Download 17 - Doctor Jade Main

BIOLOGY 160 PRACTICE FINAL EXAM
1. The effect of a catalyst is to:
a. prevent the reactants and products from coming together.
b. prevent the reaction from running backwards.
c. provide the necessary activation energy.
d. provide the energy required by endergonic reactions.
e. reduce the amount of activation energy required.
2. Which of the following takes place within the mitochondria of most eukaryotes?
a. The Calvin cycle.
b. Electron transport.
c. Glycolysis.
d. Alcoholic fermentation.
3. According to the fluid mosaic model, the basic structural molecules of the membrane
are:
a. glycoproteins.
b. steroids.
c. phospholipids.
d. fats
4. Accessory pigments in photosynthesis:
a. replace worn molecules of chlorophyll a.
b. capture some energy from otherwise unusable wavelengths of light.
c. provide the colors in a butterfly's wing.
d. have no known function.
5. Which of the following molecules would cross a cell membrane most easily? Assume
no active transport or facilitated diffusion.
a. polar amino acid.
b. starch.
c. protein.
d. lipid-soluble substance.
6. The C3 cycle of photosynthesis begins and ends with:
a. Citric acid
b. Phosphoglyceric acid
c. Ribulose bisphosphate
d. Pyruvic acid
7. In living cells, endergonic reactions are coupled to exergonic reactions so that the
endergonic reactions can take place. The chief exergonic reaction used to power these
endergonic reactions is:
a. ADP + Pi ---> ATP.
b. ATP ---> ADP + Pi.
c. Sun + mitochondria ---> ATP.
d. CO2 + H2O ---> CH2O.
8. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum of visible light is least utilized by plants?
a. 700nm.
b. 400nm.
c. 550nm
d. 650nm.
9. The internal membranes of a chloroplast are known as:
a. leucoplasts.
b. phycoplasts.
c. thylakoids.
d. stroma.
10. Facilitated diffusion
a. involves a protein carrier and requires energy.
b. involves a protein carrier but does not require energy.
c. requires energy but does not require a protein carrier.
d. moves substances from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher
concentration.
e. does not require energy or a protein carrier.
11. The primary role of oxygen in aerobic respiration is to:
a. yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the electron transport chain.
b. combine with carbon and hydrogen, forming CH2O.
c. combine with pyruvate, forming ethyl alcohol.
d. combine with electrons and H+, forming water.
12. Entropy may be defined as:
a. the energy content of the system.
b. the amount of heat released by a reaction.
c. a membranous organelle which is the location of many synthesis reactions.
d. a measure of disorder in the system.
13. Sugars and polysaccharides belong to a class of compounds called:
a. proteins
b. lipids
c. carbohydrates
d. nucleic acid
14. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the breakdown of glucose into CO2 and
water in the presence of oxygen?
a. Glycolysis.
b. The Kreb's cycle.
c. Lactic acid fermentation.
d. Electron transport chain
15. The cytoskeleton of the cell functions to:
a. give the cell shape
b. anchor organelles
c. allow organelles to move
d. all of the above.
16. Energy in almost all living systems is ultimately derived from:
a. chemosynthetic bacteria.
b. photosynthetic plants.
c. the sun.
d. a cup of coffee, first thing in the morning.
17. In all cells, the energy used in active transport is provided by
a. ATP
b. enzymes.
c. gravity.
d. random molecular motion.
18. The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atoms by _______
bonds, whereas neighboring water molecules are held together by _______ bonds.
a. polar covalent; hydrogen
b. hydrogen; polar covalent
c. hydrogen; ionic
d. polar covalent; ionic
e. ionic; covalent
19. The essence of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is:
a. the production of phosphoglyceraldehyde.
b. the conversion of light energy into high-energy electrons, which are then used to
generate chemical energy.
c. the production of ADP.
d. the breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O, yielding energy in the form of ATP.
20. The products of mitochondrial electron transport are:
a. ADP, NADP and oxygen.
b. CO2 and H2O.
c. ATP, NAD, FAD and H2O.
d. ADP, NADH, FADH2 and H2O.
21. In a __________ covalent bond, two atoms share two pairs of electrons
a. single
b. double
c. triple
d. none of the above
22. The unequal sharing of electrons in a covalent bond creates a __________ covalent
bond.
a. polar
b. nonpolar
c. cannot occur
23. Protons have a __________ electrical charge.
a. positive
b. negative
c. neutral
24.Which of the following can bring about a change in protein shape?
a. temperature
b. pH
c. either a or b
d. none of the above
25. Which of the following is considered a macromolecule?
a. glucose
b. amino acid
c. fatty acid
d. nucleic acid
e. all of the above.
26. In eukaryotic cells, the membrane:
a. surrounds the nucleus
b. is a major part of the various organelles
c. both a and b
27. Chromatin contains:
a. DNA
b. protein
c. RNA
d. all of the above
28. Which of the following is an example of secondary structure in a protein?
a. a particular amino acid sequence
b. an alpha helix
c. a globular shape
d. a pleated sheet
e. both b and d
29. When a cell is deprived of oxygen, its lysosomes tend to burst and release their
contents into the cell. as a result of this, that cell will:
a. undergo autolysis (self-digestion)
b. recycle damaged organelles
c. undergo cell division
d. produce additional er
e. produce replacement lysosomes
30. A manufacturing company dumps its wastes into a nearby pond. One of the wastes is
found to paralyze the contractile vacuoles of certain protists. A biologist looking at one of
these organisms would find that the organism :
a. has lost water and shrunk
b. is surviving but is unable to reproduce
c. has died because wastes have accumulated in the cytoplasm
d. has gained water and burst
e. has died of malnutrition
31. In lab, one uses a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make
an “artificial cell.” The balloon is filled with a solution of 20 percent sucrose and is
immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40 percent sucrose. Which of the following
will occur?
a. sucrose will leave the balloon.
b. sucrose will enter the balloon.
c. water will enter the balloon.
d. water will leave the balloon.
e. both a and d
32. Which of the following pieces of evidence would prove that a substance enters a cell
by active rather than passive transport?
a. the substance is moved across the cell membrane by a carrier protein.
b. the substance enters the cell when its concentration is higher outside the cell than
inside.
c. the breakdown of atp is needed for the transport to occur.
d. both a and c
e. all of the above
33. A drug is tested in the laboratory and found to create holes in both mitochondrial
membranes. Scientists suspect that drug will be harmful to human cells because it will
inhibit:
a. the krebs cycle
b. chemiosmosis
c. the formation of alcohol
d. glycolysis
e. both a and b
34. A culture of bacteria growing aerobically is fed glucose containing radioactive carbon
and is then examined. As the bacteria metabolize the glucose, radioactivity will appear
first in:
a. carbon dioxide
b. nadh
c. atp
d. glucose 6-phosphate
e. pyruvic acid
35. During chemiosmosis:
A.
energy is generated by coupling exergonic reactions with other exergonic
reactions
B.
energy is generated because H+ ions move freely across mitochondrial
membranes
C.
a concentration gradient is generated when large numbers of H+ ions are
passively transported from the matrix of the mitochondrion to the mitochondrion's
intermembrane space
D.
ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a protein port provided by ATP
synthase
E.
both b and c
36. Yeast can produce ATP by either fermentation or chemiosmosis; thus they are:
a. obligate anaerobes
b. producers of lactic acid
c. facultative anaerobes
d. facultative aerobes
e. obligate aerobes
37. Which of the following is true concerning the role of redox reactions in
photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
a. photosynthesis involves only oxidations; respiration involves only reductions.
b. in photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is oxidized for form sugar; in respiration, sugar is
reduced to form carbon dioxide.
c. photosynthesis involves only reductions; respiration involves only oxidations.
d. in photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to form sugar; in respiration, sugar is
oxidized to form carbon dioxide.
e. both a and d are true
38. Photorespiration is _________.
a. the light-driven cleavage of glucose to yield three two-carbon compounds, which are
broken down to co2 without producing atp
b. the incorporation of o2 instead of co2 by rubisco, yielding a two-carbon compound
that is broken down to co2 and h2o
c. the increase in the rate of mitochondrial respiration that takes place when a leaf is
exposed to light and photosynthesis produces glucose
d. the opening and closing of stomata in response to changes in light intensity
E. ATP synthesis driven by light energy
39. Which of the following occur during mitotic anaphase?
a. daughter chromosomes begin to move toward opposite poles of the cell
b.
c.
d.
e.
sister chromatids separate
the chromatin is replicated
the centromeres of each chromosome divide
a, b, and d
40. Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same traits in the same
positions on the chromosomes but may specify different versions of some traits constitute
a pair of ________________.
a. heterozygous chromosomes
b. complementary chromosomes
c. homologous chromosomes
d. polyploid chromosomes
e. both a and c
41. During which stage of meiosis does synapsis and the formation of tetrads occur?
a. interphase i
b. prophase i
c. prophase ii
d. interphase ii
e. metaphase ii
42. An allele that has no noticeable effect on the phenotype of an organism unless it is
found in a homologous condition is said to be ______.
a. recessive
b. dominant
c. codominant
d. incompletely dominant
e. heterozygous
43. a “normal” human gamete would contain _____ sex chromosome(s).
a. none
b. one
c. two
d. three
e. c or d
44. Why are sex-linked diseases more common in men than in women?
a. women must inherit two copies of the recessive gene for the disease to be expressed.
b. men need inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the disease to be expressed.
c. the sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women.
d. men acquire two copies of the defective gene during fertilization.
e. both a and b
45. An insertion or deletion mutation involving a single nucleotide in the coding
sequence of a gene would have what probable effect on the resulting polypeptide, and
why?
A. It might have no effect, or it might result in a polypeptide with a single altered amino
acid.
B. It would prevent synthesis of the polypeptide because it would prevent mRNA from
binding properly to the gene.
C. It would have no effect because it is not a significant change.
D. It would result in a nonfunctional polypeptide because it would alter the reading
frame of the genetic message.
E. It would result in the synthesis of a different polypeptide because it would cause RNA
polymerase to skip the gene and transcribe the next gene downstream.
39. Which of the following constitutes a basic, modern definition of a species?
A. a group of individuals who resemble each other, on average, more than they resemble
anything else
a group of populations whose individuals have the potential to interbreed and produce
viable offspring
C. a group of individuals who can interbreed
D. the smallest unit that can engage in microevolution
E. a group of individuals living in the same place at the same time.
40. Thirty people are assigned to live in a spaceship that is exploring other galaxies. The
journey will take several hundred years and will completed by the descendents of these
crew members. The gene pool of the population on this ship when (and if) it returns is
most likely to reflect __________.
a. mutation pressure
b. gene flow
c. a bottleneck effect
d. a founder effect
e. polymorphism
45. Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an X-linked dominant.
What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a
man with hypophosphatemia?
a. all of the sons and none of the daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
b. seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
c. fifty percent of their daughters and 50% of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
d. all of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
e. twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
46. In humans, free earlobes are dominant to attached earlobes, and the presence of
freckles is dominant to the absence of freckles. If any individual heterozygous for both
traits were to mate with an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the
probability of having a child with attached earlobes and freckles?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 100%
D. 50%
E. 75%
47. An individual with naturally curly hair and an individual with naturally straight hair
mate; all of their offspring have naturally wavy hair. If an individual with naturally wavy
hair mates with an individual with naturally straight hair, what is probably that their child
will have naturally curly hair?
A. 0%
B. 100%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 75%
48. Assume that having three nostrils is inherited as a Y-linked trait. A man with three
nostrils has a daughter who has a son by a man who has only two nostrils. What is the
probability that the three-nostriled man's grandson has three nostrils?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 25%
D. 100%
E. 0%
13. Fossils found in the deepest geological strata are generally found to be the:
a. most radioactive
b. youngest
c. oldest
d. complex
e. a and c
14. Which of the following is NOT a part of Darwin's principle of Natural Selection?
a. Populations naturally exhibit great variation
b. New alleles are constantly created through gene mutations
c. Organisms tend to produce more offspring than can be supported by the environment
d. Over time, phenotypes most suited to the environment increase in the population
15. A mutation in wing color in moths from light to dark
a. is an advantage in industrial environments
b. may be beneficial in protection from predators in dark environments
c. may be harmful in protection from predators in light environments
d. is a disadvantage in light environments
e. all of the above
16. A bacteria that exhibits resistance to an antibiotic:
a. developed the resistance to survive exposure to the antibiotic
b. mutated when exposed to the antibiotic
c. inherited genes that made it resistant to the antibiotic
d. cannot be killed by any antibiotic
e. all of the above
17. The sharp reduction of the numbers (and of the gene pool) of a population through a
natural disaster is an example of:
a. natural selection
b. differential reproductive success
c. the founder effect
d. the bottleneck effect
e. all of the above
18. The best description of Natural Selection is:
a. the struggle for existence
b. the reproductive success of members of a population best adapted to the environment
c. the over-production of offspring in environments with limited resources
d. a change in the proportion of variations within a population
19. The smallest unit that can evolve is:
a. a genome
b. an individual
c. a species
d. a population
20. The word "phenotype" refers to the:
a. portion of the genes that are not expressed
b. type of genes an organism possesses
c) amount of genetic change from one generation to the next
d) observable aspects of any individual organism
e) extent of mutation within an organism
36. Darwin's studies of finches on the Galapagos Islands suggest that the finches'
differences in beak structure were most directly due to:
a. acquired characteristics in the parent finches
b. the size of the island where the finches live
c. mating behaviors of the different finch species
d. adaptations of the finches to different environments
8. An atom has an atomic number of seven. How many electrons are in its outer shell?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 14
9.
a.
b.
c.
An atom that gains two electrons becomes a(n)
positively charged ion
negatively charged ion
polar molecule
d. covalent molecule
10. Atom A has four electrons in its outer shell. In the vast majority of cases, an atom of
this type will form ______ bonds with other atoms.
a. polar
b. hydrogen
c. ionic
d. covalent
11. If an atom has an atomic number of 15 and an atomic weight of 31, the atom will
have a total of how many electrons? How many neutrons will this atom have?
a15;16
b. 15;31
c. 16;31
d. 31;46
The bonds in organic molecules are usually _____ bonds because carbon atoms tend to
________electrons.
a. ionic; share
transfer
b. ionic; transfer
c. covalent; share
d. covalent;
2. Which of the following molecules is smallest?
a. sucrose
b. glucose
c. glycogen
d. starch
3. Which of the following elements is not required in order for the compound to be
considered organic?
a. carbon
b. oxygen
c. hydrogen
d. all must be present
The macromolecules that contain hereditary information and are found in
chromosomes are
a. proteins b. triglycerides c. nucleic acids d. polysaccharides
9. In the digestive process, the macromolecules are broken down into small
molecules that can cross cell
membranes. This process is called
a. hydrolysis b. dehydration synthesis c. cellular respiration d. protein
synthesis
41. A study of the position and shape of the bones in the forelimbs of a flying squirrel, a
bat, and a beaver showed that the beaver and the flying squirrel appear to be most closely
related. This determination was most likely based on a study in the field of comparative:
a. anatomy
b. biochemistry
c. embryology
d. cytology