choroidea
D. iris and ciliary body
E. * parts of the retina
1127.
What does produce the aquosus humor of the eye ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1131.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1132.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1133.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1135.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1136.
Ora serrata
Zonula ciliaris
Pectinate ligaments
Iridocorneal angle
* Ciliary processes
What does produce the aquosus humor of the eye ?
Ora serrata
Zonula ciliaris
Pectinate ligaments
Iridocorneal angle
* Ciliary processes
What does produce the cerebrospinal fluid ?
Pia mater
Spinal cord
Arachnoid granulations
Choroid plexus
* Dural sinus
What does produce the cerebrospinal fluid ?
Dural sinus
Pia mater
Spinal cord
Arachnoid granulations
* Choroid plexus
What does pupil contain?
light
lens
lens
cones and rods
* aquosus humor
What from meningeal covers is the most solid?
Pia
Middle
Internal
* Dura
Arachnoidea
What from the next arteries is not pass from internal carotid artery?
Posterior connective artery
Anterior artery of vascular plexus
* Basilar artery
Anterior brain artery
Posterior brain artery
What is responsible for accomodation of the lens ?
Sphincter muscle
Dilator muscle
Pupil
Pectinate ligament
* Ciliary muscle
What is the name of the external cover of the eyeball?
Retina
Cornea
Vascular
* Fibrose
Iris
What makes up the outermost tunic of the eye?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cornea and ciliary body
choroid and sclera
retina and ora serrata
choroid and iris
* cornea and sclera
1137.
What part of the retina contains only cones and is the area of greatest
visual acuity?
A. ciliary body
B. ora serrata
C. optic disk
D. none of the above
E. * fovea centralis
1138.
When a bright light shines in the eye, what reflex action takes place?
A. extrinsic eye muscles contract
B. ciliary bodies secrete tears
C. ciliary muscles contract
D. radial muscles of the iris contract
E. * circular muscles of the iris contract
1139.
Where are cavernous sinuses of the dura mater positioned ?
A. temporal pyramid
B. lesser wing
C. falx cerebri
D. clivus
E. * sellae diaphragm
1140.
Where does aquosus humor pass to the scleral sinus from?
A. posterior chamber
B. anterior chamber
C. ciliary processes
D. pupilla
E. * iridocorneal angle spaces
1141.
Where does spinocerebral fluid circulate?
A. Epidural space
B. Interpeduncular fossa
C. Between dura mater and vertebrae
D. Between pia mater and spinal cord
E. * Subarachnoidal space
1142.
Where is aquosus humor secreted ?
A. iridocorneal angle spaces
B. anterior chamber
C. posterior chamber
D. pupilla
E. * ciliary processes
1143.
Where is cerebrospinal fluid found?
A. ventricles and pial space
B. lymph and the subarachnoid space
C. ventricles and subdural space
D. orbit and subarachnoid space
E. * ventricles and subarachnoid space
1144.
Where is diaphragm of the dura mater positioned?
A. clivus
B. greater wing
C. lesser wing
D. falx cerebri
E. * sphenoid body
1145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1146.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1149.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1151.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1152.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1153.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is positioned arterial Willis circle?
Thalamencephalon
Interpeduncular fossa
Sulcus cirsularis
Brainstem
* Hypothalamus
Where organ of vision is situate?
* In the fossa occulus
In the occulus canal
In the upper part of fossa occulus fissure
In the anterior cranial fossa
In the back part of cerebrum
Which artery does not form Willis circle?
A Anterior communicating artery
B Posterior communicating artery
C Anterior cerebral artery
E Posterior cerebral artery
* D Middle cerebral artery
Which correct order of light passage within eyeball?
retina-lens-vitreous body-posterior chamber
vitreous body-lens-posterior chamber-retina
posterior chamber-vitreous body -lens -retina
lens-retina-vitreous body-posterior chamber
* posterior chamber-lens-vitreous body-retina
Which parts of the brain does anterior cerebral artery supply ?
Parietal and temporal lobes
Temporal and occipital lobes
Insula and occipital lobes
Frontal and occipital lobes
* Frontal and parietal lobes
Which parts of the brain does posterior cerebral artery supply ?
Frontal and parietal lobes
Insula and occipital lobes
Frontal and occipital lobes
Parietal and temporal lobes
* Temporal and occipital lobes
Which sinus empties to internal jugular vein?
superior petrosus
inferior petrosus
inferior sagittal
straight
* sigmoid
Which sinus located on the border of anterior and middle cranial fossae?
Superior sagittal
inferior sagittal
Superior petrous
inferior petrous
* Sphenoparietal
Which sinus located on the border of anterior and middle cranial fassae?
inferior sagittal
Superior sagittal
Superior petrous
inferior petrous
* Sphenoparietal
1154.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1155.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1156.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1157.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1158.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1161.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1162.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which sinus located on the border of posterior and middle cranial fossae?
Inferior sagittal
Sigmoid
Superior sagittal
Inferior petrous
* Superior petrous
Which sinus located on the border of posterior and middle cranial fassae?
Superior sagittal
Inferior sagittal
Sigmoid
Inferior petrous
* Superior petrous
Which sinus receive ophtalmic veins?
Tranverse
Inferior sagittal
Sigmoid
Inferior petrous
* Cavernous
Which sinus receive ophtalmiv veins?
Inferior sagittal
Sigmoid
Cavernous
Inferior petrous
* Tranverse
Which vessel does not take part in Willi’s circle?
Anterior spinal artery
Anterior communicating artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Basilar artery
* Anterior cerebral artery
Which vessel does not take part in Willi’s circle?
Anterior cerebral artery
Anterior communicating artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Basilar artery
* Anterior spinal artery
Which vessels supply the temporal and occipital cerebral lobes?
Anterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery
Anterior communicating artery
Posterior communicating artery
* Posterior cerebral artery
Which vessels supply the temporal and occipital cerebral lobes?
Anterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery
Anterior communicating artery
Posterior communicating artery
* Posterior cerebral artery
Which vessels supply the temporal and parietal cerebral lobes?
Anterior cerebral artery
Anterior communicating artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Posterior communicating artery
* Middle cerebral artery
1163.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1164.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1165.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1166.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1167.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1168.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1169.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1170.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1171.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which vessels supply the temporal and parietal cerebral lobes?
Anterior cerebral artery
Anterior communicating artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Posterior communicating artery
* Middle cerebral artery
Which way of light within the eyeball?
Pupil, anterior chamber, cornea, lens, vitreous body, posterior chamber
Pupil, cornea, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
Cornea, pupil, lens, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, vitreous body
Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior chamber, vitreous body
* Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
Which way of light within the eyeball?
Pupil, cornea, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
Cornea, pupil, lens, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, vitreous body
Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior chamber, vitreous body
* Pupil, anterior chamber, cornea, lens, vitreous body, posterior chamber
Branches of what cells are formed optic nerve?
Rods
Cones
Bipolar
* Ganglions
Pseudounipolar
Chiasma optic is formed by fibres of the…
* 2-d pair of cranial nerves
Fibers of medial loop
Fibers of hearing loop
Fibers of 3-d pair of cranial nerves
Reticular formation
Crystalline lens has form of …
* Biconvex lens
Biconcave lens
Disc
Ball
Cylinder
?Damage to which cranial nerve(s) may impair the sense of taste?
(1)VII Facial
(2)IX Glossopharyngeal
(3)XII Hypoglossal
(1), (2), and (3) above are correct
* only(1) and (2) are correct
From what artery take blood supply vestibulo- cochlear organ?
A.subclavia
A.facialis
A. brahialis
* A.carotis externa
A.carotis interna
From what layers skin is formed?
Epidermis
Derma
Subcutaneous base
* Epidermis ,derma, subcutaneous base
Epidermis, derma
1172.
From what sensor ganglion pass peripheral fibres to the back one-third of
tongue?
A. Root of facial nerve
B. Superior glossopharingeal nerve
C. * Inferior glossopharingeal nerve
D. Superior part of nervus vagus
E. Inferior part of nervus vagus
1173.
From what structures is formed bone labirint?
A. Canalis semicircularis,trochlea
B. Helix, antihelix
C. * Vestibulum,cochlea,canalis semicircularis
D. Canalis semicircularis,helix,antihelix
E. Semicircular ducts,utricle,saccule
1174.
From what structures is formed organ of hearing and balance?
A. External acustic meatus,acustic tube, internal ear
B. * External ear,middle ear,internal ear
C. Auriculae,middle ear,internal ear
D. Cochlea,sacculus,canalis semicircularis
E. External ear,external acustic meatus
1175.
From what structures is formed smell cerebrum?
A. * Central and peripheral
B. Central,middle and peripheral
C. Frontal and back
D. Frontal,middle and back
E. Middle and peripheral
1176.
From what structures is formed vestibular labirint?
A. Utricle
B. Sacculus
C. Ductus semicircular
D. * All the above
E. Endolimphatic duct
1177.
How many layers are distinued in the skin?
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 8
1178.
How many milk ducts are open on the nipple apex of mammary gland?
A. * 10-15
B. 2-3
C. 20-30
D. 10-11
E. 10-18
1179.
How many openings has canalis semicircularis in the membranous
vestibule?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. * 5
E. 6
1180.
How many walls has cochlear duct?
A. * 2
B. 1
C. 3
1181.
1182.
1183.
1184.
1185.
1186.
1187.
1188.
1189.
D. 4
E. 5
How many walls has timpanic cavity?
A. 2
B. 4
C. * 6
D. 7
E. 8
How many walls has timpanic cavity?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 7
E. * None of these
How is named back wall of the tympanic cavity?
A. Tegmental
B. Jugularis
C. Labyrinthal
D. * Mastoideus
E. Carotiis
How is named lateral wall of the tympanic cavity?
A. Tegmental
B. * Membranous
C. Jugularis
D. Mastoideus
E. Carotis
How is named lower wall of the tympanic cavity?
A. Tegmental
B. * Jugularis
C. Mastoideus
D. Labyrinthal
E. Carotis
How is named anterior wall of the tympanic cavity?
A. Tegmental
B. Jugularis
C. Labyrinthal
D. * Carotis
E. Mastoideus
How is named medial wall of the tympanic cavity?
A. Tegmental
B. Jugularis
C. * Labyrinthal
D. Mastoideus
E. Carotis
How is named pin of the cochlea?
A. Arch
B. * Modiolus
C. Gear
D. Support
E. Base
How is named pin of the cochlea?
A. Arch
B. Base
C. Gear
D. Support
E. * None of these
1190.
How is named space between bone and membranouse labyrinth?
A. Epidural
B. Subdural
C. Subarachnoidal
D. * Perilymphatical
E. Endolymphatical
1191.
How is named top of the cochlea?
A. Arch
B. Roof
C. Covering
D. * Cupula
E. Cover
1192.
How many muscles are fasten to the eyeball?
A. 3
B. 3
C. 5
D. * 6
E. 8
1193.
How many neurons of ophthalmic track are located intheretina?
A. 3
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
1194.
How many openings have vestibule of bone labirint?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. * 2
E. 4
1195.
How many openings of canalis semicircularis have vestibule of bone
labirint?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 2
E. * None of these
1196.
How many rotations make canalis spiralis of cochlea?
A. 3,4
B. 5,1
C. 4,0
D. * 2,5
E. 3,8
1197.
How many semicircular canalis are in the internal part of the ear?
A. * 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 2
E. 6
1198.
In what part of auricular there are no cartilage?
A. Helix
B. Anthelix
1199.
1200.
1201.
1202.
1203.
1204.
1205.
1206.
1207.
C. Tragus
D. Antitragus
E. * Lobules
In what succession from timpanic membrane hearing bones are placed?
A. Maleus,stapes,ileus
B. Ileus,maleus,stapes
C. * Maleus,ileus,stapes
D. Stapes,ileus,maleus
E. Stapes,maleus,ileus
In what wall continued timpanic cavity to the mastoid antrum?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. * Posterior
D. Medial
E. Anterior
In what wall continued timpanic cavity to the mastoid antrum?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Anterior
D. Medial
E. * None of these
Internal ear consist from…
A. Tympanic cavity
B. Acustic tube
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Hearing bones
E. * Bone and membranous labirintes
Nervus opticus has all parts exept the…
A. Intracranial
B. Intracanalis
C. Optic fossa
D. * Anteriolaminarae
E. Pigment
Retraction of the ciliar muscle stipulate the…
A. * Accommodation of the eye
B. Adaptation of the eye
C. Convergention
D. Correction
E. None of these
Sensor nervous cells in the skin perceive the…
A. * Pressure,pain,temperature
B. Pain, sound
C. Temperature,
D. Taste of food
E. Change position
Sensor nervous cells in the skin perceive the…
A. Change position
B. Pain, sound
C. Temperature,
D. Taste of food
E. * None of these
Special sensitive devices of mucous cover of the tongue perceive the…
A. * Taste of food
B. Sound
C. Light
D. Smell
E. Change of position
1208.
Special sensitive devices of mucous cover of the tongue perceive the…
A. Change of position
B. Sound
C. Light
D. Smell
E. * None of these
1209.
The auditory (or Eustachian) tube is located between the:
A. throat and larynx
B. middle ear and inner ear.
C. throat and inner ear.
D. throat and trachea.
E. * throat and middle ear
1210.
The auditory ossicles are associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. internal ear
E. * middle ear
1211.
The auditory tube is associated with the:
A. external ear.
B. semicircular canals.
C. cochlear duct.
D. internal ear
E. * middle ear
1212.
The cochlea is associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. Eustachian tube
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
1213.
The conduction of a sound vibration from the middle ear to the inner ear
is by the vibration of the:
A. stapes in the round window.
B. malleus against the tympanic membrane.
C. stapes against the tympanic membrane.
D. incus in the round window.
E. * stapes in the oval window
1214.
The cristae ampullaris detect:
A. static equilibrium information
B. the energy flow in the mitochondria.
C. sound waves and convert them into nerve impulses
D. both a and c above are correct
E. * dynamic equilibrium information
1215.
The division of the 8th cranial nerve carrying information from the
maculae and christie is the _______ branch.
A. oculomotor
B. cochlear
C. olfactory
D. C and D
E. * vestibular
1216.
?The doctor want make punction of thoracic duct in the region of it
conrfluence to the venous system,where is it?
A. * Left venous angle
B. Right venous angle
C. Place of beginning vena cava superior
D. Place of beginning vena cava inferior
E. Place of beginning vena portae
1217.
The malleus, incus and stapes:
A. are surrounded by perilymph.
B. are parts of the organ of Corti.
C. are located in the inner ear.
D. both a and b above are correct.
E. * form a bridge between the tympanum and the oval window
1218.
The middle ear consist from the…
A. Canalis semicircularis lateralis
B. Utricle
C. Trabecule vestibulae
D. Sacculus
E. * None of these
1219.
The middle ear consist from the…
A. Canalis semicircularis lateralis
B. Utricle
C. * Stapes
D. Sacculus
E. Trabecule vestibulae
1220.
The middle, thick part of choroid cover of eyeball is named…
A. * Ciliar body
B. Iris
C. Sclera
D. Cornea
E. Retina
1221.
The olfactory cells are:
A. specialized to respond to taste.
B. found on the basilar membrane.
C. located in the taste buds
D. both a and b above are correct.
E. * ciliated neuro-epithelium cells
1222.
The olfactory pathways are closely tied to which system (emotionalvisceral part of the brain)?
A. reticular activating system
B. somatic motor system
C. optic system
D. vestibular system
E. * limbic system
1223.
The only special sense which is NOT functional when the child is born is:
A. vision.
B. smell.
C. taste
D. hearing.
E. * balance.
1224.
The organ of balance perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. * Change of position
C. Sound
D. Light
E. Smell
1225.
The organ of balance perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. Smell
C. Sound
D. Light
E. * None of these
1226.
The organ of hearing perceive the…
A. Light
B. * Sound
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. Change of position
1227.
The organ of hearing perceive the…
A. Light
B. Change of position
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. * None of these
1228.
The organ of smell perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. Light
C. * Smell
D. Sound
E. Pressue
1229.
The organ of smell perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. Light
C. Pressue
D. Sound
E. * None of these
1230.
The outer ear consists of: а) pinna в) auditory tube с)external auditory
canal d)tympanic membrane
A. all of the above are parts of the outer ear
B. only A above is correct
C. only A, B and D above are correct
D. only A, C and D above are correct
E. * only A and C above are correct
1231.
The oval window and tympanic membrane are all associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. internal ear
E. * middle ear
1232.
The patient has damage of fibres of 7-th pair of cranial nerves,what taste
will be loose?
A. * All without bitter
B. Salt
C. Sweet
D. Sour
E. Bitter
1233.
The round window and tympanic membrane are all associated with the:
A. external ear
B.
C.
D.
E.
semicircular canals
cochlear duct
internal ear
* middle ear
1234.
The saccule is associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
1235.
The semicircular canales are associated with the:
A. external ear
B. Eustachian tube
C. cochlear duct
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
1236.
The specific ear structure responsible for providing constant information
of head position (static equilibrium) is/are the:
A. cristae ampullaris
B. semicircular canals.
C. cupula.
D. organ of Corti.
E. * maculae
1237.
The stapes has no…
A. Head
B. * Neck
C. Upper foot
D. Front foot
E. Back foot
1238.
The structure that provides a means of equalizing the air pressure in the
middle ear chamber is called the:
A. oval window.
B. round window
C. mastoid sinus.
D. seminiferous tube.
E. * auditory tube
1239.
The substance of crystalline lens is…
A. Colourless and soft
B. Transparent and smooth
C. * Solid,colourless and transparent
D. Don’t have vesels and nerves
E. Have vesels and nerves
1240.
The tip of the tongue is very sensitive to which taste(s)?
A. salty
B. sour
C. bitter
D. b and d are correct
E. * sweet
1241.
The utricule is associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
1242.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1243.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1244.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1245.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1246.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1247.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1248.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1249.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1250.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The vestibule is associated with the:
external ear
semicircular canals
cochlear duct
middle ear
* internal ear
What fibres of the optic nerve make crossing?
* Medial
Lateral
Medial and lateral
Medial from the left
Lateral from the right
What is belong to the accessory apparatus of the eye?
Crystalline lens
Iris
* Muscles of eye
Retina
Cornea
What is belong to the accessory apparatus of the eye?
Crystalline lens
Iris
* Eyelids
Retina
Cornea
What is belong to the accessory apparatus of the eye?
Crystalline lens
Iris
* Lachrymal apparatus
Retina
Cornea
What is belong to the external ear?
* Auricle,external acustic meatus
Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
Bone and membranouse labirint
Internal acustic meatus
Carotid canal
What is belong to the internal ear?
Auricle,external acustic meatus
Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
* Bone and membranouse labirint
Internal acustic meatus
Carotid canal
What is belong to the internal ear?
Auricle,external acustic meatus
Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
Carotid canal
Internal acustic meatus
* None of these
What is belong to the internal ear?
Auricle,external acustic meatus
* Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
Bone and membranouse labirint
Internal acustic meatus
Carotid canal
1251.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1253.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1254.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1257.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1258.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1259.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is located in the center of tympanic membrane?
Auricle
* Umbo
Umbilicum
Proccesus
Tuberculum
What is located in the medial angle of eye?
Crystalline lens
Lachrymal gland
* Lachrymal lacus
Eyelash
Eyebrow
What is located in the medial angle of eye?
Crystalline lens
Lachrymal gland
* Lachrymal caruncle
Eyelash
Eyebrow
What is located on the lachrymal caruncle.
* Lachrymal punctum
Lachrymal comma
Lachrymal lacus
Lachrymal gland
Lachrymal duct
What structures are connected by the auditory tube?
Oral and nasal cavity
* Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
Nasopharynx and oesophagus
Oral and tympanic cavity
Nasopharynx and external acustic meatus
What are the semicircular canals in the internal ear?
* Anterior,posterior,lateral
Internal,external,intermedius
Superior,inferior,posterior
Posterior,anterior,internal
Right,left,middle
What do Eustachian tubes communicate?
Larynx and pharynx
Oropharynx and tympanic cavity
Larynx and tympanic cavity
Laryngeal pharynx and oropharynx
* Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
What do Eustachian tubes communicate?
Larynx and pharynx
Oropharynx and tympanic cavity
Larynx and tympanic cavity
Laryngeal pharynx and oropharynx
* Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
What does contact with oval window?
incus
malleus
Eustachian tube
internal acoustic meatus
* Stapes
1260.
What does form lateral wall of tympanic cavity?
Osseus labyrinth
Tegmen tympany
Wall of carotid canal
Jugular fossa
* Tympanic membrane
1261.
What does form lateral wall of tympanic cavity?
A. Osseus labyrinth
B. Tegmen tympany
C. Wall of cacotid canal
D. Jugular fossa
E. * Tympanic membrane
1262.
What does separate tympanic cavity and middle cranial fossa?
A. anterior wall of tympanic cavity
B. medial wall of tympanic cavity
C. lateral wall of tympanic cavity
D. mastoid wall of tympanic cavity
E. * superior wall of tympanic cavity
1263.
What does touch tympanic membrane?
A. stapes
B. incus
C. Eustachian tube
D. internal acoustic meatus
E. * malleus
1264.
What from the named nerves or vessels not going in the cavity of sinus
cavernosus?
A. Nervus trochlearis
B. Nervus oculomotoris
C. Nervus abducens
D. Arteria carotis interna
E. * Nervus opticus
1265.
What hearing bones do you know?
A. * Maleus , ileus,stapes
B. Sickle,clip,stump
C. Nippers,ploug,clip
D. Maleus, nippers,sirckle
E. Ileus, maleus,sirckle
1266.
What is carried to the derivates of the skin?
A. Nail
B. Sudoriferous glands
C. Sebaceous glands
D. * All of above
E. Epidermis
1267.
What is going out from the lachrymal sac?
A. * Nasolachrymal duct
B. Orolachrymal duct
C. Pharingeolachrymal duct
D. Mucouselachrymal duct
E. Salivarylachrymal duct
1268.
What is going out from the lachrymal sac?
A. Salivarylachrymal duct
B. Orolachrymal duct
C. Pharingeolachrymal duct
D. Mucouselachrymal duct
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
E. * None of these
What is responsible for accommodation of the lens ?
A. Sphincter muscle
B. Dilator muscle
C. Pupil
D. Pectinate ligament
E. * Ciliary muscle
1270.
What muscle of the eye innervated by abducens nerve?
A. Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Superior rectus
D. Inferior rectus
E. * Lateral rectus
1271.
What muscle of the eye innervated by trochlear nerve?
A. * Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Superior rectus
D. Lateral rectus
E. Medial rectus
1272.
What nerve innervated superior lateral muscle of the eye?
A. Occulomotoris
B. Trochlear
C. * Abducens
D. Facialis
E. Trigeminus
1273.
What nerve innervated superior oblique muscle of the eye?
A. Occulomotoris
B. * Trochlear
C. Abducens
D. Facialis
E. Trigeminus
1274.
What structure cover foramen oval on the lateral wall of the bone
labyrinth?
A. Maleus
B. Body of ileus
C. * Base of stapes
D. Bone labyrinth
E. Membranous labyrinth
1275.
What structure timpanic cavity connected with the help of acustic tube?
A. With internal ear
B. With oral part of pharynx
C. With throat partr of pharynx
D. With external ear
E. * None of these
1276.
What structure timpanic cavity connected with the help of acustic tube?
A. * With nasal part of pharynx
B. With oral part of pharynx
C. With throat partr of pharynx
D. With external ear
E. With internal ear
1277.
What structures are belong to the auricle?
A. Umbilicus, maleus
B. Tympanic membrane
C. Mastoideus antrum
1269.
D. Tragus,maleus,stapes
E. * Lobules,helix tragus
1278.
What windows are on the lateral wall of the bone labyrinth?
A. * Ovale and rotundum
B. Elliptic and rectangular
C. Opened and closeв
D. Hearing and acoustic
E. Quadratic and spheral
1279.
When the eyes are suddenly exposed to bright light, the pupils
immediately constrict. This is called the:
A. crossed-extensor reflex.
B. stretch reflex.
C. accommodation pupillary reflex.
D. nociceptor reflex.
E. * photopupillary reflex
1280.
Where center of smell analyser is located?
A. Reticulate formation
B. In mammiform bodyes
C. In smell stripes
D. * In the hook
E. In optic mound
1281.
Where are located nucleus of the 8-pair of cranial nerves?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Spinal cord
C. Middle brain
D. Intermedium brain
E. * Pons
1282.
Where are positioned bodies of second neuron of tasting pathway?
A. Uncus
B. Sensory ganglia
C. Lateral geniculated bodies
D. Nuclei of thalamus
E. * Nucleus solitarius
1283.
Where are positioned bodies of third neuron of tasting pathway?
A. Uncus
B. Sensory ganglia
C. Lateral geniculated bodies
D. Nucleus solitarius
E. * Nuclei of thalamus
1284.
Where are the taste buds located that are the most sensitive to sour
substances?
A. at the tip of the tongue
B. at the sides of the tip of the tongue
C. all over the surface of the tongue
D. both a and b above are correct
E. * on the posterior lateral edges of the tongue
1285.
Where do tears flow from lacrimal gland ?
A. Lacrimal sac
B. Nasolacrimal canal
C. Superior nasal meatus
D. Inferior nasal meatus
E. * Conjuctival sac
1286.
Where do tears flow from lacrimal gland ?
A. Lacrimal sac
B.
C.
D.
E.
1287.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1288.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1289.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1290.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1291.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1293.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1294.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1295.
A.
Conjuctival sac
Superior nasal meatus
Inferior nasal meatus
* Excretory ducts
Where do tears flow from nasolacrimal canal ?
Lacrimal sac
Conjuctival sac
Excretory ducts
Superior nasal meatus
* Inferior nasal meatus
Where do tears flow from nasolacrimal canal ?
Lacrimal sac
Conjuctival sac
Excretory ducts
Superior nasal meatus
* Inferior nasal meatus
Where has opening nasolachrymal duct?
Middle nasal meatus
Cavity of middle ear
* Inferior nasal meatus
Superior nasal meatus
Oral cavity
Where have opening canaliculis lachrymalis
Middle nasal meatus
* Lachrymal sac
Inferior nasal meatus
Superior nasal meatus
Oral cavity
Where is located second neuron of taste pathway?
Uncus
Thalamus
Medial geniculate body
Inferior colliculus
* Rhomboid fossa
Where is located second neuron of taste pathway?
Uncus
Thalamus
Medial geniculate body
Inferior colliculus
* Rhomboid fossa
Where is located second neuron of visual pathway?
Optic chiasma
Lateral geniculate body
Superior colliculus
Calcarine sulcus
* In retina
Where is positioned body of fourth neuron of visual pathway?
superior colliculus
calcarine sulcus
optic nerve
retina
* lateral geniculated body
Where is positioned body of third neuron of visual pathway?
lateral geniculated body
B.
C.
D.
E.
superior colliculus
calcarine sulcus
optic nerve
* retina
1296.
Where it will be continuing haemorrhage when venous vessel is
destroyed at the region of jugularis opening?
A. * Posterior cranial fossa
B. Anterior cranial fossa
C. Subarachnoidalis space
D. Middle cranial fossa
E. Subdural space
1297.
Where lachrymal glands is located?
A. * In medial angle of optic fossa
B. In superior lateral angle of optic fossa
C. In lachrymal sac
D. In the inferior lateral angle of optic fossa
E. In superior part of nasolachrymal chanal
1298.
Which cranial nerves innervate tasting buds of tongue and epiglottis?
A. Olfactory, trigeminal and glossopharyngeal nerves
B. Trigeminal, facial and glossopharyngeal nerves
C. Trigeminal, hypoglossal and glossopharyngeal nerves
D. Hypoglossal, vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves
E. * Facial, vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves
1299.
Which muscle is contracting on bright light?
A. Dilator pupillae
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Rectus superior
D. Oblique superior
E. * Sphincter pupillae
1300.
Which muscle is responsible for reaction of eye on darkness?
A. Rectus superior
B. Oblique superior
C. Sphincter pupillae
D. Ciliary muscle
E. * Dilator pupillae
1301.
Which muscle is responsible for reaction of eye on bright light?
A. Dilator pupillae
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Rectus superior
D. Oblique superior
E. * Sphincter pupillae
1302.
Which muscle responsible for accommodation of the lens?
A. Sphincter pupillae
B. Dilator pupillae
C. Rectus superior
D. Oblique superior
E. * Ciliary muscle
1303.
Which nerve is responsible for taste of anterior 2/3 part of tongue?
A. * Chorda tympani
B. Major petrosus nerve
C. Minor petrosus nerve
D. Profundus petrosus nerve
E. Hypoglossus nerve
1304.
Which tasting buds are positioned on almost all surface of tongue
dorsum?
A. Foliate
B. Filiform
C. Vallate
D. Conicae
E. * Fungiform
1305.
Whis what are covered walls of membranous labyrinth?
A. * Flat epithelium
B. Mucous
C. Endothelium
D. Periosteum
E. Epichondrum
1306.
Whis what are covered walls of membranous labyrinth?
A. Epichondrum
B. Mucous
C. Endothelium
D. Periosteum
E. * None of these
1307.
Whis what are divided tympanic and vestibulum trabeculae?
A. Canalis spiralis
B. * Cochlear duct
C. Canalis semicircularis
D. Utricle
E. Sacculus
1308.
Whis what are divided tympanic and vestibulum trabeculae?
A. Canalis spiralis
B. Sacculus
C. Canalis semicircularis
D. Utricle
E. * None of these
1309.
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from inside?
A. Serouse
B. Pleurae
C. Peritoneum
D. Skin
E. * Mucous
1310.
Whis what is covered back surface of eyelid?
A. Serouse
B. Skin
C. Fasciae
D. * Conjunctive
E. Mucous cover
1311.
Whis what is covered back surface of eyelid?
A. Serouse
B. Skin
C. Fasciae
D. Mucous cover
E. * None of these
1312.
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from outside?
A. Serouse
B. Pleurae
C. Peritoneum
D. * Skin
1313.
1314.
1315.
1316.
1317.
1318.
1319.
1320.
1321.
E. Mucous
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from outside?
A. Serouse
B. Pleurae
C. Peritoneum
D. Mucous
E. * None of these
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from inside?
A. Serouse
B. Pleurae
C. Peritoneum
D. Skin
E. * None of these
Whis what is full in membranous labyrinth?
A. Lymph
B. Blood
C. * Endolymph
D. Perilymph
E. Liquor
Whis what is full in membranous labyrinth?
A. Lymph
B. Blood
C. Aquous liquor
D. Perilymph
E. * None of these
Whis what is full in tympanic cavity and vestibulum trabeculi?
A. Lymph
B. Blood
C. Endolymph
D. * Perilymph
E. Liquor
Whis what is full in tympanic cavity and vestibulum trabeculi?
A. Lymph
B. Blood
C. Endolymph
D. Liquor
E. * None of these
Along which nerve is passes v. jugularis interna?
A. * N. vagus
B. Femoral nerve
C. Iliac nerve
D. Spinal nerve
E. Correct answer is missing
Along which nerve is passes v. jugularis interna?
A. Cubital nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Iliac nerve
D. Spinal nerve
E. * Correct answer is missing
Along which nerve is passes v. jugularis interna?
A. Cubital nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Iliac nerve
D. Spinal nerve
E. * Correct answer is missing
Along which nerve is passes v. jugularis interna?
A. * N. vagus
B. Femoral nerve
C. Iliac nerve
D. Spinal nerve
E. Correct answer is missing
1323.
Automatic adjustment of the curvature of the lens by ciliary muscle
contraction is called
A. Convergence
B. Constriction
C. Contraction
D. Focusing
E. * Accommodation
1324.
Brachiocephalic trunk begins from?
A. * aortic arch
B. common carotid artery
C. left common carotid artery
D. right common carotid artery
E. Correct answer is missing
1325.
Common carotid artery divides into
A. * external carotid artery and internal carotid artery
B. external carotid artery and right carotid artery
C. external carotid artery and left carotid artery
D. left carotid artery and right carotid artery
E. Correct answer is missing
1326.
Continuation of what is v. jugularis interna?
A. Aortic arch
B. A. carotis communis
C. A. carotis interna
D. A. carotis externa
E. * Correct answer is missing
1327.
Continuation of what is v. jugularis interna?
A. * Sinus sigmoidei durae matris cranialis
B. A. carotis communis
C. A. carotis interna
D. A. carotis externa
E. Correct answer is missing
1328.
Continuation of what is v. jugularis interna?
A. * Sinus sigmoidei durae matris cranialis
B. A. carotis communis
C. A. carotis interna
D. A. carotis externa
E. Correct answer is missing
1329.
Continuation of what is v. jugularis interna?
A. Aortic arch
B. A. carotis communis
C. A. carotis interna
D. A. carotis externa
E. * Correct answer is missing
1330.
From which body parts nodi profundi cervicales laterals receive lymph?
A. Tongue
B. Larynx
C. Tonsils
1322.
D. Thyroid
E. * All
1331.
From which body parts nodi profundi cervicales laterals receive lymph?
A. Tongue
B. Larynx
C. Tonsils
D. Neck muscles
E. * All
1332.
From which body parts nodi profundi cervicales laterals do not receive
lymph?
A. Tongue
B. Larynx
C. Tonsils
D. Neck muscles
E. * Stomach
1333.
From which body parts nodi profundi cervicales laterals do not receive
lymph?
A. Tongue
B. Larynx
C. Tonsils
D. Neck muscles
E. * Duodenum
1334.
In arterial bleeding a tourniquet is imposed:
A. * Proximal to the site of damage
B. Distal to the site of damage
C. Directly on the wound
D. On opposite extremity
E. Simultaneously proximal and and distal to the site of damage
1335.
In case of the damage, the carotid artery is pressed to:
A. * Transversal processus of neck vertebrae
B. Clavicula bone
C. I rib
D. II rib
E. Brachial bone
1336.
In case of the damage, the subclavian artery is pressed to:
A. * I rib
B. Transversal processus of neck vertebrae
C. Clavicula bone
D. II rib
E. Brachial bone
1337.
In the vena jugularis externa flow:
A. * vv. jugulares anteriores
B. v. facialis
C. v. lingualis
D. vv. parotideae
E. Correct answer is missing
1338.
In the vena jugularis externa flow:
A. * vv. jugulares anteriores
B. v. facialis
C. v. lingualis
D. vv. parotideae
E. Correct answer is missing
1339.
In venous bleeding a tourniquet is imposed:
A. * Proximal to the site of damage
B.
C.
D.
E.
Distal to the site of damage
Directly on the wound
On opposite extremity
Simultaneously proximal and and distal to the site of damage
1340.
Pupils dilate in response to the contraction of
A. The circular iris muscle
B. The ciliary muscle
C. The orbicularis oculi muscle
D. The levator palpebrae superior muscle
E. * The radial iris muscle
1341.
Stimulations of hear cells in the semicircular canals results from the
movement of:
A. Aqueous humor
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Perilymph
D. Otoliths
E. * Endolymph
1342.
The comotion of the common carotid artery with the tear of intima results
in:
A. * Arterial thrombosis
B. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
C. Pagget-Shroeter's syndrome
D. Arterio-venous fistula
E. Angiovenous dysplasia
1343.
To the direct signs of the damages of common carotid artery belongs:
A. * Signs of acute arterial insufficiency
B. The damages of the skin
C. Defect of soft tissues
D. Crepitation
E. Loss of consciousness
1344.
To the direct signs of the damages of common carotid artery belongs:
A. * Pulsating haematoma
B. Defect of soft tissues
C. The damages of the skin
D. Crepitation
E. Loss of consciousness
1345.
To the direct signs of the damages of common carotid artery belongs:
A. * Absence or impaired pulsation below the site of wound
B. Loss of consciousness
C. The damages of the skin
D. Defect of soft tissues
E. Crepitation
1346.
To the methods of temporary hemostasis belong:
A. * The maximal flexing of the extremity in joints, elevated position of the
extremity
B. Electro-coagulation of vessel
C. Introduction of hemostatic medicines
D. Suturing of vessel
E. Angiorrhaphy
1347.
To the methods of temporary hemostasis of common carotid artery
belong:
A. * Digital compression of the artery
B. Electro-coagulation of vessel
C. Introduction of hemostatic medicines
1348.
1349.
1350.
1351.
1352.
1353.
1354.
1355.
1356.
D. Suturing of vessel
E. Angiorrhaphy
Vena jugularis interna collecting blood from:
A. lower extremities
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal
E. * Correct answer is missing
Vena jugularis interna collecting blood from:
A. Spin
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal
E. * Correct answer is missing
Vena jugularis interna collecting blood from:
A. * Head and neck
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal
E. Correct answer is missing
Vena jugularis interna collecting blood from:
A. * Head and neck
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal
E. Correct answer is missing
Vena jugularis interna collecting blood from:
A. lower extremities
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal
E. * Correct answer is missing
Vena jugularis interna collecting blood from:
A. Spin
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal
E. * Correct answer is missing
What are a venous plexus in the skull?
A. plexus venosus foraminis ovalis
B. plexus venosus canalis carotici
C. plexus pterygoideus
D. plexus venosus canalis hypoglossi
E. * all
What are a venous plexus in the skull?
A. plexus venosus foraminis ovalis
B. plexus venosus canalis carotici
C. plexus pterygoideus
D. plexus venosus canalis hypoglossi
E. * all
What are intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
A. sinus durae matris
B. vv. diploicae
C. vv. meningeales
1357.
1358.
1359.
1360.
1361.
1362.
1363.
1364.
1365.
D. v. ophthalmica superior
E. * All
What are intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
A. vv. labyrinthi
B. vv. diploicae
C. vv. meningeales
D. v. ophthalmica superior
E. * all
What are intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
A. sinus durae matris
B. vv. diploicae
C. vv. meningeales
D. v. ophthalmica superior
E. * All
What are intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
A. vv. labyrinthi
B. vv. diploicae
C. vv. meningeales
D. v. ophthalmica superior
E. * all
What are not the branches v. jugularis interna?
A. vv. pharyngeae
B. v. lingualis
C. v. thyroidea superior
D. v. retromandibularis
E. * v. femoralis
What are not the branches v. jugularis interna?
A. vv. pharyngeae
B. v. lingualis
C. v. thyroidea superior
D. v. retromandibularis
E. * v. femoralis
What are the branches of v. jugularis interna?
A. vv. pharyngeae
B. v. lingualis
C. v. thyroidea superior
D. v. retromandibularis
E. * All
What are the branches of v. jugularis interna?
A. vv. pharyngeae
B. v. lingualis
C. v. thyroidea superior
D. v. retromandibularis
E. * All
What are the branches v.jugularis interna?
A. vv. pharyngeae
B. v. lingualis
C. v. thyroidea superior
D. v. facialis
E. * All
What are the branches v.jugularis interna?
A. vv. pharyngeae
B. v. lingualis
C. v. thyroidea superior
1366.
1367.
1368.
1369.
1370.
1371.
1372.
1373.
1374.
D. v. facialis
E. * All
What are the criteria of efficiency of imposition of the tourniquet?
A. * Stop of bleeding
B. Pale extremity
C. Absence of pulsation
D. Coldness of the extremity
E. Disappearance of sensation
What branch of anterior group of external carotid artery?
A. * facial artery
B. sternocleidomastoid branch
C. occipital artery
D. posterior auricular artery
E. posterior meningeal artery
What branch of anterior group of external carotid artery?
A. * superior thyroid artery
B. sternocleidomastoid branch
C. occipital artery
D. posterior auricular artery
E. posterior meningeal artery
What branch of anterior group of external carotid artery?
A. * lingual artery
B. sternocleidomastoid branch
C. occipital artery
D. posterior auricular artery
E. posterior meningeal artery
What branch of medial group of external carotid artery?
A. facial artery
B. superior thyroid artery
C. lingual artery
D. posterior auricular artery
E. * posterior meningeal artery
What branch of medial group of external carotid artery?
A. facial artery
B. superior thyroid artery
C. lingual artery
D. posterior auricular artery
E. * inferior tympanic artery
What branch of posterior group of external carotid artery?
A. lingual artery
B. superior thyroid artery
C. * posterior auricular artery
D. facial artery
E. posterior meningeal artery
What branch of posterior group of external carotid artery?
A. facial artery
B. superior thyroid artery
C. lingual artery
D. * posterior auricular artery
E. posterior meningeal artery
What branch of posterior group of external carotid artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. * sternocleidomastoid branch
C. lingual artery
1375.
1376.
1377.
1378.
1379.
1380.
1381.
1382.
D. posterior auricular artery
E. facial artery
What group of lymph nodes belong to nodi cervicales laterales?
A. Nodi superficiales
B. Nodi profundi superiors
C. Nodi profundi inferiors
D. Nodi supraclaviculares
E. * All
What group of lymph nodes belong to nodi cervicales laterales?
A. Nodi supraclaviculares
B. Nodi accessorii
C. Nodi superficiales
D. Nodi profundi superiors
E. * All
What group of lymph nodes belong to nodi lymphoidei capitis?
A. Nodi occipitals
B. Nodi mastoidei
C. Nodi parotidei superficiales
D. Nodi parotidei profundi
E. * All
What group of lymph nodes do not belong to nodi lymphoidei capitis?
A. Nodi supraclaviculares
B. Nodi accessorii
C. Nodi superficiales
D. Nodi profundi superiors
E. * Nodi occipitals
What group of lymph nodes do not belong to nodi lymphoidei capitis?
A. Nodi occipitals
B. Nodi mastoidei
C. Nodi parotidei superficiales
D. Nodi parotidei profundi
E. * Nodi axilaris
What group of lymph nodes do not belong to nodi lymphoidei capitis?
A. Nodi supraclaviculares
B. Nodi accessorii
C. Nodi superficiales
D. Nodi profundi superiors
E. * Nodi axilares
What is bifurcation of carotid artery?
A. * Place where common carotid artery divides into external carotid artery
and internal carotid artery
B. Place where common carotid artery divides into external carotid artery
and right carotid artery
C. Place where common carotid artery divides into external carotid artery
and left carotid artery
D. Place where common carotid artery divides into left carotid artery and
right carotid artery
E. Correct answer is missing
What is formed from nodi cervicales laterales dexter?
A. * Trunci jugulares dexter
B. Trunci jugulares sinister
C. Nodi infrahyoidei
D. Nodi prelaryngei
E. Correct answer is missing
1383.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1384.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1385.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1386.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1387.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1388.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1389.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1390.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1391.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is formed from nodi cervicales laterales sinister?
Trunci jugulares dexter
* Trunci jugulares sinister
Nodi infrahyoidei
Nodi prelaryngei
Correct answer is missing
What is not the branches v. jugularis interna?
vv. pharyngeae
v. lingualis
v. thyroidea superior
v. retromandibularis
* v. thoracic interna
What is not the branches v. jugularis interna?
vv. pharyngeae
v. lingualis
v. thyroidea superior
v. retromandibularis
* v. thoracic interna
What is terminal branch of external carotid artery?
Maxillary artery
superior thyroid artery
lingual artery
posterior auricular artery
* inferior tympanic artery
What is terminal branch of external carotid artery?
Superficial temporal artery
superior thyroid artery
lingual artery
posterior auricular artery
* inferior tympanic artery
What these sinuses related to sinus durae matris?
sinus transverses
confluens sinuum
sinus marginalis
sinus occipitalis
* all
What these sinuses related to sinus durae matris?
sinus petrosquamosus
sinus sigmoideus
sinus sagittalis superior
sinus sagittalis inferior
* all
What these sinuses related to sinus durae matris?
sinus rectus
sinus petrosus superior
sinus cavernosus
sinus sphenoparietalis
* all
What time is the tourniquet imposed in summer?
* To 1-2 hours
To 15-30 min.
To 30-60 min.
To 4-6 hours
To 12 hours
1392.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1393.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1394.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1395.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1396.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1397.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1398.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1399.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1400.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What time is the tourniquet imposed in winter?
* To 30-60 min.
To 15-30 min.
To 1-2 hours
To 4-6 hours
To 12 hours
What vein are branches of the vena subclavia?
* vv. pectorals
v. facialis
v. lingualis
vv. parotideae
correct answer is missing
What vein are flow in plexus pterygoideus?
vv. meningeae mediae
vv. temporales profundae
v. canalis pterigoidei
v. stylomastoidea
* all
What vein are flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
* all
What vein are flow in plexus pterygoideus?
vv. meningeae mediae
vv. temporales profundae
v. canalis pterigoidei
v. stylomastoidea
* all
What vein are flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
* all
What vein are not flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
* vv. diploicae
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
What vein are not flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
* vv. diploicae
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
What vein is not flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
* v. lingualis
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
1401.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1402.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1403.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1404.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1405.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1406.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1407.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1408.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1409.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What vein is not flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
* v. facialis
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
What vein is not flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
* v. facialis
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
What vein is not flow in plexus pterygoideus?
v. stylomastoidea
vv. parotideae
* v. lingualis
vv. auriculares anteriores
vv. auriculares art. temporomandibularis
Where are localized vena subclavia?
* neck
abdomen
thoracic cavity
pelvis
correct answer is missing
?Where is begins Brachiocephalic trunk?
* on level of right II costal cartilage
on level of right I costal cartilage
on level of right III costal cartilage
on level of right IV costal cartilage
Correct answer is missing
Where is nodi profundi cervicales laterals?
Along v. jugularis externa
* Along v. jugularis interna
Along left common carotid artery
Along right common carotid artery
Correct answer is missing
Where is nodi superficiales cervicales laterals?
* Along v. jugularis externa
Along v. jugularis interna
Along left common carotid artery
Along right common carotid artery
Correct answer is missing
?Where is truncus jugularis dexter ?
* Along v. jugularis interna dexter
Along v. jugularis externa dexter
Along right common carotid artery
Along left common carotid artery
Correct answer is missing
Where is truncus jugularis sinister?
* Along v. jugularis interna sinister
Along v. jugularis externa sinister
Along left common carotid artery
Along right common carotid artery
Correct answer is missing
1410.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1411.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1412.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1413.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1414.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1415.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1416.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1417.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1418.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where the lymph flows from the left half of head and neck
Truncus jugularis dexter
* Truncus jugularis sinister
Right common carotid artery
Left common carotid artery
Correct answer is missing
Where the lymph flows from the right half of head and neck
* Truncus jugularis dexter
Truncus jugularis sinister
Right common carotid artery
Left common carotid artery
Correct answer is missing
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
* v. retromandibularis
v. ophthalmica superior
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
v. ophthalmica superior
* vv. pharyngeae
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
v. ophthalmica superior
* v. lingualis
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
* v. thyroidea superior
v. ophthalmica superior
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
* v. facialis
v. ophthalmica superior
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
* v. facialis
v. ophthalmica superior
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
* v. retromandibularis
v. ophthalmica superior
1419.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1420.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1421.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1422.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1423.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1424.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1425.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1426.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1427.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
v. ophthalmica superior
* v. lingualis
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
* v. thyroidea superior
v. ophthalmica superior
Which branch is not intracranial tributaries of the v. jugularis interna?
vv. labyrinthi
vv. diploicae
vv. meningeales
v. ophthalmica superior
* vv. pharyngeae
Which veins forming vena jugularis externa?
* v. occipitalis
v. facialis
v. lingualis
vv. parotideae
Correct answer is missing
Which veins forming vena jugularis externa?
* v. auricularis рosterior
v. facialis
v. lingualis
vv. parotideae
Correct answer is missing
Which veins forming vena jugularis externa?
* v. occipitalis
v. facialis
v. lingualis
vv. parotideae
Correct answer is missing
Which veins forming vena jugularis externa?
* v. auricularis рosterior
v. facialis
v. lingualis
vv. parotideae
Correct answer is missing
To what branches divided arteria carotis externa?
* Temporalis superficialis,maxilaris
Temporalis superficialis,facialis
Facialis,maxilaris
Facialis,lingvalis
Lingvalis occipitalis
All named arteries are branches of arteria carotis externa exept the…
Auricularis profunda
Auricularis posterior
Temporalis medialis
* Timpanico-carotis
Timpanic anterior
1428.
Before connection with what vein lower thickening of vena jugularis
interna is formed?
A. Vena cava superior
B. * Vena subclavia
C. Jugularis externa
D. Brahyocephalic
E. Jugularis anterior
1429.
Common for all lymphatic organs is presence of…
A. Trabeculls
B. Sinusoids
C. Cortex layer
D. Medullar layer
E. * Lymphocytes
1430.
Continuation of what sinuses is vena jugularis interna?
A. * Sigmoid and inferior petrosus
B. Occipitalis and sagitalis
C. Transverses and occipitalis
D. Superior petrosus
E. Sagfitalis and transverses
1431.
Count the branches of anterior group of external carotid artery.
A. Superior thyroid, lingual, ascending pharyngeal arteries.
B. Facial, ascending pharyngeal, maxillary arteries.
C. * Superior thyroid, lingual , facial arteries.
D. Lingual, facial, maxillary arteries.
E. Facial, lingual, superficial temporal arteries.
1432.
Define the scopes of cervical department of vagus nerve.
A. Between the jugular foramen and begin of superior laryngeal nerve.
B. * Between the inferior ganglion and begin of right recurrent laryngeal
nerve.
C. Between the jugular foramen and begin of superior cervical cardiac
branches.
D. Between the jugular foramen and begin of oesophageal and lingual
branches.
E. Between the inferior ganglion and begin of left recurrent laryngeal nerve.
1433.
Define the scopes of main department of vagus nerve.
A. Between the upper and lower ganglions of vagus nerve.
B. Between the exit of nerve from the brain and jugular foramen.
C. * Between the exit of nerve from the brain and lower ganglions.
D. Between the exit of nerve from the brain and to bifurcate of common
carotid artery.
E. Between the exit of nerve from the brain and upper ganglion.
1434.
Ductus limphaticus collected limph from all next organs exept the…
A. Left half of the head
B. Left half of the neck
C. Left jugularis trunk
D. * Right subclavicular trunk
E. None of above
1435.
Ductus limphaticus collected limph from all next organs exept the…
A. Left half of the head
B. Left half of the neck
C. Left jugularis trunk
D. * Right half of the head
E. None of above
1436.
For what structures gives blood supply arteria occipitalis?
A. Glandula tireoidea,skin of occipital region,auricle
B. Muscle scapulo-hypoglossus,auricular,skin of occipital region
C. * Skin of occipital region,muscle sternocleidomastoideus,auricle,dura
mater
D. Dura mater,auricle
E. Auricle,muscles of auricle,glandula parotis,acustic meatus
1437.
From what opening of skull beginning veina jugularis interna?
A. Rotundum
B. * Jugularis
C. Ovale
D. Mastoideus
E. Lacerate
1438.
How is the mixed nerve of cervical plexus named?
A. Vagus
B. Accessory
C. Intermediate
D. * Phrenic
E. Lesser occipital
1439.
Innervation of the larynx provided by the branches of …
A. N.trigeminus
B. N. facialis
C. N.glossopharingeus
D. * N. vagus
E. N. hypoglossus
1440.
Name a place, where we can press facial artery and define its pulsation.
A. Carotid triangle.
B. Submandibular triangle.
C. * Branch of mandible, behind the edge of masseter muscle.
D. Basis of body of mandible, front of masseter muscle.
E. Corner of mouth.
1441.
Name an artery, that supplies the teeth of mandible.
A. Lingual.
B. Facial.
C. Ascending oesophageal.
D. * Inferior alveolar.
E. Sphenopalatine.
1442.
Name anatomic forms, what posterior auricularis artery supplies.
A. Auricle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, parotid gland.
B. Skin and muscles of the back of head, parotid gland, temporal muscle.
C. Dura mater of posterior cranial fossa, digastric muscle.
D. * Skin of auricle and back of head, thympanic cavity.
E. Temporal muscle and skin above it, stylohyoid muscle.
1443.
Name anatomic structures, what superficial temporal artery supply.
A. * Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, parotid salivary gland,
auricle, external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle and skin above it, trapezius muscle.
C. Auditory tube, thympanic cavity, external acoustic meatus, auricle,
masseter muscle, parotid gland.
D. Back surface of auricle, skin and muscles of the back of head,
submandibular gland, superior and inferior eyelids.
E. Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, submandibular gland,
external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
1444.
Name branches through which the external and internal carotid arteries
anastomoses.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1445.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1446.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1447.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1448.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1449.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1450.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1451.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1452.
A.
B.
Deep lingual artery and dorsal braches.
* Angular artery and dorsal nasi artery.
Palatine artery and ascending pharyngeal artery.
Artery of upper lip and buccal arteries.
Artery of lower lip and mental artery.
Name formations, between which a phrenic nerve passes in thorax.
Between scalene muscles.
Ahead of subclavian vein.
Behind a subclavian artery.
* Between a subclavian artery and vein
Behind I rib.
Name ganglions for the step of vagus nerve.
* Superior and inferior (sensible).
Superior and inferior (parasympatetic ).
Superior (sensible), inferior (parasympatetic ).
Superior (sensible ), inferior (sympatetic).
Superior and inferior (sympatetic).
Name nodules on the way of nervus vagus
* Superior,inferior (sensor)
Superior,inferior (parasympathetic)
Superior (sensor),inferior (parasympathetic)
Superior (sensor),inferior (sympathetic)
Superior,inferior (sympathetic)
Name skin nerves of cervical plexus?
Greater occipital nerve, phrenic nerve, supraclavicular nerve, transverse
cervical nerve.
Phrenic nerve, lesser occipital nerve, great auricular nerve, greater
occipital nerve.
Lesser occipital nerve, great auricular nerve, supraclavicular nerve,
greater occipital nerve.
Phrenic nerve, suboccipital nerve, lesser auricular nerve, accessory.
* Lesser occipital nerve, great auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve,
supraclavicular nerve.
Name the 10 pair of cranial nerves.
N.glossopharingeus
N.accesorius
* N.vagus
N.hypoglossus
N.abducens
Name the area of innervation of meningeal branch of vagus nerve.
* Dura mater of posterior cranial fossa.
Dura mater of middle cranial fossa, walls of superiorpetrosal sinus .
Dura mater of middle and posterior cranial fossas.
Dura mater of anterior cranial fossa , walls of cavernous sinus.
Diaphragm of sella turcica and tentorium cerebelli.
Name the branches of arteria temporalis superficialis.
Occipital,auricularis posterior
* Frontalis,temporalis
Ascendens and descendens pharyngeal
A.tympanic posterior
Sterno-cleidomastoidea,descendenspharingeal
Name the branches of recurrent laryngeal nerve.
* Esophageal, tracheal, pharyngeal.
Tracheal, bronchial, pulmonal.
C. Superior and inferior laryngeal.
D. Bronchial, inferior cervical cardiac.
E. Esophageal, superior cervical cardiac, tracheal.
1453.
Name the branches of arteria carotis interna, which divided in canalis
carotis of temporal bone
A. * A.tympanocarotis
B. A.tympanic anterior
C. A.auricularis profunda
D. A.meningea anterior
E. A. tympanic
1454.
Name the branches of main part of vagus nerve.
A. * Meningeal branch, auricular branch.
B. Meningeal branch, oesophageal branches.
C. Auricular branch, oesophageal branches.
D. Auricular branch, lingual branch.
E. Ophthalmic branch, lingual branch.
1455.
Name the branches of nervus pharingeus recurens.
A. * Oesophageal,trachealis,pharingealis
B. Trachealis,bronchialis,
C. Superior and inferior laryngealis
D. Bronchialis,inferior cardialis
E. Pharingealis,superior cardialis,trachealis
1456.
Name the branches of superficial temporal artery.
A. Occipitalposterior, posterior auricle arteries.
B. * Frontal, parietal arteries.
C. Ascending and descending oesophageal arteries.
D. Posterior anterior thympanic arteries.
E. Sternocleidomastoid and descending oesophageal arteries.
1457.
Name the branches of the first (mandibular) department of maxillary
artery.
A. * Anterior thympanic, middle meningeal, inferior alveolar arteries.
B. Deep auricle, anterior thympanic , masseteric, superior alveolar arteries.
C. Deep auricle, inferior alveolar, buccal arteries.
D. Superior alveolar, infraorbital, sphenopalatine arteries.
E. Posterior superior alveolar arteries, infraorbitale, buccal arteries.
1458.
Name the branches of the meningeal part of nervus vagus.
A. * Meningeal branche,auricularis branche
B. Meningeal branche,pharyngeal branches
C. Auricularis branche,pharyngeal branches
D. Auricularis branche,lingval branche
E. Ophthalmic branche,lingvalis branche
1459.
Name the branches of the second department of maxillary artery.
A. * Masseteric, deep temporal, pterygoid branches, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar arteries.
B. Masseteric, inferior alveolar, deep temporal, pterygoid, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar arteries .
C. Masseteric, inferior alveolar , sphenopalatine, pterygoid, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar arteries.
D. Masseteric, deep temporal, sphenopalatine, pterygoid, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar arteries .
E. Masseteric, posterior superior alveolar arteries , infraorbitale, buccal
arteries.
1460.
Name the branches of the third (pterygopalatine) department of maxillary
artery
A. * Infraorbital, descending palatine, sphenopalatine, posterior superior
alveolar arteries .
B. Infraorbital, sphenopalatine, ascending palatine, pterygoid arteries.
C. Infraorbital, descending palatine, sphenopalatine, inferior alveolar
arteries.
D. Infraorbital, pterygoid, posterior superior alveolar , superficial temporal
arteries.
E. Infraorbital, descending palatine, superficial temporal, pterygoid arteries.
1461.
Name the nucleuses of vagus nerve.
A. Inferior salivatory nucleus, nucleus of solitary tract, ambiguus nucleus.
B. * Nucleus of solitary tract, ambiguus nucleus, dorsal vagal nucleus.
C. Ambiguus nucleus, superior salivatory nucleus, nucleus of solitary tract.
D. Nucleus of spinal way, ambiguus nucleus , dorsal vagal nucleus.
E. Mesencephalic nucleus, propria nucleus, dorsal vagal nucleus.
1462.
Name the place of break away of lingual artery from an external carotid
artery.
A. From the beginning of external carotid artery.
B. At the upper edge of thyroid gland.
C. At level of corner of mandible.
D. * At the level of large horn of hyoid bone.
E. Above the upper edge of post belly of digastric muscle.
1463.
Name the place of break away of facial artery from an external carotid
artery.
A. At the level of upper edge of thyroid cartilage.
B. At the upper pole of thyroid gland.
C. At the level of large horn of hyoid bone.
D. * At level of corner of mandible.
E. Above the upper edge of post belly of digastric muscle.
1464.
Name the place of output of vagus nerve on the basis of cerebrum.
A. Between posterior edge of pons and olives.
B. Between the pyramid and olive.
C. From a posterior lateral fissure, behind the output of vestibulocochlear
nerve
D. * From a posterior lateral fissure, behind the output of glossopharyngeal
nerve.
E. In pontocerebellar angle.
1465.
Name topographical form which a lingual artery passes in .
A. Carotid triangle.
B. Interscalene space.
C. * Triangle of Pirogov.
D. Omotrapezoid triangle.
E. Interaponevrotical space.
1466.
Name, what is form pharyngeal plexus?
A. * By branches of vagus nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, by the branches
of cervical department of sympathetic trunk.
B. By the branches of vagus nerve, hypoglossal nerve, glossopharyngeal
nerve.
C. By the branches of vagusnerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, by sympathetic
and parasympathetic branches, hypoglossal nerve.
D. By the branches of vagus nerve, glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal
nerves, parasympathetic branches.
E. By the branches of trigeminal, glossopharyngeal nerves, branches of
cervical department of sympathetic trunk.
1467.
Nervus vagus go out from the skull through the next opening:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Rotundum
* Jugularis
Ovale
Spinouse
Lacerate
1468.
?Nervus vagus go out from the skull with the…
A. * 9,11 pair of cranial nerves
B. 9,11,12 pair of cranial nerves
C. 9,12 pair of cranial nerves
D. 12,7 pair of cranial nerves
E. 7,9 pair of cranial nerves
1469.
Specify motion of left recurrent laryngeal nerve.
A. Rounds from below and behind subclavian artery.
B. * Rounds from below and behind arc of aorta.
C. Passes ahead of arc of aorta.
D. Passes ahead of subclavian artery.
E. Passes ahead of ascending part of aorta.
1470.
Specify motion of right reccurent laryngeal nerve.
A. * Rounds from below and behind subclavian artery.
B. Passes between subclavian artery and vein.
C. Passes at the front of subclavian artery.
D. Passes at the front of internal jugular vein.
E. Rounds from below and behind the arc of aorta
1471.
Specify the place of break out of left recurrent laryngeal nerve from the
vagus nerve.
A. At the level of ascending part of aorta.
B. * At the level of arc of aorta.
C. At the level of left subclavian artery.
D. At the level of superior edge of thyroid gland.
E. At the level of superior aperture of thorax.
1472.
Specify the place of break out of right recurrent laryngeal nerve from the
vagus nerve.
A. * At the level of right subclavian artery.
B. At the level of lower edge of manubrium of sternum.
C. At the level of brachiocephalic trunk.
D. At the level of upper edge of thyroid gland.
E. At the level of arc of aorta.
1473.
The right ductus lymphaticus collected lymph from the next organs exept
the…
A. Right half of the head
B. Right half of the neck
C. Right jugularis trunk
D. * Left bronchomediastinal trunk
E. None of above
1474.
The right ductus lymphaticus collected lymph from the next organs exept
the…
A. Right half of the head
B. Right half of the neck
C. Right jugularis trunk
D. * Left subclavicular trunk
E. None of above
1475.
The taste innervation of epiglottis and root of the tongue going from…
A. N. facialis
B. N.trigeminus
C. N.glossopharingeus
D. * N.vagus
E. N.hypoglossus
1476.
Through what opening in the skull pass nervus vagus?
A. Rotundum
B. Ovale
C. * Jugularis
D. Spinosus
E. Laceratus
1477.
To the what of the named sinuses fall in veina ophtalmica superior
A. Superior petrosus
B. Inferior sagitalis
C. * Cavernosus
D. Superior sagitalis
E. Occipitalis
1478.
To the what of the named sinuses fall in big meningeal vein?
A. Inferior sagitalis
B. Transversus
C. Sigmoid
D. Occipital
E. * Rectus
1479.
To the what of the named sinuses fall in veina superficialis medialis?
A. Superior sagitalis,transverses
B. * Cavernosus,occipitalis
C. Rectus,occipitalis
D. Transverses,superior petrosus
E. Sigmoideus,rectus
1480.
To what nodules coming pregangliolar fibres from parasimpatic nucleus
of nervus vagus?
A. Preorganic nodules
B. * Intramural nodules
C. Paravertebral nodules
D. Spinal nodules
E. Prevertebral nodules
1481.
Trough what opening leave the skull cavity nervus vagus?
A. Laceratus
B. Spinosus
C. Ovale
D. * Jugularis
E. Sublingval canal
1482.
What artery penetrate nervus occulus and divide into branches in retina?
A. A. ciliaris
B. A.palpebrae media
C. A.palpebrae lateral
D. * A.retina centralis
E. A.supraorbitalis
1483.
What branches do form a cervical loop?
A. Lesser occipital and phrenic nerves.
B. Transverse cervical nerve and upper radix of hypoglossal nerve.
C. * Descending radix of hypoglossal nerve and lower radix of cervical
plexus.
D. Subscapular nerves and lower radix of cervical plexus.
E. Recurrent nerve and lower guttural nerve.
1484.
What cervical muscle is a phrenic nerve located on?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1485.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1486.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1487.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1488.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1489.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1490.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1491.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1492.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sternocleidomastoid.
Sternohyoid.
Levator scapule .
Middle scalene.
* Anterior scalene.
What departments of vagus nerve are ?
Cervical, thoracic, abdominal.
Cervical, thoracic, abdominal, pelvic.
Main, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum.
* Main, cervical, thoracic, abdominal.
Main, cervical, thoracic.
What do aksons of VI neuron of pupilla reflex supply?
Apparatus of lacrimalis
Tunica of conjunctiva
* M. ciliaris
M. dilatator pupillae
M. rectus superior
What do the branches of cervical loop supply?
Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
Scalene muscles.
* Infrahyoid cervical muscles and geniohyoid muscle.
Suprahyoid cervical muscles and omohyoid muscle.
Skin and platysma muscle.
What does great auricular nerve supply?
Parotid gland.
Skin and muscles of occipital area.
* Auricle and external acoustic meatus.
Direct cervical muscles, muscles of auricle.
Sternocleidomastoid muscle and skin above him.
What does a phrenic nerve in thorax supply.
* Pericardium, pleura, diaphragm, thymus gland.
Internal and external intercostal muscles.
Heart, lungs, pleura, esophagus.
Bronchus, thymus gland, lymphatic mediastinum ganglions.
Esophagus, diaphragm, thymus gland, muscles of pectoral wall.
What does lesser occipital nerve supply?
Superficial muscles of occipital area.
* Skin of lateral part of occipital area.
Skin of medial part of occipital area.
Skin and muscles of auricle.
External acoustic meatus and auditory tube.
What does occipital artery supply?
Thyroid and parathyroid glands, skin of the back of head, auricle.
Omohyoid muscle, auricle, skin of the back of head.
* Skin of the back of head, sternocleidomastoid muscle, auricle, dura
mater of posterior cranial fossa.
Dura mater of middle cranial fossa, auricle.
Auricle, muscles of auricle, parotid gland, acoustic duct .
What does supraclavicular nerve supply?
Platysma muscle.
Subclavius muscle.
* Skin above major pectoralis and deltoid muscles.
Skin of supraclavicular area, subclavius muscle.
Major pectoralis muscle and skin above it.
1493.
What does the transverse cervical nerve supply?
Platysma muscle.
Muscles of suprahyoid group.
Muscles of infrahyoid group.
* Skin of anterior and lateral cervical surfaces.
Skin of clavicular area and platysma muscle.
1494.
What fibres do the nerves of cervical plexus contain of?
A. Only sensory (cutaneous).
B. Only motor.
C. Sensory (cutaneous) and motor, parasympathetic.
D. * Sensory (cutaneous), motor and mixed.
E. Only mixed.
1495.
What fibres does the vagus nerve contain?
A. Parasympathetic, sympathetic, sensible.
B. Sympathetic, parasympathetic, motor.
C. Sensible, sympathetic.
D. * Parasympathetic, sensible, motor.
E. Only sensible.
1496.
What foramen does the vagus nerve abandon the cavity of skull through?
A. Lacerum.
B. Hypoglossal canal.
C. * Jugular.
D. Ovale.
E. Stylomastoid.
1497.
What ganglions do preganglion fibres befit to from the parasympathetic
nucleus of vagus nerve?
A. To the preorgans ganglions
B. * To the intramural ganglions
C. To the paravertebral ganglions
D. To the spinal ganglions
E. To the prevertebral ganglions
1498.
What is formed a cervical plexus by?
A. Eight pair of cervical spinal nerves.
B. Four superior cervical spinal nerves, occipital nerve, vagus nerve.
C. Superior cervical spinal nerves, accessory nerve.
D. * Anterior branches of four superior cervical spinal nerves.
E. Anterior branches of superior cervical spinal nerves, hypoglossal nerve.
1499.
What is function of phrenic nerve?
A. Sympathetic.
B. Parasympathetic.
C. Motor.
D. Sensible.
E. * Mixed.
1500.
What is the anterior cover of cervical plexus?
A. * Sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B. Platysma muscle.
C. Skin.
D. Omohyoid muscle.
E. Vascular-nervous cervical bunch.
1501.
What is the name of mixed nerve of the neck plexus?
A. Vagus
B. Accesorius
C. Intermedius
D. * Diafragmalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1502.
1503.
1504.
1505.
1506.
1507.
1508.
1509.
1510.
E. Minor occipitalis
What is, by the function, nervus diafragmalis?
A. Symphaticus
B. Parasymphaticus
C. Motor
D. Sensor
E. * Mixed
What muscle innervated by nervus vagus?
A. M.platisma
B. M. geniohyoideus
C. M.palatopharyngeus
D. M.stylopharyngeus
E. * M.constrictor pharyngis superior
What muscle innervated by nervus vagus?
A. M.platisma
B. M. geniohyoideus
C. M.palatopharyngeus
D. M.stylopharyngeus
E. * M.constrictor pharyngis inferior
What neurons are presented the ganglions of vagus nerve?
A. By great pyramidal cells.
B. * By pseudounipolar cells.
C. By less pyramidal cells.
D. By middle pyramidal cells.
E. By ganliosus cells.
What parts of nervus vagus are distinguished?
A. Cervical,thoracic,abdominal
B. Cervical,thoracic,abdominal,pelvis
C. Cranial,cervical,thoracic,lumbalis
D. * Cranial,cervical,thoracic,abdominal
E. Cranial,cervical,thoracic
What plexus do the fibres of vagus nerve go in composition of?
A. In composition of inferior mesenteric
B. In composition of inferior hypogastric
C. * In composition of celiac
D. In composition of cervical
E. In composition of lumbar
What structures formed plexus pharingeus?
A. * Branches of n.vagus,glossopharingeus,branches of truncus
sympathicus
B. Branches of n.vagus,hypoglosus,glossopharingeus
C. Branches of n.vagus,glossopharingeus,parasympathetic branches
D. Branches of n.vagus,glossopharingeus,hypoglosus,parasympathetic
branches
E. Branches of n. trigeminus,glossopharingeus,branches of truncus
sympaticus
What structures innervate major auricular nerve?
A. Parotid gland
B. Skin,muscles of occipital region
C. * Auricula,external acoustic meatus
D. Muscles of auricular
E. Skin,m.sternocleidomastoideus
What structures innervate minor occipital nerve?
A. Superficial muscles of occipital region
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Skin of lateral part of occipital region
Skin of medial part of occipital region
Skin of auricle
External acoustic meatus,acoustic tube
1511.
What structures innervate nervus phrenicus in thoracic cavity?
A. * Pericard,pleura,diaphragm,timus
B. Internal and external intercostals muscles
C. Heart,lungs,pleura,esophagus
D. Bronches,timus,lymphatic nodules of mediastinum
E. Esophagus,diaphragm
1512.
What structures innervate nervus transversus colli
A. Muscle platisma of the neck
B. Muscles of suprahypoglossal groupe
C. Muscles of subhypoglossal groupe
D. * Skin of anterior and lateral surface of the neck
E. Skin of subclavicular region and muscle platisma
1513.
What structures innervate supraclavicular nerve?
A. Subclavicular muscle
B. * Skin on the major pectoralis and deltoideus muscle
C. Skin of supraclavicular region
D. Deltoideus muscle
E. Subscapular muscle
1514.
What structures of the nervous system refer to the peripheral department
of the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Cervical and brachial plexus.
B. * Right and let sympathetic trunks, intermediate neuroganglions, white
and grey connecting branches.
C. Lumbar and sacral plexus, spinal nerves, spinal ganglions.
D. Vagus nerve, radix of spinal cord, cervical sympathetic ganglions.
E. Nucleus of lateral horns of spinal cord of С8 – L2.
1515.
What terminal branches are the external carotid artery divided on?
A. * Superficial temporal, maxillary arteries.
B. Superficial temporal, facial arteries.
C. Facial, maxillary arteries.
D. Facial, lingual arteryies.
E. Lingual, occipital arteries
1516.
Where do skin branches of cervical plexus appear on the neck?
A. In the area of intermediate tendon of omohyoid muscle.
B. In lower third of anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle.
C. * On the middle of posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle.
D. In a supraclavicular fossula, near the inferior belly of omohyoid muscle.
E. On the middle of length of common carotid artery.
1517.
Where is a cervical loop disposed.
A. Between a common carotid artery and internal jugular vein.
B. * On the anterior surface of common carotid artery.
C. Between an external carotid artery and internal jugular vein.
D. On the internal jugular vein.
E. On the external jugular vein.
1518.
Where is a cervical plexus disposed?
A. At the level of four superior cervical vertebrae between anterior and
middle scalene muscles.
B. At the level of four inferior cervical vertebrae before prevertebral
muscles.
C. * At the level of four superior cervical vertebrae on the anterior-lateral
surface of deep cervical muscles.
D. Under a skin in the lateral cervical triangle.
E. Under a omohyoid muscle, in a omo-clavicular triangle.
1519.
Where is a vagus nerve located in the middle cervical department?
A. Between a common carotid artery and ansa cervicalis.
B. * Between a common carotid artery and internal jugular vein.
C. Between an internal jugular vein and internal carotid artery.
D. Between a brachiocephalic trunk and internal jugular vein.
E. Between an external jugular vein and external carotid artery.
1520.
?Which cranial nerve governs senses aortic blood pressure?
A. facial nerve
B. * vagus
C. accessory
D. trigeminal nerve
E. glossopharyngeus nerve
1521.
Which cranial nerve has a ambiguus nucleus within rhomboid fossa?
A. trigeminal nerve
B. * vagus nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. optic nerve
1522.
Which cranial nerve has a dorsal (parasympathetic) nucleus within
rhomboid fossa?
A. trigeminal nerve
B. * vagus nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory nerve
1523.
Which cranial nerve has a solitarius tract nucleus within rhomboid fossa?
A. trigeminal nerve
B. * vagus nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. hypoglossal nerve
E. accessory nerve
1524.
Which cranial nerve slows heart rate?
A. * vagus nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory nerve
1525.
Which cranial nerve stimulates digestive organs?
A. * vagus nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory nerve
1526.
With what veins make anastomouses vena facialis?
A. Tongue
B. * Ophthalmic fossae
C. Laryngeal
D. Pharyngeal
E. Transvers veins of the neck
1527.
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1528.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1529.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1530.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1531.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1532.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1533.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1534.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1535.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1536.
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
* none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
moving the eyeball aut
* moving the eyeball in
tears secretion
none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
* none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
* contraction of ciliaris muscle
moving the eyeball down and aut
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
moving the eyeball aut
closure the eyes
tears secretion
* none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
* contraction of sphincter pupillae muscle
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
* none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
* lifting the upper eyelid
tears secretion
none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
* none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1537.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1538.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1539.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1540.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1541.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1542.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1543.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1544.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1545.
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
* moving the eyeball up
tears secretion
none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
* none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
* moving the eyeball down
none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
* none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
* moving the eyeball up and aut
tears secretion
none of these
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
lifting the upper eyelid
* moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
* moving the eyeball up
tears secretion
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
* moving the eyeball down
tears secretion
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
* contraction of sphincter pupillae muscle
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* contraction of ciliaris muscle
moving the eyeball down and aut
closure the eyes
moving the eyeball aut
tears secretion
1546.
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball down and aut
B. closure the eyes
C. moving the eyeball aut
D. * moving the eyeball in
E. tears secretion
1547.
A lesion of the oculomotor nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball down and aut
B. closure the eyes
C. moving the eyeball aut
D. * moving the eyeball up and aut
E. tears secretion
1548.
A lesion of the trochlear nerve would result in weakness in moving the
eyeball:
A. up
B. in and up
C. down and in
D. up and out
E. * none of these
1549.
A lesion of the trochlear nerve would result in weakness in moving the
eyeball:
A. down
B. up
C. in and up
D. * down and out
E. up and out
1550.
What does give off anterior choroidal arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
1551.
What does give off anterior cerebral artery?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
1552.
What does give off middle cerebral artery?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
1553.
What does give off posterior communicating arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
1554.
1555.
1556.
1557.
1558.
1559.
1560.
1561.
1562.
E. basillar artery
What does pass in carotid triangle?
A. * cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. petrosus portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. vertebral artery
E. none of these
What does pass through carotid canal?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. * petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does pass through optic canal?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. cerebral portion of internal carotid artery
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. none of these
What does pass through optic canal?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. petrosus portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * central retinal artery
E. none of these
What does pass through pyramid of temporal bone?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. * petrosus portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does send dorsal nasal arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does send lacrimal arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does send off anterior ciliary arteries?
A. middle cerebral artery
B. * ophthalmic artery
C. basillar artery
D. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
E. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
What does send off central retinal arteries?
A. middle cerebral artery
B. * ophthalmic artery
C. basillar artery
D. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
E. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
What does send off hypophysial arteries?
A. middle cerebral artery
B. * cavernous portion of internal carotid artery
C. basillar artery
D. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
E. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
1564.
What does send supraorbital arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
1565.
What does send supratrochlear artery?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
1566.
Which cranial nerve carries impulses to the ciliary ganglion?
A. trochlear nerve
B. * oculomotor nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. optic nerve
1567.
Which cranial nerve governs eyelid and eyeball movement?
A. trochlear nerve
B. * oculomotor nerve
C. abducens nerve
D. facial nerve
E. optic nerve
1568.
Which cranial nerve governs smell?
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. * olfactory nerve
D. facial nerve
E. optic nerve
1569.
Which cranial nerve innervates four of the six extraocular muscles
(medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique)?
A. cranial nerve II
B. * cranial nerve III
C. cranial nerve IV
D. cranial nerve V
E. cranial nerve VI
1570.
Which cranial nerve turns eye downward and laterally?
A. * trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. abducens nerve
D. facial nerve
E. optic nerve
1571.
Which cranial nerve turns eye laterally?
A. oculomotor nerve
B. trochlear nerve
C. optic nerve
1563.
1572.
1573.
1574.
1575.
1576.
1577.
1578.
1579.
1580.
D. * abducens
E. frontal
Which nerves contain postganglionic fibres to the eyeball?
A. parasympathetic root
B. sympathetic root
C. lacrimal nerve
D. long ciliary nerve
E. * short ciliary nerve
Which nerves contain preganglionic fibres to the ciliary ganglion?
A. * parasympathetic root
B. sympathetic root
C. lacrimal nerve
D. long ciliary nerve
E. short ciliary nerve
Which nerves contain preganglionic fibres to the ciliary ganglion?
A. * oculomotor nerve
B. ophtalmic nerve
C. lacrimal nerve
D. long ciliary nerve
E. short ciliary nerve
Which nerves innervate ciliary muscle?
A. parasympathetic root
B. sympathetic root
C. lacrimal nerve
D. long ciliary nerve
E. * short ciliary nerve
Which nerves innervate sphincter pupillae muscle?
A. * short ciliary nerve
B. long ciliary nerve
C. sensory root
D. sympathetic root
E. lacrimal nerve
Which of the following is FALSE with regards to the optic nerve?
A. it travels through the middle cranial fossa
B. it is surrounded by CSF
C. is the ONLY cranial nerve surrounded by cranial meninges
D. is responsible for sight
E. * none of these
Which of the following is FALSE with regards to the optic nerve?
A. * it travels through the posterior cranial fossa
B. it is surrounded by CSF
C. is the ONLY cranial nerve surrounded by cranial meninges
D. is responsible for sight
E. it joins the optic chiasma
Which of the following statements about the ciliary ganglion is true?
A. it innervates inferior rectus muscle
B. it innervates levator palpebrae superioris muscle
C. it innervates superior rectus muscle
D. * it innervates ciliary muscle
E. it innervates dilatator pupillae muscle
Which of the following statements about the ciliary ganglion is true?
A. it innervates inferior rectus muscle
B. * it innervates smooth muscles of the eyeball
C. it innervates levator palpebrae superioris muscle
1581.
1582.
1583.
1584.
1585.
1586.
1587.
1588.
1589.
D. it innervates superior rectus muscle
E. it innervates dilatator pupillae muscle
Which of the following statements about the ciliary ganglion is true?
A. it is a sympathetic ganglion
B. * it is a parasympathetic ganglion
C. it is a sensory ganglion
D. it is located in the neck
E. it is located in the pterygopalatine fossa
Which of the following statements about the ciliary ganglion is true?
A. it is a sympathetic ganglion
B. it is a sensory ganglion
C. it is located in the neck
D. it is located in the pterygopalatine fossa
E. * none of these
Which of the following statements about the ciliary ganglion is true?
A. it is a sympathetic ganglion
B. it is a sensory ganglion
C. it is located in the neck
D. * it is located in the orbit
E. it is located in the pterygopalatine fossa
Which of the following statements about the ciliary ganglion is true?
A. it innervates inferior rectus muscle
B. it innervates levator palpebrae superioris muscle
C. it innervates superior rectus muscle
D. * it innervates sphincter pupillae muscle
E. it innervates dilatator pupillae muscle
Which of the following statements about the ciliary ganglion is true?
A. it is a parasympathetic ganglion
B. it is located in the orbit
C. it innervates sphincter pupillae muscle
D. it innervates ciliary muscle
E. * all of above
Which part of internal carotid artery sends anterior ethmoidal arteries?
A. cervical portion
B. petrous portion
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. cerebral portion
Which part of internal carotid artery sends posterior ethmoidal arteries?
A. cervical portion
B. petrous portion
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. cerebral portion
Which part of internal carotid artery sends posterior ethmoidal arteries?
A. cervical portion
B. petrous portion
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. cerebral portion
Which vessel gives off anterior cerebral artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
1590.
1591.
1592.
1593.
1594.
1595.
1596.
1597.
1598.
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off caroticotympanic artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off middle cerebral artery?
A. middle meningeal artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off ophtalmic artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off many braches to form Willis circle artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off posterior communicating artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. inferior tympanic artery
E. * internal carotid artery
Which vessel supplies frontal and temporal lobes of hemispheres?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel supplies frontal lobes of hemispheres?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel supplies pituatary gland?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
A lesion of the ansa cervicalis nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of platysma
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
1599.
1600.
1601.
1602.
1603.
1604.
1605.
1606.
1607.
D. * contraction of infrahyoid muscles
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of zygomatic muscles
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of orbicularis oculi muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. * contraction of mentalis muscle
B. contraction of masseter muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of platysma muscle
C. compression the teeth
1608.
1609.
1610.
1611.
1612.
1613.
1614.
1615.
1616.
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. * contraction of epicranius muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. * contraction of auricular muscles
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. * closure the mouth
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * none of these
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * compression of the lips
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
1617.
1618.
1619.
1620.
1621.
1622.
1623.
1624.
1625.
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * contraction of stapedius muscle
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of stylohyoid muscle
C. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of depressor anguli oris muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of depressor labii inferioris muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of buccinator muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * closure the eyes
C. lifting the upper eyelid
1626.
1627.
1628.
1629.
1630.
1631.
1632.
1633.
1634.
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * closure the mouth
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * compression of the lips
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * tears secretion
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * contraction of stapedius muscle
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of stylohyoid muscle
C. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of buccinator muscle
C. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of zygomatic muscles
C. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of orbicularis oculi muscle
C. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
1635.
1636.
1637.
1638.
1639.
1640.
1641.
1642.
1643.
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. * contraction of mentalis muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. * contraction of platysma muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * contraction of epicranius muscle
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. * contraction of auricular muscles
C. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. compression the teeth
D. * contraction of depressor labii inferioris muscle
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of masseter muscle
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. * contraction of depressor anguli oris muscle
D. compression the teeth
E. protruding the mandible
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * closure the eyes
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. compression the teeth
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
1644.
1645.
1646.
1647.
1648.
1649.
1650.
1651.
1652.
D. * contraction of vertical muscle
E. none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of transverse muscle
E. none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
D. * contraction of inferior longitudinal muscle
E. none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of platysma
C. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
D. * contraction of tongue muscles
E. none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. * contraction of superior longitudinal muscle
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of infrahyoid muscles
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. * contraction of geniohyoid muscle
D. contraction of platysma
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
1653.
1654.
1655.
1656.
1657.
1658.
1659.
1660.
1661.
D. * contraction of superior longitudinal muscle
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of vertical muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of transverse muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. * contraction of inferior longitudinal muscle
B. contraction of buccinator muscle
C. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. contraction of platysma
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. closure the eyes
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. * compression the teeth
E. contraction of tongue
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. * none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of masseter muscle
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. * contraction of tensor veli palatini muscle
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. * none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. * contraction of mylohyoid muscle
1662.
1663.
1664.
1665.
1666.
1667.
1668.
1669.
1670.
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of lateral pterygoid muscle
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of tongue muscles
D. * contraction of medial pterygoid muscle
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. * contraction of temporal muscle
C. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. * contraction of tensor tympani muscle
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. closure the eyes
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. * compression the teeth
D. contraction of tongue
E. none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. closure the eyes
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. contraction of tongue
E. * none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of masseter muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of lateral pterygoid muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. * contraction of medial pterygoid muscle
1671.
1672.
1673.
1674.
1675.
1676.
1677.
1678.
1679.
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. contraction of platysma
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of platysma
C. * contraction of temporal muscle
D. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of tensor tympani muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of tensor veli palatini muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. * none of these
Lesser Palatine Nerves and Vessels pass through
A. Posterior Nasal Spine
B. Palatine Crest
C. * Lesser Palatine Foramen
D. Sphenopalatine Foramen
E. Incissive Fossa
Regarding the hypoglossal nerve
A. arises from the floor the third ventricle
B. is the taste nerve of the tongue
C. supplies the submandibular salivary gland
D. supplies the sublingual salivary gland
E. * none of these
Regarding the hypoglossal nerve
A. arises from the floor the 3rd ventricle
B. is the taste nerve of the tongue
C. * supplies all the sternohyoid muscle
D. supplies the stylohyoid muscle
E. supplies the sublingual salivary gland
Regarding the hypoglossal nerve
A. arises from the floor the 3rd ventricle
B. is the taste nerve of the tongue
C. * supplies all the muscles of the tongue
1680.
1681.
1682.
1683.
1684.
1685.
1686.
1687.
1688.
D. supplies the stylohyoid muscle
E. supplies the sublingual salivary gland
The Inferior Alveolar Nerve and Vessels are contents of
A. Infraorbital Canal
B. Palatine Foramen
C. Angle of Mandible
D. Mandibular Notch
E. * None of these
The Inferior Alveolar Nerve and Vessels are contents of
A. * Mandibular Canal
B. Mental Foramen
C. Angle of Mandible
D. Mandibular Notch
E. None of these
Which cranial nerve carries impulses to the pterygopalatine ganglion?
A. * facial nerve
B. trochlear nerve
C. trigeminal nerve
D. vestibulocochlear nerve
E. optic nerve
Which cranial nerve carries impulses to the sublingual ganglion?
A. trochlear nerve
B. * facial nerve
C. oculomotor nerve
D. vestibulocochlear nerve
E. optic nerve
Which cranial nerve carries impulses to the submandibular ganglion?
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. * facial nerve
E. optic nerve
Which cranial nerve controls facial expressions?
A. trochlear nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. * facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve controls sternocleidomastoid?
A. vagus
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. * accessory nerve
Which cranial nerve governs chewing?
A. trochlear nerve
B. * trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve governs face & mouth touch & pain?
A. * trigeminal nerve
B. trochlear nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
1689.
1690.
1691.
1692.
1693.
1694.
1695.
1696.
1697.
D. facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve governs secretion of tears & saliva ?
A. trochlear nerve
B. * facial nerve
C. trigeminal nerve
D. vestibulocochlear nerve
E. optic nerve
1. Which of the nerves is the branch of tympanic plexus?
A. R. tubarius;
B. N. petrosus major;
C. R. sinus carotici;
D. Rr. pharyngei;
E. Rr. tonsillares.
A lesion of the ansa cervicalis nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of platysma
B. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. * contraction of infrahyoid muscles
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. * closure the eyes
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. compression the teeth
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. * closure the mouth
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. none of these
A lesion of the facial nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. compression the teeth
D. protruding the mandible
E. * none of these
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
1698.
1699.
1700.
1701.
1702.
1703.
1704.
1705.
1706.
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of superior longitudinal muscle
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of vertical muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of transverse muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. * contraction of inferior longitudinal muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. * contraction of geniohyoid muscle
C. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. contraction of platysma
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the hypoglossus nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. * contraction of infrahyoid muscles
C. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. contraction of platysma
E. contraction of mylohyoid muscle
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of masseter muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of lateral pterygoid muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. * contraction of medial pterygoid muscle
1707.
1708.
1709.
1710.
1711.
1712.
1713.
1714.
1715.
D. contraction of tongue muscles
E. contraction of platysma
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of platysma
C. * contraction of temporal muscle
D. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of tensor tympani muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of tensor veli palatini muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. contraction of buccinator muscle
B. contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. contraction of platysma
D. * contraction of mylohyoid muscle
E. contraction of tongue muscles
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. moving the eyeball
B. closure the eyes
C. lifting the upper eyelid
D. contraction of tongue
E. * none of these
A lesion of the trigeminal nerve would result in weakness in
A. closure the eyes
B. lifting the upper eyelid
C. * compression the teeth
D. contraction of tongue
E. none of these
facial nerve
A. * vagus
B. accessory
C. trigeminal nerve
D. glossopharyngeus nerve
E. vestibulocochlear nerve
Lesser Palatine Nerves and Vessels pass through
A. Posterior Nasal Spine
B. Palatine Crest
C. * Lesser Palatine Foramen*
D. Sphenopalatine Foramen
E. Incissive Fossa
Regarding the hypoglossal nerve
A. arises from the floor the 3rd ventricle
B. is the taste nerve of the tongue
C. * supplies all the muscles of the tongue
1716.
1717.
1718.
1719.
1720.
1721.
1722.
1723.
1724.
D. supplies the stylohyoid muscle
E. supplies the sublingual salivary gland
Regarding the hypoglossal nerve
A. arises from the floor the 3rd ventricle
B. is the taste nerve of the tongue
C. * supplies all the sternohyoid muscle
D. supplies the stylohyoid muscle
E. supplies the sublingual salivary gland
Regarding the hypoglossal nerve
A. arises from the floor the third ventricle
B. is the taste nerve of the tongue
C. supplies the submandibular salivary gland
D. supplies the sublingual salivary gland
E. * none of these
The Inferior Alveolar Nerve and Vessels are contents of
A. * Mandibular canal
B. Mental Foramen
C. Angle of Mandible
D. Mandibular Notch
E. None of these
The Inferior Alveolar Nerve and Vessels are contents of
A. Infraorbital Canal
B. Palatine Foramen
C. Angle of Mandible
D. Mandibular Notch
E. * None of these
What does give off anterior choroidal arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does give off anterior cerebral artery?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does give off middle cerebral artery?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does give off posterior communicating arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. * cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does pass in carotid triangle?
A. * cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. petrosus portion portion of internal carotid artery
1725.
1726.
1727.
1728.
1729.
1730.
1731.
1732.
1733.
D. vertebral artery
E. none of these
What does pass in carotid triangle?
A. subclavian artery
B. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. petrosus portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. vertebral artery
E. * none of these
What does pass through carotid canal?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. * petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does pass through optic canal?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. cerebral portion of internal carotid artery
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. none of these
What does pass through optic canal?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. petrosus portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * central retinal artery
E. none of these
What does pass through optic canal?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. petrosus portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. external carotid artery
E. * none of these
What does pass through pyramid of temporal bone?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. * petrosus portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion of internal carotid artery
D. ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does send dorsal nasal arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does send lacrimal arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does send off anterior ciliary arteries?
A. middle cerebral artery
B. * ophthalmic artery
C. basillar artery
1734.
1735.
1736.
1737.
1738.
1739.
1740.
1741.
1742.
D. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
E. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
What does send off central retinal arteries?
A. middle cerebral artery
B. * ophthalmic artery
C. basillar artery
D. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
E. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
What does send off hypophysial arteries?
A. middle cerebral artery
B. * cavernous portion of internal carotid artery
C. basillar artery
D. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
E. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
What does send supraorbital arteries?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
What does send supratrochlear artery?
A. cervical portion of internal carotid artery
B. petrous portion portion of internal carotid artery
C. cerebral portion portion of internal carotid artery
D. * ophthalmic artery
E. basillar artery
Which cranial nerve carries impulses to the pterygopalatine ganglion?
A. trochlear nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. * facial nerve
E. optic nerve
Which cranial nerve carries impulses to the sublingual ganglion?
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. * facial nerve
E. optic nerve
Which cranial nerve carries impulses to the submandibular ganglion?
A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. * facial nerve
E. optic nerve
Which cranial nerve controls facial expressions?
A. trochlear nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. * facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve controls sternocleidomastoid?
A. vagus
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
1743.
1744.
1745.
1746.
1747.
1748.
1749.
1750.
1751.
D. facial nerve
E. * accessory nerve
Which cranial nerve exits the skull base at the jugular foramen?
A. cranial nerve VIII
B. * cranial nerve IX
C. cranial nerve XII
D. cranial nerve VII
E. cranial nerve VI
Which cranial nerve exits the skull base at the jugular foramen?
A. cranial nerve V
B. cranial nerve XII
C. cranial nerve VII
D. cranial nerve VI
E. * none of above
Which cranial nerve governs chewing?
A. trochlear nerve
B. * trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve governs equillibrium sensation?
A. trochlear nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. * vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve governs face & mouth touch & pain?
A. trochlear nerve
B. * trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve governs hearing sensation?
A. trochlear nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. * vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory
Which cranial nerve governs secretion of tears & saliva ?
A. trochlear nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. * facial nerve
E. optic nerve
Which cranial nerve governs taste?
A. CN1 and CN7
B. * CN7 and CN9
C. CN5 and CN7
D. CN5 and CN12
E. CN9 and CN12
Which cranial nerve slows heart rate?
A. * vagus nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
1752.
1753.
1754.
1755.
1756.
1757.
1758.
1759.
1760.
D. facial nerve
E. accessory nerve
Which cranial nerve stimulates digestive organs?
A. * vagus nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. vestibulocochlear nerve
D. facial nerve
E. accessory nerve
Which part of internal carotid artery sends anterior ethmoidal arteries?
A. cervical portion
B. petrous portion
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. cerebral portion
Which part of internal carotid artery sends posterior ethmoidal arteries?
A. cervical portion
B. petrous portion
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. cerebral portion
Which part of internal carotid artery sends posterior ethmoidal arteries?
A. cervical portion
B. petrous portion
C. * ophthalmic artery
D. basillar artery
E. cerebral portion
Which vessel gives off anterior cerebral artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off caroticotympanic artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off middle cerebral artery?
A. middle meningeal artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off ophtalmic artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off many braches to form Willis circle artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
1761.
1762.
1763.
1764.
D. internal carotid artery
E. * inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel gives off posterior communicating artery?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. inferior tympanic artery
E. * internal carotid artery
Which vessel supplies frontal lobes of hemispheres?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. internal carotid artery
E. * inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel supplies frontal nand temporal lobes of hemispheres?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
Which vessel supplies pituatary gland?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. external carotid artery
C. anterior tympanic artery
D. * internal carotid artery
E. inferior tympanic artery
1765.
Which paired cranial nerve being tested as you visually follow a
physician’s finger that is brought close to your nose, causing you to become
cross-eyed?
A. Abducens
B. Trochlear
C. Optic
D. Ophtalmic
E. *Oculomotor
1766.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of following IS NOT result of sympathetic nerve stimulation?
Constriction of blood vessels in the skin
Dilation of bronchioles
An increase in the heart rate
An increase in arterial pressure
*Dilation of blood vessels in the gastrointestinal tract
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The principal connection between the cerebral hemispheres is
The pons
The thalamus
The central sulcus
The fornix
*The corpus callosum
1767.
1768.
Where does a submandibular salivary gland get secretory innervation
from?
A. From the motor nucleus of facial nerve through a parotid ganglion and
from it to the salivary gland.
B. From the sensory nucleus of facial nerve, on chorda tympani to the
submandibular ganglion and from it to the salivary gland.
C. From the submandibular ganglion in composition the fibres of the IX pair
to submandibular salivary gland.
D. From the inferior cervical ganglion of sympathetic trunk to the
postganglionic fibres.
E. *From the superior salivatory nucleus of facial nerve on chorda tympani
to the submandibular ganglion and from it to the salivary gland.
1769.
What nerve does carry out sensible innervation of submandibular salivary
gland?
A. Auriculotemporal branches of mandibular nerve.
B. Buccal branches of mandibular nerve.
C. Mylohyoid branches of mandibular nerve.
D. Chorda tympani.
E. *Lingual branches of mandibular nerve.
1770.
Specify localization of neurons of sympathetic innervation of eyeball
Cells of frontal horns of two superior cervical segments, ciliary ganglion.
Cells of frontal horns of superior cervical segment.
Nucleus of III pair of Cranial nerves.
Cells of posterior horns of two superior cervical segments, ciliary
ganglion.
E. *Cells of lateral horns inferior cervical and two superior thoracic
segments of spinal cord, neurons of superior cervical sympathetic
ganglion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1771.
Specify localization of neurons of descending parasympathetic
innervation of eyeball (reflexes of accommodation and pupilla ).
A. Motor nucleus of III pair of cranial nerves.
B. Mesencephalic tract of trigeminal nerve, motor nucleus of trigeminal
nerve.
C. Motor nucleuses of IV and VI pairs of cranial nerves.
D. Vegetative nucleus of VІІ pair of cranial nerve, pterygopalatine ganglion.
E. *Accessory nucleus of III pair of cranial nerve, ciliary ganglion
1772.
What is present peripheral part of the parasympathetic nervous system in
cranial department?
A. By sensible cranial nerves, their ganglions and postganglionic fibres.By
spinal ganglions and frontal branches of spinal nerves.
B. By spinal ganglions and connecting branches of spinal nerves.
C. By the preganglionic fibres of some cranial nerves, intramural ganglions
and postganglionic fibres.
D. *By the preganglionic fibres of some cranial nerves, terminal ganglions
near the organs and postganglionic fibres.
1773.
What amount of ganglions the cervical department of sympathetic trunk
have and how they are named?
A. Four - superior, intermediate, middle, inferior.
B. Three - superior, frontal-superior, frontal-posterior.
C. Two- superior, inferior.
D. Four - 2 superior, 2 inferior.
E. *Three - superior, middle, inferior.
1774.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1775.
Specify vessels which common carotid arteries begin from.
From an ascending aorta.
From a descending aorta.
Left - from a brachiocephalic trunk, right - from the arch of aorta.
Right and left - from a brachiocephalic trunk.
*Rights - from a brachiocephalic trunk, left - from the arch of aorta.
Specify the topography of common carotid artery.
A. Medial is an internal jugular vein, vagus nerve, lateral - trachea,
oesophagus, larynx, thyroid gland.
B. Posterior - internal jugular vein, vagus nerve, anterior - larynx, trachea,
oesophagus, thyroid gland.
C. Anterior- internal jugular vein, vagus nerve, posterior- larynx, trachea,
oesophagus, thyroid gland.
D. From above - internal jugular vein, vagus nerve, posterior- larynx,
trachea, oesophagus, thyroid gland.
E. *Lateral is an internal jugular vein, vagus nerve, medial - trachea,
oesophagus, larynx, thyroid gland
1776.
What level is dividing of common carotid on internal and external carotid
arteries?
A. At the level of lower edge of thyroid cartilage.
B. At level of cricoid cartilage.
C. At level of angle of mandible.
D. At the level of carotid tubercle of the VI cervical vertebra.
E. *At the level of upper edge of thyroid cartilage.
1777.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What terminal branches are the external carotid artery divided on?
Superficial temporal, facial arteries.
Facial, maxillary arteries.
Facial, lingual arteryies.
Lingual, occipital arteries.
*Superficial temporal, maxillary arteries.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Count the branches of anterior group of external carotid artery.
Superior thyroid, lingual, ascending pharyngeal arteries.
Facial, ascending pharyngeal, maxillary arteries.
Lingual, facial, maxillary arteries.
Facial, lingual, superficial temporal arteries.
*Superior thyroid, lingual.
1778.
1779.
Name the place of break away of lingual artery from an external carotid
artery.
A. From the beginning of external carotid artery.
B. At the upper edge of thyroid gland.
C. At level of corner of mandible.
D. Above the upper edge of post belly of digastric muscle.
E. *At the level of large horn of hyoid.
1780.
Name the place of break away of facial artery from an external carotid
artery.
A. At the level of upper edge of thyroid cartilage.
B. At the upper pole of thyroid gland.
C. At the level of large horn of hyoid.
D. Above the upper edge of post belly of digastric muscle.
E. *At level of corner of mandible.
1781.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1782.
What does occipital artery supply?
Thyroid and parathyroid glands, skin of the back of head, auricle.
Omohyoid muscle, auricle, skin of the back of head.
Dura mater of middle cranial fossa, auricle.
Auricle, muscles of auricle, parotid gland, acoustic duct.
*Skin of the back of head, sternocleidomastoid muscle, auricle, dura
mater of posterior cranial fossa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name anatomic forms, what posterior auricularis artery supplies.
Auricle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, parotid gland.
Skin and muscles of the back of head, parotid gland, temporal muscle.
Dura mater of posterior cranial fossa, digastric muscle.
Temporal muscle and skin above it, stylohyoid muscle.
*Skin of auricle and back of head, thympanic cavity.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name topographical form which a lingual artery passes in.
Carotid triangle.
Interscalene space.
Omotrapezoid triangle.
Interaponevrotical space.
*Triangle of Pirogov.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name a place, where we can press facial artery and define its pulsation.
Carotid triangle.
Submandibular triangle.
Branch of mandible, behind the edge of masseter muscle.
Corner of mouth.
*Basis of body of mandible, front of masseter muscle.
1783.
1784.
1785.
Name branches through which the external and internal carotid arteries
anastomoses.
A. Deep lingual artery and dorsal braches.
B. Palatine artery and ascending pharyngeal artery.
C. Artery of upper lip and buccal arteries.
D. Artery of lower lip and mental artery.
E. *Angular artery and dorsal nasi artery.
1786.
Name the branches of the first (mandibular) department of maxillary
artery.
A. Deep auricle, anterior thympanic, masseteric, superior alveolar arteries.
B. Deep auricle, inferior alveolar, buccal arteries.
C. Superior alveolar, infraorbital, sphenopalatine arteries.
D. Posterior superior alveolar arteries, infraorbitale, buccal arteries.
E. *Anterior thympanic, middle meningeal, inferior alveolar arteries.
1787.
Name the branches of the second department of maxillary artery.
A. Masseteric, inferior alveolar, deep temporal, pterygoid, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar arteries.
B. Masseteric, inferior alveolar, sphenopalatine, pterygoid, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar.
C. Masseteric, deep temporal, sphenopalatine, pterygoid, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar.
D. Masseteric, posterior superior alveolar infraorbitale, buccal arteries.
E. *Masseteric, deep temporal, pterygoid branches, buccal, posterior
superior alveolar arteries.
1788.
Name the branches of the third (pterygopalatine) department of maxillary
artery.
A. Infraorbital, sphenopalatine, ascending palatine, pterygoid arteries.
B. Infraorbital, descending palatine, sphenopalatine, inferior alveolar
arteries.
C. Infraorbital, pterygoid, posterior superior alveolar, superficial temporal
arteries.
D. Infraorbital, descending palatine, superficial temporal, pterygoid arteries.
E. *Infraorbital, descending palatine, sphenopalatine, posterior superior
alveolar arteries.
1789.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1790.
Name the branches of superficial temporal artery.
Occipitalposterior, posterior auricle arteries.
Ascending and descending oesophageal arteries.
Posterior anterior thympanic arteries.
Sternocleidomastoid and descending oesophageal arteries.
*Frontal, parietal arteries.
Name anatomic structures, what superficial temporal artery supply.
A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle and skin above it, trapezius muscle.
B. Auditory tube, thympanic cavity, external acoustic meatus, auricle,
masseter muscle, parotid gland.
C. Back surface of auricle, skin and muscles of the back of head,
submandibular gland, superior and inferior eyelids.
D. Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, submandibular gland,
external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
E. *Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, parotid salivary gland,
auricle, external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
1791.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name an artery, that supplies the teeth of mandible.
Lingual.
Facial.
Ascending oesophageal.
Sphenopalatine.
*Inferior alveolar.
1792.
Name the branches of internal carotid artery, which depart in the carotid
channel of temporal bone
A. Deep auricle artery.
B. Anterior tympanic artery.
C. Anterior ethmoidal artery.
D. Anterior cerebral arteries.
E. *Carotid-tympanic arteries.
1793.
What artery does get to the visual nerve and crutches in the retina of
eye?
A. Ciliary artery.
B. Medial palpebra artery.
C. Lateral palpebral artery.
D. Supraorbital artery.
E. *Central artery of retina.
1794.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What formations of brain supply anterior cerebral artery?
Superior-lateral surface of hemispheres of brain.
Anterior surface of cerebellum, cerebral peduncles, qudrigeminal plate.
Medial surface of occipital particle, medulla oblongata.
Insula, temporal particle, trunk of brain.
*Medial surface of frontal and parietal particles, corpus callosum.
1795.
What branch of internal carotid artery does form an anastomosis with the
branches of vertebral artery?
A. Anterior cerebral artery.
B. Anterior connecting artery.
C. Arachnoid artery.
D. Ophtalmic artery.
E. *Posterior connecting artery.
1796.
What structures of the nervous system refer to the peripheral department
of the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Cervical and brachial plexus.
B. Lumbar and sacral plexus, spinal nerves, spinal ganglions.
C. Vagus nerve, radix of spinal cord, cervical sympathetic ganglions.
D. Nucleus of lateral horns of spinal cord of С8 - L2.
E. *Right and let sympathetic trunks, intermediate neuroganglions, white
and grey connecting branches.
1797.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1798.
Where is a cervical plexus disposed?
A. At the level of four superior cervical vertebrae between anterior and
middle scalene muscles.
B. At the level of four inferior cervical vertebrae before prevertebral
muscles.
C. Under a skin in the lateral cervical triangle.
D. Under a omohyoid muscle, in a omo-clavicular triangle.
E. *At the level of four superior cervical vertebrae on the anterior-lateral
surface of deep cervical muscles.
1799.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1800.
What is formed a cervical plexus by?
Eight pair of cervical spinal nerves.
Four superior cervical spinal nerves, occipital nerve, vagus nerve.
Superior cervical spinal nerves, accessory nerve.
Anterior branches of superior cervical spinal nerves, hypoglossal nerve.
*Anterior branches of four superior cervical spinal nerves.
What is the anterior cover of cervical plexus?
Platysma muscle.
Skin.
Omohyoid muscle.
Vascular-nervous cervical bunch.
*Sternocleidomastoid muscle.
What fibres do the nerves of cervical plexus contain of?
A. Only dermical.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1801.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1802.
Name skin nerves of cervical plexus?
Greater occipital nerve, phrenic nerve, supraclavicular nerve, transverse
cervical nerve.
Phrenic nerve, lesser occipital nerve, great auricular nerve, greater
occipital nerve.
Lesser occipital nerve, great auricular nerve, supraclavicular nerve,
greater occipital nerve.
Phrenic nerve, suboccipital nerve, lesser auricular nerve, accessory.
*Lesser occipital nerve, great auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve,
supraclavicular nerve.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where do skin branches of cervical plexus appear on the neck?
In the area of intermediate tendon of omohyoid muscle.
In lower third of anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle.
In a supraclavicular fossula, near the inferior belly of omohyoid muscle.
On the middle of length of common carotid artery.
*On the middle of posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does lesser occipital nerve supply?
Superficial muscles of occipital area.
Skin of medial part of occipital area.
Skin and muscles of auricle.
External acoustic meatus and auditory tube.
*Skin of lateral part of occipital area.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does great auricular nerve supply?
Parotid gland.
Skin and muscles of occipital area.
Recti cervical muscles, muscles of auricle.
Sternocleidomastoid muscle and skin above him.
*Auricle and external acoustic meatus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does the transverse cervical nerve supply?
Platysma muscle.
Muscles of suprahyoid group.
Muscles of infrahyoid group.
Skin of clavicular area and platysma muscle.
*Skin of anterior and lateral cervical surfaces.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supraclavicular nerve supply?
Platysma muscle.
Subclavius muscle.
Skin of subclavicular area, subclavius muscle.
Major pectoralis muscle and skin above it.
*Skin above major pectoralis and deltoid muscles.
1803.
1804.
1805.
1806.
1807.
Only muscle.
Dermical and muscle, parasympathetic.
Only mixed.
*Dermic, muscle and mixed.
What branches do form a cervical loop?
A. Lesser occipital and phrenic nerves.
B. Transverse cervical nerve and upper radix of hypoglossal nerve.
C. Subscapular nerves and lower radix of cervical plexus.
D. Recurrent nerve and lower guttural nerve.
E. *Descending radix of hypoglossal nerve and lower radix of cervical
plexus.
1808.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is a cervical loop disposed.
Between a common carotid artery and internal jugular vein.
Between an external carotid artery and internal jugular vein.
On the internal jugular vein.
On the external jugular vein.
*On the anterior surface of common carotid artery.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What do the branches of cervical loop supply?
Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
Scalene muscles.
Suprahyoid cervical muscles and omohyoid muscle.
Skin and platysma muscle.
*Infrahyoid cervical muscles and geniohyoid muscle.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is function of phrenic nerve?
Sympathetic.
Parasympathetic.
Motor.
sensitive.
*Mixed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What cervical muscle is a phrenic nerve located on?
Sternocleidomastoid.
Sternohyoid.
Levator scapule.
*Anterior scalene.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name forms, between which a phrenic nerve passes in thorax.
Between scalene muscles.
Ahead of subclavian vein.
Behind a subclavian artery.
Behind I rib.
*Between a subclavian artery and vein.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does a phrenic nerve in thorax supply.
Internal and external intercostal muscles.
Heart, lungs, pleura, esophagus.
Bronchus, thymus gland, lymphatic mediastinum ganglions.
Esophagus, diaphragm, thymus gland, muscles of pectoral wall.
*Pericardium, pleura, diaphragm, thymus gland.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the mixed nerve of cervical plexus named?
Vagus
Accessory
Intermediate
Lesser occipital
*Phrenic
1809.
1810.
1811.
1812.
1813.
1814.
1815.
What foramen of skull does an internal jugular vein take beginning from?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Rotundum.
Ovale.
Mastoid.
Lacerum.
*Jugular.
1816.
What position on te neck does occupy internal jugular vein in relation to
the common carotid artery?
A. At the front.
B. Medial.
C. Behind.
D. Beyond
E. *Lateral
1817.
Before confluence what vein is the lower bulge of internal jugular vein
formed with?
A. Superior cava.
B. Brachiocephalic.
C. External jugular
D. Anterior jugular.
E. *Subclavian.
1818.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What venous plexus does anastomose a facial vein with?
Pharyngeal and thyroid.
Vertebral and thyroid.
Lingual and pharyngeal.
Lingual and thyroid.
*Pterygoid and pharyngeal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What veins does anastomose a facial vein with?
Lingual.
Superior thyroid.
Oesophageal.
Transverse cervical veins.
*Vein of orbit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Continuation of what sinuses is an internal jugular vein?
Occipital and straight.
Transverse and occipital.
Superior petrosal and cavernous.
Straight and superior sagittal.
*Sigmoid and inferior petrosal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What sinus does the superior ophthalmic vein fall in?
Superior petrosal.
Inferior sagittal.
Superior sagittal.
Sphenoparietal
*Cavernous.
1819.
1820.
1821.
1822.
What veins do form the jugular venous arc?
A. Anastomosis between internal and anterior jugular veins.
B. Anastomosis between internal and external jugular veins.
C. Anastomosis between external and anterior jugular veins.
D. Anastomosis between internal jugular and middle thyroid veins.
E. *Anastomosis between anterior jugular veins.
1823.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Confluence of what sinuses does a confluence of sinuses appear?
Occipital and transverse, sphenoparietal.
Straight, transverse, superior petrosal, inferior sagittal.
Suigmoid, superior and inferior petrosal, cavernous.
Superior and inferior sagittal, straight, occipital
*Superior sagittal, straight, occipital and transverse.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What sinuses does the middle superficial cerebral vein fall in?
Superior sagittal, transversE.
Straight, occipital.
Transverse, superior petrosal.
Sigmoid, straight.
*Cavernous, sphenoparietal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What sinus does the great cerebral vein fall in ?
Inferior sagittal.
Transverse.
Sigmoid.
Occipital.
*Straight
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How are the XIII pair of cranial nerve named?
Accessory
Oculomotor
Trochlear
Vagus
*Intermediate
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is a body of the second neuron of visual way?
In the superior colliculus of quadrigeminal lamina.
In the inferiof colliculus of quadrigeminal lamina.
In a medial geniculate body.
In a lateralgeniculate body.
*In a retina.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is a body of the third neuron of visual way?
In the superior colliculus of quadrigeminal lamina.
In the inferiof colliculus of quadrigeminal lamina.
In a medial geniculate body.
In a lateralgeniculate body.
*In a retina.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the area of innervation the branches of hypoglossal nerve.
Skeletal muscles of tongue.
Proper muscles of tongue.
Stylohyoid muscle and suprahyoid muscles.
Muscles of tongue and suprahyoid muscles.
*Muscles of tongue, infrahyoid muscle, geniohyoid muscle.
1824.
1825.
1826.
1827.
1828.
1829.
1830.
What topographical formation does the hypoglossal nerve pass in?
A. In the triangle of Pirogov.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In the carotid triangle.
In the omo-trapezius triangle.
In a submental triangle.
*In the submandibular triangle.
1831.
What channel does leave the hypoglossal nerve the cavity of skull
through?
A. Condylar canal.
B. Musculo-tubular canal.
C. Pterygoid canal.
D. Chorda tympani canaliculus.
E. *Hypoglossal canal.
1832.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is the body of the 5th neuron of pupilla reflex placed?
In a medial geniculate body
In a lateral geniculate body
In the superior colliculus of quadrigeminal lamina
In the inferior colliculus of quadrigeminal lamina
*In the accessory oculomotor nucleus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What for functions is the accessory nerve?
sensitive and parasympathetic.
Sensitive.
Sympathetic.
Motor and sensitive.
*Motor.
1833.
1834.
What foramen does the accessory nerve leave the cavity of skull
through?
A. Hypoglossal canal.
B. Lacerum foramen.
C. Spinosum fofamen.
D. Rotundum foramen.
E. *Jugular foramen.
1835.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What do axons of the 6th neuron of pupilla reflex innervate?
Lacrimal apparatus
Tunica of conjunctiva
M. dilatator pupillae
M. rectus superior
*M. sphincter pupillae
1836.
Name the nuclei of accessory nerve and their localization.
A. Motor nucleus in a spinal cord and parasympathetic nucleus in medulla
oblongata.
B. Motor nucleus in pons and sensible nucleus in medulla oblongata.
C. Motor nucleus in medulla oblongata motor nucleus in pons, sensitive
nucleus in pons.
D. Motor, sensitive and parasympathetic nucleus are in a medulla
oblongata.
E. *Motor nucleus in medulla oblongata, motor nucleus in a spinal cord.
1837.
Name the branches of recurrent laryngeal nerve.
A. Tracheal, bronchial, pulmonal.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Superior and inferior laryngeal.
Bronchial, inferior cervical cardiac.
Esophageal, superior cervical cardiac, tracheal.
*Esophageal, tracheal, cardiac.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Specify motion of left recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Rounds from below and behind subclavian artery.
Passes ahead of arc of aorta.
Passes ahead of subclavian artery.
Passes ahead of ascending part of aorta.
*Rounds from below and behind arc of aorta.
1838.
1839.
Specify the place of break out of left recurrent laryngeal nerve from the
vagus nerve.
A. At the level of ascending part of aorta.
B. At the level of left subclavian artery.
C. At the level of superior edge of thyroid gland.
D. At the level of superior aperture of thorax.
E. *At the level of arc of aorta.
1840.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Specify motion of right reccurent laryngeal nerve.
Passes between subclavian artery and vein.
Passes at the front of subclavian artery.
Passes at the front of internal jugular vein.
Rounds from below and behind the arc of aorta.
*Rounds from below and behind subclavian artery.
1841.
Specify the place of break out of right recurrent laryngeal nerve from the
vagus nerve.
A. At the level of lower edge of manubrium of sternum.
B. At the level of brachiocephalic trunk.
C. At the level of upper edge of thyroid gland.
D. At the level of arc of aorta.
E. *At the level of right subclavian artery.
1842.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1843.
What do axons of 6th neuron of accommodation reflex supply?
Apparatus of lacrimalis
Tunica of conjunctiva
M. dilatator pupillae
M. rectus superior
*M. ciliaris
Name, what is form pharyngeal plexus?
A. By the branches of vagus nerve, hypoglossal nerve, glossopharyngeal
nerve.
B. By the branches of vagusnerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, by sympathetic
and parasympathetic branches, hypoglossal nerve.
C. By the branches of vagus nerve, glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal
nerves, parasympathetic branches.
D. By the branches of trigeminal, glossopharyngeal nerves, branches of
cervical department of sympathetic trunk.
E. *By branches of vagus nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, by the branches
of cervical department of sympathetic trunk.
1844.
What structures do pass the aksons of the last neuron of auditory way
through?
A. Through the white matter of extrema capsule
B. Through the white matter of external capsule
C. Through the white matter of anterior crus of internal capsule
D. Through the white matter of genu of internal capsule
E. *Through the white matter of posterior crus of internal capsule
1845.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1846.
Name the branches of cervical part of vagus nerve.
Pharyngeal branches, superior and inferior laryngeal nerves, superior
cervical cardiac branches.
Pharyngeal branches, oesophageal, inferior laryngeal nerve,.
Pharyngeal branches, superior laryngeal nerve, recurrent laryngeal
nerve, inferior cervical cardiac branches.
Pharyngeal branches, tracheal, inferior laryngeal nerve, upper cardiac.
*Pharyngeal branches, superior laryngeal nerve, superior and inferior
cervical cardiac branches.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the area of innervation of meningeal branch of vagus nerve.
Dura mater of middle cranial fossa, walls of superiorpetrosal sinus.
Dura mater of middle and posterior cranial fossas.
Dura mater of anterior cranial fossa, walls of cavernous sinus.
Diaphragm of sella turcica and tentorium cerebelli.
*Dura mater of posterior cranial fossa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the branches of cranial part of vagus nerve.
Meningeal branch, oesophageal branches.
Auricular branch, oesophageal branches.
Auricular branch, lingual branch.
Ophthalmic branch, lingual branch.
*Meningeal branch, auricular branch.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is a vagus nerve located in the middle cervical department?
Between a common carotid artery and ansa cervicalis.
Between an internal jugular vein and internal carotid artery.
Between a brachiocephalic trunk and internal jugular vein.
Between an external jugular vein and external carotid artery.
*Between a common carotid artery and internal jugular vein.
1847.
1848.
1849.
What ganglions do preganglion fibres carry impulses from the
parasympathetic nucleus of vagus nerve?
A. To the preorgans ganglions
B. To the paravertebral ganglions
C. To the spinal ganglions
D. To the prevertebral ganglions
E. *To the intramural ganglions
1850.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Define the scopesof cranial department of vagus nerve.
Between the upper and lower ganglions of vagus nerve.
Between the exit of nerve from the brain and jugular foramen.
Between the exit of nerve from the brain and to bifurcate of common
carotid artery.
Between the exit of nerve from the brain and upper ganglion.
*Between the exit of nerve from the brain and lower ganglions
1851.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1852.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What departments of vagus nerve are?
Cervical, thoracic, abdominal.
Cervical, thoracic, abdominal, pelvic.
Cranial, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum.
Cranial, cervical, thoracic.
*Cranial, cervical, thoracic, abdominal
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What neurons are presented the ganglions of vagus nerve?
By great pyramidal cells.
By less pyramidal cells.
By middle pyramidal cells
By ganliosus cells.
*By pseudounipolar cells
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name ganglions for the step of vagus nerve.
Superior and inferior (parasympatetic ).
Superior (sensible), inferior (parasympatetic ).
Superior (sensible ), inferior (sympatetic).
Superior and inferior (sympatetic).
*Superior and inferior (sensible)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nucleuses of vagus nerve.
Inferior salivatory nucleus, nucleus of solitary tract, ambiguus nucleus.
Ambiguus nucleus, superior salivvatory nucleus, Nucleus of solitary tract
Nucleus of spinal way, ambiguus nucleus, dorsal vagal nucleus.
Mesencephalic nucleus, propria nucleus, dorsal vagal nucleus.
*Nucleus of solitary tract, ambiguus nucleus, dorsal vagal nucleus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What fibres does the vagus nerve contain?
Parasympathetic, sympathetic, sensible.
Sympathetic, parasympathetic, motor.
sensitive, sympathetic.
Only sensible
*Parasympathetic, sensible, motor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What foramen does the vagus nerve abandon the cavity of skull through?
Lacerum.
Hypoglossal canal.
Ovale
Stylomastoid
*Jugular
1853.
1854.
1855.
1856.
1857.
1858.
Define the scopesof cervical department of vagus nerve.
Between the jugular foramen and begin of superior laryngeal nerve.
Between the jugular foramen and begin of superior cervical cardiac
branches.
Between the jugular foramen and begin of oesophageal and lingual
branches.
Between the inferior ganglion and begin of left recurrent laryngeal nerve.
*Between the inferior ganglion and begin of right recurrent laryngeal
nerve.
What plexus do the fibres of vagus nerve go in composition of?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1859.
In composition of inferior mesenteric
In composition of inferior hypogastric
In composition of cervical
In composition of lumbar
*In composition of pharingeal
Name the place of output of vagus nerve on the basis of cerebrum.
A. Between posterior edge of pons and olives.
B. Between the pyramid and olive.
C. From a posterior lateral fissure, behind the output of vestibulocochlear
nerve
D. In pontocerebellar angle.
E. *From a posterior lateral fissure, behind the output of glossopharyngeal
nerve.
1860.
Name the area of innervation the tonsilar branches of glossopharyngeal
nerve.
A. To the mucus of soft palate, to the palatoglossal arch, to the lingual
tonsil.
B. To the mucus of soft palate, to the palatopharyngeal arch, to palatine and
pharyngeal tonsils.
C. To the mucus of uvula, pharyngeal tonsil, tuba tonsils, palatopharyngeal
arch.
D. To the mucus of soft palate, tongue, to the lingual tonsil.
E. *To the mucous of palatine tonsils and arches.
1861.
Name the area of innervation of lingual branches of glossopharyngeal
nerve.
A. sensitive innervation of mucus anterior third of tongue, tasteinnervation of
fungiform papillae.
B. sensitive innervation of mucus inferior surface of tongue, tasteinnervation
of conical papillae.
C. sensitive innervation of apex of tongue, tasteinnervation of the filiform
and fungiform papillae of tongue.
D. Motive innervation language.
E. *sensitive innervation of mucus posterior third of tongue, tasteinnervation
of vallate papillae.*
1862.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1863.
Name the area of motor innervation of glossopharyngeal nerve.
Pharyngeal constrictor muscles
Palatopharyngeus muscle
Palatopharyngeus and stylopharyngeus muscles
Muscles of tongue.
*Stylopharyngeus muscle
Name the branches of glossopharyngeal nerve.
A. Connecting branch with the vagus nerve, caroticotympanic nerves,
branch to palatoglossal and to stylopharyngeus muscles, pharyngeal
branches, sinus branch, tympanic nerve.
B. Connecting branch with the vagus nerve, branch to the pharyngeal
constrictor, branch to palatine tonsils, pharyngeal branches, sinus
branch, tympanic nerve.
C. Connecting branch with a facial nerve, sinus branch, pharyngeal and
lingual branches, branch to the digastric muscle.
D. Tympanic nerve, sinus branch, pharyngeal branches, tonsils branches,
connecting branch with a facial nerve, branches to the tongue muscles.
E. *Tympanic nerve, sinus branch, pharyngeal branches, branch to the
stylopharyngeal muscle, tonsil branches, connecting branch with the
vagus nerve, lingual branches.
1864.
Name direction of motion of fibres of glossopharyngeal nerve.
A. From the nucleus of solitary tract to the superior and inferior ganglions of
nerve; from muscles to the ambiguous nucleus; from the otic ganglion to
the inferior salivatory nucleus.
B. From a parotid gland to the nucleus of solitary tract; from ambiguous
nucleus to the muscles; from to the mucus to the superior and inferior
ganglions.
C. From the superior ganglion to the nucleus of solitary tract; from
ambiguous nucleus to the mucus of pharynx and tongue: from the
nucleus of solitary tract to the parotid gland.
D. From the superior ganglion to the nucleus of solitary tract; from inferior
ganglion to the propria pontis nucleus, from ambiguous nucleus to the
mucus of pharynx and tongue.
E. *From superior and inferior ganglions to the nucleus of solitary tract; from
ambiguous nucleus to the muscle; from the inferior salivatory nucleus to
the otic ganglion
1865.
Name the ganglions of glossopharyngeal nerve.
Superior ganglion (sensible), inferior ganglion (parasympathetic), inferior
cervical (sympathetic).
Superior gangllion (sensible), inferior and hypoglossal ganglions
(parasympathetic).
Superior ganglion (parasympathetic), inferior ganglion (sensible).
Inferior and superior ganglions (sensible), submandibular and sublingual
ganglions (parasympathetic).
*Superior and inferior ganglions (sensible), otic ganglion
(parasympathetic).
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1866.
What area of innervation of parasympathetic fibres of glossopharyngeal
nerve?
A. To the lacrimal gland.
B. To the submandibular and sublingual glands.
C. To the glands of mucus of palatine arches, soft palate.
D. To the glands of mucus of oral and nasal cavities.
E. *To the parotid gland.
1867.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1868.
What area of innervation of motor fibres of glossopharyngeal nerve?
To pharyngeal constrictors.
To the propria muscles of tongue.
To the hyoglossus muscle.
To skeletal muscles of tongue.
*To the stylopharyngeus muscle
What area of innervation of sensible fibres of glossopharyngeal nerve?
A. Mucus shell of pharynx, larynx, posterior third of tongue, tonsils and
palatine arches.
B. Mucus shell of anterior third of tohgue, tonsils and palatine arches.
C. Mucus shell, nasopharynx and posterior third of tongue.
D. Mucus shell of oral, nasal cavities, and posterior third of tongue.
E. *Mucus shell of pharynx, tympanic cavity, mucus shell of posterior third of
tongue, tonsils and palatine arches
1869.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the types of fibres of glossopharyngeal nerve.
Motor, sensible, sympathetic.
Motor and parasympathetic.
sensitive, sympathetic, parasympathetic.
sensitive and motor.
*Motor, sensible, parasympathetic
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The branch of what nerve is a tympanic nerve?
III pair of cranial nerves
V pair of cranial nerves
VII pair of cranial nerves
XI pair of cranial nerves
*IX pair of cranial nerves
1870.
1871.
Name the area of innervation of cervical branch of facial nerve and its
anastomosis.
A. Mylohyoid muscle, with lesser occipital nerve
B. Sternohyoid muscle, with great auricular nerve
C. Platysma muscle, with the supraclavicular nerve.
D. Sternocleidomastoid muscle, with the accessory nerve
E. *Platysma muscle, with the transverse cervical nerve.
1872.
Name the area of innervation the zygomatic branches of facial nerve.
A. Major and minor zygomaticus muscles, buccinator muscle.
B. Major and minor zygomaticus muscles, medial and lateral pterygoid
muscles.
C. major and minor zygomaticus muscles, nasalis muscles, mentalis
muscles.
D. Major zygomaticus, lateral pterygoid muscles, nanalis muscles.
E. *Orbicularis oculi muscle, major and minor zygomaticus musclesmi.
1873.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
. Name the area of innervation the temporal branches of facial nerve.
Levator palpebrae superioris muscle, corrugator supercilii
blepharonmuscle, anterior auricular muscle.
Anterior auricular, lacrimal muscles, frontalbelly of epicranius muscle,
levator palpebrae superioris muscle.
Depressor palpebrae inferioris muscle, lacrimal blephamuscle, occipital
belly of epicranius muscle.
Levator palpebrae superioris muscle supperoir, temporal muscle, anterior
auricular muscle.
*Anterior and superior auricular muscles, frontalbelly of epicranius
muscle, orbicularis oculi muscle
1874.
What branches do break out from a facial nerve immediately for exit from
the stylomastoid foramen?
A. Nerve to stapedius muscle, temporal branches, marginal mandibulae.
B. Chorda tympani, zygomatic and cervical branches.
C. Temporal, pterygoid and cervical branches.
D. Nerve to stapedius muscle, styloglossal nerve, marginal mandibulae
branch.
E. *Posterior auricular nerve, branch to the posterior belly of digastric
muscle, stylohyoid branch
1875.
The defeat of what nucleus does result in violation of function of lacrimal
gland?
A. Submandibular
B. Otic
C. Ciliary
D. Superior cervical
E. *Pterygopalatine
1876.
Name the innervation of chorda tympani.
A. Anterior two third of mucous shell of tongue, mucus shell of palatine,
ciliary ganglion.
B. Anterior two third of mucous shell of tongue, otic ganglion.
C. Posterior third of mucous shell of tongue, pterygopalatine ganglion.
D. Mucous shell of root of tounge, submandibular and sublingual ganglions.
E. *Anterior two third of mucous shell of tongue, submandibular and
sublingual ganglions
1877.
Name, to what parasympathetic ganglion fibres of great petrosal nerve
are preganglionic.
A. Ciliary ganglion.
B. Submandibular ganglion
C. Sublingual ganglion
D. Otic ganglion
E. *Pterygopalatine ganglion
1878.
Specify, what nucleuses of cerebri trunk is behaved to the intermedius
nerve.
A. Inferor salivatory nucleus, nucleus of solitary tract.
B. Superior salivatory nucleus, ambiguus nucleus.
C. Inferor salivatory nucleus, ambiguus nucleus.
D. Nucleus of solitary tract, ambiguus nucleus.
E. *Superior salivatory nucleus, nucleus of solitary tract.
1879.
Name, to what parasympathetic ganglion fibres of chorda tympani are
preganglionic.
A. Ciliary ganglion.
B. Pterygopalatine ganglion.
C. Trigeminal ganglion.
D. Otic ganglion.
E. *Submandiblar ganglion
1880.
What nerves do start from a facial nerve in a facial canal.
A. Deep petrosal, lesser petrosal, nerve to stapedius muscle
B. Lesser petrosal nerve, nerve to stapedius muscle, tympanicus nerve
C. Nerve to stapedius muscle, tympanicus nerve, carotico-tympanicus
nerves.
D. Lesser petrosal nerve, chorda tympani, nerve to stapedius muscle
E. *Great petrosal nerve, chorda tympani, nerve to stapedius muscle
1881.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What fibres does intermedius nerve contain?
Motor, sensible.
Parasympathetic, motor.
Motor, sympathetic
sensitive taste, sympathetic.
*sensitive taste, vegetative
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What function has the intermedius nerve?
Motor.
sensitive
Sympathetic.
Parasympathetic.
*Mixed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What function has the facial nerve (without intermedius nerve)?
Mixed.
sensitive.
Parasympathetic.
Sympathetic.
*Motor.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What nerves do pass through an internal acoustic meatus?
Accessory, intermedius nerves.
Great petrosal, glossopharyngeal nerves.
Lesser petrosal, facial nerves.
Glossopharyngeal, vestibulocochlear nerves.
*Vestibulocochlear, facial nerves
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What department of brain does an olfactory nerve develop from?
From diencephalon
From an isthmus of rhombencephalon
From metencephalon
From medulla oblongata
*From telencephalon.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What function has an olfactory nerve?
Motor.
Mixed
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
*sensitive
1882.
1883.
1884.
1885.
1886.
1887.
What openings do the fibres of olfactory nerve enter through into the
cavity of cranium?
A. Superior and inferior orbital fissures
B. Rotundum and spinosum foramens
C. Ovale and jugular foramens
D. Lacerum and nasale foramens
E. *Through the openings of the cribrosa lamina
1888.
Where are olfactory receptors located?
A. In the mucus of middle nasal meatus.
B. In the mucus of inferior nasal meatus.
C. In mucus of nasal part of pharynx.
D. In mucus of tongue and soft palate.
E. *In the mucus of superior nasal meatus.
1889.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is the first neuron of pathway of olfactory analyzer located?
In the olfactory bulb.
In the olfactory tract.
In the olfactory triangle.
In the anterior perforated substance.
*In the mucus of superior nasal meatus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does behave to peripheral part of olfactory brain?
Olfactory area, olfactory filaments, olfactory tract.
Olfactory bulbs, olfactory tract, posterior perforated substance.
Olfactory area, olfactory filaments, olfactory bulbs, uncus.
Olfactory filaments, olfactory bulbs, olfactory tract, hippocampus.
*Olfactory bulbs, olfactory tract, olfactory triangle.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does behave to central part of olfactory brain?
Olfactory bulb, olfactory tract, olfactory triangle, uncus.
Olfactory triangle, anterior perforated substance, hippocampus, uncus.
Septum pellucidum,fornix, posterior perforated substancE.
Olfactory tract, parahippocampal gyrus, dentate gyrus.
*Cingulate gyrus, uncus, hippocampus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What function has the optic nerve?
Motor.
Mixed.
Sympathetic.
Parasympathetic.
*sensitive.
1890.
1891.
1892.
1893.
Where does a cerebral part of optic nerve start from?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
From telencephalon.
From mesencephalon.
From metencephalon.
From medulla oblongata.
*From diencephalon.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is the body of the IV neuron of visual tract?
In the medial geniculate body
In the superior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina
In the inferior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina
In the optic chiasm
*In the lateral geniculate body
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where are the nucleses of optic nerve in central nervous system?
In pons
In the quadrigeminal lamina
In the rhomboid fossa
In medulla oblongata
*Nucleuses are absent in central nervous system
1894.
1895.
1896.
What opening does the optic nerve enter through into the cranium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Superior orbital fissure
Rotundum foramen
Spinosum foramen
Inferior orbital fissure
*Optic canal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is the body of the IV neuron of pupilla reflex placed?
In a medial geniculate body
In a medial geniculate body
In the inferior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina
In the optic chiasm
*In the superior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina
1897.
1898.
What fibres are present in the right optic tract?
A. By the fibres of right optic nerve.
B. By the fibres of left optic nerve
C. By the lateral bunch of fibres of left and by the medial bunch of fibres of
right optic nerves.
D. By the lateral bunch of fibres of right and by the lateral bunch of fibres of
left optic nerves
E. *By the lateral bunch of fibres of right and by the medial bunch of fibres
of left optic nerves
1899.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is the body of the VI neuron of pupilla reflex placed?
In the medial geniculate body
In the lateral geniculate body
In the superior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina
In the inferior colliculi of guadrigeminal lamina
*In ciliary ganglion
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What function has the oculomotor nerve?
sensitive
Motor
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
*Mixed
1900.
1901.
What opening does the oculomotor nerve pass out throught from the
cavity of cranium?
A. Optic canal
B. Inferior optical fissure
C. Rotundum foramen
D. Ovale foramen
E. *Superior optical fissure
1902.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Specify the place of output of oculomotor nerve from the cerebri.
Between the pons and medulla oblongata
Lateral from cerebral peduncle
Between the pyramid and olive
Behind the olive of medulla oblongata
*From the interpeduncular fossa on the medial edge of cerebral peduncle
1903.
What branches are formed by the oculomotor nerve after entering into the
orbit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Medial and lateral
Superior, inferior and medial
Medial, lateral and middle.
Superior, inferior and medial
*Superior and inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply the superior branch of oculomotor nerve?
Medial and lateral rectus muscles of eye
Superior rectus and superior oblique muscles of eye
Levator palpebrae superioris muscle, superior oblique muscle of eye
Superior oblique, lateral rectus muscles of eye.
*Superior rectus muscle of eye; levator palpebrae superioris muscle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply inferior branch of oculomotor nerve?
Inferior oblique, inferior rectus muscles of eye, ciliary muscle.
Inferior oblique, inferior rectus, lateral rectus muscles of eye.
Medial rectus, lateral rectus, inferior oblique muscles of eye.
Inferior oblique muscle of eye, ciliary muscle, sphincter of pupil musclE.
*Inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique muscles of eyE. *
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What fibres do go in composition of oculomotor nerve?
Sympathetic and motor.
sensitive and motor
Motor
Vegetative
*Parasympathetic and motor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where are the somato-motor nuclei of oculomotor nerve located?
In the quadrigeminal lamina at the level of inferior colliculi
In superior part of rhomboid fossa
In inferior part of rhomboid fossa
In anterior part of pons
*In the quadrigeminal lamina at the level of superior colliculi.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where are parasympathetic nuclei of oculomotor nerve located?
In the cerebral peduncle, in lateral geniculate bodies
In superior colliculi, in medial geniculate bodies
In inferior colliculi, in the substantia nigra of cerebral peduncle
In the pulvinar of thalamus, in the caudate body
*On the bottom of cerebral aqueduct in his gray matter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How many neurons has visual pathway?
2 neurons
3 neurons
5 neurons
6 neurons
*4 neurons
1904.
1905.
1906.
1907.
1908.
1909.
1910.
What do supply the postganglionic parasympathetic fibres of oculomotor
nerve?
A. Levator palpebrae superioris muscle
B. Eyeball and sphincter of pupil muscle
C. Lacrimal gland and ciliary muscle
D. Ciliary muscle and dilatator of pupil muscle
E. *Ciliary muscle and sphincter of pupil muscle
1911.
Where are the bodies of fourth neurons of visual way placed?
A. In the superior and inferior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina.
B. In the superior and inferior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina and in lateral
geniculate body.
C. In the pulvinar of thalamus and medial geniculate body.
D. In the pulvinar of thalamus and superior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina.
E. *In the pulvinar of thalamus and lateral geniculate body.
1912.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What structures do the axon of fourth neuron of visual way pass through?
Through the white matter of extrema capsule
Through the white matter of external capsule
Through the white matter of anterior crus of internal capsule
Through the white matter of genu of internal capsule
*Through the white matter of posterior crus of internal capsule
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What function of the trochlear nerve?
Sensitive
Mixed
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
*Motor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What opening does the trochlear nerve go out from the cavity of cranium?
Optic canal
Inferior orbital fissure
Rotundum foramen
Ovale foramen
*Superior orbital fissure
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does the trochlear nerve go out from the cerebrum?
From the lateral surface of cerebri peduncles
In interpeduncular fossula
Between the pons and pyramid
Between the pons and middle cerebri peduncles
*Near the frenulum of superior medullary velum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply the trochlear nerve?
Inferior odlique muscle of eye
Levator palpebrae superioris muscle
Medial rectus muscle of eye
Lateral rectus muscle of eye
*Superior obliqus muscle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is the nucleus of trochlear nerve located?
In quadrigeminal lamina at the level of superior colliculi
In the lateral corner of rhomboid fossa
In the inferior corner of rhomboid fossa
In dorsal part of pons
*In quadrigeminal lamina at the level of inferior colliculi
1913.
1914.
1915.
1916.
1917.
1918.
What nerve does supply the superior oblique muscle of eye?
A. Facial.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Abducens.
Optic.
Oculomotor.
*Trochlear.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What for function is the abducens nerve?
Sensitive
Mixed
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
*Motor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is the nucleus of abducens nerve located?
In the superior colliculi of quadrigeminal lamina
In the lateral corners of rhomboid fossa
In quadrigeminal lamina at the level of superior colliculi
In the medulla oblongata
*In dorsal part of pons in the area of facial tuberculum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does the abducens nerve go out from the cerebri?
On the medial surface of cerebri peduncle
Lateral from cerebri peduncle
In the interpeduncular fossula
Between the pons and middle cerebellum peduncle
*Between the pons and pyramid of medulla oblongata
1919.
1920.
1921.
1922.
What opening does the abducens nerve go out through from the cavity of
cranium?
A. Optic canal
B. Inferior orbital fissure
C. Rotundum foramer
D. Ovale foramen
E. *Superior orbital fissure
1923.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply the abducens nerve?
Medial rectus muscle of eye
Superior oblique muscle of eye
Inferior oblique muscle of eye
Superior rectus muscle of eye
*Lateral rectus muscle of eye
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is function of the trigeminal nerve?
Motor
Sensitive
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
*Mixed
1924.
1925.
How many nuclei in central nervous system do have the trigeminal
nerve?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Five
E. *Four
1926.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How many motor nuclei do have the trigeminal nerve?
Two
Three
Four
Five
*One
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How many sensitive nuclei do have the trigeminal nerve?
One
Two
Four
Five
*Three
1927.
1928.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1929.
Name the nucleus of trigeminal nerve.
Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve, nucleus of spinal way, superior
salivatory nucleus, nucleus of pons
Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve, nucleus of spinal way, inferior
salivatory nucleus, nucleus of pons.
Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve, nucleus of pons, nucleus of spinal way
of trigeminal nerve, ambiguus nucleus.
Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve, nucleus of spinal way of trigeminal
nerve, nucleus of solitary way.
*Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve, nucleus of spinal way, nucleus of
pons, nucleus mesencephalic.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Specify localization of motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve.
In the inferior corner of rhomboid fossa
In the lateral corners of rhombooid fossa.
In the cover of mesencephalon.
In dorsal part of medulla oblongata.
*In dorsal part of pons.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What for functions are the nuclei of trigeminal nerve?
Sensory and parasympathetic
Parasympathetic and motor
Only sensory
Only motor
*Motor and sensory
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Specify localization of pons nucleus of trigeminal nerve
In dorsal part of medulla oblongata
In ventral part of pons
In ventral part of medulla oblongata
In dorsal part of spinal cord
*In dorsal part of pons
A.
B.
C.
D.
What do supply the motor fibres of trigeminal nerve?
Stapedius muscle
Buccinator muscle
Muscles of tongue
Mentalis muscle
1930.
1931.
1932.
E. *Tensor tympani muscle
1933.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does the trigeminal nerve start from the brain?
In the area of ponto-cerebelaris corner
Between the pons and medulla oblongata
Between the pons and superior cerebellaris peduncle
Between the pons and inferior cerebellaris peduncle
*Between the pons and middle cerebellaris peduncle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What do supply the motor fibres of trigeminal nerve?
Stapedius muscle
Buccinator muscle
Muscles of tongue
Mentalis muscle
*Tensor veli palatini muscle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the first branch of trigeminal nerve named?
Lacrimal nerve
Maxillary nerve
Frontalnerve
Ethmoidal nerve
*Ophthalmic nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the second branch of trigeminal nerve named?
Ophthalmic nerve
Ethmoidal nerve
Mandibular nerve
Lacrimal nerve
*Maxillary nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the third branch of trigeminal nerve named?
Maxillary nerve
Ophthalmic nerve
Pterygopalatine nerve
Lacrimal nerve
*Mandibular nerve
1934.
1935.
1936.
1937.
1938.
What opening does the first branch of trigeminal nerve go out through
from the cranium?
A. Rotundum foramen
B. Ovale foramen
C. Spinosum foramen
D. Inferior orbital
E. *Superior orbital fissure
1939.
What opening does the second branch of trigeminal nerve go out through
from the skull?
A. Superior orbicular fissure
B. Inferior orbicular fissure
C. Ovale foramen
D. Spinosum foramen
E. *Rotundum foramen
1940.
What opening does the third branch of trigeminal nerve go out through
from the skull?
A. Superior orbicular fissure
B. Inferior orbicular fissure
C. Rotundum fissure
D. Spinosum foramen
E. *Ovale foramen
1941.
What cranial nerve does go out on basis of skull through the ovale
foramen?
A. First branch of the V pair of cranial nerves
B. Second branch of the V cranial nerves
C. VI pair of cranial nerves
D. VII pair of cranial nerve
E. *Third branch of the V cranial nerves
1942.
ANSWER: E
1943.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What nerves do start from the first branch of trigeminal nerve?
Frontal, zygomatic, lacrimal nerves and ramus meningeus.
Lacrimal, frontal, infraorbital nerves and ramus meningeus.
Zygomatic, nasociliary, pterygopalatine nerves and ramus meningeus.
Frontal, lacrimal, ciliary, pterygopalatine nerves and ramus meningeus
*Frontal, lacrimal, nasociliary nerves and ramus meningeus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply the frontalnerve?
Skin of forehead, inferior palpebrae, medial corner of eye.
Skin of forehead, inferior palpebrae, lateral corner of eye.
Skin of forehead, superior and inferior palpebrae.
Skin of forehead, lacrimal gland, levator palpebrae superioris muscle.
*Skin of forehead, superior palpebrae, medial corner of eye.
1944.
1945.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1946.
1947.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply the posterior ethmoidal nerve?
Retina of eye.
Lacrimal gland.
Mucous of maxillary sinus.
Mucous of frontalsinus
*Mucous of sphenoidal sinus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What nerve does the lacrimal gland get parasympathetic supplying from?
From ophthalmic nerve
From optic nerve
From accessory nerve
From oculomotor
*From intermedius nerve
1948.
1949.
What does supply the lacrimal nerve?
Lacrimal gland, skin and conjunctiva of medial corner of eye.
Lacrimal gland, skin of the back of nose and palpebrae superior.
Lacrimal gland, lacrimal sac and inferior palpebrae.
Lacrimal gland, lacrimal sac, skin of the back of nose.
E. *Lacrimal gland, skin and conjunctiva of lateral corner of eye.
What fibres are preganglionic to the ciliary ganglion?
A. Fibres of great petrosal nerve.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1950.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1951.
Fibres of lesser petrosal nerve.
Fibres of deeppetrosal nerve.
Fibres of intermedius nerve.
*Fibres of oculomotor nerve.
What nerves do start from the second branch of trigeminal nerve?
Branches to dura mater, to the otic ganglion, supraorbital, zygomatic
nerves.
Branch to dura mater, infraorbital, zygomatic, ciliary nerves.
Branch to dura mater, supraorbital, ciliary, lingual nerves.
Branch to dura mater, buccal, zygomatic, pterygopalatine nerves.
*Branches to dura mater, to the pterygopalatine ganglion, infraorbital,
zygomatic nerves.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply the infraorbital nerve?
Skin of inferior palpebrae, radix of nose and lacrimal gland.
Skin of superior palpebrae, upper lip and lateral surface of nose.
Skin of inferior palpebrae, lower lip and radix of nose.
Skin of inferior palpebrae, upper lip and zygomatic area.
*Skin of inferior palpebrae, lateral surface of nose and upper lip.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What nerve is supplyed skin of upper lip by?
Mandibular nerve
Zygomatic nerve
Nasociliary nerve
Great palatine nerve
*Infraorbital nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What fibres are preganglionic to the pterygopalatine ganglion?
Fibres of lesser petrosal nerve.
Fibres of deeppetrosal nerve.
Fibres of oculomotor nerve.
Fibres of intermedius nerve.
*Fibres of great petrosal nerve.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What fibres does contain the third branch of trigeminal nerve?
Sensory, secretory
Motor, secretory
Sensory, secretory, motor
Sympathetic, secretory, sensory
*Motor, sensory
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What muscular branches are given by the mandibular nerve?
Lingual branches.
Branches to the posterior belly of digastric muscle.
Inferior gingival branches.
Branches of isthmus of fauces.
*Deeptemporal branches.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What sensory branches are given by the mandibular nerve?
Inferior alveolar, deeptemporal, lingual.
Inferior alveolar, palatine, lingual nerves
Buccal, lingual, pterygoid nerves.
Lingual, pharyngeal, auriculotemporal, masseteric nerves.
1952.
1953.
1954.
1955.
1956.
E. *Buccal, lingual, auriculotemporal nerves.
1957.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1958.
What does supply the lingual nerve of mandibular nerve?
Mucus shell of bottom of mouth, mucus shell of radix of tongue.
Mucus shell of bottom of mouth, mucus shell of posterior 1/3 of tongue.
Mucus shell of bottom of mouth, tastepapillas of posterior 1/3 of tongue.
Mucus shell of bottom of mouth, tastepapillas of anterior 2/3 of tongue.
*Mucus shell of bottom of mouth, mucus shell of anterior 2/3 of tongue.
What does supply the inferior alveolar nerve?
A. Teeth and gums of mandible, suprahyoid muscles.
B. Teeth and gums of mandible, skin of upper and lower lip, geniohyoid
muscle.
C. Teeth and gums of mandible, skin of chin and lower lip, cheeks,
stylohyoid muscle
D. Teeth and gums of mandible, skin of lower lip and chin, posterior belly of
digastric muscle, geniohyoid muscle.
E. *Teeth and gums of mandible, skin of lower lip and chin, anterior belly of
digastric muscle, mylohyoid muscle.
1959.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What does supply the auriculotemporal nerve of mandibular nerve?
Muscles of tongue.
Tympanic cavity.
Internal ear.
Internal acoustic meatus
*Parotid salivary gland.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fibres of what nerve are preganglionic to the pterygopalatine ganglion?
Oculomotor.
Chorda tympani.
Deeppetrosal.
Lesser petrosal.
*Great petrosal.
1960.
1961.
What do supply postganglionic nervous fibres which start from the
pterygopalatine ganglion?
A. Mucus shell of cavity of mouth and tympanic cavity, palatine tonsils,
glands of pharynx.
B. Glands of cavity of mouth and nose, parotid gland.
C. Sensory and secretory innervation of mucus cavity of mouth and middle
ear, submandibular gland
D. Glands of cavity of mouth, nose; sublingual salivary gland.
E. *Glands of mucus shell of cavity of nose and palate, lacrimal gland.
1962.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fibres of what nerve are preganglionic to the otic ganglion?
Facial
Intermedius
Vagus
Trigeminal
*Glossopharyngeal
1963.
What do supply postganglionic nervous fibres which start from the otic
ganglion?
A. Skin of auricle
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mucus shell of tympanic cavity
Internal ear
Auditory tube
*Parotid salivary gland
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fibres of what nerve are preganglionic to the submandibular ganglion?
Vagus
Glossopharyngeal
Great petrosal
Lessser petrosal
*Chorda tympani
1964.
1965.
What do supply and what type of innervation of postganglionic nervous
fibres which start from the submandibular ganglion?A. Sensory innervation of mucus shell of bottom of cavity of mouth
B. Tasteinnervation of anterior 2 /3 of tongue
C. Sympathetic innervation of submandibular salivary gland
D. Sensory innervation of parotid salivary gland
E. *Parasympathetic innervation of submandibular and sublingual salivary
gland
1966.
The damage of what nuclei of cerebral trunk will result in violation of
function of submandibular and sublingual salivary glands?
A. Nucleus of Yakubovych
B. Inferior salivatory
C. Spinal vagus
D. Nucleus of solitary way
E. *Superioir salivatory
1967.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What nerve does supply the inferior oblique muscle of eye?
Trochlear.
Abducens.
Trigeminal.
Infraorbital
*Oculomotor.
1968.
What nerve does supply the superior rectus muscle of eye and levator
palpebrae superioris muscle?
A. Abducens
B. Trochlear.
C. Trigeminal.
D. Infraorbital
E. *Oculomotor.
1969.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1970.
What nerve does supply inferior and medial rectus muscles of eye?
Superior branch of oculomotor
Ophthalmic
Trochlear
Infraorbital.
*Inferiior branch of oculomotor.
What nerve does supply the lateral rectus muscle of eye?
A. Zygomatic nerve.
B. Trochlear nerve.
C. Superior branch of oculomotor.
D. Inferior branch of oculomotor.
E. *Abducens nerve.
1971.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How many pairs of cranial nerves are?
31 pairs
10 pairs
21 pairs
8 pairs
*13 pairs
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is I pair of cranial nerves named?
Optic nerve
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
*Olfactory nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the II pair of cranial nerves named?
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Oculomotor
Hypoglossal
Trigeminal nerve
*Optic nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the III pair of cranial nerves named?
Hypoglossal
Trigeminal
Accessory nerve
Trocchlear nerve
*Oculomotor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the IV pair of cranial nerves named?
Facial nerve
Hypoglossal
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
*Trochlear nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the V pair of cranial nerves named?
Accessory nerve
Trochlear nerve
Facial nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
*Trigeminal nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the VI pair of cranial nerves named?
Accessory nerve
Trochlear nerve
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
*Abducens nerve
1972.
1973.
1974.
1975.
1976.
1977.
1978.
How is the VII pair of cranial nerves named?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Accessory nerve
Trochlear nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
*Facial nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the VIII pair of cranial nerves named?
Facial
Vagus
Trigeminal
Hypoglossus
*Vestibulocochlear
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the VIII pair of cranial nerves named?
Oculomotor
Hypoglossal
Trigeminal
Abducens
*Vestibulocochlear
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the IX pair of cranial nerves named?
Accessory nerve
Trochlear nerve
Facial nerve
Vagus nerve
*Glossopharyngeal nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the Х pair of cranial nerves named?
Olfactory nerve
Optic nerve
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Oculomotor
*Vagus nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the XI pair of cranial nerves named?
Abducens nerve
Trochlear nerve
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
*Accessory nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How is the XII pair of cranial nerves named?
Trigeminal nerve
Abducens nerve
Accessory nerve
Trochlear nerve
*Hypoglossal
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What nerves do behave to the sensory cranial nerves?
IV, VII pairs
I, ІІІ, VIII pairs
II, V, Х pairs
V, VII, Х pairs
*I, II, VIII pairs
1979.
1980.
1981.
1982.
1983.
1984.
1985.
1986.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To the motor cranial nerves belong
Optic nerve
Oculomotor
Vagus
Trigeminal
*Hypoglossal
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To the mixed cranial nerves belong.
Hypoglossal
Abducens nerve
Accessory nerve
Optic nerve
*Trigeminal nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Parasympathetic nuclei have next cranial nerves.
Optic nerve
Accessory nerve
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Trigeminal nerve
*Oculomotor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
All of cranial nerves have nuclei in cerebrum, except.
1 and VIII pairs
II and VIII pairs
V and VII pairs
ІІІ and ІV pairs
*I and II pairs
1987.
1988.
1989.
1990.
What cranial nerves contain motornuclei in the grey matter of cerebral
peduncle?
A. IV, V pairs
B. V, VI pairs
C. VI, VII pairs
D. VII, IX pairs
E. *III, IV pairs
1991.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nuclei of V pair of cranial nerves located.
in the rhomboid fossa in the area of medull oblongata
in cerebellum
in diencephalon
In cerebral peduncle
*in the rhomboid fossa in the area of pons
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The V pair of cranial nerves have next nuclei.
pons nucleus, inferior salivatiry nucleus
nucleus of spinal way, ambiguusnucleus
nucleus of mesencephalic way, ambiguus nucleus
Superior salivatory nucleus, nucleus of solitary way
*motor nucleus, pons nucleus
1992.
1993.
What nucleus is parasympathetic?
A. Ambiguus nucleus
B. Pons nucleus
C. Nucleus of mesencephalic way
D. Nucleus of solitary way
E. *Superior salivatory nucleus
1994.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1995.
What nucleus is motor?
Pons nucleus
Nucleus of mesencephalic way
Superior salivatory nucleus
Nucleus of solitary way
*Ambiguus nucleus
Trigeminal ganglion of V pair located.
A. in breaking up of dura mater of anterior cranial fossa
B. on the posterior surface of pyramid of temporal bone under the arcuate
eminence
C. in the area of greater wing of sphenoid bone
D. in breaking up of dura mater of posterior cranial fossa
E. *on the anterior surface of pyramid of temporal bone in the area of the
depression for trigeminal ganglion
1996.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Trigeminal ganglion is formed.
by motor nervous cells
by efferent nervous cells
by associative nervous cells
by inserted nervous cells
*by sensory nervous cells
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The central process of trigeminal ganglion form.
motor radix
parasympathetic radix
sympathetic rsdix
mixed radix
*sensory radix
1997.
1998.
Axons of cells of trigeminal ganglion enter in synaptic connection with the
cells of grey matter, that located.
A. in medulla oblongata
B. in diencephalon
C. in olfactory brain
D. in cerebellum
E. *in rhomboid fossa
1999.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Next branches depart from the trigeminal ganglion.
frontalnerve
infraorbital nerve
lingual nerve
facial nerve
*ophthalmic nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ophthalmic nerve.
is the IІ branch of trigeminal nerve
is the ІІІ branch of trigeminal nerve
is the I pair of cranial nerves
is the ІІ pair of cranial nerves
2000.
E. *is the I branch of trigeminal nerve
2001.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ophthalmic nerve in orbit is divided by next branches.
optic nerve, frontalnerve, nasociliary nerve
infraorbital nerve, nasal nerve, supratrochlear nerve
supraorbital nerve, supratrochlear nerve, long ciliary nerve
nasal nerve, lacrimal nerve, frontalnerve
*lacrimal nerve, frontalnerve, nasociliary nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The branch of what pair of cranial nerves is the lacrimal nerve?
ІІ pair of cranial nerves
ІІІ pair of cranial nerves
ІV pair of cranial nerves
VІ pair of cranial nerves
*V pair of cranial nerves
2002.
2003.
The lacrimal nerve contains parasympethetic fibres from the next
ganglion.
A. from the otic ganglion
B. from the submandibular ganglion
C. from the ciliary ganglion
D. from the trigeminal ganglion
E. *from the pterygopalatine ganglion
2004.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The lacrimal nerve supplies.
skin and conjunctiva of medial corner of eye
skin of the back of nose
vascular shell of eye
skin and conjunctiva of inferior palpebrae
*skin and conjunctiva of superior palpebrae *
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The lacrimal nerve is a branch of.
nasociliary nerve
maxillary nerve
frontalnerve
supratrochlear nerve
*ophthalmic nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The frontalnerve is a branch of.
maxillary nerve
lacrimal nerve
nasociliary nerve
supratrochlear nerve
*ophthalmic nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The frontalnerve contains of next fibres.
parasympathetic
motor
sympathetic
mixed
*sensory
2005.
2006.
2007.
2008.
The frontalnerve is divided on.
A. lacrimal and supraorbital nerves
B.
C.
D.
E.
nasociliary and anterior ethmoidal nerves
infraorbital and trochlear nerves
trochlear and posterior ethmoidal nerves
*supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The supraorbital nerve is a branch of.
anterior ethmoidal nerve
lacrimal nerve
trochlear nerve
anterior ethmoidal nerve
*frontalnerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The supratrochlear nerve is a branch of.
anterior ethmoidal nerve
lacrimal nerve
trochlear nerve
posterior ethmoidal nerve
*frontalnerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The supratrochlear nerve contains of next fibres.
sympathetic
motor
parasympathetic
mixed
*sensory
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nasociliary nerve gives next branches.
supratrochlear and subtrochlear nerves
supraorbital and infraorbital nerves
frontalnerve
lacrimal nerve
*anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerves
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerves are the branches of.
maxillary nerve
frontalnerve
lacrimal nerve
supraorbital nerve
*nasociliary nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Long ciliary branches is the branches of
maxillary nerve
frontalnerve
lacrimal nerve
supraorbital nerve
*nasociliary nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The subtrochlear nerve is a branch.
maxillary nerve
frontalnerve
lacrimal nerve
supraorbital nerve
*nasociliary nerve
2009.
2010.
2011.
2012.
2013.
2014.
2015.
2016.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The ciliary ganglion is located in the area of ramification.
ХІ pair of cranial nerve
ІХ pair of cranial nerve
VII pair of cranial nerve
I of pair of cranial nerve
*V pair of cranial nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To the ciliary ganglion befit.
preganglionic parasympathetic from the facial nucleus
preganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the superior salivatory nucleus
sensory connecting fibres from the zygomatic nerve (by transit )
preganglionic sympathetic fibres
*sensory connecting fibres from the nasociliary nerve (by transit )
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
From the ciliary ganglion depart.
connecting ganglionic branches
long ciliary nerves
nasociliary nerves
anterior ethmoidal nerves
*short ciliary nerves
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Short ciliary nerves start from
Long ciliary nerves
nasociliary nerve
frontalnerve
lacrimal nerve
*ciliary ganglion
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Short ciliary nerves contain next fibres
sensory
parasympathetic
sympathetic
motor
*mixed
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The parasympathetic fibres of short ciliary nerves supply.
conjunctiva of eye
dilatator of pupil muscle
lacrimal gland
nasolacrimal canal
*sphincter of pupil muscle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The sympathetic fibres of short ciliary nerves supply.
conjunctiva of eye
ciliary muscle
sphincter of pupil muscle
lacrimal gland
*dilatator of pupil muscle
2017.
2018.
2019.
2020.
2021.
2022.
2023.
The sensory fibres of short ciliary nerves supply.
A. skin of superior palpebrae
B. skin of inferior palpebrae
C. skin of radix of nose
2024.
D. skin of lateral corner of eye
2025.
E. *shells of eyeball
2026.
Skin and conjunctiva of superior palpebrae in lateral corner of eye are
supplied.
A. by the frontalnerve
B. by long ciliary branches
C. by short ciliary nerves
D. by the nasociliary nerve
E. *by the lacrimal nerve
2027.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Skin of forehead is supplied
by the maxillary nerve
by the lacrimal nerve
by the zygomatic nerve
by the nasociliary nerve
*by the supraorbital nerve
2028.
Skin and conjunctiva of superior palpebrae in the area of medial corner of
eye are supplied.
A. zygomatic nerve
B. by the lacrimal nerve
C. by the long ciliary nerve
D. by the nasociliary nerve
E. *by the supratrochlear nerve
2029.
Mucus shell of the ethmoidal and frontalsinus and mucus shell of cavity of
nose are supplied.
A. by the nasopalatine nerve
B. by long ciliary nerves
C. by the lacrimal nerve
D. by the frontalnerve
E. *by anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerves
2030.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The lacrimal gland gets secretory innervation from.
ciliary ganglion
otic ganglion
trigeminal ganglion
jugular ganglion
*pterygopalatine ganglion
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The lacrimal gland gets parasympathetic innervation from.
inferior salivatory nucleus
spinal nucleus of vagus nerve
ambiguous nucleus
nucleus of Yacubovych
*superior salivatory nucleus
2031.
2032.
Dilatator of pupil muscle is supplied.
A. by postganglionic sympathetic fibres from the inferior cervical
neuroganglion of sympathetic trunk
B. by postganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the pterygopalatine
ganglion
C. by postganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the ciliary ganglion
D. by postganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the nucleus of
Yakubovych
E. *by postganglionic sympathetic fibres from internal carotid plexus in
composition with short ciliary branches
2033.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2034.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Shells of eyeball are supplied.
by the lacrimal nerve
by the great petrosal nerve
by the anterior and posteriorethmoidal nerves
by the frontalnerve
*long ciliary branches
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
II branch of V pair of cranial nerves named.
facial nerve
ophthalmic nerve
mandibular nerve
frontalnerve
*maxillary nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The maxillary nerve contains next fibres.
mixed
motor
parasympathetic
sympathetic
*sensory
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
For the maxillary nerve is characteristic following, except for.
it is the second branch of the V pair of cranial nerves
starts from the trigeminal nucleus
goes out from the skull through the rotundum foramen
goes into the pterygopalatine fossa
*it is the mixed branch of trigeminal nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In the cavity of skull from the maxillary nerve depart next branch..
infraorbital nerve
anterior meningeal branch
posterior meningeal branch
zygomatic nerve
*middle meningeal branch
2035.
2036.
2037.
2038.
2039.
Sphincter of pupil muscle and ciliary muscle are supplied.
by postganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the pterygopalatine
ganglion
by postganglionic sympathetic fibres from the internal carotid plexus in
composition with short ciliary branches
by preganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the accessory nucleus of
oculomotor
by preganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the inferior salivatory
nucleus
*by postganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the ciliary ganglion in
composition with short ciliary branches
Middle meningeal branch
A. it is the branch of facial nerve
B.
C.
D.
E.
it is the branch of vestibulocochlear nerve
it is the branch of optic nerve
it is the branch of accessory nerve
*it is the branch of maxillary nerve
2040.
In the pterygopalatine fossa next branches depart from the maxillary
nerve.
A. middle meningeal branch
B. anterior alveolar branches
C. greater and lesser palatine nerves
D. nasopalatine nerve
E. *ganglionic branches to the parasympathetic ganglion
2041.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the arteries, which supply the lacrimal gland:
Short posterior ciliary arteries
Central retinal artery
Long posterior ciliary arteries
Supratrochlear artery
*Lacrimal artery
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the arteries which supply vascular tunic of the eye :
Central retinal artery
Lacrimal artery
Supratrochlear artery
Muscular arteries
*Short posterior ciliary arteries
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the arteries,which supply vascular tunic of the eye :
Central retinal artery
Lacrimal artery
Supratrochlear artery
Muscular arteries
*Long posterior ciliary arteries
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the arteries,which supply of the retina :
Lacrimal artery
Supratrochlear artery
Muscular arteries
Long posterior ciliary arteries
*Central retinal artery
2042.
2043.
2044.
2045.
Name the arteries, which supply superior rectus and superior oblique
muscles of the eyeball :
A. Long posterior ciliary arteries
B. Central retinal artery
C. Lacrimal artery
D. Supratrochlear artery
E. *Muscular arteries
2046.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Name the artery, which supply mucous of the ethmoidal labirynth :
Supratrochlear artery
Muscular arteries
Central retinal artery
Lacrimal artery
E. *Posterior ethmoidal arteries
2047.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the artery, which supply of the muscles and skin of the forehead :
Posterior ethmoidal arteries
Muscular arteries
Central retinal artery
Lacrimal artery
*Supratrochlear artery
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the posterior scalene musclE. *
N. trigeminus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*Plexus cervicalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the middle scalene muscle.
N. trigeminus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*Plexus cervicalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the anterior scalene muscle.
N. trigeminus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*Plexus cervicalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the thyrohyoid muscle.
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. vagus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. trigeminus.
*Ansa cervicalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the platysma muscle.
N. accessorius;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus;
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
N. facialis;
hypoglossus;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus;
*N. accessorius
2048.
2049.
2050.
2051.
2052.
2053.
2054.
Name the nerves innervating the trapezius musclE. *
A. N. vagus;
B. N. hypoglossus;
C. N. facialis;
D. N. glossopharyngeus;
E. *N. accessorius
2055.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2056.
2057.
Name the nerves innervating the elevator muscle of the upper eyelid?
Abducent nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Optic nerve
*Oculomotor nerve
ANSWER: E
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the superior rectus muscle.
Abducent nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Optic nerve
*Oculomotor nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the inferior rectus muscle.
Abducent nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Optic nerve
*Oculomotor nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating the medial rectus muscle.
Abducent nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Optic nerve
*Oculomotor nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the inferior oblique muscle.
Abducent nerve.
Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Optic nerve
*Oculomotor nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the superior oblique muscle.
Abducent nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Optic nerve
*Trochlear nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the lateral rectus muscle.
Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Optic nerve
*Abducent nerve
2058.
2059.
2060.
2061.
2062.
2063.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the masseter muscle.
N. facialis;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*N. trigeminus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the greater zygomatic muscle.
N. hypoglossus;
N. trigeminus ;
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. vagus.
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the lesser zygomatic muscle.
N. hypoglossus;
N. trigeminus ;
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. vagus.
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the levator labii superioris muscle.
N. trigeminus;
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus.
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the levator aguli oris muscle.
N. trigeminus;
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus.
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the orbicularis oris muscle.
N. trigeminus;
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus.
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the buccinator muscle.
N. trigeminus;
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. vagus.
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
Name the nerves innervating of the nasalis muscle.
N. hypoglossus;
N. trigeminus;
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. vagus.
2064.
2065.
2066.
2067.
2068.
2069.
2070.
E. *N. facialis
2071.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the risorius muscle.
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. trigeminus;
N. vagus.
*N. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the rectus capitis lateralis muscle.
N. accessorius;
N. facialis ;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*Plexus cervicalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nerves innervating of the rectus capitis anterior muscle.
N. accessorius;
N. facialis;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*Plexus cervicalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nuclei of the accessory nerve lie in the:
Telencephalon;
Diencephalon;
Mesencephalon;
Rhinencephalon.
*Medulla oblongata
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The chorda tympani goes into the:
Fissura petrosquamosa;
Fissura tympanomastoidea;
Fissura tympanosquamosa;
Canaliculus mastoideus.
*Fissura petrotympanica
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nuclei of the vagus nerve lie in the:
Telencephalon;
Diencephalon;
Mesencephalon;
Rhinencephalon.
*Medulla oblongata
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the IX pair of the cranial nerves.
N. accessorius;
N. vagus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. abducens.
*N. glossopharyngeus
2072.
2073.
2074.
2075.
2076.
2077.
2078.
Name the X pair of the cranial nerves.
A. N. glossopharyngeus;
B. N. accessorius;
C. N. hypoglossus;
D. N. abducens.
E. *N. vagus
2079.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the XI pair of the cranial nerves.
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. vagus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. abducens.
*N. accessorius
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the XII pair of the cranial nerves.
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. accessorius;
N. vagus;
N. abducens.
*N. hypoglossus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the VIII pair of the cranial nerves.
N. glossopharyngeus;
N. vagus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. abducens.
*N. vestibulocochlearis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the VI pair of the cranial nerves.
N. vestibulocochlearis;
N. vagus;
N. hypoglossus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*N. abducens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the V pair of the cranial nerves.
N. abducens;
N. vestibulocochlearis;
N. vagus;
N. glossopharyngeus.
*N. trigeminus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The facial nerves pass through the:
Fissura petrosquamosa;
Fissura tympanomastoidea;
Fissura tympanosquamosa;
Canaliculus mastoideus.
*Facial canal
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Name the nuclei of the facial nerves:
Nucleus salivatorius inferior;
Nucleus ambiquus;
Nucleus mesencephalicus nervi facialis;
Nucleus pontinus nervi facialis.
*Nucleus salivatorius superior
2080.
2081.
2082.
2083.
2084.
2085.
2086.
Name the nuclei of the facial nerves:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nucleus salivatorius inferior;
Nucleus ambiquus;
Nucleus mesencephalicus nervi facialis;
Nucleus pontinus nervi facialis.
*Nucleus tractus solitarii
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nuclei of the oculomotor nerve lie in the:
Telencephalon;
Diencephalon;
Pons;
Rhinencephalon.
*Mesencephalon
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nuclei of the abducent nerve lie in the:
Telencephalon;
Diencephalon;
Mesencephalon;
Rhinencephalon.
*Pons
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nuclei of the facial nerve lie in the:
Telencephalon;
Diencephalon;
Mesencephalon;
Rhinencephalon.
*Pons
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nuclei of the glossopharingeal nerve lie in the:
Telencephalon;
Diencephalon;
Mesencephalon;
Rhinencephalon.
*Medulla oblongata
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The nuclei of the trochlear nerve lie in the:
Telencephalon;
Diencephalon;
Pons;
Rhinencephalon.
*Mesencephalon
2087.
2088.
2089.
2090.
2091.
1.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Situational tasks
Dentist introduces the cotton wool into the lumen between the cheek and an
alveolar process of the maxilla. Which orifice of gland duct does he close?
sublingual gland
thyroid gland
submandibular gland
all above mentioned
* parotid gland
2. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. * tooth root
B. tooth crown
C. tooth cervix
D. pulp cavity
E. canal of tooth root
3. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. tooth crown
B. tooth cervix
C. pulp cavity
D. canal of tooth root
E. * tooth root
4. Which duct opens on the cheeks into vestibule of mouth cavity opposite the
second superior molar ?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Palatine
D. Sublingual
E. * Parotid
5. A patient 18 years old got symptoms of acute appendicitis - acute pain in right
lumbar area. What type of placing of appendix can be supposed?
A. Lateral.
B. Descending.
C. Ascending.
D. Medial.
E. * Retrocecal retroperitoneal.
6. A patient 40 years old, appealed to the doctor with complaints about frequent
heartburn of esophagus. After examination insufficiency of what sphincter is
exposed?
A. Esophageal.
B. Pyloric.
C. Phalangeal.
D. * Cardiac.
E. Duodenal.
7. A patient 60 years old because of malignant tumor of papilla duodenum major
had an obstructive icterus. Deleting a tumor a surgeon must remember, that on
the papilla duodenum major is opened\:
A. Cystic duct.
B. Common hepatic duct.
C. * Hepatoduodenal ampule.
D. Right hepatic duct.
E. Left hepatic duct.
8. A patient 65 years old was hospitalized with suspicion on the tumor of superior
part of esophagus. But after X-ray examination a tumor process is exposed on
the border of esophagus and pharynx. On level of what cervical vertebra was
the tumor locate?
A. * 6.
B. 5.
C. 4.
D. 3.
E. 2.
9. A patient complains on pain in a right iliac area. During the palpation a mobile,
soft, sickly intestine was determined. What part of intestine did the doctor
palpate?
A. Jejunum.
B. Sigmoid colon.
C. Transverse colon.
D. Ascending colon.
E. * Cecum.
10. A patient complaints on disturbance of evacuative function of stomach (the
protracted delay of food in stomach). After the examination, the tumor of initial
part of duodenum was detected. What is the localization of tumor?
A. Pars inferior.
B. * Pars superior.
C. Pars descendens.
D. Pars ascendens.
E. Flexura duodeni inferior.
11. A patient complaints on pain in the superior part of umbilical area. During the
palpation a mobile, soft, sickly intestine is determined. What part of intestine
does the doctor palpate?
A. * Transverse colon.
B. Jejunum.
C. Duodenum.
D. Ileum
E. Sigmoid.
12. A patient has acute appendicitis, which clinically is similar a hepatic colic. What
position of vermiform appendix makes it possible?
A. Descending.
B. Medial.
C. * Ascending.
D. Lateral.
E. Retrocecal.
13. A patient was hospitalized with the ulcer of esophagus. After some time the
symp¬toms of inflammation of peritoneum appeared. In what part of esophagus
the perforation happened?
A. Pharyngeal.
B. Thoracic.
C. Cervical.
D. Stomach.
E. * Abdominal.
14. At 4e child 8 years old, the foreign body of esophagus at the level of a 10
thoracic vertebra was revealed by X-ray. At the area of what esophageal
narrowing had the foreign body stopped?
A. Abdominal narrowing.
B. Pharyngeal narrowing.
C. Bronchial narrowing.
D. Aortal narrowing.
E. * Diaphragmatic narrowing.
15. At children often possible to observe difficulty of nasal breathing. This is related
to extra development of lymphoid tissue in pharyngeal mucous membrane.
Growth of what tonsil can cause this phenomenon?
A. Tonsilla lingualis.
B. Tonsilla palatine.
C. * Tonsilla pharyngea.
D. Tonsilla tubaria.
E. All of these tonsils.
16. Dentist introduces the cotton wool into the lumen between the cheek and an
alveolar process of the maxilla. Which orifice of gland duct does he close?
A. sublingual gland
B. thyroid gland
C. submandibular gland
D. all above mentioned
E. * parotid gland
17. During endoscope examination of small intestine on a mucous membrane longi
tudinal folds were visible. What part ol what intestine did a doctor see?
A. Ascending part of duodenum.
B. Horizontal part of duodenum.
C. * Initial part (ampoule) of duodenum.
D. Initial part of jejunum.
E. Final part of ileum.
18. During the first feeding of newborn, milk began to flow out of a nasal cavity.
What anomaly or abnormally got a newborn?
A. * Cleft palate.
B. Cleft lip.
C. Atrezy of esophagus.
D. Atrezy of anal canal.
E. Esophageal-tracheal fistula.
19. During the operation on a small intestine a doctor found out the area of mucous
membrane, where on base of circular folds the longitudinal fold was present.
What part of small intestine does such structure have?
A. * Pars descendens duodeni.
B. Pars horizontal is duodeni.
C. Pars ascendens duodeni.
D. Initial department of jejunum.
E. Distal department of ileum.
20. During the operation on the strangulated umbilical hernia in a hernia sack a part
of intestine was revealed with the appendixes of serous, which contain fat
tissue. What part of intestine was strangulated?
A. Duodenum.
B. * Transverse colon.
C. Ileum.
D. Jejunum.
E. Cecum.
21. In patient during the fibrogastroscopy, an inflammation of duodenal bulb was
found. In what part of intestine does the inflammation locate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pars ascendens.
Pars descendens.
Pars horizontalis.
* Pars superior.
22. In patient follicle angina was complicated by severe otitis (inflammation of
middle ear). What anatomical precondition does exist for this?
A. Lymphoepythelial ring of Valdeer- Pirogov.
B. Fallopian tube.
C. Anomalies of pharynx.
D. * Eustachian tube.
E. Presence of piriform recess.
23. In the mucous of intestine a surgeon saw group of lymphoid follicles (Peyer's
patches). What department of intestine it is?
A. Rectum.
B. Jejunum.
C. Cecum.
D. Duodenum.
E. * Ileum.
24. Mother of 8 years old child appealed to doctor with complaints on pain during
swallowing and high temperature. During examination a doctor saw an edema
and hyperemia of lymphoid tissue between the arches of soft palate. What tonsil
does situate in this place?
A. Tonsillalingualis.
B. Tonsilla pharyngealis.
C. Tonsillatubaria.
D. * Tonsilla palatina.
E. Tonsilla nasalis.
25. Parents asked the dentist about the delay change of teeth in a child 9 years old,
in whose mouth is the only milk teeth. At what age begin erupting permanent
teeth?
A. Since 10 -12 years
B. * Since 6-7 years
C. Since 2 years
D. Since 16 years
E. Since 5-6 years
26. The patient erroneously drank the solution of the acetic acid. Which membrane
of the esophagus was damaged mostly?
A. muscular
B. serous
C. adventitia
D. muscle and serous
E. * mucous
27. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. tooth crown
B. tooth cervix
C. pulp cavity
D. canal of tooth root
E. * tooth root
28. The patient was hospitalized in surgical department with the penetrable wound
of anterior abdominal wall. A traumatic canal passed superiorly to the small
curvature of stomach. Through what formation of peritoneum did atraumatic
channel passed?
A. Ligamentum hepatoduoduodenale.
B. Ligamentum gastrocolicum.
C. * Ligamentum hepatogastricum.
D. Ligamentum hepatorenale.
E. Ligamentum triangulare sinistrurn.
29. The pregnant women 30 years old got the raised doze of radiation. Because of
this, the process of intrauterine development of fetus was disordered. At
formation of an oral cavity did not take a place a fusing of the lateral nasal
proc¬ess and maxillary process. Occurrence of what anomaly is supposed?
A. Atrezy of esophagus.
B. * Cleft palate.
C. Microstoma.
D. Makrostoma.
E. Cleft lip.
30. The X-ray examination of stomach of the patient 37 years old with
brachymorphic constitution with a conical chest was provided. What form of
stomach most probably will be determined?
A. Form of the extended hook.
B. Form hook.
C. Form of stocking.
D. The lengthened stomach.
E. * Form of horn.
31. The X-ray examination of stomach of the patient of 42 years old with
mesomorphic constitution with a cylindrical chest was provided. What form of
stomach most probably be determined?
A. Form of the extended hook.
B. Form of horn.
C. Form of stocking.
D. * Form hook.
E. The lengthened stomach.
32. The X-ray examination of stomach of the woman is 28 years old,
dolychomorphyc constitution with a flat thorax was provided. What form of
stomach most probably will show the pathology?
A. Form of horn.
B. Form hook.
C. * Form of stocking.
D. Form of the extended hook.
E. Ovalfonn.
33. To a hospital the child was delivered with complaints to a retrosternal pain,
appearing after swallowing and accompanying with cough. After X-ray research,
the foreign body in thickness of a wall of esophagus at a level 5 thoracic
vertebra was revealed. In the level of what narrowing of the esophagus was a
damage of its wall occurred?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In the place of transition of pharynx to esophagus.
In the place of adjoining of arch of aorta.
In the place of passing through a dia¬phragm.
In the place of passing to the stom¬ach.
* In the place of crossing with the left main bronchus.
34. To a hospital the child was delivered with complaints to a retrosternal
pain,appearing after swallowing and accompanying with cough. After X-ray
research, the foreign body in thickness of a wall of esophagus at a level 4
thoracic vertebra was revealed. In the level of what narrowing of the esophagus
was a damage of its wall occurred?
A. In the place of passing through a dia¬phragm.
B. In the place of decussating with the left main bronchus.
C. * In the place of adjoining of arch of aorta.
D. In the place of passing to the stom¬ach.
E. In the place of transition of pharynx in esophagus.
35. To patient the endoscopy of duodenum was provided. The examination
revealed an inflammation of large duodenal papil¬la and disturbances of bile
secretion to the intestine. In which part of duodenum the disturbances were
revealed?
A. Inferior horizontal part.
B. Ascending part.
C. Bulb.
D. Superior part.
E. * Descending part.
36. To the child 6 years old Meckel diverticle was diagnosed. In what department of
gastro-intestinal tract is it necessary to search it during operation?
A. * In the area of ileum.
B. In the area of jejunum.
C. In the area of colon.
D. In the area of duodenum.
E. In the area of sigmoid colon.
37. Which duct opens on the cheeks into vestibule of mouth cavity opposite the
second superior molar ?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Palatine
D. Sublingual
E. * Parotid
38. A 40 years old man was hospitalized to surgical department with a diagnosis splenic rupture. In what anatomical formation will the blood accumulate?
A. * Bursa pregastrica.
B. Bursa hepatica.
C. Bursa omental is.
D. Excavatio rectovesicalis.
E. Right lateral canal.
39. A man with closed trauma of the right part of abdomen and suspicion on the
liver rupture was delivered to traumatic department. In what formations of
peritoneum it is necessary to expect the collection of blood?
A. In an intersigmoid corner.
B. In the left lateral canal.
C. In the superior ileocecal angle.
D. * In the rectovesical excavation.
E. In the omental bursa.
40. A patient 18 years old got symptoms of acute appendicitis - acute pain in right
lumbar area. What type of placing of appendix can be supposed?
A. Lateral.
B. Descending.
C. Ascending.
D. Medial.
E. * Retrocecal retroperitoneal.
41. A patient 27 years old entered clinic with complaints on pain in region of
stomach, nausea. After the palpation of abdomen a surgeon found a point of
pain on crossing of right costal arc and lateral margin t of right rectus abdominis
muscle (point | of Kehr). What preliminary diagnosis [ probably will the doctor
do?
A. Nephritis.
B. * Pancreatitis.
C. Cholecystitis.
D. Gastritis.
E. Duodenitis.
42. A patient 27 years old entered clinic with complaints on pain in region of
stomach, nausea. After the palpation of abdomen a surgeon found a point of
pain on crossing of right costal arc and lateral margin t of right rectus abdominis
muscle (point | of Kehr). What preliminary diagnosis [ probably will the doctor
do?
A. Nephritis.
B. Pancreatitis.
C. Cholecystitis.
D. Gastritis.
E. * Duodenitis.
43. A patient has a perforation and inflammation of vermiform appendix. Revision of
what recess of peritoneum must a doctor provide first?
A. Recessus ileocecal is superior.
B. Recessus duodenalis superior.
C. Recessiis duodenalis inferior.
D. * Recessus retrocecal is.
E. Recessus ileocecalis inferior.
44. A patient has acute appendicitis, which clinically is similar a hepatic colic. What
position of vermiform appendix makes it possible?
A. Descending.
B. Medial.
C. * Ascending.
D. Lateral.
E. Retrocecal.
45. A patient was operated on indication of a trauma of liver with a bleeding to a
hepatic bursa. What border prevents entering the blood in the pregastric bursa?
A. Right triangulate ligament.
B. Round ligament.
C. Coronary ligament.
D. * Falciform ligament.
E. Right triangulate ligament.
46. A patient with the traumatic splenic rupture, which needs an urgent operation,
was delivered to a surgical department. In what formation of peritoneum is it
located?
A. Bursa hepatica.
B. * Bursa pregastrica.
C. Burs omentalis.
D. Sinus mesentericus sinister.
E. Sulcus paracolicus sinister.
47. After the revision of peritoneal cavity with indication on peritonitis, the local
abscess at the root of mesentery was found. In what formation of peritoneum it
situate?
A. Left lateral canal.
B. Right mesenteric sinus.
C. Right lateral canal.
D. * Intersigmoid fossa.
E. Left mesenteric sinus.
48. At a patient after an operation (stitching of penetrate wound of small intestine)
an interintestinal abscess was formed, which drainage to right mesenteric sinus.
Where can a purulent effluent spread in?
A. * Stay in bounds of sinus.
B. To a small pelvis.
C. To the retrocecal recess.
D. Right lateral cannel.
E. Intersigmoid recess.
49. At acute destructive pancreatitis usually the inspection of omental burse is carry
out because the pancreas is one of its wall. What wall?
A. Anterior one.
B. Superior one.
C. * Posterior one.
D. Inferior one.
E. Left one.
50. At operative interference in an abdominal region a surgeon must get the
omen¬tal bursa. How can a surgeon get in this part of cavity of peritoneum,
without vi¬olating integrity of lesser omentum?
A. Through left paracolic sulcus.
B. Through right paracolic sulcus.
C. * Through the omental foramen.
D. Through the right mesenteric sinus.
E. Through the left mesenteric sinus.
51. At patient one of gangrenous form of acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. To what
peritoneal spaces from below does the exudate spread?
A. Infrahepatic fissure.
B. * Bursa omentalis.
C. Bursa pregastrica.
D. Left lateral canal.
E. Between the layers of anterior and posterior omental laminas.
52. At the patient of 52 years old a chronic stone cholecystitis is diagnosed. At
retrograde cholecystectomy a surgeon checks hepatoduodenal ligament. What
elements of this ligament is it necessary to select and bandage? j
A. * Proper
hepatic artery, duct or urinary blaqder.
B. Common bile duct, common hepatic duct.
C. Proper hepatic artery, common bile duct.
D. Portal vein, artery of gallbladder.
E. Cystic duct, artery of gallbladder.
53. At the patient of 52 years old a chronic stone cholecystitis is diagnosed. At
retrograde cholecystectomy a surgeon checks hepatoduodenal ligament. What
elements of this ligament is it necessary to^ select and bandage? j
A. Proper
hepatic artery, duct or urinary blaqder.
B. Common bile duct, common hepatic duct.
C. Proper hepatic artery, common bile duct.
D. Portal vein, artery of gallbladder.
E. * Cystic duct, artery of gallbladder.
54. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Pancreas is positioned in retroperitoneal space
55. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the pancreas
D. Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the pancreas
E. * Peritoneum covers one surface of the pancreas
56. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Extraperitoneal position
57. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
E. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
58. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
D. Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
E. * Peritoneum covers the pancreas
59. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
E. * Retroperitoneal position
60. During operation on indication the bile stones a surgeon must find a common
hepatic duct. Between the layers of what ligament does it situate?
A. Hepatoduodenal.
B. Hepatogastric.
C. Hepatorenal.
D. * Round ligament of the liver.
E. Ligamentum venosum.
61. During operation on indication the bile stones a surgeon must find a common
hepatic duct. Between the layers of what ligament does it situate?
A. * Hepatoduodenal.
B. Hepatogastric.
C. Hepatorenal.
D. Round ligament of the liver.
E. Ligamentum venosum.
62. During the cholecystectomy (removing of a gall bladder), which performed from
a fundus, concrements (bile stones) can move through wide cystic duct to the
next departments of the bile ducts. What place a surgeon must check in?
A. Ductus hepaticus communis.
B. Ductus choledochus.
C. Ductus hepaticus dexter.
D. Ductus hepaticus sinister.
E. * Ductulus billifer.
63. During the cholecystectomy (removing of a gall bladder), which performed from
a fundus, concrements (bile stones) can move through wide cystic duct to the
next departments of the bile ducts. What place a surgeon must check in?
A. Ductus hepaticus communis.
B. * Ductus choledochus.
C. Ductus hepaticus dexter.
D. Ductus hepaticus sinister.
E. Ductulus billifer.
64. During the operation on the strangulated umbilical hernia in a hernia sack a part
of intestine was revealed with the appendixes of serous, which contain fat
tissue. What part of intestine was strangulated?
A. Duodenum.
B. * Transverse colon.
C. Ileum.
D. Jejunum.
E. Cecum.
65. In a patient with destructive appendicitis, as complication a subdiaphragmatic
abscess appeared. In what formation of peritoneum does it locate?
A. Left lateral channel.
B. Bursa pregastrica.
C. Bursa omentalis.
D. Right lateral canal.
E. * Bursa hepatica.
66. In man the perforation of ulcer of horizontal part of duodenum was revealed. In
what area the inflammatory process will situate?
A. Omental bursa.
B. Left mesenteric sinus.
C. Right lateral channel.
D. Left lateral channel.
E. * Right mesenteric sinus.
67. The abscess of the left lobe of liver in patient 48 years old was diagnosed. The
generalization of inflammation can cause the peritonitis. Inflammation of what
part of peritoneum will be observed?
A. Left mesenteric sinus.
B. * Pregastric bursa.
C. Left mesenteric sinus.
D. Omental bursa.
E. Hepatic bursa.
68. The examination revealed that a gallbladder is overfull with bile. What part of
ex- trahepatic bile ducts is pathologically changed?
A. Left hepatic duct.
B. Cystic duct.
C. Common hepatic duct.
D. Ductus choledochus.
69. The examination revealed that a gallbladder is overfull with bile. What part of
ex- trahepatic bile ducts is pathologically changed?
A. Left hepatic duct.
B. Cystic duct.
C. Common hepatic duct.
D. * Ductus choledochus.
70. The injured by firearms was delivered to hospital with the strong bleeding.
During the examination the surgeon revealed, that the bullet canal passed
through the anterior wall of stomach, fornix of stomach and went out at the level
of the X rib on the left middle axillary line. What organ is damaged with the
stomach?
A. * Transverse colon.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Left kidney.
Pancreas.
Spleen.
Left lobe of liver.
71. The injured by firearms was delivered to hospital with the strong bleeding.
During the examination the surgeon revealed, that the bullet canal passed
through the anterior wall of stomach, fornix of stomach and went out at the level
of the X rib on the left middle axillary line. What organ is damaged with the
stomach?
A. Transverse colon.
B. Left kidney.
C. Pancreas.
D. * Spleen.
E. Left lobe of liver.
72. The patient complains on a pain in the right hypohondriac area. After the
palpation in this area doctor found that liver has increased. What are biggest
parts of the liver?
A. Lobules
B. Nephrons
C. Acynuses
D. Segments
E. * Lobes
73. The perforation of ulcer of posterior wall of stomach was diagnosed at a patient
40 years old. To what anatomical formation the blood and content of stomach
will get?
A. Bursa omentalis.
B. Bursa pregastrica.
C. * Bursa omentalis.
D. Left lateral canal.
E. Bursa hepatica.
74. The tumor of ascending colon in woman 65 years old was diagnosed. Peritonitis
of what area of peritoneum will be observed in the case of destruction of
tu¬mor?
A. * Right mesenteric sinus.
B. Left mesenteric sinus.
C. Hepatic bursa.
D. Pregastric bursa.
E. Omental bursa.
75. The tumor of descending colon in man 69 years old was diagnosed. Peritonitis
of what area of peritoneum will be ob¬served in the case of destruction of
tu¬mor?
A. Omental bursa.
B. Right mesenteric sinus.
C. * Left mesenteric sinus.
D. Pregastric bursa.
E. Hepatic bursa.
76. The ulcer of anterior wall of stomach was diagnosed. Inflammation of what part
of peritoneum is most possible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bursa hepatica.
* Bursa pregastrica.
Bursa omentalis.
Right mesenteric sinus.
Left mesenteric sinus.
77. The victim got a knife wound in right lumbar area. The damage of right kidney
takes a place. What organs of retroperitoneal space can be damaged here?
A. * Duodenum.
B. Transverse colon.
C. Left curvature of transverse colon.
D. Descending colon.
E. Initial part of ileum.
78. To the patient 50 years concerning a pancreatitis the resection of tail of
pancreas is performed. It is necessary to know, that a pancreas situate\:
A. Parenteral.
B. Mesoperitoneal.
C. Intraperitoneal.
D. * Extraperitoneal.
E. Intramuraly.
79. To victim with the punctured wound of anterior wall of stomach appealed for
surgical help. To what formation of peritoneal cavity did the content of stomach
get?
A. Left mesenteric sinus.
B. Omental bursa.
C. Hepatic bursa.
D. * Pregastric bursa.
E. Right mesenteric sinus.
80. A patienj was hospitalized in a clinic with complaints of cuffing with blood,
hyperhydrosis. The X-ray revealed the tuberculosis focus in the superior lobe of
the left lung. An operation was recommended. What is greatest quantity of
segments can be removed in structure of the superior lobe of left lung?
A. * 5.
B. 6.
C. 3.
D. 2.
E. l.
81. A pathologist made dissection of patient, dyed from long chronic disease of
kidney. The dissection revealed congenital absence of one kidney. What
diagnosis did a doctor?
A. Ren duplex.
B. * Agenesia renis.
C. Distopia renis.
D. Ren arcuata.
E. Ren anularis.
82. A patient 28 years old appealed to nephrology with a diagnosis a falling of the
right kidney (nephroptosis). X-ray contrast urography confirmed a preliminary
diagnosis. What is norm position of the right kidney according to 12th rib?
A. 12 rib crosses a kidney in the inferior third.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* 12 rib crosses a kidney in the superior third.
12 rib crosses a kidney in the middle.
12 rib is projected on the superior pole.
12 rib is project on the inferior pole.
83. A patient 37 years old appealed to urology with a diagnosis a falling of the left
kidney (nephroptosis). X-ray-contrast urography confirmed a preliminary
diagnosis. What is the position of the left kidney concerning 12th rib in norm?
A. 12 rib is projected on the superior pole.
B. 12 rib crosses a kidney in the superior third.
C. 12 rib crosses a kidney in the inferior third.
D. * 12 rib crosses a kidney in the middle.
E. 12 rib is project on the inferior pole.
84. A patient 37 years old was delivered to pulmonology department with a
diagnosis left-side exsudative pleuritis. What anatomical formation of pleura the
inflammatory exudates will be collected more credible?
A. * Costodiaphragmatic sinus.
B. Costomediastinal sinus.
C. Phrenicomediastinal sinus.
D. All enumerated.
E. Pleural cupula.
85. A patient 43 years old appealed to urologist with the preliminary diagnosis
floating kidney (ren mobile). At X-ray contrast urography in vertical and lying
position the displacement of the right kidney has been marked. At what level in
norm there is a right kidney according a vertebral column?
A. From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the middle of 4 lumbar vertebras.
B. * From inferior edge of 11 thoracic to the middle of 3 lumbar vertebras.
C. From inferior edge of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 1 lumbar vertebra.
D. From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the superior edge of 2 lumbar vertebras.
E. From the middle of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 3 lumbar vertebras.
86. A patient 65 years old was operated on indications of the tumor of ureter. During
operation it is revealed, that the tumor extended to mesentery of small in:
testine. What part of ureter is affected with a tumor?
A. Intraorganic.
B. Pelvic.
C. * Abdominal.
D. Intrarenal.
E. Thoracic
87. A patient appealed in clinic with trauma of a kidney. During a surgical operation
from the posterior approach, it is necessary to press a renal artery. What is the
sequence of the elements of renal leg in its hilus from posterior to anterior one?
A. Artery, vein, ureter.
B. Artery, ureter, vein.
C. * Ureter, artery, vein.
D. Vein, ureter, artery.
E. Vein, artery, ureter.
88. A patient appealed to urology with the preliminary diagnosis floating kidney (ren
mobile). At X-ray contrast urography in vertical and lying position the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
displacement of the left kidney has been marked. At what level in norm there is
a left kidney according to a vertebral column?
From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the superior edge of 2 lumbar vertebras.
From inferior edge of 11 thoracic to the middle of 4 lumbar vertebras.
From the middle of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 4 lumbar vertebras.
From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the middle of 3 lumbar vertebras.
* From the middle of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 3 lumbar vertebras.
89. A patient died from acute renal insufficiency (because of edema of kidney's
parenchyma). What layer of a kidney will be separated hardly from renal
parenchyma quring pathological anatomical dissection?
A. Renal fascia.
B. Fibrous capsule.
C. * Adipose capsule.
D. Retroperitoneal fascia.
E. Preperitoneal fascia.
90. A patient has a urolithiasis. During re moving the concrement from the right
ureter a surgeon cut the wall of ureter. In what anatomical formation the urine
will get?
A. * Retroperitoneal space.
B. Right mesemteric sinus.
C. Rectovesical excavation.
D. Prevesical space.
E. Right lateral canal.
91. A patient was hospitalized in clinic with a tumor of middle lobe of right lung. How
many segments can be removed during this operation?
A. 3.
B. * 2.
C. 4.
D. 5.
E. l.
92. After a patient examination was revealed, that his right kidney is situated in iliac
fossa (iliac kidney). This congenital dystopia is differentiated from the
nephroptosis (falling kidney):
A. Absence of fibrous capsule.
B. * Decreasing of pararenal adipose body.
C. Shape of kidney.
D. Anomalistic low position of kidney.
E. More caudal arising of renal artery from aorta.
93. At the sick child RDS (respiratory distress syndrome), connected vvith
disturbances of surfactant production was revealed. The surfactant covers:
A. Walls of larynx.
B. Walls of trachea.
C. * Alveolar walls.
D. Bronchi.
E. Bronchioles.
94. Because of illness a middle-aged woman had acute fall thin. After some period
a pain appeared in a lumbar area. A doctor diagnosed nephroptosis. Weakening
of what fixative factors of kidneys led to this pathology.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Capsula adiposa.
Arteriae et venae renalis.
Capsula fibrosa.
Perinephrium.
Fascia endoabdominalis.
95. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum
and ureter?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
E. * Retroperitoneal position
96. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum
and ureter?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
E. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
97. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum
and ureter?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
D. Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
E. * Peritoneum covers the ureter
98. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum
and ureter?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Extraperitoneal position
99. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum
and ureter?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the ureter
D. Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the ureter
E. * Peritoneum covers one surface of the ureter
100.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal
cavity. On posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the
peritoneum and ureter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Ureter is positioned in retroperitoneal space
101.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal
cavity. On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was
found. What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
E. * Retroperitoneal position
102.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal
cavity. On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was
found. What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
E. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for kidneys
103.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal
cavity. On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was
found. What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
D. Peritoneum does not form mesentery for kidneys
E. * Peritoneum covers the kidneys
104.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal
cavity. On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was
found. What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Extraperitoneal position
105.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal
cavity. On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was
found. What relation of the peritoneum and kidney?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the kidney
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidney
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the kidney
D. Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the kidney
E. * Peritoneum covers one surface of the kidney
106.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal
cavity. On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was
found. What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Kidneys are positioned in retroperitoneal space
107.
During auscultation (hearing) of lungs of a patient 37 years old the
"Vesicular breathing" was marked. It is normal noise which listened to above the
thorax of healthy people. This noise arisen up in a bronchial tree and passed
through a normally functioning alveolar tree. What anatomical structures do not
concern to elements of a bronchial tree?
A. Terminal bronchioles.
B. * Respiratory bronchioles.
C. Lobular bronchi.
D. Lobar bronchi.
E. Segmental bronchi.
108.
During the operation a stone 3x4 cm in size and having on one side 3
horn- shaped outgrowths (coral calculus) was removed from renal pelvis. What
anatomic formations do these processes correspond?
A. Lesser calices.
B. Nephrons.
C. Greater calices.
D. Renal pelvis.
E. * Lobules.
109.
During the operation on lungs a surgeon removed a clot of blood from a
horizontal fissure. What lobes of lung are separated by this fissure?
A. Inferior and middle lobes of right lung.
B. Superior and inferior lobes of right lung.
C. Superior and inferior lobes of left lung.
D. * Superior and middle lobes of right lung.
E. Inferior lobes of right and left lungs.
110.
Excretory urogramma (contrasting of urinoexcretory ways) revealed wide
sac-shaped renal pelvis, in which lesser calices empties, greater calices are
absent. Specify the form excretory ways of a kidney.
A. Phylogenetic.
B. Fetal.
C. Mature.
D. * Embryonic.
E. Ontogenetic.
111.
In 3 years old patient the lobectomy of middle lobe of right lung was
provided. What segments were damaged?
A. Medial and anterior.
B. Apical, posterior, anterior.
C. * Lateral and medial.
D. Posterior and lateral basal.
E. Posteroapical.
112.
In patient left renal infarct was diagnosed. The damaging of parenchyma
of kidney was caused a devascularization in the system of arteries, passing
through renal column. Name these arteries...
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Segmental.
Interlobular.
Arcuate.
Interlobar.
Renal.
113.
In patient right renal infarct was diagnosed. The damaging of
parenchyma of kidney was caused by devascularization in the system of
segmental artery. How many segmental arteries are present in right kidney in a
norm?
A. 4.
B. 3.
C. 5.
D. 7.
E. * 6.
114.
In patient the stone in the place of transition of the left renal pelvis to
ureter was revealed. What structure situate anteriorly to the initial part of the left
ureter?
A. Sigmoid colon.
B. Stomach.
C. Ileum.
D. Spleen.
E. * Pancreas.
115.
In the short-winded patient X-ray exposed an exudation in a pleural
cavity. To prevent injuring intercostal arteries, the puncture of pleural cavity
should be provided (taking into account the level of exudation)
A. In the place of transition of bone part of rib in cartilaginous.
B. On the lower edge of overlying rib.
C. In the middle point between ribs.
D. At the head of rib.
E. * To the upper edge of subjacent rib.
116.
Mother of 3-years-old child appealed to the clinic. During conversation
doctor clarified that child played with a small metallic object (a cuff-link) and
inserted it in mouth. The child had swallowed or had inhaled this subject. To find
out it was not possible. At X-ray examination the foreign body was revealed at a
level of 6-th thoracic vertebra on a middle line. Where, more probably than all, is
there this foreign body?
A. In a pharynx.
B. In a trachea.
C. * In an esophagus.
D. In the left main bronchus.
E. In the right main bronchus.
117.
The auscultation (hearing) of lungs revealed the segment with «bronchial
breathing» in a patient 46 years old. Such respiratory noise is not listened at
healthy people. The doctor made a conclusion that in the given segment there
was a destruction of an alveolar tree. What anatomical structure doesn't belong
to the alveolar tree?
A. * Intrasegmental bronchi.
B. Alveolar saccules.
C. Alveolar ducts.
D. Alveola.
E. Respiratory bronchioles.
118.
The left-sided segmental pneumonia is diagnosed at the patient. An
additional respiratory noise (crepitation) is listened at the left side from the back
surface, on the level of VII-X ribs. In what segment of lungs is the pathological
process locates?
A. Inferior uvular.
B. Medial basal.
C. Lateral basal.
D. Anterior basal.
E. * Posterior basal.
119.
The parents of new-born child appealed to pediatrics with complaints of
excretions a liquid (urines) in the area of navel. What congenital abnormality did
the child get?
A. Meckel divertikulum.
B. Non-closed urachus.
C. Splintering urethra.
D. * Umbilical cyst.
E. Inguinal cyst.
120.
The patient appealed to the surgery with a tumor in lower third of
esophagus. What serous layer of thoracic cavity can be damaged during the
operation in this area?
A. Diaphragmatic pleura.
B. Left mediastinal pleura.
C. Right costal pleura.
D. * Right mediastinal pleura.
E. Left costal pleura.
121.
The patient with knife wound of thorax on the right and pneumothorax
(entering of air in a pleural cavity) was delivered to surgical department. By
percussion was found the lower margin of right lung on a midclavicular line lifted
up to level of the III rib. Where in a norm must it be?
A. V rib.
B. VII rib.
C. VIII rib.
D. IX rib.
E. * VI rib.
122.
To a patient 60 years old the lobectomy of superior lobe of right lung was
provided. What segments were damaged?
A. Lateral, middle, superior.
B. * Apical, posterior, anterior.
C. Middle, basal and lateral basal.
D. Posterior basal, superior and inferior lingular.
E. Posteroapical.
123.
To patient with diagnose a cancer of left lung was performed an operation
pneu¬monectomy (removing of the lung). One of stages of the operation is
ligation and cutting a root of the lung, which includes arteries, veins and
bronchus. In what order are these structures disposed in a root of left lung from
up to down?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, main bronchus.
* Pulmonary artery, main bronchus, pulmonary veins.
Main bronchus, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins.
Main bronchus, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery.
Pulmonary veins, main bronchus, pulmonary artery.
124.
To the patient 50 years old the lobectomy of superior lobe of right lung
was provided. How many segments were removed?
A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 2.
D. * 3.
E. O.
125.
A 65 years old man appealed to doctor with acute retention of urine. The
examination revealed an obstruction of urethra, which was caused by pathology
of organ surrounding it. What is this organ?
A. Spermatic cord.
B. Testicle.
C. Seminal vesicles.
D. * Prostate gland.
E. Epidydimis.
126.
A man 40 years old appealed a doctor with complaints of the presence of
painful tumor in area of scrotum. A doctor diagnosed is hydrocele of testicle.
Be¬tween what suits of testicle does a liquid accumulate at this disease?
A. Between external seminal fascia and fascia of cremaster muscle.
B. Between a skin and tunica dartos.
C. Between a tunica dartos and external seminal fascia.
D. * Between the parietal and visceral lamina of vaginal tunic.
E. Between internal seminal fascia and vaginal tunic.
127.
A man 75 years old entered urology department with complaints of the
expressed pain at the hypogastric region, absence of urine, impossibility of
urination. At examination an urologist revealed a diagnosis\: adenoma (benign
tumor of prostate gland). The catheterization of urinary bladder was indicated.
What is the sequence of passing of catheter through the parts of urethra?
A. Membranous, prostatic, spongy.
B. Spongy, prostatic, membranous.
C. Membranous, spongy, prostatic.
D. Prostatic, membranous, spongy.
E. * Spongy, membranous, prostatic.
128.
A man has a tumor of posterior wall of urinary bladder. What organs can
be engaged in a process?
A. Rectum, prostate gland.
B. Prostate gland.
C. * Rectum, seminal vesicles, ampule of ejaculatory duct.
D. Male urethra.
E. Cowper's (bulbourethral) glands.
129.
A patient 20 years old appealed to the policlinic with complaints of
burning and purulent excretions during urination. For confirmation of diagnosis
the bacterial inoculation from a urethra is appointed. Doctor doing this
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
inoculation, takes mu¬cus from a navicular fossa. In what part of urethra is this
fossa located?
Cavernous.
* Spongy.
Prostatic.
Membranous.
Bulbar.
130.
A patient 35 years old entered obstetric department with the symptoms of
"acute abdomen" and suspicion on extrauterine pregnancy. Where will blood
accumulate at the rupture of salpinx?
A. In a vesicouterine cavity.
B. * In a rectouterine cavity.
C. In a rectovesical cavity.
D. In a right lateral canal.
E. In the left lateral canal.
131.
A patient 65 years old was hospitalized with suspicion on the tumor of
prostate. During an operation it is revealed, that the tumor «germinated» to a
urinary bladder. What department of urinary bladder suffered?
A. * Neck.
B. Apex.
C. Fundus.
D. Body.
E. Triangle.
132.
A patient appealed to the doctor with a complaint of sharp attacks of a
pain in a right lumbar area. The examination revealed obstruction of right ureter
by stone between its abdominal and pelvic parts. What is anatomical border
between these two parts?
A. Linea semilunaris.
B. * Linea terminalis.
C. Linea arcuata.
D. Linea transversa.
E. Linea inguinalis.
133.
A patient has inflammation of bulbourethral glands. Between what
perineal fascia are these organs?
A. Fasciae diaphragmatis pelvis inferior et superior.
B. Fasciae perinei superficialis et dia¬phragmatic urogenitalis inferior.
C. Fasciae diaphragmatis urogenitalis superior et diaphragmatis pelvis inferior.
D. * Fasciae diaphragmatis urogenitalis superior et inferior.
E. Fasciae perinei superficialis et dia¬phragmatis pelvis inferior.
134.
A patient was hospitalized with suspicion on the tumor of prostate. During
an operation it was exposed, that a tumor «germinated» to the middle
department of urethra. What is it a department?
A. Lacunar.
B. Prostatic.
C. Spongy.
D. Cavernous.
E. * Membranous.
135.
A young man appealed to the hospital with complaints of disturbances of
urination. It was revealed, that a urethra is split above and urine flows out
through this opening. What type of anomaly of development is observed in this
case?
A. Paraphimosis.
B. Phimosis.
C. Hermaphroditism.
D. * Epispadiya.
E. Hypospadiya.
136.
After trauma of testicle and hemorrhage the coiled seminal tubuli in a
parenchyma are damaged. What function of testicle is destroyed?
A. Erection of penis.
B. * Spermatogenesis.
C. Excretion of sperms.
D. Production of liquid part of sperm.
E. All mentioned.
137.
An urolithiasis was complicated by the exit of concrement from the
kidney. On what level of ureter can it stop most probably?
A. 2 cm superiorly to the inflow to a urinary bladder.
B. In a renal pelvis.
C. In middle abdominal part.
D. * On the border between abdominal and pelvic parts.
E. 5 cm superiorly to pelvic part.
138.
At a woman extrauterine pregnancy was found out. In what organ did the
impregnation of ovule and its development happen?
A. Vagina.
B. In an ovary.
C. In the body of uterus.
D. In the neck of uterus.
E. * In a salpinx.
139.
At a woman the tumor of ovary was found out. An operation is indicated.
What lig¬ament must a surgeon cut to separate an ovary from uterus? A. Broad
ligament of uterus.
A. Lig. umbilicalis medialis.
B. Lig. suspensorium ovarium.
C. * Lig. ovarium proprium.
D. Lig. umbilicalis lateralis.
E. Rounded ligament of uterus.
140.
At examination of a newborn boy a surgeon exposed absence of the left
testicle in a scrotum (monorchizm). In what age must a testicle be in a scrotum
in norm?
A. Till one year.
B. * To moment of birth.
C. Till three years.
D. Till five years.
E. Till seven years.
141.
During a childbirth at difficult exiting of head of child to avoid the perineal
rupture they usually make the section of vagina opening at base of labia majora.
What perineal muscle is dissected here?
A. M. transversus perinei superficialis.
B. M. ischiocavernosus.
C. * M. bulbospongiosus.
D. M. sphincter ani externus.
E. M. transversus perinei profundus.
142.
During a cystoscopy a doctor revealed changes of mucous membrane of
urinary bladder in the area of «triangle». I n what part of urinary bladder is this
triangle?
A. Body.
B. Isthmus.
C. Apex.
D. Collumn.
E. * Fundus.
143.
During examination in a newborn boy was found that the orifice of urethra
is open on the lower surface of penis. What anomaly of development is it?
A. * Hypospady.
B. Hermaphroditism.
C. Epispady.
D. Monorchism.
E. Cryptorchism.
144.
During operation of deleting of uterus with ovaries and ovarian tubes a
doctor bandages Ligaments which suspend ovaries. What vessels were
bandaged by a doctor in this ligament?
A. * Ovarian artery and vein.
B. Uterine artery and vein.
C. Tubular artery and vein.
D. Internal iliac artery.
E. Internal iliac vein.
145.
During operation on an ovary vessels were bandaged in area of hilus. In
what department of ovary does conduct manipulation?
A. Facies lateralis.
B. Margo liber.
C. Facies medialis.
D. * Margo mesovaricus.
E. Extremitas uterinus.
146.
During the catheterization of male urethra a mucous membrane was
injured. In what part of urethra is the damage of it most possible?
A. Pars cavernosa.
B. Pars spongiosa.
C. * Pars membranacea.
D. Pars prostatica.
E. Pars bulbaris.
147.
During the removing of right ovary a surgeon instead of ovarian artery
bandaged a near located organ. Which one?
A. * Ureter.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Thoracic duct.
Aorta.
Common iliac artery.
Internal iliac artery.
148.
For a man 40 years inflammation of testicle was complicated by
hydrocele. Operative treatment is needed. What from the suits of testicle does a
surgeon cut the last during an operation?
A. Fascia spermatica interna.
B. Tunica dartos.
C. * Lamina parietalis tunicae vaginalis tes¬tis.
D. Musculus cremaster.
E. Fascia spermatica externa.
149.
For a newborn boy at examination in a right half of scrotum a testicle it is
not found . What anomaly of development does speech go about?
A. Epispadia.
B. Hermaphroditism.
C. Hydrocele.
D. Hypospadia.
E. * Monorchizm.
150.
For the boy of 2 years a scrotal hernia is diagnosed. Abnormality of what
testicular membrane does lead to this pathology?
A. Tunica dartos.
B. Fascia cremasterica.
C. Fascia spermatica externa.
D. * Tunica vaginalis testis.
E. Fascia spermatica interna.
151.
For the patient of 53 years old after a wound of perineal region
involuntary urination is marked. What of muscles is damaged?
A. * M. sphincter urethrae.
B. M. ischiocavernosus.
C. M. bulbospongiosus.
D. M. transversus perinei superficialis.
E. M. transversus perinei profundus.
152.
In patient the presence of stone in the place of transition of right renal
pelvis to the ureter was revealed. Behind what structure does the initial part of
the right ureter situate?
A. Colon ascendens.
B. Flexura coli dextra.
C. * Pars descendens duodeni.
D. Pars superior duodeni.
E. Pars horizontalis duodeni.
153.
It is possible to perform a puncture of urinary bladder through anterior
abdominal wall, not affecting a peritoneum. When?
A. When the bladder is empty.
B. * When the bladder is full (stretched), when it is covered mesoperitoneally.
C. Only in male.
D. Only in female.
E. Only in children.
154.
Several time after the trauma of perineal region a patient have the
phenomena of impotence. What muscle was damaged?
A. M. levator ani.
B. M. sphincter urethrae internus.
C. M. sphincter urethrae externus.
D. M. bulbospongiosus.
E. * M. ischiocavernosus.
155.
Ultrasonic research of organs of lesser pelvis is carried out at a full
urinary bladder. What does perineal muscle retain the urine?
A. M. bulbospongiosus.
B. * M. sphincter urethrae.
C. M. ischiocavernosus.
D. M. transversus perinei superficialis.
E. M. transversus perinei profundus.
156.
The patient has compressive fracture at the beginning of spinal cord .At
what vertebra is it?
A. L4
B. C3
C. T11
D. * C1
E. T7
157.
Between what vertebra may a needle be inserted during a spinal tap?
A. L4-L5
B. L2-L3
C. L1-L2
D. * L3-L4
E. T12-L1
158.
During general anaesthesia doctor blocking the basic functional unit of
the nervous system it is…
A. * Neuron
B. Glial cell
C. White mater and gray mater
D. Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
E. Anterior and posterior horns
159.
During general anaesthesia doctor blocking the brain it is the part of…
A. Somatic nervous system
B. * Central nervous system
C. Autonomic nervous system
D. Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
E. Splanchnic nervous system
160.
During spinal anaesthesia doctor blocking segment of spinal cord it is…
A. Portion of spinal cord between upper and lower spinal roots
B. Portion of spinal cord with membranes
C. White mater and gray mater
D. * Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
E. Anterior and posterior horns
161.
On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the terminal ventricle in
the…
A. Midbrain
B. Brain steam
C. * Spinal cord
D. Diencephalon
E. Hind brain
162.
On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the end of spinal cord
on adults in the…
A. Th 12 vertebrae
B. L1 vertebrae
C. S1 vertebrae
D. * L2 vertebrae
E. Th11 vertebrae
163.
On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the end of spinal cord
on child in the…
A. Th 12 vertebrae
B. L1 vertebrae
C. S1 vertebrae
D. L2 vertebrae
E. * L3 vertebrae
164.
The child 5 years old diagnosed meningitis. At what level punctuate must
be done?
A. L4-L5
B. L2-L3
C. * L3-L4
D. L1-L2
E. T12-L1
165.
The doctor examine knee reflex.Which sequence best represents the
courseof an impulse over a reflex arc?
A. Effector,sensory neuron,synapse,motor neurone,receptor
B. Receptor,motor neuron,synapse,sensory neurone,effector
C. * Receptor,sensory neuron,synapse,motor neurone,effector
D. Receptor,sensory neuron,center,intern neuron,effector
E. Non of the above
166.
The doctor neuropathologist examine knee reflex the sensory nerve
fibers carry information…
A. Away from the visceral nervous system
B. Away from the ANS
C. Away from theCNS to the ANS
D. * Toward the CNS
E. Away from the CNS
167.
The doctor want punctuate spinal canal..At what level it must be done?
A. T4
B. * L2
C. C5
D. T12
E. T8
168.
The patient cannot detect the amount of stretch or tension in skeletal
muscles, what receptors not functioned?
A. Pain receptors
B. * Proprio receptors
C. Heat receptors
D. Cutaneous receptors
E. Away from the CNS
169.
The patient has fever and weakness in the foots, doctor suspect
meningitis and examine…
A. Extra cerebral spinal fluid
B. The subarachnoid space
C. * Cerebral spinal fluid
D. Fat
E. Blood
170.
?The patient has fracture of L2 vertebra At what level will be spinal cord
damaged1?
A. C3
B. L1
C. T5
D. L2
E. No correct answer
171.
The patient has not temperature sensitivity of the legs skin.What is the
minimum number of neurons is blocked?
A. -3
B. -4
C. -5
D. -1
E. * -2
172.
What functions of the central nervous system examine the doctor
neuropathologist?
A. Sending out messages to muscles
B. Sending out messages to glands and organs
C. Receiving,processing and interpreting incoming information
D. * All of the above
E. None of the above
173.
You see CT picture indicate position of filum terminale in the…
A. L1-Co1
B. C1-S1
C. C1-L2
D. C2-L2
E. * L2-Co2
174.
You see CT picture indicate position of lumbosacral enlargement in the…
A. * Th 12 vertebrae
B. L1 vertebrae
C. S1 vertebrae
D. L2 vertebrae
E. Th11 vertebrae
175.
You see CT picture what you can indicate in central canal of vertebre?
A. Midbrain
B. Brain steam
C. * Spinal cord
D. Diencephalon
E. Hind brain
176.
After auto accident to the neurological department of hospital delivered
the man. Found traumatic brain injury .Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which
parts of the brain can be damaged?
A. hypophysis
B. none of the above
C. * pons
D. corpus callosum
E. all correct answers
177.
After auto accident to the neurological department of hospital delivered
the man. Found traumatic brain injury .Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which
parts of the brain can be damaged?
A. hypophysis
B.
C.
D.
E.
frontal lobe
corpus callosum
* vermis of cerebellum
temporal lobe
178.
After auto accident to the neurological department of hospital delivered
the man. Found traumatic brain injury .Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which
parts of the brain can be damaged?
A. * decussation of pyramids
B. hypophysis
C. frontal lobe
D. corpus callosum
E. temporal lobe
179.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the
neurological department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the
medulla oblongata. What disorders of the central nervous system can be
detected?
A. * cardiovascular disorders
B. speech defect
C. auditory loss
D. a loss of coordination and balance
E. distorted pain perception
180.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the
neurological department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the
medulla oblongata. What disorders of the central nervous system can be
detected?
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. * cardiac and vasomotor disorders
D. a loss of coordination and balance
E. distorted pain perception
181.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the
neurological department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the
medulla oblongata. What disorders of the central nervous system can be
detected?
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. a loss of coordination and balance
D. * respiratory rhythmicity disorders
E. distorted pain perception
182.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the
neurological department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the
cerebellum. What disorders of the central nervous system can be detected?
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. * a loss of coordination
D. respiratory rhythmicity disorders
E. distorted pain perception
183.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the
neurological department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the
cerebellum. What disorders of the central nervous system can be detected?
A. * a loss of balance
B. speech defect
C. auditory loss
D. respiratory rhythmicity disorders
E. distorted pain perception
184.
After traumatic brain injury patient complains of loss of visual motor
response. What part of the brain may be damaged?
A. cerebellum
B. corpus callosum.
C. * corpora quadrigemina.
D. none of the above
E. medulla oblongata
185.
After traumatic brain injury to the neurological department of hospital
delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which parts of the brain
can be damaged?
A. pons
B. cerebellar hemispheres
C. vermis of cerebellum
D. decussation of pyramids
E. * all correct answers
186.
After traumatic brain injury to the neurological department of hospital
delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which parts of the brain
can be damaged?
A. hypophysis
B. * cerebellar hemispheres
C. none of the above
D. corpus callosum
E. all correct answers
187.
During operation neurosurgeon remove some parts of the pons of the
brain.What structures may be destroyed?
A. Processing centers for sensory information
B. Processes of visual and auditory information
C. Connections of the cerebellum to the brain stem
D. None of the above
E. * All of the above
188.
During the examination of the patient of neurological department found
violations of hypoglossal nerve. Indicate the level of location of the nucleus of
hypoglossal nerve?
A. The upper segments of the spinal cord;
B. * Medulla oblongata
C. The lower part of the pons;
D. Legs brain;
E. Top of the pons.
189.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of interpeduncular fossa. Which nerve can be damaged?
A. 1st cranial nerve
B. 2nd cranial nerve
C. 4th cranial nerve
D. 5th cranial nerve
E. * 3d cranial nerve
190.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of trapezoid body. Which parts of the brain can be damaged?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
191.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of superior colliculus and brachium of superior colliculus. The function of what
centers can be damaged?
A. subcortical auditory centers
B. olfactory centers
C. subcortical motor centers
D. * subcortical visual centers
E. centers of stereohnoziyi
192.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of the lower triangle of rhomboid fossa. What nucleus of cranial nerves can be
damaged?
A. * from IX to XII pair
B. from V to VIII pair
C. from V to XII pair
D. from I to IV pair
E. from I to IV pair
193.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of the upper triangle of rhomboid fossa. What nucleus of cranial nerves can be
damaged?
A. from IX to XII pair
B. * from V to VIII pair
C. from V to XII pair
D. from I to IV pair
E. from I to IV pair
194.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of the lateral triangle of rhomboid fossa. What can be damaged?
A. * Vestibular field
B. Triangle pneumogastric
C. Triangle hyoid nerve
D. Caudal pole
E. Cranial pole
195.
Following an auto accident, a man with an obvious head injury was
observed stumbling about the scene. An inability to walk properly and loss of
balance were quite obvious. What brain area was involved?{
A. corpus callosum
B. occipital lobe of cerebrum
C. temporal lobe of cerebrum
D. medulla oblongata
E. * cerebellum
196.
Following an auto accident,a man with an obvious head injury was
observed stumbling about the scene.An inability to walk properly and loss of
balance were qute obvious.What brain area was involved?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Occipital lobe of cerebrum
C. * Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Temporal lobe of cerebrum
197.
In patient heart rhythm irregularities. What part of the brain may be
damaged?
A. cerebellum
B. cerebrum.
C. superior coliculi.
D. none of the above
E. * medulla oblongata
198.
The CT picture indicate haemorrage in the fouth ventricle.Where it
locate?
A. * Rhomboencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Isthmus rhomboencephali
199.
The CT picture indicate haemorrage in the pyramids region.Where it
locate?
A. Cerebellum
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Medulla oblongata
D. * Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. Pons
200.
The CT picture show small haemorrage to the reflex center of the
medulla.What center not involve to the process?
A. * Digestive centers
B. Cardiac and vasomotor centers
C. Respiratory rhythmicity center
D. Cardiovascular center
E. None of the above
201.
The CT picture show that patient has closed connection between 3-d and
4-th ventricles.What structure does not function correctly?
A. * Cerebral aqueduct
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Amiculum olivare
D. Corpus callosum
E. Tractus piramidalis
202.
The doctor diagnosed pathology in the cerebellum.What functions will be
damage?
A. Visual activity
B. * Balance and postur
C. Speech
D. Binocular vision
E. Emotional behavior
203.
The doctor on CT picture diagnosed pathology in the medulla
oblongata.What control functions except heart rate,blood pressurewill be
damage?
A. Emotions
B. Balance and postur
C. B and D
D. Body temperature
E. * Rate and depth of breathing
204.
The patient has haemorrage to the corpora quadrigemina ,it would most
like result in…
A. Speech defect
B. * Loss of visual motor response
C. Auditory loss
D. A loss of coordination and balance
E. Distorted pain perception
205.
?The patient has haemorrage to the region of the brain that regulates
heart rate I t is located…
A. Cerebullum
B. Cerebrum
C. * Medulla oblongata
D. Superior coliculi
E. Non of the above
206.
The patient has less quantity of cerebrospinal fluid.What structure is
response for it production?
A. Pia mater
B. Dura mater
C. * Chroid plexus
D. Dural sinus
E. Arachnoid granulation
207.
The patient has less quantity of cerebrospinal fluid.What functional
proceses will be break?
A. Cushions neural structures
B. Transports nutrients,chemical messengers and waste products
C. Supports of the brain
D. None of the above
E. * All of the above
208.
The patient has partial loss of control wake.Whicharea of the brain is
damaged?
A. Cerebellum
B. Midbrain
C. All of the above
D. * Reticular activating system (RAS)
E. Non of the above
209.
The patient in ICU has problems with respiratory rhythme.Where can be
damage of the brain locate?
A. Rhomboencephalon
B. * Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Isthmus rhomboencephali
210.
The surgeon during operation cut nerve in the interpeduncular
fossa.Which number of cranial nerve it was?
A. 1-st cranial nerve
B. 2-nd cranial nerve
C. 4-th cranial nerve
D. 5-th cranial nerve
E. * 3-d cranial nerve
211.
To the emergency department brought the patients after auto accident
During the examination in patient found heart rhythm irregularities. What part of
the brain may be damaged?
A. cerebellum
B. * medulla oblongata
C. cerebrum.
D. superior coliculi.
E. none of the above
212.
After injury of head MRI picture indicate,that patient has some adhesions
in the middle frontal gyrus.What center is located here?
A. Speech area
B. Hearing area
C. Sensory area
D. * Writing center
E. Visual cortex
213.
After injury of the head, subdural haemorrhage and compression of the
occipital lobe was detected by CT investigation.With what this region is
associate?
A. Are located within the white matter of the cerebrum
B. Are the most posterior part of the cerebellum
C. Help regulate gross movements performed unconsciously
D. * Are concerned with vision
E. Are the part of peripheral nervous system
214.
?After scanning , tumour was detected at the Brocar”s Area in the brain
of patient.Abnormality of which function may be observe?
A. Maintain a state of wakefulness
B. Interpret sounds
C. * Speak
D. Remember
E. Play a musical instrument
215.
After special physiological researches on volunteeres it was explored
that…
A. The left brain is more active in artistic and intuitive tasks,and the right
brain is more involved in the emotional and expressive abilities
B. The left brain has visual-spatial abilities,while the right brain is more
involved in artistic and creative activites
C. The right brain is more dominant and the left brain is more subordinate
D. * The left brain is more active in logic and the right brain is assotiated
with visual-spatial abilities
E. B and D
216.
At the clinical researches scientists explored,that anterior pituitary gland
receives hypothalamic relising factors via…
A. Direct diffusion through the interstitial spaces
B. Transport along nerve axons to the adenohypophysis
C. The systemic arterial system
D. Transport through the lymphatic system
E. * System of vessels in the infundibulum
217.
By clinical researches it was explored, that the part of the brain
concerned with water balance,appetite and regulating body temperature is the…
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebral cortex
D. * Hypothalamus
E. Thalamus
218.
During clinical scientific researches of the brain, it was explored ,that
general sensory center is located at…
A. Subthalamic area
B. Epithalamus
C. Metathalamus
D. * Thalamus
E. Hypothalamus
219.
During clinical scientific researches of the brain,it was explored,that the
cortical hearing area is located at…
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Unculus
C. * Superior temporal gyrus
D. Insula
E. Calcarine sulcus
220.
During clinical scientific researches of the brain, it was explored,that
cortical smell area is locate at…
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Superior temporal gyrus
C. Insula
D. * Uncus
E. Calcarine sulcus
221.
During clinical researches on volunteeres it was explored, that next
structure plays an important role in regulating of voluntary movements.It is…
A. Cerebral peduncles
B. Basal ganglias
C. * Primary motor gyrus of frontal lobe
D. Hypotalamus
E. Postcentral gyrus of parietal lobe
222.
During clinical researches was explored that ,feeling satisfied after a nice
meal and no being immediately hungry is the function of the…
A. Thalamus
B. Medulla
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Hypothalamus
223.
During clinical scientific researches it was explored that the locating
sensor y information is the function of the …
A. Somatosensory assotiation cortex
B. Broca”s area
C. Somatomotor cortex
D. * Somatosensory cortex
E. A and В
224.
During operation it was diagnosted that free circulation of the
intracerebral liquid is blocked at the aqueduct.What formations it communicate?
A. Third and second ventricles
B. * Fourth and third ventricles
C. Central canal of fourth ventricle
D. Central canal and subarachnoid space
E. Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
225.
On the CT picture doctor indicate pathologic process at the hypothalamus
region.Choose the function of the hypothalamus that is false…
A. Cardiovascular regulation
B. Regulation of sleeping and wakefulness
C. Houses pneumotaxic aarea
D. Sexual response
E. * None of the variants
226.
On the MRI picture it is indicate small haemorrhage in the pineal
body.Where it is locate?
A. Thalamus
B. * Epithalamus
C. Metathalamus
D. Subthalamic araea
E. Hypothalamus
227.
On the MRI picture of brain doctor can indicate the four distinct lobes of
the cortex,they are…
A. Sensory,auditory,visual and motor lobes
B. Hind,mid,fore and assotiation lobes
C. * Occipital,parietal,temporal and frontal lobes
D. Front,back,side and top lobes
E. None of the above
228.
On the MRI picture of brain doctor can indicate the largest part of the
diencefalon,it is…
A. Pineal body
B. * Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Intermediate mass
E. Pituitary gland
229.
On the picture of brain, made by electronic microscope,we can see the
most common type of neurons ,which have several dendrites and one axon
extending from the cell body .They are…
A. Interneurons
B. Afferent neurons
C. Pseudounipolar neurons
D. None of the above
E. * Multipolar neurons
230.
The patient has concussion of the brain,he complane about disfunction of
verbal communication,higher intellectual processes,voluntary control of skeletal
muscles.Which cerebral lobes are injured?
A. Occipital
B. * Frontal
C. Temporal
D. Parietal
E. Non of the above
231.
The patient has some problems with regulating sensory activity.What
region of brain may be involved in pathologic process?
A. * Somatic ,parietal
B. Voluntary motor,occipital
C. Somatic,temporal
D. Autonomic,parietal
E. Autonomic,temporal
232.
The patient has some problems with regulating consciously movements
of skeletal muscles.What region of brain may be involved in pathologic process?
A. Somatic sensory frontal
B. Primary motor,temporal
C. Primary motor parietal
D. Somatic sensory,parietal
E. * Primary motor,frontal lobe
233.
The scientists explored by clinical researches of the brain, that
authonomic center is located at…
A. Thalamus
B. Epithalamus
C. * Hypothalamus
D. Optic chiasma
E. Subthalamic area
234.
The scientists explored by clinical researches of the brain, that visual
cortex is located at…
A. Insula
B. Uncus
C. * Calcarine sulcus
D. Superior temporal gyrus
E. Superior frontal sulcus
235.
The scientists explored by clinical researches, that the function of
thalamus is...
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The final relay point for ascending sensory information
Coordination of the pyramidal and extrapiramidal systems
Secreating of hormones
All of the above
* 1 and 2 only
236.
Which of these groups will be cut through in a midsaggital section of the
brain during operation?
A. Medulla oblongata,pineal body,infundibulum and optic chiasma
B. Cerebellum,third and fourth ventricles and cerebral cortex
C. 2 and 3
D. Bulbus olfactorius
E. * 1 and 2
237.
?After clinical scientific researches it was explored that “Pleasure center”
and “Punishment center” of the brain are located in the…
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Prefrontal area
C. Intermediate mass
D. * Limbic system
E. Mammilliary bodies
238.
After examination of CT image of the brain structures ,can you say, what
sentence is true?
A. * The lateral ventricles are two cavities,one in each cerebral hemisphere
B. The fouth ventricle is diamond-shaped expansion of the central canal
within the brainstem
C. The third ventricle is a thin chamber lying below the corpus callosum and
septum pellucidum
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
239.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure
of lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. * Cornu anterius
C. Pons
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Spinal cord
240.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure
of lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. * Cornu temporal
C. Pons
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Spinal cord
241.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure
of lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Spinal cord
C. Pons
D. * Pars centralis
E. Medulla oblongata
242.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure
of lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. * Cornu frontale
E. Spinal cord
243.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure
of lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Spinal cord
D. Medulla oblongata
E. * Stria terminalis
244.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure
of lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. * Foramen interventriculare
D. Spinal cord
E. Medulla oblongata
245.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure
of lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. * Cornu inferius
E. Spinal cord
246.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what structure
doesn”t take part in formation of corpus callosum?
A. Rostrum
B. * Cortex cerebella
C. Splenium corporis callosi
D. Truncus corpora callosi
E. Radiatio corporis callosi
247.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what structures
include to the limbic system?
A. Spinal cord and the brain
B. Cortex and corpus callosum
C. A and B
D. Cerebellum and brain stem
E. * Amygdalla and hippocampus
248.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what is the
principal connection between cerebral hemispheres?
A. Cerebellum to the pons and medulla
B. The cerebral peduncles
C. * The corpus callosum
D. The brain system
E. The fornix
249.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what structures
connect corpus callosum?
A. Cerebellum to the pons and medulla
B. Lateral lobes of the cerebellum
C. The calluses on the palms of your hand
D. * Right and left cerebral hemispheres
E. The calluses on the palm of your hands
250.
The patient has problems with motor function of left hand. Where is the
first neuron (axon) of lateral corticospinal tract passes through?
A. Extrema capsule
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lentiform nucleus
External capsule
* Internal capsule
Claustrum
251.
The patient has significations of high intracranial pressure. What structure
of brain has concern to production of cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Meninges
B. * Choroid plexes
C. Corpora quadrigmina
D. Crura cerebri
E. Adenohypophysis glands
252.
At patient was diagnosed extra production of cerebrospinal fluid.Whath
structure response about it ?
A. Arachnoid granulations
B. * Choroid plexus
C. Spinal cord
D. Pia mater
E. Dural sinus
253.
At the patient was diagnosed “nearsightedness”,it means:
A. Hyperopia
B. Presbiopia
C. Hemianopia
D. * Myopia
E. Emmetropia
254.
At the patient was diagnosed “farsightedness”,it means:
A. * Hyperopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbiopia
D. Emmetropia
E. Hemianopia
255.
During microscopic investigation of eyeball doctor can see that
fotoreceptors are found in the..
A. Choroid coat
B. Cornea
C. * Retina
D. All the above
E. Sclera
256.
During microscopic investigation of retina doctor can see that the area of
retina containing only cone cells is the…
A. Uvea
B. Blind spot
C. * Fovea centralis
D. B and D
E. Optic disc
257.
During microscopic investigation of retina doctor can see that ora serrata
separate…
A. Chroidea and cornea
B. Retina and chroidea
C. * Parts of retina
D. Iris and ciliary body
E. Choroidea and sclera
258.
During microscopic investigation of retina doctor can see that rods and
cones are distributed over the entire retina exept for the…
A. Sclera
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ora serrata
Choroid
A and C
* Optic disc
259.
During neurosurgical operation doctor cut three connective tissue
membranes covering and protecting CNS structures are the…
A. Endosteum,pia mater
B. Periosteum,dura mater
C. Meninges,arachnoid
D. * Meninges,dura mater
E. Meninges,pia mater
260.
During operation of implantation an artificial crystalline lens surgeon cut
pupil .What it contain?
A. Lens
B. Light
C. Lens
D. Cones and rods
E. * Aquous humor
261.
The doctor diagnosed that the patient has blocked drainage of aquous
humor at the canal of Schlemm,what condition results?
A. Iritis
B. Cataract
C. * Glaucoma
D. Conjunctivitis
E. Blefaritis
262.
?The patient cannot see clear picture,focussing the light rays involves
which of the following?
A. Change in the location of the optic disc
B. Change in the sharp of the cornea
C. Change in the relative position of the lens
D. * Change in the sharpe of the lens
E. Change in the density of the aqueous humor
263.
The patient has an inflammation of delicate membrane that lines the
eyelids and covers part of oute surface of the eyeball,it is..
A. Arachnoid,cornea
B. Conjunctiva,ciliary glands
C. * Conjunctiva ,cornea
D. Conjunctiva,lacrimal apparatus
E. Endothelium,cornea
264.
The patient has an inflammation of the outer fibrous coating of the eyeball
,it is…
A. Most optically sensitive point of the retina
B. * The region in the retina where the ganglion cells are locate
C. The latest recording techniques on CDs
D. Exit of the Optic nerve,II
E. Junction between the iris and the ciliary body
F. ANSWER: D
G. Ciliary body
H. Sclera
I. Choroid
J. Retina
K. None of the above
265.
The patient has diagnose “glaucoma”.It is a condition:
A. Characterized by encrustations on the eyelids
B. Results eventually in opacity of the lens or cornea
C. Which may be caused by exposure to ultraviolet light
D. In which the conjunctiva is inflamated due to irritants such as dust or
smoke
E. * Characterized by abnormally high intraocular pressure
266.
The patient has inflammation of the transparent anterior portion of the
sclera,it is…
A. Choroid
B. Ciliary body
C. A and B
D. Retina
E. * Cornea
267.
The patient has problems with accommodation of the lens.What is
responseible for this function?
A. Sphincter muscle
B. Pupil
C. Pectinate ligament
D. Dilator muscle
E. * Ciliary musle
268.
The patient has problems with production of the aquous humor of the
eye, what structure responds of it?
A. Ora serrata
B. Pectinate ligaments
C. Iridocorneal angle
D. * Ciliary process
E. Zonula ciliaris
269.
The patient has problems with vision. Which way of light within the
eyeball?
A. Pupil,anterior chamber,cornea,lens,vitreous body,posterior chamber
B. Pupil,cornea,anterior chamber,posterior chamber,lens,vitreous body
C. Cornea,pupil,lens,anterior chamber,posterior chamber,vitreous body
D. Cornea,anterior chamber,pupil,lens,posterior chamber,vitreous body
E. * Cornea,anterior chamber,pupil,posterior chamber,lens,vitreous body
270.
At the newborn child some special sense is NOT function,it is…
A. Vision
B. * Balance
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. Hearing
271.
Doctor explore reaction of patient”s eye on bright light. Which muscle is
response for this reaction?
A. Dilator pupilae
B. Ciliary muscle
C. * Sphincter papillae
D. Oblique superior
E. Rectus superior
272.
Doctor explore reaction of patient”s eye on darkness. Which muscle is
response for this reaction ?
A. Rectus superior
B. Oblique superior
C. Sphincter papillae
D. Ciliary muscle
E. * Dilator papillae
273.
It was diagnosed that patient has problems with accommodation.What is
response about thigh function?
A. Sphincter muscle
B. Pupil
C. * Ciliary muscle
D. Pectinate ligament
E. Dilator muscle
274.
It was diagnosed that patient has problems with chemoreceptors, they
are…
A. Pain,pressure
B. Sight,smell
C. Smell,hearing
D. * Taste,smell
E. Proprioception,pain
275.
The doctor diagnosed nonmobile the maleus,incus and stapes they…
A. Are surrounded by perilymph
B. Are parts of the organ of Corti
C. Both A and B are correc
D. * Form a bridge between the tympanum and the oval window
E. Are locate in the inner ear
276.
The doctor diagnosed that patient has blocked Eustachian tube.With
which structure they communicate?
A. Larynx and pharynx
B. * Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
C. Laryngeal pharynx and oropharynx
D. Larynx and tympanic cavity
E. Oropharynx and tympanic cavity
277.
The doctor diagnosed that the patient has an inflammation of the auditory
(or Eustachian) tube,which is locate between the…
A. Throat and larynx
B. Throat and inner ear
C. Throat and trachea
D. Middle ear and inner ear
E. * Throat and middle ear
278.
The patient after car accident has injure of auditory ossiles, they are
associated with the…
A. External ear
B. Semicircular canals
C. * Middle ear
D. Internal ear
E. Cochlear duct
279.
The patient has an infection at cochelea,it is associate with the…
A. External ear
B. Eustachian tube
C. Semicircular canals
D. * Internal ear
E. Middle ear
280.
The patient has an infection in the part of ear which locate between
timpanic membrane and oval window,they associate with the…
A. External ear
B. Cochlear duct
C. * Middle ear
D. Inner ear
E. Semicircular canals
281.
?The patient has an inflammation of membrane that inlay the eyelids and
covers part of the outer surface of the eyeball, it is…
A. Arachnoid,cornea
B. Conjunctiva,cilary glands
C. Endothelium,cornea
D. * Conjunctiva,cornea
E. conjunctiva,lacrimal apparatus
282.
The patient has blocked structure that provides a means of equalizing the
air pressure in the middle ear chamber it is…
A. Oval window
B. Mastoid sinus
C. * Auditory tube
D. Seminiferous tube
E. Round window
283.
The patient has dissociate taste in the tip of the tongue, which taste he
cannot feel?
A. Salty
B. Sour
C. Bitter
D. B and D are correct
E. * Sweet
284.
The patient has dissociate taste to sour substances. Where are such
taste buds located?
A. * On the posterior lateral edges of the tongue
B. At the tip of the tongue
C. Both A ans B are correct
D. All over the surface of the tongue
E. At the sides of the tip of the tongue
285.
The patient has impairment of the teste sense.Which cranial nerves may
be damaged?
A. Fascial
B. Glossopharingeal
C. Hypoglossal
D. A,B and C are correct
E. * Only A and B are correct
286.
When patient crying where do tears flow from lacrimal gland?
A. Lacrimal sac
B. * Conunctival sac
C. Inferior nasal meatus
D. Superior nasal meatus
E. Nasolacrimal canal
287.
When patient crying where do tears flow from nasolacrimal canal?
A. Lacrimal sac
B. * Inferior nasal meatus
C. Superior nasal meatus
D. Excretory ducts
E. Conjunctival sac
288.
When patient has disfunction of the taste, what cranial nerves may be
injured?
A. Olfacatory,trigeminal and glossopharyngeal
B. Trigeminal,fascial,and glossopharingeal
C. Trigeminal,hypoglossal andglossopharingeal
D. Hypoglossal,vagus andglossopharingeal
E. * Fascial,vagus and glossopharingeal
289.
When the doctor suddenly exposed to bright light the eyes of patient,the
pupils immediately constrict.This is called the…
A. Crossed-extensor reflex
B. Stretch reflex
C. Nociceptor reflex
D. * Photopupillary reflex
E. Accommodation pupilary reflex
290.
During centralline catheterization doctor making puncture of viena
subclavia.Where it is locate?
A. * Neck
B. Abdomen
C. Throcic cavity
D. Pelvis
E. Correct answer is missing
291.
During operation surgeon make transplantation of artificial bifurcation of
carotid artery.What is it?
A. * Place where common carotid artery divides into external and internal
parts
B. Place where common carotid artery divides into external carotid artery
and left carotid artery
C. Place where common carotid artery divides into left carotid artery and
right carotid artery
D. Place where common carotid artery divides into external and right carotid
artery
E. Сщккусе фтыцук шы ьшыыштп
292.
?In arterial bleeding a tourniquet is imposed to…
A. * Proximal to the side of damage
B. Distal to the side of damage
C. Directly on the wound
D. On opposite extremity
E. Simultaneously proximal and distal to the site of damage
293.
In venous bleeding a tourniquet is imposed to…
A. 1 rib
B. Transversal processus of neck vertebrae
C. * Clavicular bone
D. 2 rib
E. Brachial bone
F. Distal to the site of damage
G. Directly on the wound
H. Proximal to the site of damage
I. On opposite extremity
J. Simultaneously proximal and distal to the site of damage
294.
Movement of the head make stimulations of hear cells in the semicircular
canals it is results from the movement of…
A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. * Endolymph
C. Perilymph
D. Otoliths
E. Aqueous humor
295.
The doctor explore pupilare reflex at the patient,pupils will be dilate in
response to the contraction of the…
A. Ciliar iris muscle
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Orbicularis oculi muscle
D. * Radial iris muscle
E. Levator palpebrae superior muscle
296.
The doctor put on the tourniquet on patient”s extremity.What time it is
imposed in winter?
A. To 15-30 min
B. * T0 30-60 min
C. To 1-2 hours
D. To 4-6 hours
E. To 12 hours
297.
The doctor put on the tourniquet on patient”s extremity.What time it is
imposed in summer?
A. * To 1-2 hours
B. To 15-30 min
C. To 30-60min
D. To 4-6 hours
E. To 12 hours
298.
The doctor put on tourniquet at the patient”s extremity.What are the
criteria of efficiency of imposition of it?
A. * Stop bleeding
B. Pale extremityabsense of pulsation
C. Coldness of the extremity
D. Disappearance of sensation
E. Absence of pulsation
299.
The patient has an inflammation of cervical lymph nodes.To what group
they are belong ?
A. Nodi superficiales
B. Nodi profundi superior
C. Nodi profundi inferior
D. Nodi supraclavicularis
E. * All
300.
The patient has bleeding from vena jugularis externa.Which veins forming
it?
A. V. facialis
B. V.lingualis
C. * V. occipitalis
D. V. parotidea
E. Correct answer is missing
301.
The patient has comotion of the common carotid artery with the tear of
intima results in…
A. Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Angiovenous dysplasia
C. * Arterial thrombosis
D. Pagget-shroeter’s syndrome
E. Arterio-venous fistula
302.
The patient has injury of common carotid artery,the direct sings of it
damage is…
A. * Acute arterial insufficiency
B. Damage of the skin
C. Loss of consciousness
D. Crepitation
E. Defect of soft tissues
303.
The patient has injury of common carotid artery,the direct sings of it
damage is…
A. Loss of consciousness
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Pulsating haematoma
Crepitation
Damage of the skin
Defect of soft tissues
304.
The patient has injury of common carotid artery,the direct sings of it
damage is…
A. Damage of the skin
B. Defect of soft tissues
C. Crepitation
D. * Absence or impared pulsation below the site of wound
E. Loss of consciousness
305.
The patient has injury of vena jugularis interna,it collecting blood from
the…
A. * Head and neck
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdomen
E. Correct answer is missing
306.
The patient has injury of vena jugularis interna,it collecting blood from
the…
A. Spin
B. Hands
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal
E. * Correct answer is missing
307.
The patient has swelling of the left half of head.Where the lymph flows
from this part of head?
A. Truncus jugularis dexter
B. * Truncus jugularis sinister
C. Right common carotid artery
D. Left common carotid artery
E. Correct answer is missing
308.
The patient has swelling of the right half of head.Where the lymph flows
from this part of head?
A. * Truncus jugularis dexter
B. Truncus jugularis sinister
C. Left common carotid artery
D. Right common carotid artery
E. Correct answer is missing
309.
The patient has thrombosis of terminal branch of external carotid artey,it
is…
A. Maxillary artery
B. Posterior auricular artery
C. * Inferior timpanic artery
D. Lingual artery
E. Superior thyroid artery
310.
When the doctor want to make temporary haemostasis, he use the
methods of…
A. Electro-coagulation of vessels
B. Suturing of vessels
C. Introduction of haemostatic medicines
D. Angiorrhaphy
E. * Maximumflexing of the extremity in joints,elevation of the extremity
311.
When the doctor want to make temporary haemostasis ,he use the
methods of…
A. * Digital compression of the artery
B. Electro-coagulation of vessels
C. Introduction of medicines
D. Suturing of vessels
E. Angiorrhaphy
312.
A man found bleeding wound in the body of the lower jaw to the front of
the masseter. What artery may cause bleeding?
A. Superior thyroid arteries
B. Lingual arteries
C. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
D. * Facial arteries
E. Maxillary arteries
313.
After a head injury in a side area appeared bleeding. What arteries blood
supply of this area?
A. Occipital posterior, posterior auricle arteries.
B. Ascending and descending oesophageal arteries.
C. * Frontal, parietal arteries.
D. Posterior anterior thympanic arteries.
E. Sternocleidomastoid and descending oesophageal arteries
314.
During the examination in patient detected bleeding from the auricle and
external acoustic meatus. Which of arteries can be damaged?
A. * Superficial temporal artery
B. Superior thyroid arteries
C. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
D. Facial arteries
E. Maxillary arteries
315.
During the examination in patient detected damaged of the vagus nerve.
The patient said that several days ago he injured occipital area of head. Name
foramen through which the vagus nerve leaves the skull.
A. round;
B. * jugular;
C. oval;
D. styloid;
E. lacerum.
316.
During the examination in patient detected damaged of the vagus nerve.
After the MRI examination found pathological formation in the area of jugular
foramen.. Name which of cranial nerves leaves the skull with vagus nerve.
A. ІХ, ХІ, ХІІ pair of cranial nerves;
B. ІХ, ХІІ pair of cranial nerves;
C. * ІХ, ХІ pair of cranial nerves
D. XII, VII pair of cranial nerves;
E. VII, IX pair of cranial nerves.
317.
During the examination in patient detected external bleeding from the
corner of eye. Which of arteries can be damaged?
A. Superior thyroid arteries
B. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
C. Facial arteries
D. * Superficial temporal artery
E. Maxillary arteries
318.
During the examination of the woman, found bleeding wound to the back
of the angle of lower jaw. What artery may cause bleeding in the area of parotid
salivary gland?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Superior thyroid arteries
Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
Facial arteries
Maxillary arteries
* Superficial temporal artery
319.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of jugular foramen. Which of cranial nerves can be damaged?
A. * from IX to XII pair
B. from V to VIII pair
C. from IX to XI pair
D. from I to IV pair
E. from I to IV pair
320.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Tachycardia;
B. Increased of blood pressure;
C. * Increased peristalsis of the digestive tract
D. Inhibition of secretion of stomach;
E. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles.
321.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Tachycardia;
B. Increased of blood pressure;
C. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles
D. Inhibition of secretion of stomach;
E. * Decrease the tension of constricnors muscles.
322.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. * Vasorelaxation;
B. Tachycardia;
C. Increased of blood pressure;
D. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles;
E. Inhibition of secretion of stomach.
323.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Increased of blood pressure;
B. Tachycardia;
C. * Slowdown and the weakening of the heart;
D. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles;
E. Inhibition of secretion of stomach.
324.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Increased of blood pressure;
B. * Bradikardiya;
C. Tachycardia;
D. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles;
E. Inhibition of secretion of stomach.
325.
In patient detected bleeding in left side area of the head. Which artery
carries blood supply of muscles and skin in this area?
A. * left superficial temporal artery
B. right anterior thympanic
C. deep temporal arteries
D. left sphenopalatine
E. all correct answers
326.
In patient detected bleeding in left side area of the head. Which artery
carries blood supply of muscles and skin in this area?
A. Occipitalposterior, posterior auricle arteries.
B. * Frontal, parietal arteries.
C. Ascending and descending oesophageal arteries.
D. Posterior anterior thympanic arteries.
E. Sternocleidomastoid and descending oesophageal arteries
327.
In patient detected bleeding in left side area of the head. Superficial
temporal artery is damaged. What does it supply in head?
A. Back surface of auricle, skin and muscles of the back of head,
submandibular gland, superior and inferior eyelids.
B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle and skin above it, trapezius muscle.
C. Auditory tube, thympanic cavity, external acoustic meatus, auricle,
masseter muscle, parotid gland.
D. * Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, parotid salivary gland,
auricle, external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
E. Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, submandibular gland,
external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
328.
?In tourist after falling from the mountain detected bleeding in the face.
From which artery bleeding appeared?
A. Superior thyroid arteries
B. Lingual arteries
C. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
D. * Facial arteries
E. Maxillary arteries
329.
In tourist after falling from the mountain detected bleeding in the face.
Damaged facial arteries. Name a place, where we can press facial artery?
A. Carotid triangle.
B. Submandibular triangle.
C. Branch of mandible, behind the edge of masseter muscle.
D. * Basis of body of mandible, front of masseter muscle.
E. Corner of mouth.
330.
A man found bleeding wound in the body of the lower jaw to the front of
the masseter. What artery may cause bleeding?
A. Superior thyroid arteries
B. Lingual arteries
C. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
D. * Facial arteries
E. Maxillary arteries
331.
After a head injury in a side area appeared bleeding. What arteries blood
supply of this area?
A. Occipital posterior, posterior auricle arteries.
B. Ascending and descending oesophageal arteries.
C. * Frontal, parietal arteries.
D. Posterior anterior thympanic arteries.
E. Sternocleidomastoid and descending oesophageal arteries
332.
During the examination in patient detected bleeding from the auricle and
external acoustic meatus. Which of arteries can be damaged?
A. * Superficial temporal artery
B. Superior thyroid arteries
C. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
D. Facial arteries
E. Maxillary arteries
333.
During the examination in patient detected damaged of the vagus nerve.
The patient said that several days ago he injured occipital area of head. Name
foramen through which the vagus nerve leaves the skull.
A. round;
B. * jugular;
C. oval;
D. styloid;
E. lacerum.
334.
During the examination in patient detected damaged of the vagus nerve.
After the MRI examination found pathological formation in the area of jugular
foramen.. Name which of cranial nerves leaves the skull with vagus nerve.
A. ІХ, ХІ, ХІІ pair of cranial nerves;
B. ІХ, ХІІ pair of cranial nerves;
C. * ІХ, ХІ pair of cranial nerves
D. XII, VII pair of cranial nerves;
E. VII, IX pair of cranial nerves.
335.
During the examination in patient detected external bleeding from the
corner of eye. Which of arteries can be damaged?
A. Superior thyroid arteries
B. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
C. Facial arteries
D. * Superficial temporal artery
E. Maxillary arteries
336.
During the examination of the woman, found bleeding wound to the back
of the angle of lower jaw. What artery may cause bleeding in the area of parotid
salivary gland?
A. Superior thyroid arteries
B. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
C. Facial arteries
D. Maxillary arteries
E. * Superficial temporal artery
337.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area
of jugular foramen. Which of cranial nerves can be damaged?
A. * from IX to XII pair
B. from V to VIII pair
C. from IX to XI pair
D. from I to IV pair
E. from I to IV pair
338.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Tachycardia;
B. Increased of blood pressure;
C. * Increased peristalsis of the digestive tract
D. Inhibition of secretion of stomach;
E. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles.
339.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Tachycardia;
B. Increased of blood pressure;
C. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles
D. Inhibition of secretion of stomach;
E. * Decrease the tension of constricnors muscles.
340.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Vasorelaxation;
Tachycardia;
Increased of blood pressure;
Increased the tension of constricnors muscles;
Inhibition of secretion of stomach.
341.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Increased of blood pressure;
B. Tachycardia;
C. * Slowdown and the weakening of the heart;
D. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles;
E. Inhibition of secretion of stomach.
342.
Identify the symptoms that arise when irritation of nuclei and trunk of
vagus nerv?
A. Increased of blood pressure;
B. * Bradikardiya;
C. Tachycardia;
D. Increased the tension of constricnors muscles;
E. Inhibition of secretion of stomach.
343.
In patient detected bleeding in left side area of the head. Which artery
carries blood supply of muscles and skin in this area?
A. * left superficial temporal artery
B. right anterior thympanic
C. deep temporal arteries
D. left sphenopalatine
E. all correct answers
344.
In patient detected bleeding in left side area of the head. Which artery
carries blood supply of muscles and skin in this area?
A. Occipitalposterior, posterior auricle arteries.
B. * Frontal, parietal arteries.
C. Ascending and descending oesophageal arteries.
D. Posterior anterior thympanic arteries.
E. Sternocleidomastoid and descending oesophageal arteries
345.
In patient detected bleeding in left side area of the head. Superficial
temporal artery is damaged. What does it supply in head?
A. Back surface of auricle, skin and muscles of the back of head,
submandibular gland, superior and inferior eyelids.
B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle and skin above it, trapezius muscle.
C. Auditory tube, thympanic cavity, external acoustic meatus, auricle,
masseter muscle, parotid gland.
D. * Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, parotid salivary gland,
auricle, external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
E. Skin and muscles of temporal and parietal areas, submandibular gland,
external acoustic meatus, external corner of eye.
346.
?In tourist after falling from the mountain detected bleeding in the face.
From which artery bleeding appeared?
A. Superior thyroid arteries
B. Lingual arteries
C. Ascending pharyngeal arteries.
D. * Facial arteries
E. Maxillary arteries
347.
In tourist after falling from the mountain detected bleeding in the face.
Damaged facial arteries. Name a place, where we can press facial artery?
A. Carotid triangle.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Submandibular triangle.
Branch of mandible, behind the edge of masseter muscle.
* Basis of body of mandible, front of masseter muscle.
Corner of mouth.
348.
During operation surgeon can see that the inferior alveolar nerve and
vessels are contents of…
A. Mental foramen
B. Angle of mandible
C. Mandibular notch
D. * Mandibular canal
E. None of these
349.
During operation surgeon can see that the lesser palatine nerves and
vessels pass through…
A. Posterior nasal spine
B. Palatine crest
C. * Lesser palatine foramen
D. Sphenopalatine foramen
E. Incisive fossa
350.
During operation surgeon can see that the mandibular nerve passes
through the next region and contains…
A. Rotundum foramen,motor fibres
B. Oval foramen,sympathetic fibres
C. Mandibular foramen,sensory and motor fibres
D. * Oval foramen,sensory and motor fibres
E. None of these
351.
During operation surgeon can see that the maxillary nerve passes
through the next region and contains…
A. Rotundum foramen,motor fibres
B. Oval foramen,sensory fibres
C. * Rotundum foramen,sensory fibres
D. Rotundum foramen,parasymphatetic fibres
E. None of these
352.
During the operation surgeon can see that the facial nerve pass through
the next region and is responsible for our special sense of…
A. Jugular foramen,touch
B. Optic canal,sight
C. Cribriform plate,smell
D. Foramen cecum,taste
E. * Internal ocoustic meatus,taste
353.
?The patient has a lesion of the trigeminal nerve, it would result in
weakness of…
A. Moving the eyeball
B. Closure the eyes
C. * Compression the teeth
D. Lifting the upper eyelid
E. Contraction of tongue
354.
The patient has a lesion of the trigeminal nerve, it would result in
weakness of…
A. Contraction of masseter muscle
B. Contraction of sternocleidomastiod muscle
C. Compression the teeth
D. Protrubing the mandibule
E. * None of these
355.
The patient has lesion of control facial expressions,which nerve is
responsible for this function?
A. Accessory nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. * Facial nerve
D. Vestibulocochlear nerve
E. Trochlear nerve
356.
The patient has lesion of the ansa cerviccalis nerve,it would result in
weakness of …
A. Contraction of platisma
B. Contraction of sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. * Contraction of infrahyoid muscle
E. Contraction of mylohyoid muscle
357.
The patient has the lesion of the facial nerve,it would result in weakness
of…
A. Contraction of masseter muscle
B. * Contraction of zygomatic muscle
C. Compression the teeth
D. Protrubing the mandible
E. None of these
358.
The patient has the lesion of the facial nerve,it would result in weakness
of…
A. Contraction of masseter muscle
B. * Contraction of orbicularis oculi muscle
C. Compression the teeth
D. Protrubing the mandible
E. None of these
359.
The patient has the lesion of the facial nerve,it would result in weakness
of…
A. Contraction of masseter muscle
B. * Closure the mouth
C. Protrubing the mandible
D. Compression the teeth
E. None of these
360.
The patient has the lesion of the facial nerve,it would result in weakness
of…
A. Contraction of masseter muscle
B. * Contraction of bucinator muscle
C. Protrubing the mandible
D. Compressing the teeth
E. None of these
361.
The patient has the lesion of the trigeminal nerve,it would result
inweakness of…
A. * Contraction of masseter muscle
B. Contraction of platisma
C. Contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. Contraction of buccinator muscle
E. None of these
362.
The patient has the lesion of the trigeminal nerve,it would result
inweakness of…
A. Contraction of masseter muscle
B. Contraction of platisma
C. * Contraction of temporal muscle
D. Contraction of tongue muscle
E. None of these
363.
Doctor dentist making local anaesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve,it is
situated at…
A. * Mandibular canal
B. Mental foramen
C. Angle of mandible
D. Mandibular notch
E. None of these
364.
Doctor dentist making local anaesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve,it is
situated at…
A. Infraorbital canal
B. Palatine foramen
C. Angle of mandible
D. Mandibular notch
E. * None of these
365.
During operation surgeon cansee that the mandibular nerve passes
trough the next region and contains…
A. * Oval foramen ,sensory and motor fibres
B. Mandibular foramen,sensory and motor fibres
C. Oval foramen,sympathetic fibres
D. Oval foramen,parasympathetic fibres
E. Rotundum foramen,motor fibres
366.
During operation surgeon cansee that the maxillary nerve passes trough
the next region and supplies the…
A. Foramen rotundum, eyeball
B. Jugular foramen,larynx
C. Orbital canal,maxillary teeth
D. Foramen rotundum,lips
E. * None of these
367.
During operation surgeon cansee that the zygomaticus nerve passes
trough the next region and is responsiblefor the…
A. Superior orbital fissure,touch sensation
B. * Inferior orbital fissure,touch sensation
C. Superior orbital fissure,innervations of muscles
D. Inferior orbital fissure,innervations of muscles
E. Superior orbital fissure,innervations of gland
368.
During the operation surgeon can see that the glosspharingeal nerves
pass trough the next region and are responsible for our special sense of…
A. Foramen cecum,taste
B. Cribriform plate,smell
C. Optical canal,sight
D. * Jugular foramen,taste
E. Internal acoustic meatus,taste
369.
During the operation surgeon can see that the glosspharingeal nerves
pass trough the next region and are responsible for our special sense of…
A. Foramen cecum,taste
B. Jugular foramen,smell
C. Internal acoustic meatus,taste
D. Optic canal,sight
E. * None of above
370.
During the operation surgeon can see that the СТ8 nerves pass through
the next region and are responsible for our special sense of…
A. * Internal acoustic meatus,balance
B.
C.
D.
E.
Foramen cecum,taste
Optic canal,sight
Cribriform plate,smell
Jugular foramen
371.
During the operation surgeon can see that the СТ8 nerves pass through
the next region and are responsible for our special sense of…
A. Internal acoustic meatus,balance
B. Jugular foramen touch
C. Cribriform plate,smell
D. * Internal acoustic meatus,hearing
E. Optical canal,sight
372.
During the operation surgeon can see that the СТ8 nerves pass through
the next region and are responsible for our special sense of…
A. Foramen cecum,taste
B. Cribriform plate,smell
C. Optic canal,sight
D. Jugular foramen,touch
E. * None of the above
373.
The patient has lesion of the hypoglossus nerve,it would result
inweakness of…
A. Contraction of bucinator muscle
B. Contraction oforbicularis oris muscle
C. Contraction of platisma
D. * Contraction of vertical muscle
E. None of these
374.
The patient has lesion of the hypoglossus nerve,it would result
inweakness of…
A. Contraction of bucinator muscle
B. Contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
C. Contraction of platisma
D. * Contraction of transverse muscle
E. None of these
375.
The patient has lesion of the hypoglossus nerve,it would result
inweakness of…
A. Contraction of bucinator muscle
B. * Contraction of geniohyoid muscle
C. Contraction of orbicularis oris muscle
D. Contraction of platisma
E. Contraction of mylohyoid muscle
376.
The patient has lesion of the hypoglossus nerve,it would result
inweakness of…
A. Contraction of bucinator muscle
B. Contraction of platisma muscle
C. Contraction of mylohyoid muscle
D. * Contraction of infrahyoid muscle
E. None of these
377.
?The patient has lesion of control facial expressions which nerve is
responsible for this function?
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. * Facial nerve
C. Trochlear nerve
D. Vestibulotrochlear nerve
E. Accessory nerve
378.
The patient has lesion of hypoglossus nerve,what is it function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aries from the floor of the 3-d ventricle
Is the taste nerve of the tongue
* Supplies all the muscles of the tongue
Supplies the stylohyoid muscle
Supplies the sublingual salivary gland
Text questions for pictures
Splanchnology.
1. What is indicated on figure 1/2 with number 4?
A. regio hypochondriaca
B. regio epigastrica
C. regio pubica
D. regio lateralis
E. *Regio umbilicalis
2. What is indicated on figure 1/2 with number 2?
A. regio pubica
B. regio hypochondriaca
C. regio umbilicalis
D. regio lateralis
E. *Regio epigastrica
3. What is indicated on figure 1/2 with number 6?
A. regio epigastrica
B. regio hypochondriaca
C. regio umbilicalis
D. regio lateralis
E. *Regio pubica
4. What is indicated on figure 2/2 with number 16?
A. canalis analis
B. pylorus
C. jejunum
D. cavitas oris
E. *Gaster
5. What is indicated on figure 2/2 with number 22?
A. gaster
B. pylorus
C. jejunum
D. cavitas oris
E. *Canalis analis
6. What is indicated on figure 2/2 with number 7?
A. gaster
B. canalis analis
C. jejunum
D. cavitas oris
E. *Pylorus
7. What is indicated on figure 3/2 with number 11?
A. cavitas oris
B.
C.
D.
E.
larynx
dentes
lingua
*Mandibula
8. What is indicated on figure 3/2 with number 8?
A. cavitas oris
B. larynx
C. mandibula
D. lingua
E. *Dentes
9. What is indicated on figure 3/2 with number 13?
A. cavitas oris
B. mandibula
C. dentes
D. lingua
E. *Larynx
10. What is indicated on figure 4/2 with number 7?
A. uvula palatina
B. dentes molares
C. dentes premolars
D. palatum durum
E. *Dentes incisivi
11. What is indicated on figure 4/2 with number 1?
A. dentes incisivi
B. dentes molares
C. dentes premolars
D. palatum durum
E. *Uvula palatina
12. What is indicated on figure 4/2 with number 4?
A. dentes incisivi
B. uvula palatina
C. dentes premolars
D. palatum durum
E. *Dentes molares
13. What is indicated on figure 5/2 with number 2?
A. dentes incisivi
B. dens caninus
C. dentes premolars
D. facies lingualis
E. *Dentes molares
14. What is indicated on figure 5/2 with number 5?
A. dentes molares
B. dens caninus
C. dentes premolars
D. facies lingualis
E. *Dentes incisivi
15. What is indicated on figure 5/2 with number 4?
A. dentes molares
B. dentes incisivi
C. dentes premolars
D. facies lingualis
E. *Dens caninus
16. What is indicated on figure 6/2 with number 1?
A. dens caninus
B. radix dentis
C. dentes premolars
D. corona dentis
E. *Dentes molares
17. What is indicated on figure 6/2 with number 8?
A. dens caninus
B. dentes molares
C. dentes premolars
D. corona dentis
E. *Radix dentis
18. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 3?
A. radix dentis
B. dentes molares
C. dentes premolars
D. corona dentis
E. *Dens caninus
19. What is indicated on figure 7/2 with number 2?
A. dentes molares
B. dens incisivus lateralis
C. dens incisivus medialis
D. corona dentis
E. *Dens caninus
20. What is indicated on figure 7/2 with number 3?
A. dentes molares
B. dens caninus
C. dens incisivus medialis
D. corona dentis
E. *Dens incisivus lateralis
21. What is indicated on figure 7/2 with number 4?
A. dentes molares
B. dens caninus
C. dens incisivus lateralis
D. corona dentis
E. *Dens incisivus medialis
22. What is indicated on figure 8/2 with number 6?
A. dentes molares
B. dens caninus
C. dentes incisive
D. dentes permanentes
E. *Foramen mentale
23. What is indicated on figure 8/2 with number 3?
A. dentes molares
B. foramen mentale
C. dentes incisive
D. dentes permanentes
E. *Dens caninus
24. What is indicated on figure 8/2 with number 4?
A. dentes molares
B. foramen mentale
C. dens caninus
D. dentes permanentes
E. *Dentes incisivi
25. What is indicated on figure 9/2 with number 1?
A. sulcus medianus linguae
B. foramen caecum linguae
C. papillae folliatae
D. papillae vallatae
E. *Apex linguae
26. What is indicated on figure 9 with number 2?
A. apex linguae
B. foramen caecum linguae
C. papillae folliatae
D. papillae vallatae
E. *Sulcus medianus linguae
27. What is indicated on figure 9/2 with number 11?
A. apex linguae
B. sulcus medianus linguae
C. papillae folliatae
D. papillae vallatae
E. *Foramen caecum linguae
28. What is indicated on figure 10/2 with number 4?
A. m. masseter
B. ductus parotideus
C. glandula parotidea
D. glandula sublingualis
E. *Lingua
29. What is indicated on figure 10 with number 7?
A. lingua
B. ductus parotideus
C. glandula parotidea
D. glandula sublingualis
E. *M. masseter
30. What is indicated on figure 10/2 with number 5?
A. lingua
B. ductus parotideus
C. m. masseter
D. glandula sublingualis
E. *Glandula parotidea
31. What is indicated on figure 11/2 with number 1?
A. fascia pharyngobasilaris
B. raphe faryngis
C. m. digastricus
D. raphe faryngis
E. *Basis cranii
32. What is indicated on figure 11 with number 2?
A. basis cranii
B. raphe faryngis
C. m. digastricus
D. raphe faryngis
E. *Fascia pharyngobasilaris
33. What is indicated on figure 11/2 with number 7?
A. basis cranii
B. fascia pharyngobasilaris
C. m. digastricus
D. raphe faryngis
E. *Raphe faryngis
34. What is indicated on figure 12/2 with number 8?
A. pars pylorica
B. pars cardiaca
C. corpus ventriculi
D. oesophagus
E. *Pylorus
35. What is indicated on figure 12/2 with number 4?
A. pars pylorica
B. pars cardiaca
C. pylorus
D. oesophagus
E. *Corpus ventriculi
36. What is indicated on figure 12 with number 6?
A. corpus ventriculi
B. pars cardiaca
C. pylorus
D. oesophagus
E. *Pars pylorica
37. What is indicated on figure 13/2 with number 20?
A. cauda pancreatis
B. caput pancreatis
C. corpus vesicae fellae
D. plica transversa
E. *Jejunum
38. What is indicated on figure 13 with number 16?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
jejunum
caput pancreatis
corpus vesicae fellae
plica transversa
*Cauda pancreatis
39. What is indicated on figure 13 with number 10?
A. jejunum
B. caput pancreatis
C. cauda pancreatis
D. plica transversa
E. *corpus vesicae fellae
40. What is indicated on figure 14/2 with number 1?
A. rectum
B. jejunum
C. ileum
D. rectum
E. *Caecum
41. What is indicated on figure 14/2 with number 14?
A. caecum
B. jejunum
C. ileum
D. rectum
E. *Rectum
42. What is indicated on figure 14/2 with number 10?
A. caecum
B. rectum
C. ileum
D. rectum
E. *Jejunum
43. What is indicated on figure 15/2 with number 3?
A. caecum
B. ileum
C. taenia libera coli
D. colon ascendens
E. *Appendix vermiformis
44. What is indicated on figure 15/2 with number 6?
A. appendix vermiformis
B. ileum
C. taenia libera coli
D. colon ascendens
E. *Caecum
45. What is indicated on figure 15 with number 4?
A. appendix vermiformis
B. caecum
C. taenia libera coli
D. colon ascendens
E. *Ileum
46. What is indicated on figure 16 with number 7?
A. zona transitionalis analis
B. sinus anales
C. m. sphincter ani internus
D. columnae anales
E. *Anus
47. What is indicated on figure 16/2 with number 4?
A. anus
B. sinus anales
C. m. sphincter ani internus
D. columnae anales
E. *Zona transitionalis analis
48. What is indicated on figure 16/2 with number 5?
A. anus
B. sinus anales
C. m. sphincter ani internus
D. columnae anales
E. *m. sphincter ani internus
49. What is indicated on figure 17 with number 10?
A. margo inferior
B. lig. falciforme
C. lobus hepatis sinistrum
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Vesica fellea
50. What is indicated on figure 17/2 with number 1?
A. vesica fellea
B. lig. falciforme
C. lobus hepatis sinistrum
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Margo inferior
51. What is indicated on figure 17/2 with number 8?
A. vesica fellea
B. margo inferior
C. lobus hepatis sinistrum
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Lig. falciforme
52. What is indicated on figure 18/2 with number 8?
A. vena cava inferior
B. arteria hepatica propria
C. area nuda
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Vesica fellea
53. What is indicated on figure 18/2 with number 24?
A. vesica fellea
B. arteria hepatica propria
C. area nuda
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Vena cava inferior
54. What is indicated on figure 18 with number 15?
A. vesica fellea
B. vena cava inferior
C. area nuda
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Arteria hepatica propria
55. What is indicated on figure 19/2 with number 5?
A. prostata
B. vesica urinaria
C. fossa inguinalis lateralis
D. peritoneum parietale
E. *M. rectus abdominis
56. What is indicated on figure 19/2 with number 17?
A. m. rectus abdominis
B. vesica urinaria
C. fossa inguinalis lateralis
D. peritoneum parietale
E. *Prostata
57. What is indicated on figure 19 with number 12?
A. m. rectus abdominis
B. prostata
C. fossa inguinalis lateralis
D. peritoneum parietale
E. *Vesica urinaria
58. What is indicated on figure 20/2 with number 21?
A. rectum
B. lig. falciforme
C. lobus hepatic sinister
D. jejunum
E. *Gaster
59. What is indicated on figure 20/2 with number 37?
A. gaster
B. lig. falciforme
C. lobus hepatic sinister
D. jejunum
E. *Rectum
60. What is indicated on figure 20/2 with number 18?
A. gaster
B. lig. falciforme
C. rectum
D. jejunum
E. *Lobus hepatic sinister
61. What is indicated on figure 21/2 with number 9?
A. prostata
B.
C.
D.
E.
gaster
rectum
area nuda
*Hepar
62. What is indicated on figure 21/2 with number 8?
A. prostata
B. hepar
C. rectum
D. area nuda
E. *Gaster
63. What is indicated on figure 21 with number 1?
A. gaster
B. hepar
C. rectum
D. area nuda
E. *Prostata
64. What is indicated on figure 22/2 with number 1?
A. os nasale
B. ala nasi
C. os zygomaticum
D. os lacrimale
E. *Os frontale
65. What is indicated on figure 22/2 with number 8?
A. os nasale
B. ala nasi
C. os frontale
D. os lacrimale
E. *Os zygomaticum
66. What is indicated on figure 22 with number 14?
A. os zygomaticum
B. ala nasi
C. os frontale
D. os lacrimale
E. *Os nasale
67. What is indicated on figure 23 with number 3?
A. sinus frontalis
B. sinus sphenoidalis
C. os frontale
D. torus tubarius
E. *Vestibulum nasi
68. What is indicated on figure 23/2 with number 1?
A. vestibulum nasi
B. sinus sphenoidalis
C. os frontale
D. torus tubarius
E. *Sinus frontalis
69. What is indicated on figure 23/2 with number 8?
A. vestibulum nasi
B. sinus frontalis
C. os frontale
D. torus tubarius
E. *Sinus sphenoidalis
70. What is indicated on figure 24/2 with number 1?
A. cartilago epiglottica
B. cartilago corniculata
C. cornu minus ossis hyoidei
D. corpus ossis hyoidei
E. *Epiglottis
71. What is indicated on figure 24 with number 3?
A. epiglottis
B. cartilago corniculata
C. cornu minus ossis hyoidei
D. corpus ossis hyoidei
E. *Cartilago epiglottica
72. What is indicated on figure 24/2 with number 6?
A. epiglottis
B. cartilago epiglottica
C. cornu minus ossis hyoidei
D. corpus ossis hyoidei
E. *Cartilago corniculata
73. What is indicated on figure 25/2 with number 15?
A. trachea
B. epiglottis
C. mm. arytenoidei
D. radix linquae
E. *Cartilago thyroidea
74. What is indicated on figure 25/2 with number 12?
A. cartilago thyroidea
B. epiglottis
C. mm. arytenoidei
D. radix linquae
E. *Trachea
75. What is indicated on figure 25/2 with number 2?
A. cartilago thyroidea
B. trachea
C. mm. arytenoidei
D. radix linquae
E. *Epiglottis
76. What is indicated on figure 26/2 with number 1?
A. cartilago thyroidea
B. m. thyroarytenoideus
C. rima glottidis
D. polica vocalis
E. *Epiglottis
77. What is indicated on figure 26 with number 5?
A. epiglottis
B. m. thyroarytenoideus
C. rima glottidis
D. polica vocalis
E. *Cartilago thyroidea
78. What is indicated on figure 26/2 with number 8?
A. epiglottis
B. cartilago thyroidea
C. rima glottidis
D. polica vocalis
E. *M. thyroarytenoideus
79. What is indicated on figure 27/2 with number 5?
A. epiglottis
B. lamina certilaginis cricoideae
C. m. arytenoideus transversus
D. m. arytaenoideus obliquus
E. *Paries membranaceus tracheae
80. What is indicated on figure 27/2 with number 1?
A. paries membranaceus tracheae
B. lamina certilaginis cricoideae
C. m. arytenoideus transversus
D. m. arytaenoideus obliquus
E. *Epiglottis
81. What is indicated on figure 27/2 with number 7?
A. paries membranaceus tracheae
B. lamina certilaginis cricoideae
C. epiglottis
D. m. arytaenoideus obliquus
E. *M. arytenoideus transversus
82. What is indicated on figure 28/2 with number 7?
A. os hyoideum
B. bronchus principalis
C. epiglottis
D. cartilago thyroidea
E. *Cartilagines thracheales
83. What is indicated on figure 28/2 with number 1?
A. cartilagines thracheales
B. bronchus principalis
C. epiglottis
D. cartilago thyroidea
E. *Os hyoideum
84. What is indicated on figure 28/2 with number 16?
A. cartilagines thracheales
B. bronchus principalis
C. os hyoideum
D. cartilago thyroidea
E. *Epiglottis
85. What is indicated on figure 29/2 with number 1?
A. basis pulmonis
B. lobus inferior
C. fissure oblique
D. incisura cardiaca pulmonis sinistri
E. *Apex pulmonis
86. What is indicated on figure 29 with number 4?
A. basis pulmonis
B. apex pulmonis
C. fissure obliqua
D. incisura cardiaca pulmonis sinistri
E. *Lobus inferior
87. What is indicated on figure 29/2 with number 3?
A. basis pulmonis
B. apex pulmonis
C. lobus inferior
D. incisura cardiaca pulmonis sinistri
E. *Fissure obliqua
88. What is indicated on figure 30/2 with number 2?
A. basis pulmonis
B. apex pulmonis
C. lobus inferior
D. fissure obliqua
E. *Fissure obliqua
89. What is indicated on figure 30/2 with number 1?
A. basis pulmonis
B. fissure obliqua
C. lobus inferior
D. fissure obliqua
E. *Apex pulmonis
90. What is indicated on figure 30/2 with number 7?
A. basis pulmonis
B. fissure obliqua
C. lobus inferior
D. fissure obliqua
E. *Lig. pulmonale
91. What is indicated on figure 31/2 with number 2?
A. bronchiola terminalis
B. ductus alveolaris
C. alveoli pulmonales
D. sacculus alveolaris
E. *Bronchiola respiratorius
92. What is indicated on figure 31/2 with number 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
bronchiola respiratorius
ductus alveolaris
alveoli pulmonales
sacculus alveolaris
*Bronchiola terminalis
93. What is indicated on figure 31 with number 3?
A. bronchiola respiratorius
B. bronchiola terminalis
C. alveoli pulmonales
D. sacculus alveolaris
E. *Ductus alveolaris
94. What is indicated on figure 32/2 with number 1?
A. margo inferior
B. fissure oblique
C. pleura parietalis
D. fissure horizontalis pulmonis dextri
E. *Apex pulmonis
95. What is indicated on figure 32/2 with number 7?
A. apex pulmonis
B. fissure oblique
C. pleura parietalis
D. fissure horizontalis pulmonis dextri
E. *Margo inferior
96. What is indicated on figure 32/2 with number 9?
A. apex pulmonis
B. margo inferior
C. pleura parietalis
D. fissure horizontalis pulmonis dextri
E. *Fissure oblique
97. What is indicated on figure 33/2 with number 11?
A. pleura diaphragmatis
B. diaphragma
C. bronchus sinister
D. pleura costalis
E. *Arcus aortae
98. What is indicated on figure 33/2 with number 5?
A. pleura diaphragmatis
B. arcus aortae
C. bronchus sinister
D. pleura costalis
E. *Diaphragma
99. What is indicated on figure 33 with number 10?
A. pleura diaphragmatis
B. arcus aortae
C. diaphragma
D. pleura costalis
E. *Bronchus sinister
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34/2 with number 1?
v.renalis
ureter
margo lateralis
extremitas superior
*A.renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34/2 with number 2?
a.renalis
ureter
margo lateralis
extremitas superior
*V.renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34/2 with number 3?
a.renalis
v.renalis
margo lateralis
extremitas superior
*Ureter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 35/2 with number 1?
ureter
ren dexter
ren sinister
vena cava inferior
*Glandula suprarenalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 35/2 with number 3?
glandula suprarenalis
ren dexter
ren sinister
vena cava inferior
*Ureter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 35/2 with number 7?
glandula suprarenalis
ureter
ren sinister
vena cava inferior
*Ren dexter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 36/2 with number 7?
a.renalis
ureter
pelvis renalis
cortex renalis
*V.renalis
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
What is indicated on figure 36 with number 6?
A. a.renalis
B. v.renalis
C. pelvis renalis
D. cortex renalis
E. *Ureter
108.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 36/2 with number 8?
a.renalis
v.renalis
ureter
cortex renalis
*Pelvis renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/2 with number 1?
calices renales minores
pelvis renalis
ureter
a.renalis
*Calices renales majores
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/2 with number 3?
calices renales minores
pelvis renalis
calices renales majores
a.renalis
*Ureter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/2 with number 4?
calices renales minores
ureter
calices renales majors
a.renalis
*Pelvis renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 38/2 with number 7?
lig. umbilicale medianum
membrana perinea
trigonum vesicae
tunica muscularis
*Prostata
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 38/2 with number 11?
prostata
membrana perinea
trigonum vesicae
tunica muscularis
*Lig. umbilicale medianum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 38/2 with number 8?
prostata
lig. umbilicale medianum
trigonum vesicae
tunica muscularis
*Membrana perinea
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
What is indicated on figure 39/2 with number 1?
A. ductus deferens
B.
C.
D.
E.
septula testis
lobuli testis
tunica albuginea
*Caput epididymidis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 39/2 with number 2?
caput epididymidis
septula testis
lobuli testis
tunica albuginea
*Ductus deferens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 39/2 with number 5?
caput epididymidis
ductus deferens
lobuli testis
tunica albuginea
*Septula testis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 40/2 with number 9?
testis
prostata
anus
symphysis pubica
*Glans penis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 40 with number 8?
glans penis
prostata
anus
symphysis pubica
*Testis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 40/2 with number 6?
glans penis
prostata
testis
symphysis pubica
*Anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 41/2 with number 5?
a. iliaca communis
vesica urinaria
ductus deferens
vesicula seminalis
*V. iliaca externa
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 41/2 with number 4?
v. iliaca externa
vesica urinaria
ductus deferens
vesicula seminalis
*A. iliaca communis
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 41/2 with number 7?
v. iliaca externa
a. iliaca communis
ductus deferens
vesicula seminalis
*Vesica urinaria
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 42/2 with number 5?
vagina
uterus
rectum
ovarium
*Anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 42/2 with number 6?
anus
uterus
rectum
ovarium
*Vagina
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 42/2 with number 3?
anus
vagina
rectum
ovarium
*Uterus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 43/2 with number 2?
vagina
ostium cervicis
ovarium
appendix vesicularis
*Corpus uteri
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 43/2 with number 1?
corpus uteri
ostium cervicis
ovarium
appendix vesicularis
*Vagina
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 43/2 with number 13?
corpus uteri
ostium cervicis
vagina
appendix vesicularis
*Ovarium
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 44 with number 5?
clitoris
labium minus pudendi
labium majus pudenda
hymen
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
E. *Anus
131.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 44/2 with number 2?
clitoris
anus
labium majus pudenda
hymen
*Labium minus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 44/2 with number 4?
clitoris
anus
labium minus pudenda
hymen
*Labium majus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 45/2 with number 1?
anus
m. levator ani
funiculus spermaticus
corpus cavernosum penis
*Glans penis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 45 with number 7?
glans penis
m. levator ani
funiculus spermaticus
corpus cavernosum penis
*Anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 45/2 with number 6?
glans penis
anus
funiculus spermaticus
corpus cavernosum penis
*M. levator ani
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 46/2 with number 7?
symphisis pubica
m. levator ani
urethra masculine
arcus tendineus fascie pelvis
*Rectum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 46/2 with number 5?
rectum
m. levator ani
urethra masculine
arcus tendineus fascie pelvis
*Symphisis pubica
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
What is indicated on figure 46 with number 4?
A. rectum
B. symphisis pubica
C. urethra masculine
D. arcus tendineus fascie pelvis
E. *M. levator ani
139.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 47/2 with number 3?
anus
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
anulus inguinalis superficialis
*M. levator ani
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 47/2 with number 4?
m. levator ani
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
anulus inguinalis superficialis
*Anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 47/2 with number 5?
m. levator ani
anus
m. ischiocavernosus
anulus inguinalis superficialis
*Labium minus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 48/2 with number 6?
clitoris
anus
m. ischiocavernosus
bulbus vestibuli
*Labium minus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 48 with number 5?
clitoris
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
bulbus vestibuli
*Anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 48/2 with number 1?
clitoris
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
bulbus vestibuli
*Anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 49/2 with number 1?
anus
os coxae
m. iliacus
fossa ischioanalis
*Rectum
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
What is indicated on figure 49/2 with number 7?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
rectum
os coxae
m. iliacus
fossa ischioanalis
*Anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 49/2 with number 2?
rectum
anus
m. iliacus
fossa ischioanalis
*Os coxae
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 50/2 with number 6?
pancreas
thymus
glandula thyroidea
hyphophysis
*Testes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 50/2 with number 3?
pancreas
testes
glandula thyroidea
hyphophysis
*Thymus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 50/2 with number 5?
testes
thymus
glandula thyroidea
hyphophysis
*Pancreas
147.
148.
149.
150.
Central nervous system and organs of sense.
1. What is indicated on figure 3\3 with number 3?
A. Prosencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Vesicular optica
D. Medulla spinalis
E. *Rhombencephalon
2. What is indicated on figure 3\3 with number 6?
A. Obex
B. Ganglia spinale
C. Filum terminale
D. Lig.denticulatum
E. *Telencephalon
3. What is indicated on figure 3/3 with number 10?
A. Diencephalon
B. Pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
C. Medulla spinalis
D. Prosencephalon
E. *Myelencephalon
4. What is indicated on figure 4\3 with number 19?
A. Conus medullaris
B. Nn.spinales thoracisi
C. Intumescentia lumbosacralis
D. Dura mater spinales
E. *Obex
5. What is indicated on figure 4 with number 5?
A. Nn. Spinalis cervicales
B. Nn. Spinalislumbales
C. Nn. Spinalis coccygeus
D. Nn. Spinalis sacrales
E. *Nn. Spinalis thoracici
6. What is indicated on figure 4\3 with number 8?
A. Nn. spinalis coccygeus
B. Nn. Spinalis sacrales
C. Nn. Spinalis thoracici
D. Nn. Spinalis sacralis
E. *Nn. Spinalis lumbales
7. What is indicated on figure 4\3 with number 4?
A. Nn. Spinalis sacralis
B. Nn. Spinalis thoracici
C. Nn. Spinalis coccygeus
D. Nn. Spinalis lumbales
E. *Nn. Spinalis cervicales
8. What is indicated on figure 5\3 with number 11?
A. Substantia grisea
B. Sulcusmedianus posterior
C. Substantia alba
D. R. Posterior n. spinalis
E. *Ganglion trunci sympathici
9. What is indicated on figure 5/3 with number 3?
A. Fila radiculariaradicis posterioris
B. Radix anterior
C. N.spinalis
D. Sulcus lateralis anterior
E. *Radix posterior
10. Що познаено на рисунку 5 with number 4?
A. R.posterior n. spinalis
B. Substantia grisea
C. N. Spinalis
D. Fila radicularia radicis posterioris
E. * R. Medianus r. Posterioris n. spinalis
11. What is indicated on figure 6\3 with number 5?
A. Segmenta sacralia
B.
C.
D.
E.
Segmenta cervicalia
Segmenta lumbalia
Segmenta thoracica
* Segmentum coccygeum
12. Шо позначено на рисунку 6 with number 1?
A. Segmentum coccygeum
B. Segmenta lumbalia
C. Segmenta thoracica
D. Segmentum coccygeum
E. *Segmenta cervicalia
13. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 3?
A. Segmentum coccygeum
B. Segmenta cervicalia
C. Segmenta thoracica
D. Segmenta sacralia
E. *Segmenta lumbalia
14. What is indicated on figure 7\3 with number 20?
A. Sulcus posterolateralis
B. Radix posterior
C. Nucl. Centralis
D. Sulcus medianus posterior
E. *Fissure mediana anterior
15. What is indicated on figure 7\3 with number 22?
A. nucl. posteromedialis
B. nucl. Parasympathicus sacralis
C. nucl. Nervi accessorii
D. nucl. Nervi phrenici
E. *Nucl.anteromedialis
16. What is indicated on figure 7\3 with number 36?
A. Zona terminalis
B. Radixposterior
C. Canalis centralis
D. Nucl.proprius
E. *Zona spongiosa
17. What is indicated on figure 7\3 with number 40?
A. Sulcus medianus posterior
B. Radixposterior
C. Sulcus medianus anterior
D. Fissure mediana anterior
E. *Sulcus posterolateralis
18. What is indicated on figure 7 with number 1?
A. Sulcus medianus posterior
B. Sulcus posterolateralis
C. Zona terminalis
D. Nucl.proprius
E. *Nucl. nervi accessorii
19. What is indicated on figure 9 with number 7?
A. N.vagus(X)
B. Tractus olfactorius
C. A. Basillaris
D. N. Opticus(II)
E. *Corpora mamillaria
20. Що позначено на рисунку9\3 with number 25?
A. Tractus olfactorius
B. Bulbus olfactorius
C. N. Spinalis
D. Infundibulum
E. *Tuber cinereum
21. What is indicated on figure 9\3 with number 20 ?
A. N.vagus(X)
B. N. Opticus(II)
C. N. Spinalis
D. Corpora mamillaria
E. *N.vestibulocochlearis(VIII)
22. Що позначено н рисунку 9\3 with number 13?
A. N.vestibulocochlearis(VIII)
B. N.vagus(X)
C. N. Opticus(II)
D. Tractus olfactorius
E. *N.hypoglossus(XII)
23. Що позначено на рисунку10\3 with number 3?
A. Gurus cinguli
B. Corpus callosum
C. Columna fornicis
D. Foramen interventriculare
E. *Thalamus
24. What is indicated on figure 10\3 with number 5?
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypophysis
C. Lamina terminalis
D. Pons
E. *Epiphysis
25. What is indicated on figure 10\3 with number 26?
A. Columna fornicis
B. Gurus cinguli
C. Thalamus
D. Cerebellum
E. *Sulcus cinuli
26. What is indicated on figure 10 with number 3?
A. Tuberculum anterius thalami
B. Hypophysis
C. Locus caeruleus
D. obex
E. *Thalamus
27. What is indicated on figure 11 \3 with number 19?
A. Tuberculum anterius thalami
B. Trigonum habenulare
C. Columna fornicis
D. Thalamus
E. *Tuberculum gracilis
28. What is indicated on figure 11\3 with number 10?
A. Thalamus
B. Tuberculum anterius thalami
C. obex
D. Locus caeruleus
E. *Brahium colliculi inferioris
29. What is indicated on figure 12\3 with number 4?
A. Habenula
B. Obex
C. Thalamus
D. Colliculus superior
E. *Ganglia spinale
30. What is indicated on figure 12\3 with number 6?
A. Thalamus
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Colliculus superior
E. *Decussatio lemnisci medialis
31. What is indicated on figure 12 with number 9?
A. Habenula
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Obex
E. *Thalamus
32. What is indicated on figure 12\3 with number 2?
A. Habenula
B. Obex
C. Decussatio lemnisci medialis
D. Medulla oblongata
E. *Pons
33. What is indicated on figure 13\3 with number 10?
A. Vermis
B. Flocculus
C. Lobule cerebelli
D. Pedunculus cerebellaris medius
E. *Nodulus
34. What is indicated on figure 13\3 with number 2?
A. Nodulus
B. Flocculus
C. Habenula
D. Lobule cerebelli
E. *Vellum medullaresuperius
35. What is indicated on figure 13\3 with number 5?
A. Habenula
B. Vermis
C. Flocculus
D. Lobule cerebelli
E. *Pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
36. What is indicated on figure 14 with number 4?
A. Hilum nucl. Dentate
B. Nucl.emboliformis
C. Cortex cerebelli
D. Nucl. fastigii
E. *Nucl. Dentatus
37. Що позначено на рисунку14/3 with number 6?
A. Cortex cerebelli
B. Nucl. Dentatus
C. Nucl. fastigii
D. Nucl.emboliformis
E. *Hilum nucl. Dentate
38. What is indicated on figure 14 with number 3?
A. Cortex cerebelli
B. Hilum nucl. Dentate
C. Cortex cerebelli
D. Nucl. fastigii
E. *Nucl.emboliformis
39. What is indicated on figure 15\3 with number 17?
A. Fovea inferior
B. Nucl. N. Hypoglossi
C. Nucl. Principalis n. trigemini
D. Nucl. N. abducentis
E. *Obex
40. What is indicated on figure 15\3 with number 15?
A. Opex
B. Nucl. N. abducentis
C. Nucl. Principalis n. trigemini
D. Nucl. N. Hypoglossi
E. *Fovea inferior
41. What is indicated on figure 15\3 with number 20?
A. Nucl. N. abducentis
B. Nucl. Principalis n. trigemini
C. Opex
D. Fovea inferior
E. *Nucl. N. Hypoglossi
42. Що позначено на рисунку15\3 with number 30?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nucl. N. abducentis
Opex
Fovea inferior
Nucl. N. Hypoglossi
*Nucl. Principalis n. trigemini
43. What is indicated on figure 15/3 with number 33?
A. Opex
B. Nucl. Principalis n. trigemini
C. Fovea inferior
D. Nucl. N. Hypoglossi
E. *Nucl. N. Abducentis
44. What is indicated on figure 16 with number 10?
A. Nucl. N. oculomotorii
B. Fibre corticopontinae
C. Fasticulus longitudinalis medialis
D. Nucl. N. Hypoglossi
E. *Fibre corticopontinae
45. What is indicated on figure 16/3 with number 15?
A. Fasticulus longitudinalis medialis
B. Fibre corticopontinae
C. Fovea inferior
D. *Nucl. N. oculomotorii
46. What is indicated on figure 16 with number 4?
A. Nucl. N. oculomotorii
B. Fibre corticopontinae
C. Fibre corticopontinae
D. Opex
E. *Fasticulus longitudinalis medialis
47. What is indicated on figure 17/3 with number 26?
A. Thalamus
B. Tectum mesencephali
C. Sulcus hypothalamicus
D. epiphysis
E. *Septum pellucidum
48. What is indicated on figure 17/3 with number 7?
A. Septum pellucidum
B. Sulcus hypothalamicus
C. epiphysis
D. Opex
E. *Tectum mesencephali
49. What is indicated on figure 17\3 with number 3?
A. epiphysis
B. Fibre corticopontinae
C. Fibre corticopontinae
D. Tectum mesencephali
E. *Sulcus hypothalamicus
50. What is indicated on figure 17\3 with number 6?
A. Tectum mesencephali
B. Fibre corticopontinae
C. Sulcus hypothalamicus
D. Septum pellucidum
E. *Epiphysis
51. What is indicated on figure 18\3 with number 15?
A. Sulcus frontalis superior
B. Sulcus frontalis inferior
C. Gurus supramarginalis
D. Sulcus centralis
E. *Sulcus temporalis inferior
52. What is indicated on figure 18 with number 4?
A. Sulcustemporalis inferior
B. Gurus supramarginalis
C. Sulcus frontalis inferior
D. Sulcus centralis
E. *Sulcus frontalis superior
53. What is indicated on figure 18\3 with number 6 ?
A. Sulcus centralis
B. Gurus supramarginalis
C. Sulcustemporalis inferior
D. Sulcus frontalis superior
E. *Sulcus frontalis inferior
54. What is indicated on figure 18\3 with number 20?
A. Sulcustemporalis inferior
B. Sulcus frontalis superior
C. Sulcus centralis
D. Sulcus frontalis inferior
E. *Gyrus supramarginalis
55. What is indicated on figure 19 with number 7?
A. Pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
B. Corpus callosum
C. Sulcus calcarinus
D. Sulcus centralis
E. *Isthmus gyri cinguli
56. What is indicated on figure 19\3 with number 24?
A. Isthmus guri
B. Pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
C. Sulcus calcarinus
D. Gurus supramarginalis
E. *Corpus callosum
57. What is indicated on figure 19\3 with number 4?
A. Sulcus calcarinus
B. Gurus supramarginalis
C. Sulcus calcarinus
D. Gurus supramarginalis
E. *Pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
58. What is indicated on figure 19 with number 10?
A. Gurus supramarginalis
B. Pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
C. Isthmus guri
D. Corpus callosum
E. *Sulcus calcarinus
59. What is indicated on figure 20\3 with number 1?
A. Guri orbitales
B. Polus temporalis
C. N. Opticus
D. Tractus olfactorius
E. *Sulcus olfactorius
60. What is indicated on figure 20\3 with number 2?
A. N. Opticus
B. Isthmus guri
C. Pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
D. *Gyri orbitales
61. Що позначену на рисунку 20\3 with number 3?
A. N. Opticus
B. Guri orbitales
C. Isthmus guri
D. Corpus callosum
E. *Polus temporalis
62. What is indicated on figure 21\3 with number 9?
A. Stria longitudinalismedialis
B. Stria longitudinalis lateralis
C. Splenium corporis callosi
D. Sulcus frontalis superior
E. *Forceps frontalis
63. What is indicated on figure 21\3 with number 5?
A. Stria longitudinalismedialis
B. Sulcus frontalis superior
C. Forceps frontalis
D. Stria longitudinalis lateralis
E. *Splenium corporis callosi
64. What is indicated on figure 21\3 with number 7?
A. Splenium corporis callosi
B. Stria longitudinalis lateralis
C. Forceps frontalis
D. Corpus callosum
E. *Stria longitudinalismedialis
65. What is indicated on figure 21\3 with number 6?
A. Stria longitudinalismedialis
B. Forceps frontalis
C. Splenium corporis callosi
D. Corpus callosum
E. *Stria longitudinalis lateralis
66. What is indicated on figure 22 with number 1?
A. Polus occipitalis
B. Trigonum collaterale
C. Fibria hippocampi
D. Columna fornicis
E. *Crus fornicis
67. What is indicated on figure 22/3 with number 10?
A. Columna fornicis
B. Polus occipitalis
C. Fibria hippocampi
D. Crus fornicis
E. *Polus occipitalis
68. What is indicated on figure 22\3 with number 9?
A. Crus fornicis
B. Columna fornicis
C. Fibria hippocampi
D. Polus occipitalis
E. *Trigonum collaterale
69. What is indicated on figure 22\3 with number 12?
A. Polus occipitalis
B. Columna fornicis
C. Crus fornicis
D. Trigonum collaterale
E. *Fibria hippocampi
70. What is indicated on figure 23\3 with number 1?
A. Lamina granularis externa
B. Lamina pyramidalis externa
C. Lamina granularis interna
D. Lamina pyramidalis interna
E. *Lamina molecularis
71. What is indicated on figure 25\3 with number 4?
A. Cingulum
B. Fasciculus uncinatus
C. Fasciculus uncinatus
D. Fibrae arcuatae cerebri
E. *Fasciculus longitudinalis inferior
72. What is indicated on figure 26\3 with number 14?
A. Calcar avis
B. Cornu frontale
C. Cornu temporale
D. *Trigonum collaterale
73. What is indicated on figure 28\3 with number 12?
A. Falx cerebri
B. Sinus rectus
C. Sinussagittalis superior
D. Sinus transversus
E. *Sinus sagittalis inferior
74. What is indicated on figure 29/3 with number 7?
A. Sinus transversus
B. Sinusoccipitalis
C. Sinus sigmoideus
D. Sinus rectus
E. *Arachnoidea spinalis
75. What is indicated on figure 27\3 with number 1?
A. Thalamus
B. Capsula interna
C. Gurus precentralis
D. Fibrae corticonucleares
E. *Fissure longitudinalis cerebri
76. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 1?
A. Camera posterior
B. Lens
C. Iris
D. Corpus ciliare
E. *Camera anterior
77. What is indicated on figure 30 with number 8?
A. Sclera
B. N. opticus
C. Corpus ciliare
D. Lens
E. *Retina
78. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 5?
A. Camera anterior
B. Lens
C. Iris
D. Corpus ciliare
E. *Camera posterior
79. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 10?
A. Axsis bulbi externus
B. N opticus
C. Fovea centralis
D. Discus n. opticus
E. *Axis opticus
80. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 9?
A. Discus n. opticus
B. conjunctiva
C. axsis opticus
D. choroidea
E. *Fovea centralis
81. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 14?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fovea centralis
Discus n. opticus
conjunctiva
axsis opticus
*choroidea
82. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 3?
A. lens
B. sclera
C. retina
D. conjuctiva
E. *iris
83. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 12?
A. fasciculus atrioventricularis
B. atrium sinistrum
C. mm. papillares
D. atrium sinistrum
E. *nodus sinuatrialis
84. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 7?
A. Discus n. opticus
B. Zonula ciliaris
C. cornea
D. retina
E. *sclera
85. What is indicated on figure 54/3 with number 17?
A. Discus n. opticus
B. cornea
C. N. opticus
D. retina
E. *Zonula ciliaris
86. What is indicated on figure 55/3 with number 3?
A. Ora serrata
B. Nucleus lentis
C. lens
D. sinus venosus
E. *M. ciliaris
87. What is indicated on figure 31 with number 9?
A. cornea
B. lens
C. Ora serrata
D. Discus n. opticus
E. *Nucleus lentis
88. What is indicated on figure 55/3 with number 1?
A. Ora serrata
B. M. ciliaris
C. cornea
D. iris
E. *conjunctiva
89. What is indicated on figure 55/3 with number 5?
A. m. ciliaris
B. Ora serrata
C. cornea
D. iris
E. *retina
90. What is indicated on figure 55/3 with number 2?
A. Nucleus lentis
B. M. ciliaris
C. n.opticus
D. conjunctiva
E. *sinus venosus
91. What is indicated on figure 55/3 with number 7?
A. sinus venosus
B. M. ciliaris
C. cornea
D. retina
E. *Zonula ciliaris
92. What is indicated on figure 31 with number 8?
A. Nucleus lentis
B. conjunctiva
C. sinus venosus
D. Ora serrata
E. *lens
93. What is indicated on figure 55/3 with number 4?
A. sinus venosus
B. M. ciliaris
C. Zonula ciliaris
D. retina
E. *Ora serrata
94. What is indicated on figure 55/3 with number 13?
A. Camera anterior
B. Camera posterior
C. Zonula ciliaris
D. retina
E. *Angulus iridocornealis
95. What is indicated on figure 31 with number 12?
A. retina
B. Ora serrata
C. M. ciliaris
D. Camera anterior
E. *cornea
96. What is indicated on figure 56/3 with number 5?
A. M. Rectus superior
B. M. Oliquus superior
C. M. Rectus inferior
D. periorbita
E. *M. Oliquus inferior
97. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 4?
A. M. Oliquus inferior
B. M. Rectus superior
C. N. opticus
D. periorbita
E. *sclera
98. What is indicated on figure 56/3 with number 9?
A. N. opticus
B. M. Oliquus inferior
C. M. Rectus superior
D. sclera
E. *Anulus tendineus comunis
99. What is indicated on figure 56/3 with number 6?
A. M. Oliquus inferior
B. M. Rectus superior
C. M. Oliquus superior
D. M. Levator palpebrae superior
E. *M. Rectus inferior
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 11?
M. Oliquus inferior
M. Rectus inferior
M. Rectus superior
M. Levator palpebrae
*M. Oliquus superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 56/3 with number 7?
sclera
N. opticus
M. Oliquus inferior
M. Levator palpebrae superior
*periorbita
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 32 with number 11?
M. Levator palpebrae superior
M. Rectus inferior
M. Oliquus inferior
M. Oliquus superior
*M. Rectus superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 56/3 with number 12?
M. Rectus inferior
M. Oliquus superior
M. Oliquus inferior
N. opticus
*M. Levator palpebrae superior
101.
102.
103.
104.
What is indicated on figure 56/3 with number 3?
A. M. Oliquus inferior
B.
C.
D.
E.
M. Oliquus superior
M. Rectus inferior
M. Levator palpebrae superior
*M. Rectus lateralis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 56/3 with number 2?
N. opticus
M. Oliquus inferior
M. Levator palpebrae superior
periorbita
*N. trohlearis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57/3 with number 1?
palbea superior
pupilla
cilia
palpebra inferior
*supercilium
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 33 with number 4?
palpebra inferior
cilia
supercilium
palbea superior
*Caruncula lacrimalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57/3 with number 5?
Caruncula lacrimalis
palpebra inferior
palbea superior
cilia
*iris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57/3 with number 6?
supercilium
palbea superior
cilia
pupilla
*palpebra inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57/3 with number 2?
palpebra inferior
Caruncula lacrimalis
iris
cilia
*palbea superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57/3 with number 7?
pupilla
palbea superior
Caruncula lacrimalis
pupilla
*cilia
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57/3 with number 3?
Caruncula lacrimalis
palbea superior
pupilla
iris
*Comissura medialis palpebrarum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 33 with number 9?
palbea superior
Caruncula lacrimalis
iris
cilia
*pupilla
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 33 with number 8?
Caruncula lacrimalis
pupilla
palbea superior
iris
*Comissura lateralis palpebrarum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 1?
Corpus ciliare
Corpus vitreum
Vagina bulbi
N. opticus
*periorbita
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 2?
N. opticus
Corpus ciliare
periorbita
cilii
*Vagina bulbi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34 with number 4?
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Corpus ciliare
periorbita
*N. opticus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 5?
cilii
Corpus vitreum
N. opticus
Corpus ciliare
* Corpus adiposum orbitae
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 34 with number 7?
cilii
Vagina bulbi
N. opticus
periorbita
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
E. *Canalis hyaloidues
120.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 6?
Corpus ciliare
Corpus vitreum
cilii
Vagina bulbi
* Discus n. optici
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 8?
N. opticus
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Corpus ciliare
*lens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 9?
Camera anterior
Corpus vitreum
periorbita
Corpus ciliare
*Camera posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34 with number 1?
N. opticus
Septum orbitale
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
*Periorbita
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 13?
Corpus ciliare
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Camera anterior
*cilii
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34 with number 12?
Corpus ciliare
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Camera anterior
*Tagus inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 14?
Corpus ciliare
Vagina bulbi
periorbita
Camera anterior
*cornea
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
What is indicated on figure 30 with number 1 ?
A. Corpus ciliare
B. Corpus vitreum
C. periorbita
D. Vagina bulbi
E. *Camera anterior
128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 16?
N. opticus
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Camera anterior
*iris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58/3 with number 17?
Vagina bulbi
Corpus ciliare
Corpus vitreum
iris
*Trasus superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 59/3 with number 2?
Saccus lacrimalis
Plica semilunaris
Ductuli excretorii
Ductus nasolacrimalis
*Canalis lacrimales
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 35 with number 3?
Meatus nasi inferior
Ductus nasolacrimalis
Plica semilunaris
Canalis lacrimales
*Saccus lacrimalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 59/3 with number 6?
Plica semilunaris
Ductuli excretorii
Saccus lacrimalis
Ductus nasolacrimalis
*Meatus nasi inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 59/3 with number 4?
Ductuli excretorii
Saccus lacrimalis
Canalis lacrimales
Plica semilunaris
*Ductus nasolacrimalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 35 with number 9?
Meatus nasi inferior
Canalis lacrimales
Ductuli excretorii
Ductus nasolacrimalis
*Plica semilunaris
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
What is indicated on figure 59/3 with number 10?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Saccus lacrimalis
Plica semilunaris
Canalis lacrimales
Ductus nasolacrimalis
*Ductuli excretorii
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61/3 with number 1?
Lobulus auriculare
antihelix
antitragus
scapha
*helix
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 613 with number 2?
scapha
helix
Lobulus auriculare
antitragus
*antihelix
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61/3 with number 4?
antitragus
antihelix
Lobulus auriculare
helix
*scapha
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61/3 with number 5?
scapha
antihelix
helix
Lobulus auriculare
* Crus helicis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61/3 with number 7?
scapha
helix
antitragus
antihelix
*Lobulus auriculare
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61/3 with number 6?
Lobulus auriculare
helix
antihelix
Crus helicis
*antitragus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63/3 with number 10?
incus
Caput mallei
M. Tensor tympani
mallei
*Membrana tympanica
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63/3 with number 2?
mallei
stapes
incus
M. Tensor tympani
*Caput mallei
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63/3 with number 8?
mallei
incus
Caput mallei
M. Tensor tympani
*stapes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63/3 with number 4?
Caput mallei
Lig.mallei
M. Tensor tympani
stapes
*incus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63/3 with number 13?
stapes
Caput mallei
Lig.mallei
incus
*M. Tensor tympani
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63/3 with number 14?
stapes
Caput mallei
M. Tensor tympani
incus
*Lig. Mallei anterius
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 41 with number 3?
cochlea
Crus osseum commune
Fenestra cochleae
Crus osseum simplex
*vestibulum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 65/3 with number 4?
vestibulum
Fenestra cochleae
Crus osseum commune
Crus osseum simplex
*cochlea
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
What is indicated on figure 65/3 with number 9?
A. vestibulum
B. cochlea
C. Fenestra cochleae
D. Crus osseum commune
E. *Crus osseum simplex
151.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 65/3 with number 12?
cochlea
vestibulum
Fenestra cochleae
Crus osseum simplex
*Crus osseum commune
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 65/3 with number 6?
cochlea
vestibulum
Crus osseum commune
Crus osseum simplex
*Fenestra cochleae
152.
Vessels and nerves of head
1. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 1?
A. n. abducens
B. n. lacrimalis
C. n. maxillaris
D. n. ophtalmicus
E. *n. supraorbitalis
2. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 3?
A. n. lacrimalis
B. n. maxillaris
C. n. ophtalmicus
D. n. mandibularis
E. *n. abducens
3. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 4?
A. n. maxillaris
B. n. ophtalmicus
C. n. mandibularis
D. radix sensoria n. trigemini
E. *n. lacrimalis
4. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 24?
A. n. ophtalmicus
B. n. mandibularis
C. radix sensoria n. trigemini
D. n. abducens
E. *n. maxillaris
5. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 6?
A. n. mandibularis
B. radix sensoria n. trigemini
C. n. abducens
D. n. oculomotorius
E. *n. ophtalmicus
6. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 7?
A. radix sensoria n. trigemini
B. n. abducens
C. n. oculomotorius
D. n. n. opticus
E. *n. mandibularis
7. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 9?
A. n. abducens
B. n. oculomotorius
C. n. opticus
D. n. trochlearis
E. *radix sensoria n. trigemini
8. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 10?
A. n. oculomotorius
B. n. opticus
C. n. trochlearis
D. n. frontalis
E. *n. abducens
9. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 11?
A. n. opticus
B. n. trochlearis
C. n. frontalis
D. n. nasociliaris
E. *n. oculomotorius
10. What is indicated on figure 2 with number 12?
A. n. trochlearis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. nasociliaris
D. n. supratrochlearis
E. *n. opticus
11. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 13?
A. n. frontalis
B. n. nasociliaris
C. n. supratrochlearis
D. n. supraorbitalis
E. *n. trochlearis
12. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 14?
A. n. trochlearis
B. n. nasociliaris
C. n. supratrochlearis
D. n. supraorbitalis
E. *n. frontalis
13. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 30?
A. n. trochlearis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. supratrochlearis
D. n. supraorbitalis
E. *n. nasociliaris
14. What is indicated on figure 31/3 with number 16?
A. n. trochlearis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. nasociliaris
D. n. supraorbitalis
E. *n. supratrochlearis
15. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 1?
A. n. trochlearis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. nasociliaris
D. n. supraorbitalis (r. medialis)
E. *n. supraorbitalis (r. lateralis)
16. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 2?
A. n. trochlearis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. nasociliaris
D. n. supraorbitalis (r. Lateralis
E. *n. supraorbitalis (r. medialis)
17. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 3?
A. n. trochlearis
B. n. frontalis
C. n. nasociliaris
D. n. supraorbitalis (r. Lateralis
E. *n. supratrochlearis
18. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 4?
A. n. supratrochlearis
B. n. trochlearis
C. n. frontalis
D. n. nasociliaris
E. *n. infratrochlearis
19. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 5?
A. n. infratrochlearis
B. n. supratrochlearis
C. n. trochlearis
D. n. frontalis
E. *n. infraorbitalis
20. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 6?
A. n. infraorbitalis
B. n. infratrochlearis
C. n. supratrochlearis
D. n. trochlearis
E. *rr. alveolares superiores anteriores
21. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 7?
A. rr. alveolares superiores anteriores
B. n. infraorbitalis
C. n. infratrochlearis
D. n. supratrochlearis
E. *r. alveolaris superior medius
22. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 9?
A. r. alveolaris superior medius
B. rr. alveolares superiores anteriores
C. n. infraorbitalis
D. n. infratrochlearis
E. *rr. dentales superiores
23. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 10?
A. rr. dentales superiores
B. r. alveolaris superior medius
C. rr. alveolares superiores anteriores
D. n. infraorbitalis
E. *rr. gingivales superiores
24. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 11?
A. rr. gingivales superiores
B. rr. dentales superiores
C. r. alveolaris superior medius
D. rr. alveolares superiores anteriores
E. *rr. gingivales inferiores
25. What is indicated on figure 32 with number 12?
A. rr. gingivales inferiores
B. rr. gingivales superiores
C. rr. dentales superiores
D. r. alveolaris superior medius
E. *n. mentalis
26. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 13?
A. n. mentalis
B. rr. gingivales inferiores
C. rr. gingivales superiores
D. rr. dentales superiors
E. *rr. dentales inferiores
27. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 15?
A. rr. dentales inferiores
B. n. mentalis
C. rr. gingivales inferiores
D. rr. gingivales superiors
E. *rr. alveolares superiores posteriores
28. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 16?
A. rr. alveolares superiores posteriores
B. rr. dentales inferiores
C. n. mentalis
D. rr. gingivales inferiores
E. *nn. alveolaris inferior
29. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 17?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
nn. alveolaris inferior
rr. alveolares superiores posteriores
rr. dentales inferiores
n. mentalis
*n. lingualis
30. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 13?
A. n. lingualis
B. n. mylohyoideus
C. rr. alveolares superiores posteriores
D. rr. dentales inferiores
E. *nn. alveolaris inferior
31. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 19?
A. n. mylohyoideus
B. n. lingualis
C. nn. alveolaris inferior
D. rr. alveolares superiores posteriores
E. *n. buccalis
32. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 20?
A. n. buccalis
B. n. mylohyoideus
C. n. lingualis
D. nn. alveolaris inferior
E. *n. auriculotemporalis
33. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 21?
A. n. auriculotemporalis
B. n. buccalis
C. n. mylohyoideus
D. n. lingualis
E. *n. mandibularis
34. What is indicated on figure 2 with number 5 ?
A. n. mandibularis
B. n. auriculotemporalis
C. n. buccalis
D. n. mylohyoideus
E. *n. maxillaris
35. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 25?
A. n. maxillaris
B. n. mandibularis
C. n. auriculotemporalis
D. n. buccalis
E. *n. ophtalmicus
36. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 27?
A. n. ophtalmicus
B. n. maxillaris
C. n. mandibularis
D. n. auriculotemporalis
E. *n. zygomaticus
37. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 28?
A. n. zygomaticus
B. n. ophtalmicus
C. n. maxillaris
D. n. mandibularis
E. *n. nasociliaris
38. What is indicated on figure 2 with number 4?
A. n. nasociliaris
B. n. zygomaticus
C. n. ophtalmicus
D. n. maxillaris
E. *n. lacrimalis
39. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 31?
A. n. lacrimalis
B. n. nasociliaris
C. n. zygomaticus
D. n. ophtalmicus
E. *n. frontalis
40. What is indicated on figure 32/3 with number 33?
A. n. frontalis
B. n. lacrimalis
C. n. nasociliaris
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *n. zygomaticotemporalis
41. What is indicated on figure 33/3 with number 1?
A. n. hypoglossus
B. n. glossopharyngeus
C. ramus mandibulae
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *n. lingualis
42. What is indicated on figure 33/3 with number 3?
A. ganglion sublinguale
B. ganglion submandibulare
C. gl. submandibularis
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *gl. sublingualis
43. What is indicated on figure 33/3 with number 4?
A. gl. sublingualis
B. ganglion submandibulare
C. gl. submandibularis
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *ganglion sublinguale
44. What is indicated on figure 33/3 with number 5?
A. gl. sublingualis
B. ganglion sublinguale
C. gl. submandibularis
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *ganglion submandibulare
45. What is indicated on figure 33/3 with number 6?
A. gl. sublingualis
B. ganglion sublinguale
C. ganglion submandibulare
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *gl. submandibularis
46. What is indicated on figure 33/3 with number 7?
A. n. lingualis
B. n. glossopharyngeus
C. ramus mandibulae
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *n. hypoglossus
47. What is indicated on figure 33/3 with number 8?
A. n. lingualis
B. n. hypoglossus
C. ramus mandibulae
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *n. glossopharyngeus
48. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 7?
A. n. lingualis
B. n. hypoglossus
C. n. glossopharyngeus
D. n. zygomaticus
E. *ramus mandibulae marginalis
49. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 1?
A. chorda thympani
B. plexus thympanicus
C. r. communicans cum plexo thympanico
D. ganglion geniculi
E. *n. stapedius
50. What is indicated on figure 5 with number 2?
A. plexus thympanicus
B. r. communicans cum plexo thympanico
C. ganglion geniculi
D. n. facialis
E. *chorda thympani
51. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 3?
A. n. stapedius
B. r. communicans cum plexo thympanico
C. ganglion geniculi
D. n. facialis
E. *plexus thympanicus
52. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 4?
A. n. lingualis
B.
C.
D.
E.
n. hypoglossus
n. glossopharyngeus
n. zygomaticus
*r. communicans cum plexo thympanico
53. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 12?
A. communicans cum plexo thympanico
B. n. lingualis
C. n. hypoglossus
D. n. glossopharyngeus
E. *n. facialis
54. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 7?
A. n. facialis
B. communicans cum plexo thympanico
C. n. lingualis
D. n. hypoglossus
E. *n. intermedius
55. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 8?
A. n. intermedius
B. n. facialis
C. communicans cum plexo thympanico
D. n. lingualis
E. *n. vestibulocochlearis
56. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 10?
A. n. intermedius
B. n. facialis
C. communicans cum plexo thympanico
D. n. lingualis
E. *n. petrosus major
57. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 6?
A. n. petrosus major
B. n. intermedius
C. n. caroticothympanicus
D. communicans cum plexo thympanico
E. *n. facialis
58. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 12?
A. n. caroticothympanicus
B. n. petrosus major
C. n. intermedius
D. n. facialis
E. *n. petrosus minor
59. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 14?
A. n. petrosus minor
B. n. caroticothympanicus
C. n. petrosus major
D. n. intermedius
E. *n. petrosus profundus
60. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 15?
A. n. petrosus profundus
B. n. petrosus minor
C. n. caroticothympanicus
D. n. petrosus major
E. *n. canalis pterygoidei
61. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 16?
A. n. canalis pterygoidei
B. n. petrosus profundus
C. n. petrosus minor
D. n. caroticothympanicus
E. *nn. pterygopalatine
62. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 17?
A. nn. pterygopalatine
B. n. canalis pterygoidei
C. n. petrosus profundus
D. n. petrosus minor
E. *n. maxillaris
63. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 12?
A. n. maxillaris
B. nn. pterygopalatine
C. n. canalis pterygoidei
D. n. petrosus profundus
E. *n. facialis
64. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 21?
A. n. massetericus
B. n. maxillaris
C. nn. pterygopalatine
D. n. canalis pterygoidei
E. *n. mandibularis
65. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 26?
A. n. mandibularis
B. n. massetericus
C. n. maxillaris
D. nn. pterygopalatine
E. *n. lingualis
66. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 27?
A. n. lingualis
B. n. mandibularis
C. n. massetericus
D. n. maxillaris
E. *n. alveolaris inferior
67. What is indicated on figure 4 with number 1?
A. n. auriculotemporalis
B. n. alveolaris inferior
C. n. mandibularis
D. n. massetericus
E. *n. lingualis
68. What is indicated on figure 5 with number 29?
A. n. auriculotemporalis
B. n. alveolaris inferior
C. n. lingualis
D. n. mandibularis
E. *n. thympanicus
69. What is indicated on figure 4 with number 1?
A. n. thympanicus
B. n. auriculotemporalis
C. n. alveolaris inferior
D. n. glossopharyngeus
E. *n. lingualis
70. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 32?
A. n. glossopharyngeus
B. n. thympanicus
C. n. auriculotemporalis
D. n. alveolaris inferior
E. *r. auricularis n. vagi
71. What is indicated on figure 34 with number 34?
A. r. auricularis n. vagi
B. n. glossopharyngeus
C. n. thympanicus
D. n. auriculotemporalis
E. *r. stylohyoideus n. facialis
72. What is indicated on figure 34/3 with number 35?
A. r. stylohyoideus n. facialis
B. r. auricularis n. vagi
C. n. glossopharyngeus
D. n. thympanicus
E. *r. digastricus
73. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 13?
A. r. digastricus
B. r. stylohyoideus n. facialis
C. r. auricularis n. vagi
D. n. Glossopharyngeus
E. *n. auricularis posterior
74. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 1?
A. rr. temporales
B. n. supraorbitalis
C. rr. zygomatici
D. n. infraorbitalis
E. *plexus intraparotideus
75. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 2?
A. n. supraorbitalis
B. rr. zygomatici
C. n. infraorbitalis
D. rr. buccales
E. *rr. temporales
76. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 3?
A. rr. zygomatici
B. n. infraorbitalis
C. rr. buccales
D. r. marginalis mandibularis
E. *n. supraorbitalis
77. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 4?
A. n. infraorbitalis
B. rr. buccales
C. r. marginalis mandibulari
D. r. colli
E. *rr. zygomatici
78. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 5?
A. rr. buccales
B. r. marginalis mandibulari
C. r. colli
D. n. transversus colli
E. *n. infraorbitalis
79. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 6?
A. r. marginalis mandibulari
B. r. colli
C. n. transversus colli
D. nn. supraclaviculares
E. *rr. buccales
80. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 7?
A. r. colli
B. n. transversus colli
C. nn. supraclaviculares
D. n. auricularis magnus
E. *r. marginalis mandibulari
81. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 8?
A. n. transversus colli
B. nn. supraclaviculares
C. n. auricularis magnus
D. n. facialis
E. *r. colli
82. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 9?
A. nn. supraclaviculares
B. n. auricularis magnus
C. n. facialis
D. n. occipitalis minor
E. *n. transversus colli
83. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 10?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
n. auricularis magnus
n. facialis
n. occipitalis minor
n. occipitalis major
*nn. supraclaviculares
84. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 11?
A. n. facialis
B. n. occipitalis minor
C. n. occipitalis major
D. n. auriculotemporalis
E. *n. auricularis magnus
85. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 12?
A. n. occipitalis minor
B. n. occipitalis major
C. n. auriculotemporalis
D. n. infraorbitalis
E. *n. facialis
86. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 13?
A. n. occipitalis major
B. n. auriculotemporalis
C. rr. zygomatici
D. n. infraorbitalis
E. *n. occipitalis minor
87. What is indicated on figure 35/3 with number 14?
A. n. occipitalis major
B. rr. temporales
C. rr. zygomatici
D. n. infraorbitalis
E. *n. supraorbitalis
88. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 20?
A. n. auricularis magnus
B. n. facialis
C. n. occipitalis minor
D. n. occipitalis major
E. *n. auriculotemporalis
89. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 23?
A. plexus brachialis
B. gangl. cervicale superius
C. gangl. inferius n. vagi
D. n. occipitalis major
E. *gangl. trigeminale
90. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 2?
A. n. lingualis
B. n. hypoglossus
C. n. laryngeus superior
D. n. vagus
E. *n. glossopharyngeus
91. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 3?
A. n. hypoglossus
B. n. laryngeus superior
C. n. vagus
D. n. phrenicus
E. *n. lingualis
92. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 4?
A. n. laryngeus superior
B. n. vagus
C. n. phrenicus
D. plexus brachialis
E. *n. hypoglossus
93. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 5?
A. n. vagus
B. n. phrenicus
C. plexus brachialis
D. truncus sympathicus
E. *n. laryngeus superior
94. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 6?
A. n. phrenicus
B. plexus brachialis
C. truncus sympathicus
D. plexus cervicalis
E. *n. vagus
95. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 8?
A. plexus brachialis
B. truncus sympathicus
C. plexus cervicalis
D. gangl. cervicale superius
E. *n. phrenicus
96. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 9?
A. truncus sympathicus
B. plexus cervicalis
C. gangl. cervicale superius
D. n. occipitalis major
E. *plexus brachialis
97. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 10?
A. n. vagus
B. n. phrenicus
C. plexus brachialis
D. truncus sympathicus
E. *truncus sympathicus
98. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 12?
A. n. auricularis magnus
B. n. facialis
C. n. occipitalis minor
D. n. occipitalis major
E. *gangl. cervicale superius
99. What is indicated on figure 36/3 with number 12?
A. gangl. cervicale superius
B. n. auricularis magnus
C. n. facialis
D. n. occipitalis minor
E. *gangl. inferius n. vagi
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 1?
n. glossopharyngeus
n. accessorius
r. communicans cum nervo hypoglosso
n. laryngeus reccurens dexter
*r. communicans cum nervo faciale
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 2?
n. accessorius
r. communicans cum nervo hypoglosso
n. laryngeus reccurens dexter
n. laryngeus reccurens sinister
*n. glossopharyngeus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 3?
r. communicans cum nervo hypoglosso
n. laryngeus reccurens dexter
n. laryngeus reccurens sinister
n. vagus sinister
*n. accessorius
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 4?
n. laryngeus reccurens dexter
n. laryngeus reccurens sinister
n. vagus sinister
ganglion coeliacum dexter
*r. communicans cum nervo hypoglosso
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 8 with number 5?
n. laryngeus reccurens dexter
n. laryngeus reccurens sinister
n. vagus sinister
ganglion coeliacum dexter
*r. communicans cum trunco sympathico
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 24?
n. laryngeus reccurens sinister
n. vagus sinister
ganglion coeliacum dexter
r. communicans cum trunco sympathico
*n. laryngeus superior
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 11?
A. n. vagus sinister
B.
C.
D.
E.
ganglion coeliacum dexter
r. communicans cum trunco sympathico
n. laryngeus reccurens dexter
*n. laryngeus reccurens sinister
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 8 with number 12?
ganglion coeliacum dexter
r. communicans cum trunco sympathico
n. laryngeus reccurens dexter
n. laryngeus reccurens sinister
*n. vagus sinister
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 24?
n. glossopharyngeus
n. accessorius
n. vagus sinister
r. communicans cum trunco sympathico
*n. laryngeus superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 27?
n. glossopharyngeus
n. facialis
r. communicans cum nervo hypoglosso
r. communicans cum trunco sympathico
*n. accessorius
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 29?
n. accessorius
n. glossopharyngeus
n. facialis
r. communicans cum nervo hypoglosso
*n. dorsalis n. vagi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37/3 with number 30?
n. dorsalis n. vagi
n. accessorius
n. glossopharyngeus
n. vagus
*n. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 1?
а. temporalis superficialis
a. maxillaris
а. alveolaris inferior
а. auricularis posterior
*а. transversa faciei
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 2?
a. maxillaris
а. alveolaris inferior
а. auricularis posterior
а. occipitalis
*а. temporalis superficialis
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 3?
а. alveolaris inferior
а. auricularis posterior
а. occipitalis
а. pharyngea posterior
*a. maxillaris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 4?
а. auricularis posterior
а. occipitalis
а. pharyngea posterior
a. carotis interna
*а. alveolaris inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 5?
а. occipitalis
а. pharyngea posterior
a. carotis interna
a. carotis communis sinistra
*а. auricularis posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 8?
а. pharyngea posterior
a. carotis interna
a. carotis communis sinistra
truncus thyreocervicalis
*а. occipitalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 9 with number 12?
а. pharyngea posterior
a. carotis interna
truncus thyreocervicalis
a. subclavia sinistra
*a. carotis communis sinistra
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 10?
a. carotis communis sinistra
truncus thyreocervicalis
a. subclavia sinistra
a. vertebralis
*a. carotis interna
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 13?
truncus thyreocervicalis
a. subclavia sinistra
a. vertebralis
a. thyroidea superior
*a. carotis communis sinistra
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 15?
a. subclavia sinistra
a. vertebralis
a. thyroidea superior
a. carotis interna
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
E. *truncus thyreocervicalis
122.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 16?
a. vertebralis
a. thyroidea superior
a. carotis interna
a. lingualis
*a. subclavia sinistra
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 17?
a. thyroidea superior
a. carotis interna
a. lingualis
a. facialis
*a. vertebralis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 19?
a. carotis interna
a. lingualis
a. facialis
a. labialis inferior
*a. thyroidea superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 20?
a. lingualis
a. facialis
a. labialis inferior
a. labialis superior
*a. carotis interna
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 5 with number 21?
a. facialis
a. labialis inferior
a. labialis superior
a. sphenopalatina
*a. lingualis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 23?
a. labialis inferior
a. labialis superior
a. sphenopalatina
a. infraorbitalis
*a. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 24?
a. labialis superior
a. sphenopalatina
a. infraorbitalis
a. angularis
*a. labialis inferior
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 25?
A. a. sphenopalatina
B. a. infraorbitalis
C. a. angularis
D. a. dorsalis nasi
E. *a. labialis superior
130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 26?
a. infraorbitalis
a. angularis
a. dorsalis nasi
a. supraorbitalis
*a. sphenopalatina
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 27?
a. angularis
a. dorsalis nasi
a. supraorbitalis
a. meningea media
*a. infraorbitalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 28?
a. dorsalis nasi
a. supraorbitalis
а. auricularis posterior
a. meningea media
*a. angularis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 9 with number 29?
a. supraorbitalis
а. auricularis posterior
a. meningea media
a. angularis
*a. dorsalis nasi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89/3 with number 30?
а. auricularis posterior
a. meningea media
a. angularis
a. dorsalis nasi
*a. supraorbitalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 1?
а. cerebri anterior
a. communicans anterior
а. ophthalmica
а. communicans posterior
*a. cerebri media
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 1?
а. cerebri anterior
a. communicans anterior
а. ophthalmica
а. communicans posterior
*a. cerebri media
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 34?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a. communicans anterior
а. ophthalmica
а. communicans posterior
а. meningea media
*а. basilamis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 12 with number 1?
а. ophthalmica
а. communicans posterior
а. meningea media
а. maxillaris
*a. communicans anterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 4?
а. communicans posterior
а. meningea media
а. maxillaris
а. temporalis superficialis
*а. ophthalmica
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 5?
а. meningea media
а. maxillaris
а. temporalis superficialis
a. alveolaris inferior
*а. communicans posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 7?
а. maxillaris
а. temporalis superficialis
a. alveolaris inferior
a. carotis externa
*а. meningea media
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 8?
а. temporalis superficialis
a. alveolaris inferior
a. carotis externa
a. facialis
*а. maxillaris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 9?
a. alveolaris inferior
a. carotis externa
a. facialis
a. lingualis
*а. temporalis superficialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 11?
a. carotis externa
a. facialis
a. lingualis
a. pharyngea ascendens
*a. carotis externus
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 11?
a. facialis
a. lingualis
a. pharyngea ascendens
a. thyroidea superior
*a. carotis externa
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 12?
a. lingualis
a. pharyngea ascendens
a. thyroidea superior
a. carotis communis
*a. facialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 13?
a. pharyngea ascendens
a. thyroidea superior
a. carotis communis
a. vertebralis
*a. lingualis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 10 with number 14?
a. thyroidea superior
a. carotis communis
a. vertebralis
a. labyrinthi
*a. pharyngea ascendens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 15?
a. carotis communis
a. vertebralis
a. labyrinthi
a. basilaris
*a. thyroidea superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 16?
a. vertebralis
a. labyrinthi
a. basilaris
a. cerebri posterior
*a. carotis communis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 28?
a. labyrinthi
a. basilaris
a. cerebri posterior
а. communicans posterior
*a. vertebralis
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 33?
A. a. basilaris
B. a. cerebri posterior
C. а. communicans posterior
D. a. labyrinthi
E. *a. vertebralis
153.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 34?
a. cerebri posterior
а. communicans posterior
a. vertebralis
a. labyrinthi
*a. basilaris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 90/3 with number 35?
а. communicans posterior
a. vertebralis
a. labyrinthi
a. basilaris
*a. cerebri posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 1?
a. supratrochlearis
а. meningea anterior
a. ethmoudalis anterior
aa. ciliares posteriores breves
*a. dorsalis nasi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 2?
а. meningea anterior
a. ethmoudalis anterior
aa. ciliares posteriores breves
a. ethmoidalis posterior
*a. supratrochlearis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 3?
a. ethmoudalis anterior
aa. ciliares posteriores breves
a. ethmoidalis posterior
a. carotis interna
*а. meningea anterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 11 with number 4?
aa. ciliares posteriores breves
a. ethmoidalis posterior
a. carotis interna
a. ophthalmica
*a. ethmoudalis anterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 6?
a. ethmoidalis posterior
a. carotis interna
a. ophthalmica
a. centralis retinae
*aa. ciliares posteriores breves
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 7?
A. a. carotis interna
B.
C.
D.
E.
a. ophthalmica
a. centralis retinae
a. ciliaris posterior longus
*a. ethmoidalis posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91 with number 9?
a. ophthalmica
a. centralis retinae
a. ciliaris posterior longus
a. lacrimals
*a. carotis interna
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 10?
a. centralis retinae
a. ciliaris posterior longus
a. lacrimals
a. supraorbitalis
*a. ophthalmica
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 11?
a. ciliaris posterior longus
a. lacrimals
a. supraorbitalis
a. basilaris
*a. centralis retinae
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 12?
a. lacrimals
a. supraorbitalis
a. basilaris
a. centralis retinae
*a. ciliaris posterior longus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 13?
a. supraorbitalis
a. basilaris
a. centralis retinae
a. ciliaris posterior longus
*a. lacrimals
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91/3 with number 16?
a. basilaris
a. centralis retinae
a. ciliaris posterior longus
a. lacrimals
*a. supraorbitalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 1?
a. ophthalmica
a. cerebri media
а. basilaris
а. labyrinthi
*a. communicans anterior
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 12 with number 2?
a. cerebri media
а. basilaris
а. labyrinthi
а. vertebralis
*a. ophthalmica
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 3?
а. basilaris
а. labyrinthi
а. vertebralis
а. spinalis posterior
*a. cerebri media
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 4?
а. labyrinthi
а. vertebralis
а. spinalis posterior
а. spinalis anterior
*а. basilaris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 5?
а. vertebralis
а. spinalis posterior
а. spinalis anterior
а. cerebelli inferior posterior
*а. labyrinthi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 6?
а. spinalis posterior
а. spinalis anterior
а. cerebelli inferior posterior
a. cerebelli inferior anterior
*а. vertebralis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 7?
а. spinalis anterior
а. cerebelli inferior posterior
a. cerebelli inferior anterior
a. cerebelli superior
*а. spinalis posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 8?
а. cerebelli inferior posterior
a. cerebelli inferior anterior
a. cerebelli superior
a. cerebri posterior
*а. spinalis anterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 9?
a. cerebelli inferior anterior
a. cerebelli superior
a. cerebri posterior
а. communicans posterior
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
E. *а. cerebelli inferior posterior
176.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 10?
a. cerebelli superior
a. cerebri posterior
а. communicans posterior
a. carotis interna
*a. cerebelli inferior anterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 11?
a. cerebri posterior
а. communicans posterior
a. carotis interna
a. cerebri anterior
*a. cerebelli superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 12?
а. communicans posterior
a. carotis interna
a. cerebri anterior
a. cerebelli superior
*a. cerebri posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 13?
a. carotis interna
a. cerebri anterior
a. cerebelli superior
a. cerebri posterior
*а. communicans posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 92/3 with number 14?
a. cerebri anterior
a. cerebelli superior
a. cerebri posterior
а. communicans posterior
*a. carotis interna
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 12 with number 15?
a. cerebelli superior
a. cerebri posterior
а. communicans posterior
a. carotis interna
*a. cerebri anterior
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
Step Normal Anatomy Module 2
1. A 18-year-old patient came to the out-patient department with the complaints of
bleeding trauma in the vestibule of his nose. On examination: the mechanical injure of
the mucous layer of the vestibule without continuation into nasal cavity proper. What is
the boundary between the vestibule and nasal cavity proper?
A. *Nasal limen
B. Nasal roller
C. Nasal septa
D. Choanes
E. Nostrils
2. A 25-year-old patient complained of the decreased vision. Accommodation
disorders, dilated pupil, not reacting on the light were revealed on examination.
Function of what muscles is disturbed?
A. *Pupil narrowing muscle, ciliary
B. Pupil dilating muscle, ciliary
C. Inferior oblique muscle, ciliary
D. Lateral rectus muscle, pupil narrowing
E. Pupil narrowing and dilating muscle
3. A 26-year-old patient was found to have a big furuncle of soft tissues of face by the
root of nose and inferior eyelid. This disease can be seriously complicated by the
infection spreading along veins of this region to the sinuses of dura brain mater. What
sinus is most likely to be affected?
A. *Cavernous
B. Superior sagittal
C. Occipital
D. Sigmoid
E. Petrosal
4. A 3 year old child was admitted to the hospital with otitis. Pus is probable to spread
from the tympanic cavity. Where can the pus get into?
A. *Into mastoid antrum
B. Into internal ear
C. Into auditory tube
D. Into external acoustic duct
E. Into posterior cranial fossa
5. A 30-year-old patient was hospitalized due to bleeding of the facial artery. What
place on the face has to be pressed to stop bleeding?
A. *The mandible’s edge
B. The mental process
C. The mandible’s branch
D. The nose’s back
E. The molar bone
6. A 32-year-old patient has been diagnosed with bartholinitis (inflammation of
Bartholin's glands ). In what part of the female urogenital system are the Bartholin's
glands located?
A. *The labia major
B. The labia minor
C. The clitoris
D. The vagina
E. The uterus
7. A 35 year old patient applied to a doctor with complaints about having intense
rhinitis and loss of sense of smell for a week. Objectively: nasal cavity contains a lot of
mucus that covers mucous membrane and blocks olfactory receptors. In what part of
nasal cavity are these receptors situated?
A. *Superior nasal turbinate
B. Median nasal turbinate
C. Inferior nasal turbinate
D. Common nasal meatus
E. Vestibule of nose
8. A 35 year old patient came to the admission department with complaints of pain and
edema in the region of floor of oral cavity. After examination he was diagnosed with
inflammation in the region of excretory duct of submandibular gland. Where does this
duct open into?
A. *Caruncula sublingualis
B. Vestibulum oris
C. Foramen caecum linguae
D. Plica fimbriata
E. Recesus gingivalis
9. A 40-year-old patient complains of intensive heartbeats, sweating, nausea, visual
impairment, arm tremor, hypertension. From his anamnesis: 2 years ago he was
diagnosed with pheochromocytomA. *Hyperproduction of what hormones causes the
given pathology?
A. *Catecholamines
B. Aldosterone
C. Glucocorticoids
D. ACTH
E. Thyroidal hormones
10. A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the infectious diseases department with high
body temperature. Objectively: marked meningeal symptoms. A spinal cord punction
was made. What anatomic formation was puncturated?
A. *Spatium subarachnoideum
B. Spatium subdurale
C. Spatium epidurale
D. Cavum trigeminale
E. Cisterna cerebellomedullaris posterior
11. A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the surgical department with complaints of
abrupt sharp pain in the epigastric region. After examination it was diagnosed:
perforated ulcer of the posterior wall of the stomach. Where did content of the stomach
flow out while perforation?
A. *To the omental bursa
B. To the liver bursa
C. To the proventriculus sack
D. To the left mesenteric sinus
E. To the right mesenteric sinus
12. A 50 year-old patient had hemorrhage of the brain and was taken to the hospital.
The place of hemorrhage was revealed on the lateral hemispheres surfaces during the
medical examination. What artery was injured?
A. *The middle cerebral artery
B. The anterior cerebral artery
C. The posterior cerebral artery
D. The anterior communicating artery
E. The posterior communicating artery
13. A 53-year-old female patient was diagnosed with liver rupture resulting from a blunt
abdominal injury. The escaped blood will be assembled in the following anatomic
formation:
A. *Rectouterine pouch
B. Vesicouterine pouch
C. Right mesenteric sinus
D. Omental bursa
E. Left mesenteric sinus
14. A 58 year old woman had her uterus and all appendages completely removed. It
resulted in stoppage of urine excretion. Cystoscopy results: bladder doesn't contain
any urine, urine doesn't come also from ureteric orifices. What part of urinary excretion
system was damaged during the operation?
A. *Ureter
B. Uretra
C. Vesica urinaria
D. Pelvis renalis
E. Ren
15. A 58-year-old patient with acute cardiac insufficiency has decreased volume of
daily urine - oliguriA. *What is the mechanism of this phenomenon?
A. *Decreased glomerular filtration
B. Decreased number of functioning glomerules
C. Drop of oncotic blood pressure
D. Rise of hydrostatic blood pressure in capillars
E. Reduced permeamility of renal filter
16. A 5-year-old child was admitted to the otorhinolaryngological department with
diagnosis - suppurative inflammation of the middle ear. Disease started from the
inflammation of the nasopharynx. Through the what canal of the temporal bone did the
infection get into the tympanic cavity?
A. *Musculortubal canal
B. Tympanic Canaliculus tympanicus
C. Carotid canal
D. Canaliculus chordal tympani
E. Canaliculi caroticotympanici
17. A 6 month old baby ill with bronchitis was taken for an X-ray of chest. Apart of
changes associated with bronchi the X-ray film showed a shadow of thymus gland.
What might have caused such changes?
A. *The above-mentioned condition is a normal variant for this age
B. It's the effect of bronchitis
C. It is caused by abnormal position
D. It is caused by thymus inflammation
E. It is caused by neoplastic process
18. A 60-year-old patient has reduced perception of high-frequency sounds. What
structures' disorder of auditory analizer caused these changes?
A. *Main membrane of cochlea near the oval window
B. Main membrane of cochlea near helicotrema
C. Eustachian tube
D. Muscles of middle ear
E. Tympanic membrane
19. A 6-year-old child fell on the cutting object and traumatized soft tissues between
tibia and fibula . What kind of bone connection was injured?
A. *Membrane
B. Suture
C. Ligament
D. Fontanel
E. Gomphosis
20. A 70 y.o. man has cut an abscess off in the area of mammiform process during
shaving. Two days later he was admitted to the hospital with inflammation of arachnoid
membranes. How did the infection penetrate into the cavity of skull?
A. *V.emissariaе mastoideaе
B. V.v.labyrinthi
C. V.v.tympanicae
D. V.facialis
E. V.v.auriculares
21. A 70-year-old patient is diagnosed with brainstem haemorrhage. Examination
revealed increased tonus of flexor muscles accompanied by decreased tonus of
extensor muscles. Such changes in muscle tonus can be explained by the irritation of
the following brain structures:
A. *Red nuclei
B. Vestibular nuclei
C. Quadrigeminal plate
D. Black substance
E. Reticular formation
22. A foreign body (a button) closed space of the right superior lobar bronchus. What
segments of the right lung won't be supplied with air?
A. *Apical, posterior, anterior
B. Superior and inferior lingular
C. Apical and posterior basal
D. Apical and median basal
E. Medial and lateral
23. A histological spacemen presents parenchymal organ, which has cortex and
medullA. *Cortex consists of epitheliocytes bars with blood capillaries between them;
the bars form three zones. Medulla consists of chromaffinocytes and venous sinusoids.
Which organ has these morphological features?
A. *Adrenal gland
B. Kidney
C. Lymph node
D. Thymus
E. Thyroid
24. A man after 1,5 litre blood loss has suddenly reduced diuresis. The increased
secretion of what hormone caused such diuresis alteration?
A. *Vasopressin
B. Corticotropin
C. Natriuretic
D. Cortisol
E. Parathormone
25. A man with internal abdominal right side injury and suspicion of liver rupture was
admitted to the traumatological department. In what peritonial structure will blood
accumulate?
A. *Excavatio rectovesicalis
B. Bursa omentalis
C. Recessus intersigmoideus
D. Fossa ischio-analis
E. Recessus duodenalis inferior
26. A mother consulted the doctor about her one year old child, who has got six teeth
come out. How many teeth should the child of such age have?
A. *8
B. 10
C. 7
D. 12
E. 6
27. A mother of a newborn complains of her baby's constant belching with undigested
milk. Which developmental anomaly is it an evidence of?
A. *Esophageal atresia
B. Labium leporium
C. Faux lupinum
D. Anal atresia
E. Esophageal fistula
28. A newborn didn't take his first breath. Autopsy revealed that in spite of
unobstructed respiratory tracts the baby's lungs didn't expand. What might be the
cause of it?
A. *Surfactant absence
B. Bronchostenosis
C. Bronchi rupture
D. Apical cap of lung
E. Alveole enlargement
29. A patient complained about ear noise and pain sensations. Objectively: the patient
has acute respiratory disease, rhinitis. The infection penetrated into the tympanic
cavity through the following opening of the pharynx:
A. *Pharyngeal opening of auditory tube
B. Tympanic opening of auditory tube
C. Choanae
D. Fauces
E. Aperture of larynx
30. A patient complains about impaired evacuatory function of stomach (long-term
retention of food in stomach). Examination revealed a tumour of initial part of
duodenum. Specify localization of the tumour:
A. *Pars superior
B. Pars inferior
C. Pars descendens
D. Pars ascendens
E. Flexura duodeni inferior
31. A patient complains of dizziness and hearing loss. What nerve is damaged?
A. *Vestibulocochlear
B. Trigeminus
C. Sublingual
D. Vagus
E. Trochlear
32. A patient complains of having urination disorder. He is diagnosed the hypertrophy
of prostate gland. What part of gland is damaged?
A. *Median lobe
B. Left lobe
C. Right lobe
D. Base
E. Apex
33. A patient complains of headache, heavy breathing. X-ray examination confirmed
the diagnosis - frontitis. What nasal meatus may contain purulent discharge?
A. *Middle
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Common
E. Above the superior nasal concha
34. A patient got a craniocerebral trauma that resulted in right-side convergent
strabismus. Damage of which craniocerebral nerve caused such consequences?
A. *n.abducens
B. n.facialis
C. n.trigeminus
D. n.trochlearis
E. n.aculomotorius
35. A patient got a trauma that caused dysfunction of motor centres regulating activity
of head muscles. In what parts of cerebral cortex is the respective centre normally
localized?
A. *Inferior part of precentral gyrus
B. Superior part of precentral gyrus
C. Supramarginal gyrus
D. Superior parietal lobule
E. Angular gyrus
36. A patient got an injury of spinal marrow in a road accident that caused loss of
tactile sensation, posture sense, vibration sense. What conduction tracts are
damaged?
A. *Fascicle of Goll and cuneate fascicle
B. Anterior spinocerebellar tract
C. Rubrospinal tract
D. Reticulospinal tract
E. Tectospinal tract
37. A patient had his tooth extracted. The lingual surface of this tooth was smaller than
the buccal one. Masticatoty surface has oval form. Deep transverse sulcus separates
buccal and lingual tubercles. The root is strongly compressed in mesio-distal direction
and has longitudinal sulci on its aproximal surfaces, it is bifurcated. What tooth was
extracted?
A. *First upper premolar
B. Upper canine
C. Lower canine
D. First lower premolar
E. Second upper premolar
38. A patient has an injury in right lateral area of belly. What part of large intestine is
most likely injured?
A. *Ascending colon
B. Transverse colon
C. Descending colon
D. Sigmoid colon
E. Rectum
39. A patient has lost ability to recognize the objects by the typical for them sounds
(clock, bell, music). What part of brain is most likely damaged?
A. *Lobus temporalis
B. Lobus occipitalis
C. Lobus frontalis
D. Lobus parietalis
E. Insula
40. A patient has urolithiasis that was complicated by a renal calculus passage. At
what level of ureter is it most likely to stop?
A. *Between abdominal and pelvic part
B. In pelvis
C. In the middle abdominal part
D. 2 cm above flowing into urinary bladder
E. 5 cm above pelvic part
41. A patient was admitted to the surgical department with inguinal herniA. *During the
operation the surgeon performs plastic surgery on posterior wall of inguinal canal.
What structure forms this wall?
A. *Transverse fascia
B. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Loose inferior edge of transverse abdominal muscle
E. Peritoneum
42. A patient was admitted to the surgical department with suspected inflammation of
Meckel's diverticulum. What part of bowels should be examined in order to discover
the diverticulum in course of an operation?
A. *Ileum
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Caecum
E. Colon ascendens
43. A patient was diagnosed with bartholinitis (inflammation of greater vulvovaginal
glands). In which organ of urogenital system are these glands localized?
A. *Large lips of pudendum
B. Small lips of pudendum
C. Clitoris
D. Vagina
E. Uterus
44. A patient was diagnosed with paralysis of facial and masticatory muscles. The
haematoma is inside the genu of internal capsule. What conduction tract is damaged?
A. *Tr. cortico-nuclearis
B. Tr. cortico-spinalis
C. Tr. cortico-thalamicus
D. Tr. cortico-fronto-pontinus
E. Tr. cortico-temporo-parieto-occipito-pontinus
45. A patient who suffers from cancer of back of tongue has an intense bleeding as a
result of affection of dorsal lingual artery by the tumour. What vessel should be ligated
to stop bleeding?
A. *Lingual artery
B. Dorsal lingual artery
C. Deep lingual artery
D. Facial artery
E. Ascending pharyngeal artery
46. A patient with a stab wound of the anterior stomach wall is in surgical care. What
formation of abdominal cavity did the stomach contents get into?
A. *Antegastrial bursa
B. Omental bursa
C. Hepatic bursa
D. Left mesenteric sinus
E. Right mesenteric sinus
47. A patient with cholelithiasis fell ill with mechanic jaundice. Examination revealed
that the stone was in the common bile duct. What bile-excreting ducts make up the
obturated duct?
A. *Ductus hepaticus communis et ductus cysticus
B. Ductus hepaticus dexter et sinister
C. Ductus hepaticus dexter et ductus cysticus
D. Ductus hepaticus sinister et ductus cysticus
E. Ductus hepaticus communis et ductus choledochus
48. A patient's middle ear inflammation was complicated by mastoiditis. There was a
threat of purulent thrombosis of the nearest venous sinus. What sinus was under the
threat?
A. *Sigmoid
B. Inferior petrosal
C. Superior saggital
D. Transverse
E. Rectus
49. A surgeon has to find the common hepatic duct during the operative intervention
on account of concrements in the gall ducts. The common hepatic duct is located
between the leaves of:
A. *Hepatoduodenal ligament
B. Hepatogastric ligament
C. Hepatorenal ligament
D. Round ligament of liver
E. Venous ligament
50. A surgeon should reach the omental bursa to perform an operation on abdominal
cavity. How can he reach this part of peritoneal cavity without affecting the integrity of
lesser omentum?
A. *Through the epiploic foramen
B. Through the right paracolic sulcus
C. Through the left paracolic sulcus
D. Through the right mesenteric sinus
E. Through the left mesenteric sinus
51. A three year old child was admitted to the hospital with a foreign body in bronches.
What bronchus contains most likely a foreign body?
A. *Right primary
B. Left primary
C. Right segmental
D. Left segmental
E. Lobular
52. A young man consulted a doctor about disturbed urination. Examination of his
external genitals revealed that urethra is split on top and urine runs out of this opening.
What anomaly of external genitals development is the case?
A. *Epispadia
B. Phimosis
C. Hermaphroditism
D. Paraphimosis
E. Hypospadia
53. After a 2 y.o. child has had flu, there appeared complaints about ear ache. A doctor
revealed hearing impairment and inflammation of the middle ear. How did the infection
penetrate into the middle ear?
A. *Through the auditory tube
B. Through foramen jugularis
C. Through canalis caroticus
D. Through atrium mastoideum
E. Through canalis nasolacrimalis
54. After a craniocerebral trauma a patient lost the ability to execute learned
purposeful movements (apraxia). The injury is most likely localized in the following
region of the cerebral cortex:
A. *Gyrus supramarginalis
B. Gyrus angularis
C. Gyrus paracentralis
D. Gyrus lingualis
E. Gyrus parahippocampalis
55. After anlage of primary teeth at the beginning of the fifth month of embryogenesis
some factors disturbed growth ability of dental plate behind the mentioned anlages.
What serious consequence is possible?
A. *Permanent teeth won't be anlaged
B. Formation of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath will be disturbed
C. Cervix of enamel organ won't disintegrate
D. Formation of mouth vestibule will be disturbed
E. Dentin of primary teeth won't be formed
56. An 18-year-old man was delivered to the hospital after a road accident.
Examination at the traumatological department revealed multiple injuries of soft tissues
of face in the region of the medial eye angle. The injuries caused massive
haemorrhage. What arterial anastomosis might have been damaged in this region?
A. *A. *carotis externa et A. *carotis interna
B. A. *carotis externa et A. *subclavia
C. A. *carotis interna et A. *subclavia
D. A. *subclavia et A. *ophthalmica
E. A. *carotis interna et A. *ophthalmica
57. An eye trauma caused soft tissues infection of eye-socket. Through what
anatomical formation can the infection penetrate into the middle cranial fossa?
A. *Through the superior orbital fissure
B. Through the anterior ethmoidal foramen
C. Through the posterior ethmoidal foramen
D. Through the inferior orbital fissure
E. Through the zygomatic orbital foramen
58. An injured person was delivered to the hospital with a penetrating wound in the left
lateral region of abdomen. What part of the large intestine is most likely damaged?
A. *Colon descendens
B. Colon ascendens
C. Colon transverses
D. Caecum
E. Rectum
59. Brain tomography revealed a tumour in the region of red nucleus. What part of
brain isdamaged?
A. *Midbrain
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebellum
D. Interbrain
E. Pons cerebelli
60. Child inspired button. Where is it likely to be?
A. *In the right main bronchus
B. In the left main bronchus
C. In the trachea
D. In the larynx
E. In the gullet
61. Children often have heavy nasal breathing resulting from excessive development
of lymphoid tissue of pharyngeal mucous membrane. What tonsils growth may cause
this effect?
A. *Tonsilla pharyngea
B. Tonsilla palatina
C. Tonsilla lingualis
D. Tonsilla tubaria
E. All above mentioned tonsils
62. Children often have laboured nasal breathing which is caused by overdevelopment
of lymphoid tissue of the pharyngeal mucous membrane. This phenomenon may
cause enlargement of the following tonsils:
A. *Tonsilla pharyngea
B. Tonsilla palatina
C. Tonsilla lingualis
D. Tonsilla tubaria
E. All above-mentioned
63. Chronic rhinitis was complicated by inflammation of frontal sinus. What nasal
meatus did the infection get into this sinus through?
A. *Median
B. Inferior
C. Common
D. Superior
E. Nasopharyngeal
64. During complicated labour the symphysis pubis ruptured. What organ can be
damaged mostly?
A. *Urinary blader
B. Rectum
C. Ovaria
D. Uterine tubes
E. Uterus
65. During investigation of patient, it was found formation in the white substance of
cerebral hemispheres with location in the knee and frontal part of posterior crus of
internal capsule. Fibers of what conductive tract of the brain will be disrupted?
A. *Tr. pyramidalis
B. Tr. frontothalamicus
C. Тr. thalamocorticalis
D. Tr. frontopontinus
E. Tr. parietooccipitopontinus
66. During the endoscopy the inflammation of a major papilla of the duodenum and the
disturbances of bile secretion were found. In which part of duodenum were the
problems found?
A. *Descendent part
B. Ascendant part
C. Bulb
D. Upper horizontal part
E. Lower horizontal part
67. During the examination of patient's oral cavity a dentist found a carious cavity on
the crown surface of the second premolar tooth that was turned to the first molar tooth.
Name the damaged crown surface:
A. *Facies mesialis
B. Facies vestibularis
C. Facies lingualis
D. Facies distalis
E. Facies occlusalis
68. During the examination of patient's oral cavity a dentist noticed a slight overbite of
mandibular teeth by maxillary incisors. What occlusion belongs such position of teeth
to?
A. *Orthognathic occlusion
B. Prognathism
C. Biprognathic occlusion
D. Orthogenic occlusion
E. Closed occlusion
69. Examination of a 32 year old patient revealed disproportional skeleton size,
enlargement of superciliary arches, nose, lips, tongue, jaw bones, feet. What gland's
function was disturbed?
A. *Hypophysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
E. Suprarenal
70. Examination of a newborn boy's genitals revealed a cleft of urethra that opens on
the inferior surface of his penis. What developmental anomaly is meant?
A. *Hypospadia
B. Hermaphroditism
C. Epispadia
D. Monorchism
E. Cryptorchism
71. Examination of a patient revealed abnormal development of enamel. This is
caused by damage of the following structural elements of dental germ:
A. *Internal enamel epithelium of enamel organ
B. External enamel epithelium of enamel organ
C. Intermediate layer of enamel organ
D. Pulp of enamel organ
E. Cervix of enamel organ
72. Examination of a patient revealed hypertrophy and inflammation of lymphoid
tissue, edema of mucous membrane between palatine arches (acute tonsillitis). What
tonsil is normally situated in this area?
A. *Tonsilla palatina
B. Tonsilla pharyngealis
C. Tonsilla tubaria
D. Tonsilla lingualis
E. 73. Examination of a patient with impaired blood coagulation revealed thrombosis of a
branch of inferior mesenteric artery. What bowel segment is damaged?
A. *Colon sigmoideum
B. Ileum
C. Caecum
D. Colon transversum
E. Colon ascendens
74. In case of a penetrating wound of the anterior abdominal wall the wound tract went
above the lesser curvature of stomach. What peritoneum formation is most likely to be
injured?
A. *Ligamentum hepatogastricum
B. Ligamentum gastrocolicum
C. Ligamentum hepatoduoduodenale
D. Ligamentum hepatorenale
E. Ligamentum triangulare sinistrum
75. In course of a small pelvis operation it became necessary to ligate an ovarian
artery. What formation may be accidentally ligated together with it?
A. *Ureter
B. Uterine tube
C. Round ligament of uterus
D. Internal iliac vein
E. Urethra
76. In course of an operation surgeon removed a part of a lung that was ventilated by a
tertiary bronchus accompanied by branches of pulmonary artery and other vessels.
What part of a lung was removed?
A. *Bronchopulmonary segment
B. Middle lobe
C. Inferior lobe
D. Superior lobe
E. Pulmonary lobule
77. In the specimen of one of the parts of respiratory system a tubular organ was
found. It has low epithelium, well developed muscular tunic, glands and cartilage are
absent. Name this organ:
A. *Minor bronchs
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Major bronchs
E. Median bronchs
78. Inflammation of the tympanic cavity (purulent otitis media) was complicated by
inflammation of mammillary process sockets. What wall of tympanic cavity did the pus
penetrate into the sockets through?
A. *Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral
E. Superior
79. Inflammatory process of modified subserous layer around cervix of the uterus
caused an intensive pain syndrome. In what region of genitals does the pathological
process take place?
A. *Parametrium
B. Mesometrium
C. Myometrium
D. Endometrium
E. Perimetrium
80. Micro specimen of spinal cord contains a nucleus that should be analyzed. Its
neurons form motor endings in the skeletal muscles. What nucleus of spinal cord is
meant?
A. *Proper nucleus of the anterior horn
B. Thoracic nucleus
C. Intermediate lateral nucleus
D. Proper nucleus of the posterior horn
E. Proper nucleus of gray substance
81. Neurological examination of a 65 y.o. patient revealed a haemorrhage within the
superior temporal gyrus. In the blood supply area of which artery is it?
A. *Middle cerebral artery
B. Anterior cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Anterior communicating artery
E. Basilar artery
82. Obturative jaundice developed in a 60-year-old patient because of malignant
tumour of the big papillary of the duodenal. Lumen of what anatomical structure is
squeezed with tumour?
A. *Hepatopancreatic ampulla
B. Cystic duct
C. Common hepatic duct
D. Right hepatic duct
E. Left hepatic duct
83. Ovarian tumour was diagnozed in the woman. Surgery was indicated. What
ligament should be cut by the surgeon to disconnect the ovary and the uterus?
A. *The ovarial ligament
B. Broad ligament of uterus
C. Lateral umbilical ligament
D. Suspensory ligament of ovary
E. Round ligament of uterus
84. Patient complains of frequent and difficult urination. Imperfection of what formation
can cause it?
A. *Prostate
B. Testicles
C. Bulb-uretic glands
D. Testicle adnexa
E. Sperm bubbles
85. Preventive examination of a patient revealed an enlarged lymph node of metastatic
origin on the medial wall of the left axillary crease. Specify the most likely localization
of the primary tumour:
A. *Mammary gland
B. Submandibular salivary gland
C. Lung
D. Stomach
E. Thyroid gland
86. Preventive examination of a patient revealed an enlarged lymph node of metastatic
origin on the medial wall of the left axillary crease. Specify the most likely localization
of the primary tumour:
A. *Mammary gland
B. Submandibular salivary gland
C. Lung
D. Stomach
E. Thyroid gland
87. Pyeloureterography X-ray photo showed a renal pelvis with minor calyces only
(major calyces were absent). What form of urinary tracts of a kidney was revealed?
A. *Embryonal
B. Fetal
C. Mature
D. Ampullar
E. 88. The cerebrospinal fluid is being examined for the purpose of diffrential meningitis
diagnostics. At what site is the lumbal puncture safe?
A. *L III-L IV
B. L II-L III
C. L I-L II
D. Th XII-L I
E. L V-S I
89. The electronic microphoto of kidney fragment has exposed afferent glomerular
arteriole, which has giant cells under its endothelium, containing secretory granules.
Name the type of these cells:
A. *Juxtaglomerular
B. Mesangial
C. Smoothmuscular
D. Juxtavascular
E. Interstitial
90. Ultrasonic examination of a patient revealed aneurism in the area of aortic arch
that caused alteration of vocal function of larynx. What nerve was constricted?
A. *Recurrent laryngeal
B. Diaphragmatic
C. Superior laryngeal
D. Mandibular
E. Sublingual
91. Vegetative abnormalities in the sleep, heat regulation, all kinds of metabolism,
diabetes insipidus are developing in the patient due to grouth of the tumour in the III
ventricle of brain. Irritation of the nucleus of what part of the brain can cause this
symptoms?
A. *Hypothalamus
B. Cerebral peduncles (cruces cerebri)
C. Mesencephalic tegmentum
D. Pons cerebelli
E. Medulla
92. While examining the oral cavity a stomatologist revealed inflammation of papillae
on the border of the median and posterior third of the back of tongue. What papillae
are inflamed?
A. *Papillae vallatae
B. Papillae fungiformes
C. Papillae foliatae
D. Papillae filiformes
E Papillae conicae
93. While of oral cavity examination the dentist revealed the formation of the first big
cheekteeth on the lower jaw of a child. How old is this child?
A. *6-7 years old
B. 4-5 years old
C. 8-9 years old
D. 10-11 years old
E. 12-13 years old
94. While performing an inguinal canal operation on account of hernia a surgeon
damaged the canal's contents. What exactly was damaged?
A. *Funiculus spermaticus
B. Urarchus
C. Lig. teres uteri
D. Lig. inguinalе
E. Lig. suspensorius uteri
95. X-ray examination revealed an accumulation of suppuration in maxillary sinus. Into
what nasal meatus excretes the suppuration?
A. *Median nasal
B. Nasopharyngeal
C. Inferior nasal
D. Superior nasal
E. Common nasal
96. A 17 year old student pressed out a pustule in the medial angle of eye. In 2 days
she was taken to the institute of neurosurgery with thrombosis of cavernous sinus.
Through what vein did the infection get into this sinus?
A. *V.angularis
B. V.maxillarіs
C. V.profunda faciei
D. V.transversa faciei
E. V.diploicae frontalis
97. A 28 year old man with cut wound of frontal skin was admitted to the hospital. A
vessel that supplies blood to the frontal part of head was ligated in order to stop
bleeding. What vessel was ligated?
A. *A.supraorbitalis
B. A.infraorbitalis
C. A.angularis
D. A.dorsalis nasi
E. A.temporalis superficialis
98. A 60 year old patient has problems with formation and moving of food mass, it
disturbs eating process. His tongue is stiff, speaking is impossible. What nerve is
damaged?
A. *XII
B. V
C. IX
D. XI
E. VII
99. A patient complains of aching gums and maxillary teeth. What nerve is inflamed?
A. *ІI branch of the V pair
B. III branch of the V pair
C. I branch of the V pair
D. Sublingual
E. Accessory
100. A patient consulted a doctor about the inflammation of the ethmoid bone cells
(ethmoiditis). Examination revealed the disorder of blood supply to the bone. The
ethmoidal cells are normally supplied with blood by the branches of the following
artery:
A. *A. *ophthalmica
B. A. *infraorbitalis
C. A. *facialis
D. A. *cerebri anterior
E. A. *transversa faciei
101. A patient consulted dental surgeon about an injury of submandibular triangle.
During the wound cleansing the surgeon found that the artery leading to the soft palate
is damaged. What artery is damaged?
A. *A. *palatina ascendens
B. A. *palatina descendens
C. A. *sphenopalatina
D. A. *pharingea ascendens
E. A. *facialis
102. A patient got a craniocerebral trauma that resulted in right-side convergent
strabismus. Damage of which craniocerebral nerve caused such consequences?
A. *n. abducens
B. n. facialis
C. n. trigeminus
D. n. trochlearis
E. n. aculomotorius
103. A patient has air embolism as a result of a skin injury in the middle portion of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle. Which cervical vein was injured?
A. *External jugular vein
B. Anterior jugular vein
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Posterior auricular vein
E. Transverse cervical vein
104. A patient has assymetric face, it is especially noticeable during active muscle
contraction. What nerve may be damaged?
A. *Facial (motor unit)
B. Trigeminal, І branch
C. TrigeminaІ, IІ branch
D. Trigeminal, ІІІ branch
E. Sublingual
105. A patient has difficulties with jaw joining when he is chewing. There is partial
atrophy of masticatory muscles situated below the zygomatic arch. What nerve
branches do these muscles innervate?
A. *N. mandibularis
B. N. maxillaris
C. N. alveolaris inferior
D. Nn. alveolares superiores
E. N. infraorbitalis
106. A patient has secretory dysfunction of the submandibular salivary galnd. Which
nerve is responsible for its vegetative innervation?
A. *Chorda tympani
B. N. auriculotemporalis
C. N. mandibularis
D. N. petrosus major
E. N. petrosus minor
107. A patient suffers from middle ear inflammation (otitis). He complains also of
disordered test sensation in the anterior tongue part. What nerve is damaged?
A. *N. facialis
B. N. trigeminus
C. N. vestibulo-cochlearis
D. N. vagus
E. N. glossopharyngeus
108. A patient with cancer of the back of tongue had an intensive bleeding as a result
of tumor spread to the dorsal artery of tongue. What vessel should be ligated in order
to stop bleeding?
A. *Lingual artery
B. Dorsal artery of tongue
C. Deep artery of tongue
D. Facial artery
E. Ascending pharyngal artery
109. A woman in grave condition was admitted to a hospital with thediagnosis of the
hemorrhagic stroke in the region of frontal part of the right cerebral hemisphere. The
damage of what artery most likely causedthis condition?
A. *A. *сerebri anterior
B. A. *cerebri posterior
C. A. *communicans anterior
D. A. *cerebri media
E. A. *communicans posterior
110. After an operation a patient's sensitivity of front and lateral surface of neck has
reduced. What nerve is damaged?
A. *N. transversus colli
B. N. auricularis magnus
C. Nn. supraclaviculares
D. N. occipitalis minos
E. N. phrenicus
111. An 18-year-old man was delivered to the hospital after a road accident.
Examination at the traumatological department revealed multiple injuries of soft tissues
of face in the region of the medial eye angle. The injuries caused massive
haemorrhage. What arterial anastomosis might have been damaged in this region?
A. *A. *carotis externa et A. *carotis interna
B. A. *carotis externa et A. *subclavia
C. A. *carotis interna etA. *subclavia
D. A. *subclavia et A. *ophthalmica
E. A. *carotis interna et A. *ophthalmica
112. During ablation of the nose wing lypoma a dentist injured a vessel, that caused a
saphenous hematomA. *What vessel was damaged?
A. *А.facialis
B. А.maxillaris
C. А.supraorbitalis
D. А.infraorbitalis
E. А.angularis
113. In order to make a functional complete denture the left superior canine of a
patient should be extracted. After the infraorbital anesthesia the patient got a rapidly
growing hematoma in the front part of face. It was found that the injured artery is a
branch of:
A. *А. maxillaris
B. А. alveolaris inferior
C. А. temporalis superficialis
D. А. ophthalmica
E. А. labialis superior
114. Surgical approach to the thyroid gland from the transverse (collar) approach
involves opening of interaponeurotic suprasternal space. What anatomic structure
localized in this space is dangerous to be damaged?
A. *Jugular venous arch
B. External jugular vein
C. Subclavicular vein
D. Inferior thyroid arthery
E. Superior thyroid arthery
115. The patient with thymoma (thymus gland tumour) has cyanosis, extention of
subcutaneous venousnet and edema of the soft tissues of face, neck, upper part of the
trunk and upper extremities. What venous trunk is pressed with tumour?
A. *Superior vena cava
B. External jugular vein
C. Clavicular vein
D. Internal jugular vein
E. Frontal jugular vein
116. When a patient puts his tongue out the tip of it deflects to the left. Motor
innervation of what cranial nerve is disturbed in this case?
A. *N. hypoglossus dexter
B. N. glossopharyngeus dexter
C. N. vagus dexter
D. N. trigeminus sinister
E. N. facialis sinister