Download Grade 11 – Objective 2 1 The diagram shows the flow

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Grade 11 – Objective 2
Why are photosynthesis and cellular respiration
often considered opposites?
F Photosynthesis produces twice as many
ATP molecules as cellular respiration does.
G Water is released during photosynthesis
and consumed during cellular respiration.
H Photosynthesis occurs during the day, and
cellular respiration occurs at night.
J Oxygen is produced during photosynthesis
and used during cellular respiration.
Which molecule provides most of the energy
used to drive chemical reactions in cells?
F DNA
G RNA
H ATP
J ADP
Kidneys and Dialysis
1
2
The diagram shows the flow of energy
converted during photosynthesis. From
this diagram it can also be inferred that —
A atmospheric gases are the source
of energy for producers
B organisms depend on organic
compounds to transfer energy
C ultraviolet radiation from the sun is
used for photosynthesis
D heat from plants and animals warms
atmospheric gases
When a sea urchin egg is removed from the
ocean and placed in freshwater, the egg swells
and bursts. Which of these causes water to
enter the egg?
F Coagulation
G Sodium pump
H Active transport
J Osmosis
• Proteins and other large molecules cannot move
through the membranes of healthy kidneys.• The
presence of large molecules in urine is an
indication of unhealthy kidneys.• Dialysis is a
medical treatment that does the work for failing
kidneys.• In dialysis, an artificial membrane
impermeable to large molecules is used.
• Dialysis lowers protein levels in urine.
5
The box contains some facts about kidneys and
dialysis. Which of the following best explains
why dialysis works?
F Dialysis reduces the size of proteins.
G Proteins are dissolved by urine.
H Dialysis filters proteins from solution.
J Proteins transport membrane fragments.
6
Cholera-causing bacteria have a single
flagellum that allows these bacteria to —
A move
B reproduce
C excrete water
D produce sugar
Grade 11 – Objective 2
7
Which of these best explains why a freshwater
aquarium would be a dangerous habitat for
saltwater fish?
A The tissues of the saltwater fish would
absorb too much acid.
B The organs of the saltwater fish would
produce too much protein.
C The organ systems of the saltwater fish
would consume too much energy.
D The cells of the saltwater fish would gain
too much water.
8
The swordfish has a heat-generating organ that
warms its brain and eyes up to 14°C above the
surrounding water temperature. What structures
are likely to be found in relatively high
concentrations in the cells of this organ?
A Chromosomes
B Mitochondria
C Nuclei
D Ribosomes
9
The diagram shows cell division in which an
error has occurred. Which of these statements
is most accurate?
A Cell A lacks the cytoplasm necessary to
continue normal cell functions.
B Cell B contains enough genetic material
for the cell to reproduce itself.
C Cell A is free of any mutation present in
the genetic material of the parent cell.
D Cell B lacks instructions for making the
proteins necessary for cell metabolism.
10 What process is shown above?
A Cellular ingestion
B Pseudopod formation
C Cell wall digestion
D Binary fission
11 Which of these is a characteristic of body cells
that require large amounts of energy?
A They have a large number of mitochondria.
B They have a supplementary Y
chromosome.
C They have a two-layer membrane.
D They have a storage area for albumin
proteins.
12 Saltwater fish remove extra salt from their body
by active transport through the gills. What is
the result of this activity?
A The salt becomes more chemically active.
B Water balance is maintained in the blood.
C The rate of energy production is decreased.
D The cell membrane becomes less
permeable to water.
13 The Greek scholar Aristotle studied plants. He
believed that plants obtain everything they need
from the soil. Current understanding does not
support this belief. Which of the following
would least likely be absorbed from the soil?
F Minerals
G H2O
H Nitrates
J CO2
Grade 11 – Objective 2
15 Working muscle cells that are deprived of
oxygen produce —
A alcohol
B lactic acid
C citric acid
D acetone
14 The picture shows a cell model and the
solutions associated with it. In this situation the
cell model will —
A gain mass
B shrink
C increase in solute content
D start to vibrate
16 In DNA, which of the following determines the
traits of an organism?
F Amount of adenine
G Number of sugars
H Sequence of nitrogen bases
J Strength of hydrogen bonds
Avery and Associates’ Investigation with Pneumococcus
17 Which of the following best describes the question this set of procedures was designed to answer?
A Can a substance from dead bacteria transform living bacteria?
B Can R bacterial cells survive heating?
C Can dead bacterial cells confer immunity to a living host?
D Can bacterial cells be isolated from a healthy host?
18 Coat color in mice varies greatly, ranging from black to grizzly gray, black-and-white, spotted, or white.
The nucleus from a body cell of a grizzly-gray mouse is fused with an egg from a black mouse from which
the nucleus has been removed. The egg begins to divide and is then transplanted into a female white mouse.
What will be the most likely coat color of the offspring?
F Black
G Black with white spots
H Grizzly gray
J White
Grade 11 – Objective 2
19 All of the following are found in a DNA
molecule except —
A carbon dioxide
B deoxyribose
C nitrogen
D phosphate
20 Which molecule is most responsible for
determining an organism’s eye color, body
structure, and cellular enzyme production?
A Complex starch
B Fatty acid
C Carbohydrate
D Deoxyribonucleic acid
21 In all plant and animal cells, the nucleus
contains long molecules of DNA. Which of the
following best describes the function of DNA?
F DNA provides the shape and structure of
the nucleus.
G DNA packages materials for transport
through the nucleus.
H DNA carries materials into and out of the
nucleus.
J DNA contains the blueprint for producing
the whole organism.
22 Erwin Chargaff studied the DNA of organisms
within a single species. Chargaff discovered
that the amount of adenine is about equal to the
amount of thymine. Which of these explains
why the ratio of adenine to thymine is nearly
1:1?
A Adenine and thymine pair with each other.
B Adenine binds with phosphates, while
thymine binds with nitrates.
C Adenine and thymine are identical in
chemical composition.
D Adenine bases contain a form of thymine.
23 Proteins are produced according to a special
code found in the control center of the cell.
Which of these molecules carries this code?
A DNA
B ATP
C Glucose
D Lipid
Sex-Linked Inheritance
24 What do the results of this investigation indicate?
F This trait is determined by the Y chromosome.
G Red-eyed flies always produce red-eyed offspring.
H White-eyed flies have many phenotypes for eye color.
J This trait is carried only on the X chromosome.
Grade 11 – Objective 2
25 “Thymine—guanine—thymine—cytosine”
describes —
F nucleotides within an RNA strand
G a sequence of bases within a DNA section
H points of DNA separation during protein
synthesis
J tRNA codons for specific amino acids
29 Which of these represents the DNA segment
from which this section of mRNA was
transcribed?
A ACTAAG
B TCUTTG
C GAAUCU
D UCCTGA
30 DNA passes information to RNA during the
process of —
F transcription
G active transport
H regeneration
J osmosis
26 Which cellular function does this model
represent?
A Respiration
B Protein synthesis
C DNA replication
D Photosynthesis
27 If the template of a strand of DNA is
5' AGATGCATC 3', the complementary strand
will be —
F 3' TCTACGTAG 5'
G 5' CTACGTAGA 3'
H 3' AGATGCATC 5'
J 5' AGACGTCTA 3'
28 If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of its body
cells, how many chromosomes will be in each
daughter cell after mitosis?
F 11
G 19
H 38
J 76
31 Part of a DNA strand is represented in the
diagram above. In order for DNA to replicate,
the strand must separate at which of the
following locations?
F Between every phosphate-sugar pair
G Between the eight sugar-base pairs
H Between the four nitrogenous base pairs
J Between any two chemical bonds
Grade 11 – Objective 2
33 Which of the following must occur before
DNA replication can take place?
A Translation of DNA into amino acids
B Separation of the DNA molecule into
codons
C Transformation of DNA into RNA
D Separation of the DNA double helix
3'CGGUAU5'
32 The diagram above shows how an mRNA
molecule is synthesized. What would be the
most likely result if a bacterial infection
stopped the production of the RNA
polymerase?
F A protein could not be manufactured.
G A lysosome would digest the cell.
H Osmosis would not occur in the cell.
J Dehydration could be prevented in the
cytoplasm.
First
Letter
U
U
Phenylalanine
Phenylalanine
Leucine
Leucine
34 This is a short section of mRNA. Which DNA
code probably produced this section of mRNA?
A 3' GCCTUT 5'
B 5' GCCAUT 3'
C 3' ATTGCC 5'
D 5' GCCATA 3'
35 Mutations in DNA molecules can occur
when —
F replication of DNA is exact
G a DNA enzyme attaches to an RNA codon
H RNA codons are replaced by DNA
nucleotides
J a change occurs in DNA nucleotide bases
Codon Chart
Second Letter
C
A
Serine
Tyrosine
Serine
Tyrosine
Serine
Stop
Serine
Stop
G
Cysteine
Cysteine
Stop
Tryptophan
Third
Letter
U
C
A
G
36 The assembly of a messenger RNA strand that normally begins with UAC has been changed so that the
newly assembled messenger RNA strand begins with UAG. Which of the following will most likely occur?
A The protein will be missing the first amino acid.
B The amino acids that make up the protein will all be different.
C The mRNA will become attached to a ribosome.
D The production of the protein will be stopped.
Grade 11 – Objective 2
37 Which of these best explains how mutation can
be beneficial to an organism?
A Phenotypic change may create an
advantage over other organisms.
B Recombined genetic material improves
genotype stability.
C Mitosis becomes a favored means of
reproduction.
D Deoxyribose sugars develop into additional
nucleotides.
38 Sickle-cell anemia is a disorder resulting from a
mutation that leads to the production of an
abnormal protein. Which component of the
DNA molecule provides instructions for the
production of the protein?
A The phosphate groups
B The sugar molecules
C The sequence of nitrogen bases
D The bonds that hold the sugars to the bases
BRCA1 Gene
• The BRCA1 gene is located on
chromosome 17.
• A healthy BRCA1 gene suppresses
tumor growth.
• Some women inherit a mutant
BRCA1 allele from one parent and
have an increased chance of
developing cancer.
39 Which of the following is best supported by the
information above?
A Mutations located on chromosome 17 will
result in cancer.
B Cancerous growth will cause a mutation in
some BRCA1 alleles.
C Mutated BRCA1 alleles are only one factor
involved in cancer.
D Women with a mutant allele of BRCA1
will develop cancer.
40 A change within a single base pair in DNA is
least likely to be observable if the change
affects —
A
the production of a stop codon
B
an unexpressed recessive trait
C
actions of a codominant allele
D
the expression of a sex-linked trait
41 The diagram above shows chromosomes in a
cell undergoing cell division. If one of the
chromosomes breaks during this process,
which of the following will most likely
happen?
A Mutation
B Selection
C Duplication
D Segregation
42 Which of the following is a change that could
be passed on to an organism’s offspring?
F Damage to the DNA of gamete cells
G Damage to skin cells from exposure to
sunlight
H Damage to DNA in the cytoplasm of cheek
cells
J Damage to hair pigment cells with
permanent dyes
Grade 11 – Objective 2
Common Name
Northern mockingbird
Green-winged teal
Bald eagle
White-tailed hawk
Mallard
Scientific Name
Mimus polyglottos
Anas crecca
Haliaeetus leucocephalus
Buteo albicaudatus
Anas platyrhynchos
45 The table above lists several birds commonly
found in Texas. Which two are the most closely
related?
A Northern mockingbird and bald eagle
B Green-winged teal and mallard
C Bald eagle and white-tailed hawk
D White-tailed hawk and northern
mockingbird
43 If one nucleotide is omitted or accidentally
repeated in the process of DNA duplication,
which of the following is most likely to occur?
F Gene deletion
G Gene mutation
H Gene insertion
J Gene segregation
44 A deletion of a DNA base from a gene affects
an organism by —
F causing future gametes to have additional
chromosomes
G changing the sequence of amino acids in a
protein
H causing chromosome fragments to form
long chains
J changing the structure of ribose sugar in
nucleic acids
46 The bullfrog, Rana catesbeiana, is most closely
related to the —
F spotted chorus frog, Pseudacris clarki
G Asian flying frog, Polypedates
leucomystax
H northern leopard frog, Rana pipiens
J African bullfrog, Pyxicephalus adspersus
47 Which of these classifications is most specific?
A Family
B Genus
C Phylum
D Order
48 The kingdom Animalia includes all of these
except —
A jellyfish
B sponges
C amoebas
D roundworms
Grade 11 – Objective 2
Kingdom
Eubacteria
Protista
Animalia
Plantae
Characteristics
Lack organelles and nuclei
Primary one-celled; lack
specialized tissue systems
No cell wall; have complex
cell structure; multicellular
Multicellular organisms;
autotrophic
49 This organism most likely is a member of
which kingdom?
F Eubacteria
G Protista
H Animalia
J Plantae
Bluebells in Different Locations
Plants known as bluebells exist in England,
Scotland, and the United States. In each of
these locations, however, the plant known as
a bluebell is very different from the plants
called bluebells in the other two locations.
50 Which of these is demonstrated by the
information above?
F The need for controlling variables in
experiments
G The need for classifying organisms
scientifically
H The importance of predicting trends from
scientific data
J The importance of questioning
experimental evidence
Some Characteristics
of Diospyros texana
• Multicellular
• Eukaryotic
• Makes its own food
51 Which kingdom does this organism belong to?
A Fungi
B Archaebacteria
C Plantae
D Animalia
52 Which of the following is the most specific
group used to classify organisms?
A Kingdom
B Class
C Genus
D Order
53 All these systems help bring materials to the
cells except the —
A digestive system
B respiratory system
C excretory system
D circulatory system
54 A portion of the human excretory system is
represented in the diagram. The order in
which urine flows through the system is —
F urethra → bladder → ureter → kidney
G ureter → kidney → bladder → urethra
H kidney → ureter → bladder → urethra
J bladder → urethra → kidney → ureter
Grade 11 – Objective 2
58 Red marrow is the principal tissue that
produces red blood cells in humans. In which
body system is red marrow found?
F Integumentary system
G Respiratory system
H Nervous system
J Skeletal system
55 The diagram illustrates the parts of this flower.
Which of these parts are not directly involved
in sexual reproduction?
A Stigma and style
B Sepal and pedicel
C Anther and filament
D Receptacle and ovary
Food is digested in the gastrointestinal
tract to provide nutrients to the body. In
addition, various hormones secreted from the
lining of a few digestive organs allow other
organs to function properly.
59 According to this information, some organs of
the gastrointestinal tract —
A fit in more than one organ system
B perform only one function at a time
C supply the body with platelets
D produce soluble vitamins
56 The diagram represents a human arm. Which
structure is most responsible for moving the
arm to a straighter position?
A Tendons of origin
B Biceps
C Radius
D Triceps
57 Which body system is directly responsible for
delivering nutrients to cells throughout the
body?
A Circulatory system
B Integumentary system
C Endocrine system
D Respiratory system
60 Why do excess amounts of NaCl in some
people’s diets contribute to high blood pressure
(hypertension)?
A The excess NaCl causes red blood cells to
shrink.
B The excess NaCl causes the volume of
water in the blood to increase.
C The excess NaCl causes the blood to
become thicker.
D The excess NaCl causes the diameter of the
blood vessels to change.
Grade 11 – Objective 2
61 According to the graph, about how many grams of KBr can be dissolved in 200 g of water at 50°C?
A 72 g
B 100 g
C 164 g
D 190 g
62 On a hot summer day, a road-crew worker
perspires and then feels thirsty as her body
temperature increases. This response is an
example of —
A releasing enzymes
B decreasing respiration
C assimilating proteins
D maintaining homeostasis
63 Nutrients from digested food move from the
digestive system directly into the —
A circulatory system
B integumentary system
C excretory system
D endocrine system
64 When a person is frightened by a wild animal,
some organ systems immediately become
active, while others are suppressed. Which of
these systems is likely to be suppressed?
F Muscular system
G Respiratory system
H Endocrine system
J Digestive system
65 How is the excretory system most likely to
respond when an animal is thirsty?
F By relaxing the smooth muscles
G By retaining body fluids
H By absorbing heat from lymph glands
J By releasing hormones
66 Which of these statements describes one
possible interaction between the endocrine and
respiratory systems?
F The heart is composed of muscle tissue.
G Hormones can trigger asthma attacks.
H The rib cage expands to move air into the
lungs.
J Blood cells can attack pathogens.
67 How is the circulatory system related to the
digestive system?
F The brain stem controls the heart rate.
G Blood carries nutrients to body cells.
H Stomach muscles contract and expand.
J The pharynx is a passageway for air and
food.
Grade 11 – Objective 2
68 Because chewing begins the breakdown of food
before it is swallowed, digestion starts in the
mouth and throat. Which of the following
systems aids most in this early stage of
digestion?
A Immune system
B Excretory system
C Muscular system
D Respiratory system
69 The small intestine is to nutrient absorption as
the blood is to nutrient —
A assimilation
B distribution
C regulation
D elimination
Grade 11 – Objective 2
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Correct
Answer
B
J
J
H
H
A
D
B
D
D
A
B
J
B
B
H
A
H
A
D
J
A
A
J
G
B
F
H
A
F
H
F
D
D
J
D
A
C
C
B
A
F
G
G
B
H
B
C
G
G
Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Objective
Student
Measured
Expectation
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 4B
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6A
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6B
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 6C
2
BIO 8C
2
BIO 8C
2
BIO 8C
2
BIO 8C
2
BIO 8C
2
BIO 8C
Source - item number
2004 Info Booklet – 9
2003 TAKS – 34
Apr 2004 TAKS – 18
Jul 2004 TAKS – 30
Apr 2006 TAKS – 8
Apr 2006 TAKS – 35
Apr 2006 TAKS – 49
Oct 2005 TAKS – 19
Oct 2005 TAKS – 23
Feb 2006 TAKS – 15
Jul 2006 TAKS – 23
Jul 2006 TAKS – 45
Fall 2005 TAKS – 16
Fall 2005 TAKS – 23
Fall 2005 TAKS – 41
2003 TAKS – 38
Apr 2004 TAKS – 25
Apr 2004 TAKS – 36
Jul 2004 TAKS – 33
Jul 2004 TAKS – 45
Apr 2006 TAKS – 40
Apr 2006 TAKS – 45
Oct 2005 TAKS – 35
Feb 2006 TAKS – 28
Fall 2005 TAKS - 28
2004 Info Booklet – 6
2003 TAKS – 24
2003 TAKS – 26
Apr 2004 TAKS – 33
Jul 2004 TAKS – 34
Oct 2005 TAKS – 14
Feb 2006 TAKS – 32
Jul 2006 TAKS – 41
Fall 2005 TAKS – 31
Apr 2004 TAKS – 22
Jul 2004 TAKS – 27
Apr 2006 TAKS – 7
Apr 2006 TAKS – 31
Oct 2005 TAKS – 15
Oct 2005 TAKS – 27
Feb 2006 TAKS – 5
Feb 2006 TAKS – 48
Jul 2006 TAKS – 10
Jul 2006 TAKS – 32
2004 Info Booklet – 7
2003 TAKS – 12
2003 TAKS – 49
Apr 2004 TAKS – 31
Jul 2004 TAKS – 32
Oct 2005 TAKS - 10
Grade 11 – Objective 2
Question
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
Correct
Answer
C
C
C
H
B
D
A
J
A
B
C
D
A
J
G
G
G
C
B
Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Objective
Student
Measured
Expectation
2
BIO 8C
2
BIO 8C
2
BIO 10A
2
BIO 10A
2
BIO 10A
2
BIO 10A
2
BIO 10A
2
BIO 10A
2
BIO 10A
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
2
BIO 10B
Source - item number
Feb 2006 TAKS – 19
Fall 2005 TAKS – 33
2004 Info Booklet – 8
2003 TAKS – 16
Apr 2004 TAKS – 3
Jul 2004 TAKS – 29
Jul 2004 TAKS – 47
Feb 2006 TAKS – 18
Jul 2006 TAKS – 25
2002 Info Booklet – 18
2002 Info Booklet – 20
2004 Info Booklet – 10
2003 TAKS – 29
Apr 2004 TAKS – 28
Apr 2006 TAKS – 10
Oct 2005 TAKS – 30
Feb 2006 TAKS – 36
Jul 2006 TAKS – 35
Fall 2005 TAKS – 9