Download 1. Which is a parenteral route of administration? A) oral B

1. Which is a parenteral route of
administration?
A) oral
B) vaginal
C) sublingual
D) rectal
2. A local effect occurs
A) at the site of administration.
B) throughout the body.
C) only after intravenous administration.
D) only within the alimentary tract.
3. Which is a mechanism of losing orally
administered drug?
A) degradation due to stomach acidity
B) first pass metabolism
C) retarded dissolution
D) all of the above
4. A tablet that releases one dose immediately
and then releases a second dose later is a
________ tablet.
A) enteric coated
B) multiple compressed
C) modified release
D) repeat action
5. Which dosage form does not have
disintegration and dissolution as part of their
oral
absorption process?
A) tablets
B) capsules
C) bulk powders
D) none of the above
6. SR, XR, CR, and TR are examples of
_____________ formulations.
A) oral
B) modified release
C) repeat action
D) soft gels
7. Which oral liquid formulation is
characterized by a high sucrose content?
A) solution
B) syrup
C) elixir
D) suspension
8. Which nonaqueous oral solution has 20
grams of drug per 100 ml of solution?
A) non-potent tincture
B) potent tincture
C) spirit
D) elixir
9. Which is an advantage of an oral solution
formulation?
A) It may require special additives to mask
taste.
B) The drug is less stable in solution than in a
dry dosage form.
C) The dosage can be easily adjusted.
D) It will require a dosage measurement
device.
10. Which is a disadvantage of an oral
suspension formulation?
A) It can be administered to patients who
cannot swallow tablets.
B) It settles over time.
C) The drug is more stable than in solution
formulations.
D) It can mask objectionable tastes.
11. An oral liquid formulation which one
liquid is dispersed throughout another liquid in
the form of small droplets is called
A) an emulsion.
B) a suspension.
C) a syrup.
D) a solution.
12. Which oral liquid formulation is
characterized by a three-dimensional network
of
particles?
A) solution
B) suspension
C) emulsion
D) gel
13. Which is a unique dosage form for
sublingual administration?
A) elixir
B) lozenge
C) insert
D) colloid
14. The buccal route of administration is
located
A) under the tongue.
B) inside the cheek of the mouth.
C) in the sinus cavity.
D) none of the above
15. When is rectal administration the preferred
route of administration?
A) When the patient is conscious.
B) When oral administration is available.
C) When the drug is degraded by gastric
acidity.
D) When a systemic effect is needed.
16. Which statement is false?
A) Rectal administration can be used for
systemic activity.
B) Drug absorption from rectal administration
is erratic and unpredictable.
C) Rectal suppositories are intended to spread
around the anal opening.
D) Rectal enemas create an urge to defecate.
17. Which is not an “injection dependent”
parenteral route?
A) subcutaneous
B) inhalation
C) intramuscular
D) epidural
18. Which is not a characteristic of an
“injection dependent” parenteral route?
A) Formulations administered are limited to
solutions, suspensions, and emulsions.
B) Formulations administered must be sterile.
C) Formulations administered can be given in
any volume.
D) Formulations administered will have a
carefully maintained pH.
19. Which listing of parenteral routes is the
expected order of absorption rates from fastest
to slowest?
A) IV>IM>SC>
B) IV>SC>IM>
C) IM>IV>SC>
D) all routes produce the same absorption rates
20. __________ can occur if excess air is
introduced into a vein.
A) Phlebitis
B) Air emboli
C) Thrombus
D) Necrosis
21. Injectability refers to the properties of a
suspension while being ______.
A) drawn into a vial
B) injected through a needle
C) mixed with fatty acids to make an emulsion
D) dissolving a lyophilized powder with a
diluent
22. Which intravenous (IV) administration
device would be appropriate to inject a small
volume of medication (e.g., 5 ml) over 1-2
minutes?
A) syringe and needle
B) piggyback minibag
C) PCA pump
D) elastomeric pump
23. PCA analgesia pumps have their flow rates
controlled by the
A) pain.
B) pharmacist.
C) patient.
D) physician assistant.
24. Which is a site of intramuscular (IM)
administration?
A) vastus lateralis
B) deltoid
C) ventogluteal
D) all of the above
25. To avoid _________, change or rotate the
site of intramuscular (IM) administration.
A) abscesses
B) hematomas
C) scar formation
D) all of the above
26. Which ADME process does a drug have
after intramuscular (IM) administration that is
not present after intravenous (IV)
administration?
A) absorption
B) distribution
C) metabolism
D) excretion
27. Subcutaneous injections are given in the
A) upper part of the abdomen.
B) front of the upper arm.
C) upper back.
D) back of the thigh.
28. When considering subcutaneous (SC)
administration, which listing is the expected
order
of absorption rates from fastest to slowest?
A) SC>IM>Oral
B) IM>SC>Oral
C) Oral>IM>SC
D) Oral>SC>IM
29. Insulin, a very common subcutaneously
administered drug, is formulated with different
________ to produce different absorption
rates.
A) slowly soluble salt forms
B) viscosity
C) particle sizes
D) all of the above
30. Co-administering epinephrine
subcutaneously is expected to
A) increase regional blood flow and decrease
subcutaneous absorption.
B) decrease systemic blood flow and decrease
subcutaneous absorption.
C) increase systemic blood flow and increase
subcutaneous absorption.
D) decrease systemic flood flow and increase
subcutaneous absorption.
31. The maximum fluid volume that can be
subcutaneously injected is _____ ml.
A) 0.1
B) 1
C) 2
D) 5
32. Viadur™ Duros®, Supprelin® LA, and
Implanon® have which of the following in
common?
A) They are subcutaneous implants used to
prevent pregnancy.
B) They are subcutaneous implants.
C) They are subcutaneous implants that
operate on vapor pressure.
D) They are intramuscular implants.
33. The usual site for an intradermal injection
is the
A) stomach.
B) anterior surface of the forearm.
C) buttocks.
D) thigh.
34. An intradermal injection will produce a
______.
A) Z-tract
B) scar
C) depot
D) wheal
35. The tear volume in the eye turns over
about every
A) 2 minutes.
B) 7 minutes.
C) 20 minutes.
D) 50 minutes.
36. The average drop size of an eyedropper is
______ microliters.
A) 50
B) 25
C) 10
D) 7
37. Ophthalmic formulations must ______ in
their final container.
A) be sterile
B) be able to be shaken
C) be liquid
D) all of the above
38. Systemic absorption of a drug
administered as an ophthalmic formulation can
occur
when
A) too large of a dose is administered.
B) the drug drains into the lacrimal canalicula.
C) the drug is absorbed into the lacrimal gland.
D) all of the above
39. Ophthalmic formulations should be
administered
A) directly on the eyeball.
B) in the conjunctiva “gutter.”
C) under the upper eyelid.
D) in the corner of the eye next to the nose.
40. Most ophthalmic ointments are mixtures of
A) lanolin and eucerin.
B) polyethylene glycols.
C) white petrolatum and mineral oil.
D) hypomellose (hydroxypropyl
methylcellulose) and glycerin.
41. How are drugs intranasally administered?
A) inhaler for volatile drug
B) liquid drops
C) mist from plastic squeeze bottle
D) all of the above
42. When intranasally administering a drug
with an MDI aerosol,
A) breathe in as the MDI is actuated.
B) breathe in immediately after using the
MDI.
C) breathe out immediately after using the
MDI.
D) use in both nostrils.
43. It is recommended to use intranasal dosage
forms for ______ before discontinuing their
use.
A) 3-5 days
B) 10-14 days
C) 15-30 days
D) 30-60 days
44. What size particle is expected to reach the
alveolar sacs after inhalation administration?
A) 20 microns
B) 10 microns
C) 1 micron
D) 0.6 micron
45. Which inhalation administration device
will help patients coordinate inspiration and
actuation?
A) MDI aerosol
B) dry powder inhaler
C) spacer
D) nebulizer
46. Which will not enhance dermal
absorption?
A) Apply to larger area.
B) Apply to hydrated skin.
C) Leave dosage form on the skin for a short
period of time.
D) Apply a larger quantity of formulation.
47. Which is the barrier to drug absorption
after dermal administration?
A) stratum corneum layer
B) epidermis layer
C) dermis layer
D) subcutaneous tissue
48. A dermal collodion
A) is used as an anti-infective.
B) leaves a protective film after application.
C) has a drug incorporated into a base.
D) controls the rate of drug delivery to the
skin.
49. Which dermal formulation is a suspension?
A) gel
B) lotion
C) cream
D) ointment
50. Which is a disadvantage of vaginal
administration?
A) avoids gastric degradation of the drug
B) doses can be retrieved
C) has variable absorption due to organ
dynamics
D) can provide extended drug absorption
51. Glycerinated gelatin is
A) 50% glycerin, 30% gelatin, 20% water.
B) 70% glycerin, 20% gelatin, 10% water.
C) 60% glycerin, 30% gelatin, 10% propylene
glycol.
D) 40% glycerin 40% gelatin, 10% water, 10%
propylene glycol.
52. Why is glycerinated gelatin the preferred
vaginal suppository base?
A) dissolves slowly in vaginal mucus secretion
B) can be inserted with an applicator
C) dissolves faster than polyethylene glycol
suppositories in vaginal mucus secretions
D) acts as a contraceptive
53. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) provide long
term
A) anti-infective therapy.
B) contraception protection.
C) slow dissolution of progesterone.
D) all of the above