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1. What is the effect of the toxin Clostridium botulinum?
a. Prevents the release of acetylcholine
b. Prevents the release of GABA
c. Retards EF-2
d. Encourages the creation of Camp
e. Encourages the release of inflammatory cytokines
2. Resistance to chloramphenicol is apparent because of:
a. Acetylation of the antibiotic material
b. Separation of the antibiotic material outside the cell
c. Mutations in proteins connected to the Penicillin PBPs
d. Change in the pentapeptide of the peptidoglycan
e. Change in the location of the bond to the material on the ribosome
3. Antibiotic Beta-lactams are bonded to:
a. Lipococholestaride
b. The pentaglycene bond
c. Peptidoglycan
d. Teichoic acid
e. Transpeptidases
4. What is the best method for determining a species of bacterium?
a. Analyze the large fragments of the chromosomal DNA in PFGE
b. Biochemical activity on particular substrata
c. Calculating the G+C ratio
d. DNA/DNA hybridization
e. Establishing the gene pattern for 16S rRNA
5. What is the effect of the toxin Vibrio Cholerae
a. Prevents the release of acetylcholine
b. Prevents the release of GABA
c. Retards EF-2
d. Encourages the creation of cAMP
e. Encourages the release of infectious cytokines
6. Which statement is NOT TRUE about Agar?
a. It melts around 100 degrees Celsius
b. It is a polysaccharide derived from seaweed
c. The solution coagulates around 40 degrees Celsius (45°C)
d. It breaks down by many bacteria
7. Carrier proteins are mixed by
a. Passive diffusion
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Endocytosis
e. A number of the above processes are performed by Carriers
8. Adding salt to a growth medium only allows halotolerant bacteria to grow This is
an example of:
a. Rich? medium
b. Defined? Medium
c. Enriched medium
d. Selective medium
e. Differential medium
9. A bacteria population in logarithmic growth grows from 100 to 100,000,000 in 15
hours. What is the generation life of the bacteria?
a. 30 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 2 hours
d. It can’t be determined
10. Fimbriae or Pili:
a. Sense concentrations of food material in a medium
b. Allow a bacteria to move in a fluid
c. Bind bacteria to various surfaces
d. Take part in the division of materials in to the medium
e. Take part in the division of material into storage cells
11. N-formylmethionine is found at the edge of the Amino-Terminal of proteins in:
a. Eubacteria
b. Eukaryotes
c. Archaebacteria
d. viruses
e. All life forms
12. Restriction systems in Bacteria:
a. Restrict growth on certain mediums
b. Restrict growth of competing species in the bacterium’s environment
c. Restrict the penetration of DNA from other species to the cell of the
bacterium
d. Restrict the reproduction of phages in the culture
e. Are for the creation of restriction enzymes which are unique
endonucleases in the cell
13. Bacteria that are capable of growing on a medium which includes glucose
KH2PO4MgSO4 and a little FeSO4 is necessarily:
a. Photoautotrophs
b. Chemoautotrophs
c. Chemoheterotrophs
d. Nitrogen based
e. Carbon based
f. B and d are correct
g. A and e are correct
h. C and d are correct
i. None are correct
14. The stationary life span in the growth curve of bacteria is dependent on:
a. The medium
b. The species
c. Temperature
d. Presence of Oxygen
e. All of the above
15. The quorum sensing systems take part in:
a. Creation of exotoxin
b. Creation of biofilm
c. Entering a situation of “competence” for transformation by external source
DNA
d. Creation of light (Bioluminescence)
e. All of the above
16. The medium for growth of bacteriophage must include:
a. Growth factors (Vitamins)
b. Phospholipids
c. Proteins
d. Bacteria
e. Hydrolization of ‫קאזין‬
f. A, B and C are correct
g. A, B and E are correct
17. Bacteria reproduce quickly due to:
a. Effective aerobic breathing
b. Their being facultative anaerobes
c. Their lacking a true nucleus
d. Effective transport systems
e. Their small measurements
f. B and C are correct
g. B and D are correct
h. D and E are correct
18. Two component Signaling systems:
a. Are common in all living things
b. Specialize in using phosphorus on top of tyrosine
c. Specialize in using phosphorus on top of histadine
d. Have no effect on gene replication
e. A and B are correct
f. C and D are correct
19. Mupirocin retards:
a. Bacteria cell wall synthesis
b. The enzyme Dihydrofolate reductase
c. The enzyme isoleucyl tRNA synthetase
d. DNA Gyrase
e. Creation of mRNA
f. None of the above
20. Pathogenic Islands are:
a. Ecological pathogen-rich niches
b. Plasmids which take part in the process of pathogenesis
c. Chromosomal area which include genes which take part in the process
of pathogenesis
d. Plasmids which take part in resisting antibiotics
e. Transposons which take part in resisting antibiotics
21. One of the known types of resistance from erythromycin is:
a. Change in the makeup of the cell wall
b. Enzymal modification of material which causes loss of its activity
c. Mutations localized at the target location
d. Methylation of the ribosomal RNA
e. None of the above
22. The problem with taxonomy of bacteria include:
a. Bacteria constantly reproducing
b. Few morphological properties exist in Bacteria
c. Bacteria are the target of Bacteriophages
d. Bacteria only recognize asexual reproduction
e. The bacterial ribosomal RNA is very different from the Eukaryotic
f. B and D are correct
g. B and E are correct
23. The identification properties (though not necessarily classification properties) of
bacteria include:
a. Differential staining
b. Biochemical indicators
c. Establishing the ribosomal RNA pattern
d. As a rule, properties which change slowly with evolution
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
As a rule properties which are easy to check
A, B and E are correct
A,B,C,D are correct
A,B and D are correct
B,C,E are correct
24. Antibacterial peptides align with:
a. The bacterial cell wall
b. The bacterial membrane
c. The bacterial ribosome
d. Lipid synthesis
e. All of the above
25. Phagocytes kill bacteria with the help of:
a. Anaerobic environment
b. Mechanical breakdown
c. Creating active oxygen forms
d. Inhibiting creation of protein in the bacterium
e. Injecting proteins into the cytoplasm of the bacterium by type III secretion
system
26. Protein A of S. aureus
a. Prevents binding of IgG to the bacterium
b. Encourages binding of the IgG to the bacterium in a way which
prevents opsonization
c. Prevents creation of phagolysosomes after the opsonization by the
phagocyte
d. Allows “escape” from the phagolysosomes by puncturing the membrane
e. Prevents the oxidative burst in the phagocyte
27. Which of the following bacteria uses actin in order to move between storage
cells?
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Lactobacillus
e. Staphylococcus aureus
28. According to the immunoflourescence method:
a. Antibodies are used to identify pathogens with help of fluorescent
microscope
b. Substratum fluorogenes are broken down by the fixed bacteria with the
help of antibodies
c. Bacteria fixed in the well of 96-well plate react with fluorescent antibody
d. PCR reaction outputs are revealed with the help of fluorescent
antibodies
e. All of the above
29. Plasmid models and RFLP are used
a. To identify pathogens
b. To check the resistance to antibiotic material
c. To classify types of bacteria
d. For molecular epidemiology
e. A and D are correct
30. Acyl-Homoserine Lactone can:
a. Be used for PAMP (pathogen-associated molecular pattern)
b. Catalyze quorum sensing
c. Compete with Sulfa compound to create folic acid
d. To serve as a substrate for the beta-galactosidase enzyme
e. To cause a display of mutations in bacterial DNA
31. By using FRET (Fluorescence resonance energy transfer) to increase the specifity
of the PCR we use:
a. A primer pairing marked (labeled?) ‫פלורסצנטית‬
b. A regular primer pairing and an oligoneucleotide pairing marked
flourescence bonded closely to each other
c. Regular primaries and we check the output with ‫ פלואורסצנטי‬material
specific to dual strand DNA
d. A single primer bonded to the well of a 96-well plate and a second loose
primer marked (labeled) ‫פלורסצנטית‬
e. A pair of regular primers and fluorogenic ‫דיםאליגונוקלאוטי‬
32. TOLL-like receptors (TLR)
a. Require innate immunity
b. Cause inactivation of toxins
c. Can be activated by peptidogylcan and LPS
d. Are unrelated to the inflammatory reaction
e. A and C are correct
f. B and D are correct
g. All of the above are correct
33. Which of the following compounds found in gram )-( or gram )+( bacteria can
contribute to antigens?
a. Lipoprotein
b. Calcium dipicolinate
c. Cisteine
d. Teichoic acid
e. A and D are correct
f. B and C are correct
34. In a live specimen that is prepared for examination under a microscope, no
independent movement is seen. The examination is done 30 minutes after the
specimen was prepared. Circle ALL of the TRUE statements
a. Without flagella there is no self propelled bacterial movement
b. Bacteria which move with Brownian motion are always capable to move
with self propelled motion
c. Bacteria with self-propelled motion cannot move with Brownian motion
d. Without flagella there cannot be Brownian motion
e. A and B are correct
35. A cloudy mixture, which during tests showed a life count in an agar blood
medium, the initial life count was 2*108 per mL and in a MacConkey medium an
identical number of bacteria were found. About half of the colonies that
developed were red and half were light (beige). From these results one can
conclude:
a. During work at the lab the culture became infected with gram )+( bacteria
and therefore we received two types of settlements
b. In the test there was a mixture of two types of bacteria. Some gram (-(
that breakdown lactose and some gram )-( that don’t break down
lactose
c. The bacteria underwent mutations, therefore red and beige settlements
were created
d. A mixture of gram )+( and gram )-( bacteria developed on the MacConkey
medium.
e. None of the above
36. About twelve hours after birth a baby became non-vital, cyanotic and his
reactions were extremely slow. After blood samples were taken and .‫ש‬.‫ח‬.‫ נ‬. the
coloring of the first gram of the CSF found gram)+( cocci. Due to these initial
findings, what, in your opinion, is most likely to have caused the illness?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Group A Streptococci
c. Group B Streptococci
d. Str. Pneumoniae
e. Neisseria meningitides
THERE IS A DIAGRAM HERE:
Here is a diagram of the cell envelope of gram )-( bacteria. Mark the answer that is most
correct.
37. The structure marked A is called:
a. Outer membrane
b. Peptidoglycan
c. LPS-Lipopoly saccharide
d. Lipoprotein
e. Inner membrane
38. The structure marked B is called:
a. Outer membrane
b. Peptidoglycan
c. LPS-Lipopolysaccharide
d. Lipoprotein
e. Inner membrane
39. The structure marked C is called:
a. Outer membrane
b. Peptidoglycan
c. LPS-Lipopolysaccharide
d. Lipoprotein
e. Inner membrane
40. The structure marked D is called:
a. Outer membrane
b. Peptidoglycan
c. LPS-Lipopoly saccharide
d. Lipoprotein
e. Inner membrane
41. Which of these illnesses IS NOT caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
a. Impetigo
b. Folliculitis
c. Scaled skin syndrome
d. Furuncles
e. Scarlet fever
42. In a car crash, a young man is thrown from the car and wounds his leg. Four days
later the wound swells, a sharp smell emanates from it and the scab looks
necrotic. The most reasonable explanation for this is:
a. A species of gram)+( carrying spores, completely anaerobic (C.
perfringens)
b. gram)+( cocci in a chain (Streptococcus)
c. gram)+( cocci in a cluster (Staphylococcus)
d. Staves (-)
e. A species of gram )+( carrying spores, completely aerobic (Bacillus)
f. None of the above
43. Infections from Salmonella enteric serovar Typhi (S. typhi) usually cause illness:
a. Only in the intestines
b. Anywhere in the body
c. Only in a population of weakened immune systems
d. Only in humans
e. Only in children
44. A wound created from Botulism is different than that from tetanus in that:
a. In Botulism only the toxin and not the bacteria penetrate the wound but in
tetanus the bacteria produce the toxin inside the wound
b. In tetanus Spastic paralysis is created but in Botulism Flaccid paralysis is
created
c. In Botulism the bacterium produces the toxin when it becomes a spore but
with tetanus the vegetative cells create the toxin
d. In tetanus the spores infect the wound but in botulism the toxin that
penetrates the digestive system causes the illness.
e. A and B are correct
f. None of the above
g. B and D are correct
45. The Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria has many serological types because of
different antigens. Circle which of these antigens are responsible for these
changes.
a. M protein
b. Pili
c. Flagellin
d. Capsular carbohydrate
e. Protein A
f. A and E are correct
46. A group of women participated in a party and ate cake, ice cream and salad with
homemade dressing. About 5 hours later they started to vomit and have diarrhea,
along with feeling generally weak. Based on this story, what is the pathogenesis
of this illness?
a. The bacteria that were in the food entered the intestinal tract, separated the
aureus enzyme which caused an infection and vomiting
b. The toxin in the food caused vomiting and diarrhea
c. The bacteria in the food secreted neurotoxin in the intestine which was
absorbed in the intestine and cause the symptoms
d. The lack of fever in the disease proves definitively that the bacterium is
not gram )-(
e. None of the above
47. A boy comes to the emergency room with a heart murmur and suspected
Rheumatic fever. His parents tell you that three weeks ago the boy complained
about a sore throat. In order to determine that the child did have a streptococcal
infection in the past, the most correct thing to do would be:
a. To do a skin test with M protein
b. To take a throat culture
c. To search for antibodies to Streptolysin-O (ASO)
d. To search for toxic shock
e. You can never check this
f. B and C are correct
48. The following statements relate to lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Circle which
statement is most correct.
a. Lipid A is the toxic component and O is the antigenic component
b. Lipid A is the Antigenic component and O is the toxigenic component
c. The gram)+( bacteria have lipoteichoic acid bonded to the O antigen
d. The gram)-( bacteria have lipoteichoic acid bonded to the O antigen
e. A and C are correct
49. Toxins that underwent inactivation and are used as vaccines are called
a. Antitoxin
b. Toxoid
c. Alkaloid
d. Superantigen
e. Toxin
f. None of the above
50. The Cholera toxin causes extremely massive diarrhea in patients.Circle the
correct answer(s)
a. The Toxin penetrated the blood and causes destruction of the
neurotransmitters
b. The toxin bond causes a rise in cyclic AMP and to a constant release of
.components from the cell into the lining of the intestine
c. The Ganglioside oxin connects to GM1 on top of the intestinal tract
d. It connects to the elongation factor 2 and causes inactivation of the
intestinal ribosomes
e. B and C are correct
f. C and D are correct
51. Which of these illnesses can be caused by the normal flora of the body?
a. Endocarditis from Str. Viridans
b. Urinary infections from E. Coli
c. Urinary tract infections from Str. Fecalis
d. Tooth decay from Beta hemolytic streptococci
e. Only A and B are correct
f. Only B and C
g. Only A, B and C
h. All of the above
52. A patient arrives at the ER with lower back pain, discomfort and weakness. The
patient tells you that three weeks ago he suffered a skin wound from Streptococci
Beta hemolites. When the lab results come back his general urine test shows
erythrocytes and protein but the culture is negative. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a. Impetigo
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Acute glomerulonephritis
d. Infection from Str. Fecalis
e. Infection from Staph. Saprophyticus
53. The Helicobacter pylori bacterium is the most significant cause of 70-100% of
patients with stomach ulcers, upper intestine and gastritis. Which of the following
symptoms DOES NOT usually occur from a Helicobacter pylori infection?
a. Continual watery diarrhea
b. Bacteremia
c. Stomach ulcer
d. Bloody stool
e. A, C and D
f. A, B and D
g. All of the above
54. After testing for Cholera the treatment consists of a number of stages. Circle the
answers that are correct:
a. Appropriate antibiotic treatment
b. Vaccine compound
c. Giving electrolytes
d. Quarantine
e. Give blood thinners
f. All of the above
g. A, C and D are correct
h. B, D and E correct
55. A young woman arrives at the clinic and complains about burning and pain when
she pees. The urine is sent to the lab for a culture and the doctor receives a result,
which says that the bacterium grew on an blood-agar (S. aureus, S. pneumoniae,
Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, E. coli) medium but not on a meconic medium. What is
most likely microorganism to suspect?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Str. Mutans
c. Staph saphrophyticus
d. E. Coli
e. Proteus mirabilis
f. B and C are correct
g. A and C are correct
56. A person is hospitalized with suspected Toxic shock syndrome because of
staphylococcus. Circle the correct statements.
a. There is no way to isolate the cause of the illness form blood
b. The Toxin that causes TSS is endotoxin
c. The toxin is spread from staphylococcus coagulase (-)
d. The illness is common only among women ????
e. B and C are correct
f. A and D are correct
57. In 2001 a number of envelopes were distributed in the USA containing spores of
Bacillus anthracis. There were 22 cases of anthrax with 5 instances of death. The
great stability of the spores was greatly due to large amounts of:
a. Diaminopimelic acid
b. D-glutamic acid
c. Calcium dipicolinate
d. Lipid A
e. Sulfhydril-containing Proteins
58. An 8 year old girl develops symptoms of rheumatic fever, though there are no
signs of ‫קרדיאליים‬. The patient’s throat is negative for (Group A) Streptococcus
pyogenes. This girl and other family members apparently suffered from throat
infections a month ago. What test can prove that the girl suffers from a fresh
streptococcal infection?
a. A high titer of anti-streptolysin O
b. A high titer of anti-streptolysin S
c. A high titer of hyaluronic acid antibodies
d. PCR to anti M antibodies
e. None of the above
59. Which of the following intestinal illnesses has the greatest possibility of
developing “chronic carrier state”?
a. Salmonellosis
b. Shigellosis
c. Typhoid
d. Cholera
e. Typhus
f. Endocarditis
g. A and B are correct
h. A and C are correct
60. A patient is brought to the ER with a complaint of harsh bloody diarrhea. The
interview shows that he recently served in reserve army duty doing field training
in poor hygienic conditions. The cause of the illness is almost certainly
a. Shigella flexneri
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Heliobacter pylori
d.
e.
f.
g.
Enterotoxin of Staph. Aureus
A and B are correct
B and C are correct
B and D correct
61. In a dish containing an agar blood medium a type-alpha liquid appears (green
liquid). The possible bacteria are:
a. Str. Viridans
b. (Streptococcus) Diplococcus pneumoniae
c. Strep. Pyogenes
d. Str. Mutans
e. A, B, and C are correct
f. A, B and D
g. All of the above
62. The completely anaerobic bacteria which cause the majority of intestinal flora are:
a. Bacteroides
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Clostridium dificile
d. Peptostreptococcus
e. Anaerobic streptococci
f. Strep. Fecalis
g. All of the above
h. C and D are correct
63. A Student suffers from heavy diarrhea for a few days after eating a warm
hamburger from a kiosk. The blood and saliva cultures do NOT show Yersinia,
Campylobacter or Shigella. It is safe to assume that the cause of the illness is:
a. Clostridium difficile toxin
b. ST (Stable) Toxin from E. coli 0:157
c. Clostridium botulinum toxin
d. Bacillus cereus exotoxin
e. E. coli endotoxin
64. Two students planted a gram (-) bacterium on TSI (Triple sugar iron). Student A
checked his results after 24 hours and saw that the test was yellow along its length
(on the slope and beneath). Student B checked the test after 72 hours and saw that
it was completely red. Which of the following statement are correct?
a. This bacterium breaks down lactose and glucose
b. This bacterium breaks down lactose only
c. This bacterium breaks down glucose only
d. The test subject was infected with another bacterium with different
biochemical properties.
e. The bacterium finished breaking down the lactose and began breaking
down peptones as a source of nitrogen and as a source of carbon.
f. B and C are correct
g. A and E are correct
h. None of the above
65. What is responsible for the specific action of the endotoxin?
a. Lipid A
b. Lipoteichoic acid
c. Peptidoglycan
d. O antigen
e. All of the above
66. What factor plays the greatest role in Streptococcus pneumoniae?
a. Exotoxin A
b. M protein adhesions
c. Pyrogenic exotoxin
d. Polysacchariae capsule
e. Answers B and D
67. What is the major cause of developing pyelonephritis and the creation of kidney
stones?
a. Production of endotoxin
b. Presence of specific Pili which help bind to epithelial in urine
c. Production of urease by specific strains
d. Resistance to antibiotics
e. All of the above
f. B and C are correct
68. A patient is hospitalized with symptoms of chills fever and tiredness. He has a
painful inflammation in his right leg. During admission the patient showed signs
of shock. Therefore, one should assume:
a. The cause of the illness is “Flesh Eating Bacteria”
b. Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome
c. The bacteria can produce pyrogenic toxins (A, B or C)
d. No treatment will be effective for this disease
e. A and C are correct
f. All of the above
g. B and C are correct
69. The following statements relate to destroying microorganisms. Circle the most
correct possibility:
a. Hydrogen peroxide is a strong oxidant
b. The primary use of hydrogen peroxide is the destruction of
microorganisms that thrive on skin
c. One of the benefits of hydrogen peroxide is that it doesn’t cause metal to
corrode
d. Hydrogen peroxide is a strong carcinogen
e. All of the above
f. A and C
g. None of the above
70. The following are accepted methods to measure the effectiveness of
microorganism destruction by disinfectants. Circle the most correct answer.
a. The time to kill E. Coli
b. The time to kill 1010 vegetative bacteria
c. The lowest temperature at which total destruction of bacteria occurs in 10
minutes (Thermal death point)
d. The minimum time required to destroy a bacteria population at a given
temperature (Thermal death time)
e. C and D
f. B and C
g. All of the above
h. None of the above
71. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Bordetella Adenylate
Cyclase (ACase)?
a. It can be recognized with iron
b. It is an A-B toxin
c. It produces cAMP from ATP molecules
d. It requires calmodulin for it enzymatic activity
e. A bacterium which is not ACase coded is not virulent
72. Iron effects the expression of diphtheria in the following way (choose the most
correct choice):
a. The iron binds to the repressor of the gene coded for the toxin and allows
the repressor to prevent gene replication
b. Iron weakens the bacterium The weakened bacterium is hampered in its
ability to produce toxin
c. The iron binds to the activator of the gene coded for the toxin and allows
the activator to encourage gene replication
d. A low level of iron in the body encourages toxin production
e. All of the above
f. A and D
g. C and D
h. B C and D
i. None of the above
73. Which of the following complications can be caused by sepsis or septic shock?
a. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
b. Acute renal failure
c. Intestinal bleeding
d. Liver failure
e. Central nervous system dysfunction
f. Heart failure
g. A B and C
h. All of the above
i. None of the above
74. Which of the following symptoms is NOT typical for patients with endocarditis?
a. low grade fever
b. weakness
c. weight loss
d. emboli on the skin
e. bloody cough
f. None of the above
g. All of the above
75. A FAST (less than 24 hrs.) lab test for a high likelihood of tuberculosis is possible
by:
a. finding bacteria in mucous through acid fast staining
b. PCR test
c. Culturing a mucous sample
d. Checking for antibodies in the blood
e. PPD test
f. A and B
g. C and D
h. D and E
i. All of the above
76. The following statements relate to the diagnosis of bacterial or viral infection by
PCR. Choose the most correct statement.
a. it allows to differentiate between bacterial or viral live or dead organisms
b. precise procedure that can diagnose the species of the bacteria or virus
c. very fast test
d. allows the detection of a small number of bacteria or viruses
e. ?????
f. a + b + c
g. b + c + d + e
h. all of the above are correct
77. Most of the extracardiac complications of endocarditis are due to the following:
a. damage from the exotoxins that are released from vegetations
b. emboli occlusions from vegetations
c. endotoxin – LPS
d. hypertension that impacts on renal insufficiency
e. cytotoxicity that is caused by invasive bacteria into macrophages
f. a + b
g. c + d
h. none of the above
78. Tuberculosis is treated by a combination of multiple antibiotics due to the following
reason:
a. the disease is characterized by a very high amount of mycobacterium
tuberculosis bacterium
b. there isn’t enough time to determine sensitivity to antibiotics
c. the bacteria develop resistance to the antibiotics at a high frequency
d. all of the above
e. a + b
f. b + c
79. The main tissue invaded by M. leprae that causes the leprosy disease is
a. ciliated cells of the respiratory system
b. skeletal muscle
c. nerve endings close to the skin
d. peripheral lymphatic tissue
e. epidermis
f. macrophages
g. none of the above
80. Which of the following conditions characterize the majority (90%) of cases of
primary infection with M. tuberculosis
a. severe cough with bloody sputum
b. invasion of the bacteria to lymphatic tissue accompanied by fever, cough and
??
c. invasion of lymphatic tissue accompanied by hypercoagulation and production
of emboli
d. invasion to the lung without clear symptoms
e. invasion to the nerve endings and the production of tubercule close to the skin
f. a + b
g. c + e
h. all of the above
81. Which of the following statements is true about intravascular coagulation?
a. caused following emboli in the blood from cardiac vegetations from
endocarditis patients
b. caused following the release of diphtheria toxin
c. caused by M. leprae that multiply in nerve endings close to the epidermis
d. caused as a result of hypercoagulation characteristic of septic patients
e. caused by vascular occlusion that are specific to the epidermis
f. intravascular coagulation indicates/signifies a systemic problem
g. a + b + c + d
h. c + e
i. a + d + f
82. The following statements relate to bacteremia. Choose the most correct possibility
a. a daily event
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
bacteremia presently is the main risk for the elderly
are easily identified by blood culture
usually endangers the life of the infected patient
can be prolonged in cases of infected catheters
are likely to cause endocarditis in patients with congenital heart defects
a+b
a+e+f
d+e
a+c
83. Which of the following bacteria multiply in macrophages?
a. M. leprae
b. H. influenzae
c. L. pneumophila
d. B. anthracis
e. M. tuberculosis
f. a + b + c
g. a + d
h. c + e
i. b + c
85. The following statements characterize a specific pathogen
 it grows in standing water – eg water in air conditioning unit
 causes a pulmonary infection
 grows in protozoa cells and also human macrophage cells
Which of the following bacteria can relate to the above characteristics? Choose
the most correct answer.
a. B. pertussis
b. B. anthracis
c. H. influenzae
d. C. diptheria
e. L. pneumophila
f. None of the above
86. Choose which disease is caused by B. pertussis
a. Whoopinig cough
b. Scarlet fever
c. Legionairres disease
d. Sepsis
e. Diptheria
f. Trachoma
87. What is the main cell (most studied) that B. pertussis inoculates?
a. epithelial cells of the small intestine
b. RBCs
c.
d.
e.
f.
Ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory system
Smooth muscle cells
Spleen cells
Nerve cells
88. Choose the incorrect statement
a. Mycoplasma belongs to the mollicutes group
b. Erythromycin kills mycoplasma
c. Possible to culture mycoplasma in BHI
d. Mycoplasma is smaller than some viruses
e. Mycoplasma divides by binary fission and the process of filamentous process
89. In a species of mycoplasma they produced a KO model of a protein called P1 that has
a MW of 168 KD. What is the expected phenotype as a result of spread to the nasal
sinuses?
a. incapability to bind to lung epithelia
b. incapability to divide within lung tissue
c. incapability to produce peroxide
d. incapability to uptake cholesterol
e. incapability to produce dense bodies
f. there’s should be no expectation to have any change in phenotype
90. A man traveled to a camp in the Appalachian Mountains. A week after returning he
develops a fever and petechial rash that spreads from his hands to his back. This disease
is caused by:
a. G- spirochete
b. Bacteria that lives in the cytoplasm of infected epithelial cells
c. Bacteria with two forms – infective and replicative form
d. G- bipolar strain thought to be involved in biological warfare
e. None of the above
91. Patients sick with biseasonal severe respiratory infection with symptoms similar to
influenzae and that are exposed to birds are likely infected with:
a. G- spirochete
b. Bacteria with two forms – infective and replicative form
c. G+ bacteria that does not produce spores
d. G- Facultative intracellular Coccobacillus
e. None of the above
92. Cat bite is infected with
a. Pasteurella
b. Ricketsia
c. Borrelia
d. Chlamydia
e. Franciscella
93. What is the incorrect statement relating to N. gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum.
a. responsible for ulcerations of the penis
b. they are Gc. there’s no vaccination against this disease
d. they are sensitive to penicillin
e. they can be transmitted during birth
94. The most important test to perform in a case where respiratory infection is suspected
is:
a. blood culture
b. sputum that will stain with G or specific stain
c. pleural fluid culture
d. throat culture
e. CXR
95. The main differences between Legionnaires disease and Pontiac Fever are:
a. Legionnaires disease is life threatening and infects weak population and
Pontiac fever is a disease similar to the flu that infects that also infects the
regular population
b. Legionnaires disease is caused by G- bacteria and PF is caused by G+ cocci
c. Legionnaires disease is not a contagious and PF is a contagious disease
d. LD is caused by aerobic bacteria and PF is caused by anaerobic bacteria
e. LD has a vaccine and PF does not
96. Nurse diagnoses patient suffering from Lyme disease. Which of the following
microorganisms can cause this disease?
a. B. burgdorferi
b. S. pyogenes
c. B. anthracis
d. E. fecalis
e. Y. pestis
97. Which of the following pathogens does not use arthropod vector to transmit to
humans?
a. B. burgdorferi
b. R. rickettsiae
c. C. psitacci
d. R. typhi
e. Y. pestis
98. Which of the following bacteria are transmitted from animals to humans by an insect
and also has the capability to transmit human to human?
a. B. burgdorferi
b. F. tularensis
c. P. multocida
d.
e.
f.
g.
B. abortis
R. rickettsiae
B. henselae
Y. pestis
99. Which of the following microorganisms can be transmitted from unpasteurized milk?
a. M. pneumonia
b. B. burgdorferi
c. F. tularensis
d. P. multocida
e. B. abortis
f. R. rickettsiae
g. B. henselae
h. Y. pestis
100. The following statements relate to Yersiniosis. Choose the incorrect statement
a. Y. enterocolitica is part of the normal flora
b. Y. enterocolitica can be isolated from faeces, blood, or vomit
c. Mistakenly diagnosed as Crohn’s disease
d. Y. enterocolitica can be isolated from pork
e. Virulent factors are found in a plasmid.