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Transcript
2006
75. The following sentences refer to diagnosing viral or bacterial infection with
PCR. Select the right sentence:
a. It allows us to distinguish between dead or alive viruses or bacteria.
b. It is an accurate method to detect the bacteria or virus strain.
c. It is a very fast method.
d. It allows a detection of a small number of viruses or bacteria.
e. This method makes no mistakes.
f. b+c+d are correct
g. b+c+d+e are correct
h. all sentences are correct
76. Most of the extra-cardiac problems that endocarditis patients suffer from are
come from:
a. The damage made by exotoxins that are secreted from the vegetations.
b. Emboli that are detached from the vegetations.
c. Lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin).
d. A high blood pressure that has an effects on kidney failure
e. Cytotoxity caused by the bacteria invasion to the macrophages
f. a+b are correct
g. c+d are correct
h. non of the above
77. Tuberculosis is treated with a combination of several antibiotics because of:
a. This disease has a high level of M. tuberculosis bacteria
b. There isn't enough time to determine the sensitivity to different antibiotics
c. The bacteria develop antibiotics resistance in a very high frequency rate
d. All of the above
e. a+b are correct
f. b+c are correct
78. The main tissue that M. leprae invades and causes leprosy is:
a. cilia cells of the respiratory system
b. muscles of the limbs
c. nerve endings close to the skin
d. peripheral lymph tissue
e. epidermis
f. macrophages
g. non of the above
79. Which one the following scenarios are typical in most cases (90%) of primary
infection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a. An acute cough accompanied by bloody mucus
b. Invasion of the bacteria to the lymph nodes accompanied by high fever
and frequent cough
c. Invasion to the lymph nodes accompanied by hyper coagulability and
creation of emboli
d. Invasion to the lungs with no clear symptoms
e. Invasion to nerve endings and creating a tubercle close to the skin
f. a+b are correct
g. c+e are correct
h. All answers are correct
80. Which one of the following sentences is correct regarding intravascular
coagulation?
a. Caused by the release of several emboli to the blood from a cardiac
vegetation in an endocarditis patient
b. Caused by the release of the diphtheria toxin
c. Caused by M. leprae that is reproducing at the nerve endings and near the
epidermis
d. Caused by hyper coagulability that is typical of septic patients
e. Caused by blocking blood vessels that are unique to the epidermis
f. Indicate a systemic problem
g. A+b+c+d+ are correct
h. C+e are correct
i. A+d+f
81. The following sentences refer to becteremia. Which is the correct sentence?
a. an everyday phenomena
b. bacteremia is a risk factor when it comes to older people
c. it is easily identified using a blood culture
d. it usually risks the patients life
e. it may be prolonged in case of an invasive contaminating catheter
f. it may cause endocarditis in patients with a congenital cardiac defect
g. a+b are correct
h. a+e+f are correct
i. d+e are correct
j. a+c are correct
82. Which of the following bacteria reproduces mainly inside a macrophage?
a. mycobacterium laprae
b. haemophilus influenza
c. legionella pneumophila
d. bacillus anthracis
e. mycobacterium tuberculosis
f. a+b+c are correct
g. a+d are correct
h. e+c are correct
i. b+c are correct
83. The following sentences are about a certain pathogen:
1. It grows in still water such as water found inside an air
conditioning system
2. It causes pneumonia
3. It grows inside protozoa cells and also inside human
macrophage cells
Which one of the following bacteria fits all the sentences above?
a. bordetella pertussi
b. bacillus anthracis
c. haemophilus influenza
d. cornybacteria diphtheriae
e. legionella pneumophila
f. non of the above
84. Which disease is caused by Bordetella pertussi?
a. Pertussis (whooping cough)
b. rubella
c. legionnaire’s disease
d. sepsis
e. diphtheria
f. trachoma
85. What is the main cell that Brodetella pertussi attaches to?
a. epithelial cells of the small intestine
b. red blood cells
c. ciliary cells inside the upper respiratory tract epithelia
d. smooth muscle cells
e. spleen cells
f. nerve cells
86. Which of the following sentences is incorrect?
a. mycoplasma is part of the mollicutes group
b. erythromycin kills mycoplasma
c. It is possible to grow mycoplasma with BHI agar
d. Mycoplasma is smaller than a few viruses
e. Mycoplasma is replicated through a binary division and through a
filamentos process
87. There was an experiment where they took mycoplasma and did a knock out to a
protein called P1 with a molecular weight of 168kD. What will be the expected
phenotype when they plant it inside the nasal sinuses?
a. no ability to attach to the respiratory epithelia
b. no ability to replicate inside the respiratory tissue
c. no ability to produce peroxide
d. no ability to absorb cholesterol
e. no ability to create a dense body
f. we can’t expect any phenotypical change
88. A man took a trip to the Appalachian Mountains (USA). One week after his
return he he’s got a high fever and a petechial rash that spreads from his hands
to his back. This disease is caused by:
a. gram negative spirochete
b. a bacteria that lives inside the cytoplasm of infected epithelial cells
c. a bacteria with two form: an infectious form and a replicate form
d. a bipolar gram negative bacillus that is involved in biological warfare
e. non of the above
89. People who suffer from an acute bilobar pneumonia with symptoms similar to
influenza and that are exposed to birds, probably got:
a. gram negative spirochete
b. a bacteria that lives inside the cytoplasm of infected epithelial cells
c. a gram positive bacillus that doesn’t create spores
d. a gram negative facultative intracellular coccobacillus
e. non of the above
90. A cat bite may infect with :
a. pasteurella
b. rickettsia
c. borrelia
d. Chlamydia
e. Francisella
91. Which is the wrong sentence regarding Niesseria gonorrhoea and Treponema
pallidum?
a. are responsible for genitalia ulceration
b. are gram negative bacteria
c. there is no vaccine against the disease
d. are usually sensitive to penicillin
e. may be transmitted during birth
92. The most important test to perform incase we suspect pneumonia is:
a. blood culture
b. gram staining or a specific staining for a mucus sample
c. pleural fluid for culture
d. a culture from the throat
e. chest x-ray
93. The main differences between the Legionnaire’s disease and the Pontiac fever
are:
a. the Legionnaire’s disease is a life threatening disease and effects the weak
population while Pontiac fever is a disease similar to the influenza that
also effects the normal population
b. the Legionnaire’s disease is caused by gram negative bacillus while
Pontiac fever is a disease caused gram positive coccs
c. the Legionnaire’s disease is not contagious while Pontiac fever is
contagious
d. the Legionnaire’s disease is caused by aerobic bacteria while Pontiac fever
is caused by anaerobic bacteria
e. the Legionnaire’s disease got a vaccine while Pontiac fever has got no
vaccine
94. A nurse notices that a patient is suffering from Lime disease. Which of the
following organisms may cause this disease?
a. borrelia burgdoferi
b. streptococcus pyogenes
c. bacillus anthracis
d. enterococcus fecalis
e. yersinia pestis
95. Which of the following pathogens does NOT use an insect as a vector for
infecting humans?
a. borrelia burgdoferi
b. rickettsia rickettsiae
c. clamydia psittaci
d. rickettsia typhi
e. yersinia pestis
96. Which of the following bacteria is transmitted from animals into humans by an
insect and there is a possibility that it will also be transmitted from human to
human?
a. borrelia burgdoferi
b. francisella tularesis
c. pasteurella mutocida
d. bruecella abortus
e. rickettsia rickettsiae
f. bartonella henselae
g. yersinia pestis
97. Which of the following micro-organisms may be transmitted through
unpasteurized milk?
a. mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. borrelia burgdoferi
c. francisella tularesis
d. pasteurella mutocida
e. bruecella abortus
f. rickettsia rickettsiae
g. bartonella henselae
h. yersinia pestis
98. The following sentences refer to Yersiniosis. Which one is incorrect?
a. Y. enterocolittica is part of the normal flora
b. Y. enterocolittica may be isolated from feces, blood or human vomit
c. Was missed diagnosed as Crohn’s
d. Y. enterocolittica may be isolated from pork
e. Its virulent factors are located on the surface of the plasmid
Answers 2006:
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
f
b
c
c
d
i
h
i
e
a
c
?
a
d
?
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
a
a
?
a
a
a
b
e
a
Microbiology 2005
1. Where is the Salmonella typhi reservoir?
a. Humans
b. Ticks
c. Fleas
d. Chickens
e. Cattle
f. All of the above
g. d+e
2. What contributes to the antigenic difference between the different species?
a. LPSs
b. Dipicolinic acid
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. Lipoproteins
e. a+d
f. a+c
g. a+c+d
3. A 31 y. old male came to the E.R. with severe headaches. As part of the examinations
a lumbar puncture took place, and the CSF that came out was yellow and dirty. What
should the doctor on duty do?
a. Send the sample to the lab for growing it in culture and meanwhile wait.
b. To admit the patient and after 8 hours to do another LP
c. To start with cephlosporins 3rd generation treatment immediately
d. To start with an antibiotic treatment immediately that includes phenycin G and
erythromycin
e. There is nothing to be done, the CSF is supposed to be yellow and is never clear
In questions 4-7 you are asked to answer according to the following:
a. LPS
b. Inner membrane
c. The peptidoglycan layer
d. Outer membrane
e. Lipoproteins
f. Non of the above
4. A?
5. B?
6. C?
7. D?
8. Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted by insects?
a. Yersinia pestis
b. Borrelia
c. Psittacosis
d. Rickettsial diseases
9. A 16 y. old girl gave birth to a baby boy. During birth he already suffered from an eye
infection and was treated with eye drops. After one week he started to cough and was
seen by a pediatrician. Which bacterium was found?
a. Chlamydia
b. Rickettsia
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Coxiella
10. A 72 y. old male was admitted to the internal medicine ward after suffering from
fever and bad general feeling. During the examination a lesion was discovered on his
right leg. After few days from admission he developed a septic shock. Which is the
correct answer?
a. The bacterium responsible for the disease is probably staph. Aureus
b. It is a bacterium the secretes A, B, C erythrogenic toxins
c. It is probably a flesh eating bacteria (streptococcus)
d. This is a classic case of TSS
e. a+b
f. b+c
g. a+d
11. The Salmonella typhimurium causes a disease that effects:
a. all body
b. it might cause a pneumonia
c. the lymph system only
d. the intestines only
12. A 21 y. old male is injured during a motorcycle accident in which he fell and got a
deep scratch on his elbow. After few days he developed a fever and the lesion was
swollen and smelled very bad. When he came to the hospital there was a sample taken
from it. What was the reply from the lab?
a. This is a gram negative bacterium
b. This is a gram positive aerobic bacterium
c. This is a gram positive completely anaerobic bacterium
d. It is most likely that the young man started to develop tetanus and he must be
provided with anti-toxin immediately
e. Non of the above
13. Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted by hermaphrodite?
a. Clamydia psittaci
b. Rickettsia rickettsiae
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Yersinia enterocolytica
14. What do you use a light microscope for?
a. Sporocytes
15. Which of the following causes pertussis (whooping cough)?
a. Pertussis toxin
16. What is YOP?
a. Enterotoxins that are produced by certain strains of E-coli
b. Enzymes that are secreted by certain strains of H.pylori
c. A group of proteins that belong to the outer membrane and are created by
Yersinia
d. A group of exotoxins that are produced by certain strains of Brucella
17. What is used for classification?
a. r-RNA PCR
b. r-RNA PCR and temperature
18. What does Staph. Aureus NOT cause?
a. Furuncle
b. Endotoxemia
19. Salmonella typhimurium –
a. The disease is only inside the intestine
b. The disease is all over the body
c. It is only in immune suppressed people
d. It only comes from food that was contaminated by feces
e. Man is the final host
20. What increases sepsis?
a. Newborn
b. Age
c. An invasive instrument
21. Nongonococal urethritis is usually caused by:
a. Treponema Pallidum
b. Neisseria Meningitis
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Salmonella Typhi
e. Borrelia Burgodefri
22. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by Staph. aureus?
a. Impetigo
b. Folluculitis
c. Skaled skin syn.
d. Furuncles
e. Endotoxinemia
23. A child arrives to the E.R. with Rheumatic Fever. 3 weeks earlier he had an infection
with strep. To make sure that it really was an infection:
a. Skin testing with M. Protein
b. Taking a culture from his throat
c. Look for Streptolysin-O antibodies
d. Look for TSS antibodies
e. We can’t make sure
f. Non of the above
24. All Mycoplasma Pneumonia strains:
a. Creates a capsule that is crucial for its violence
b. Creates very powerful neurotoxins
c. Are Penicillin resistant
d. Are gram positive
e. Have a thick cell wall that is rich with fatty acids and sterols
25. A baby is suffering from post labor eye secretions, and is treated with drops. After 2
weeks he came with a cough. What is the most reasonable cause for his disease?
a. L. Pneumophilia
b. C. trachomatis
c. M. Pneumonia
d. Rickettsia
e. T. Pallidum
26. TLR’s – Toll Like Receptors –
a. Are required for congenital resistance
b. Inactivates toxins
c. May be activated by LPS and peptidoglycans
d. Are not involved in the infectious response
e. a+c
f. b+d
27. The main tissue that M. leprae is acting on is:
a. Respiratory system cells
b. Muscles of limbs
c. Nerve endings close to the skin
d. Lymph tissue
e. Epidermis
f. Macrophages
g. Non of the above
Answers 2005:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
a
f
d
c
a
d
e
c
a
f
a
c
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
c
a
b
b
c
c
e
c
d
b
e
c
Microbiology 2004
1. Cell walls of gram negative and gram positive bacteria are made of macro-molecules.
Which of the following characteristics are the two kinds of bacteria DO NOT have in
common?
a. The presence of acetyl-glucose-amine and acetyl-muramic acid.
b. LPS
c. Cross connection between the 3rd and 4th place in the tetrapeptide
d. The presence of outer membrane
e. B+c
f. B+d
g. All of the above
2. Which of the following compounds that are inside gram negative and gram positive
can contribute to the different antigens of the different species?
a. LPS
b. Dipicolinic acid
c. Carboxylic acid
d. Teichoic acid
e. A+d
f. B+c
3. A mixture of E.coli and B.subtilis was heated in different temperatures. Which is the
correct answer?
a. All of the bacteria were destroyed after 5 min. in 100°C
b. All of the B.subtilis spores survived after 60 min. in 100°C
c. Most of the vegetative cells of both bacteria were destroyed after 30 min. in 70°C
d. A+b
e. B+c
f. Non of the above
4. a live preparation was prepared to look under a microscope and no self movement was
detected. We looked after 30 min. – what is correct?
a. Without a flagellum there is no self movement
b. Bacteria that move in Brownian movement are moving using self movement
c. Bacteria that move in self movement are not moving using Brownian movement
d. Without flagellum there is no movement at all
e. A+b
5. Dipicolinic acid is a special compound and is present in the following:
a. A flagellum
b. The wall of a gram positive bacterium
c. The wall of a gram negative bacterium
d. A spore
e. B+d
6. The following question refers to the bacterium's' flagellum. Which is correct answer?
a. Every flagellum originates from a basal body
b. Only gram positive have flagellum
c. Using electronic microscope you can detect self movement
d. Bacteria with a single flagellum can move in only one direction
e. The flagellum thickness is about 0.5mm
f. A+c
g. B+d
7. A bacterium that can digest cell walls was operated on gram positive and gram
negative. The protoplast/spheroplast was gram stained. Which is the correct answer?
a. Gram positive protoplast will be stained red
b. Gram negative spheroplast will be stained red
c. Gram negative spheroplast will not be stained
d. Gram positive protoplast will be stained purple
e. A+b
f. C+d
8. Which of the following structures is NOT used for lab separation between different
kinds of bacteria?
a. A flagellum
b. LPS
c. Ribosome
d. Cell wall
e. Capsule
f. A+c
9. Which is the correct sentence regarding septal mesosome?
a. It is an inner folding of the cell wall
b. It uses for restricting the surface area of the cytoplasmatic membrane
c. It's got a use during the cell division
d. A+b
e. C+d
f. A+c
10. Spores are unique structures that are characterized by special properties. Which of the
following sentence is correct?
a. They DO NOT stain in gram staining
b. They contain Diaminopimelic acid
c. They can be created in all the bacteria groups
d. They are used for sexual reproduction
e. They contain Dipocolinic acid
f. B+c
g. A+e
11. A mixture of coccs and bacilli was gram stained. Which is the correct answer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
They may all be gram negative
They may all be gram positive
The mixture might be old
The mixture might be too young
A+c
Non of the above
12. A fluid sample that contains a mixture of gram positive and gram negative bacilli.
There was a live count. Matching dilutions were spread on a rich agar (blood agar) and a
MacConkey agar. Which is the correct answer?
a. On the MacConkey agar the number of colonies was smaller
b. On the rich agar there were more colonies than on the MacConkey agar
c. The rich agar and the MacConkey agar had the same number of colonies
d. A+b
e. A+c
13. The
capsule of bacteria has different qualities. Which of the following sentences
describes them?
a. A capsule may be a very important violence factor
b. The capsule is stained with gram staining
c. The creation of the capsule is conditioned with different genetic qualities
d. Colonies that contain bacteria with a capsule appear rough
e. A+c
f. B+c
14. The identification of a structure in a gram negative sheath within the following
structures:
a. Outer membrane
b. Peptidoglycan
c. LPS
d. Lipoprotein
e. Inner membrane
15. Which of the following molecules plays an important role in the reproduction of
Helicobacter Pylori?
a. Galactose
b. Citrate
c. Cholesterol
d. Urea
e. Lipids
16. Which is the correct sentence regarding Enteropathogenic E.coli?
a. They express toll receptor on their surface
b. They cause the creation of actin pedestal as a result of contact with the host cells
c. They insert the toxin into the host cytoplasm through the type IV secretion system
d. They reproduce inside the infected cells cytoplasm
e. They attract to the host cells by releasing C5a during the creation of membrane
attack complex
17. In order to decrease the possibility of the development of an infection of the bladder
one must:
a. Drink a lot of fluids in order to give urine often
b. To drink minimal amounts of fluids because giving urine often causes UTI
c. To avoid eating rare meat since it contains bacteria that can infect the bladder
d. To shower often in order to get rid of potential pathogens from the body
18. During an experiment some students placed plates with blood agar open for 60 min.
at the following sites: the students' lab, an operation room, a department that had patients
that got severe burns. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding the results
they received?
a. It is safe to assume that the number of colonies developed on the operating room
plate was the lowest
b. The same bacteria developed on the plates from the 3 sites
c. In the burn unit the plate was sterile
d. Only regular air flora was found
e. All of the above
19. In Shigella flexneri there was a knock out to the mucinase enzyme gene, as a result:
a. The bacteria can't attach to the mucosal surface
b. The bacteria can't dissociate IgA
c. The bacteria can't synthesize peptidoglycan
d. The bacteria can't conjugate with EPEC
e. Non of the above
20. What does defensin and listeriolysin have in common?
a. They both attach iron
b. They both kill macrophages
c. They both activate the complement system
d. They both have pore forming proteins
e. They both have mannose binding proteins
21. Find which of the following mechanisms don't belong to the innate immunity of the
organism:
a. The secretion of lysozyme
b. The secretion of antimicrobial peptides
c. The synthesis of LPS binding protein
d. Activation of the complement that is mediated by LPS
e. Activation of toll receptors
f. The binding of IgG to LPS
22. Factors that are made ny macrophages for killing bacteria DOES NOT include:
a. Lysozyme
b.
c.
d.
e.
Superoxide
Siderophores
Nitric oxide
Proteases
23. The Cholera toxin is an example of:
a. Super antigen
b. Pore forming toxin
c. A-B subunit
d. Membrane disruption
e. Neurotoxin
24. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding IgA:
a. It exclusively produced in the intestine cells
b. It is durable to all kinds of proteases
c. It helps the attachment of the bacteria to the epithelia cells
d. It inhibits the attachment of the bacteria to the epithelia cells
e. Non of the above
25. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding Iodphors:
a. It is an iodine connected to a polysaccharide
b. It is more effective in the presence of blood
c. It releases free iodine for a period of time
d. A+c
e. Non of the above
f. All of the above
26. How do you calculate generation time?
a. From the beginning of the incubation until the death of the bacteria
b. During the binary divisions only
c. When you can check for turbidity
d. About 5 hours after the beginning of the incubation until the 30th hour
e. Non of the above
27. Which of the following has the highest durability to disinfectants?
a. HIV
b. Polio virus
c. Vegetative Staph. A.
d. E.coli
e. All have the same durability
f. Mycobacterium
28. Arrange the following from the most stable to the most sensitive to disinfectants
materials:
a. Spores, Mycobacterium, Prions, vegetative cells
b. Prions, spores, Mycobacterium, vegetative cells
c. Vegetative cells, spores, Mycobacterium, Prions
d. Prions, Mycobacterium, vegetative cells, spores
e. Non of the above
29. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding plasmids?
a. Linear DNA molecules that contain at least one centromer
b. Autonomic DNA molecules that contain one origin of replication site
c. A single strand DNA molecules that encode for a toxin
d. They enter the cell by transformation
e. A+c
f. B+d
g. All of the above
30. The DNA molecule that enters the bacteria cell will stay there stably (assuming the
restriction mechanism is negligible):
a. If it goes through a recombination with the gene genome or plasmid
b. If it encodes for DNA polymerase
c. If it encodes for antibiotics
d. If it's round and got an origin of replication site
e. A+d
f. B+c
31. Which of the following is an energy source?
a. A light source
b. An organic source
c. An inorganic source
d. A+b
e. All of the above
32. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding vitamins?
a. The vitamins play a role in metabolic processes
b. The vitamins are an important component of the cell division
c. All organisms synthesize vitamins
d. The vitamins are a corner stone in proteins
e. The vitamins are a corner stone in nucleic acid.
33. The purpose of food surfaces is:
a. To isolate bacteria
b. To reproduce bacteria
c. To identify bacteria
d. All of the above
e. A+c
34. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding a defined food agar?
a. It is ready food for enriching and investigating physical qualities
b. It is made of defined biochemicals
c. It provides nutrients that are required for the bacterial growth
d. It is based on the minimal physiological needs of the micro-organism
e. All of the above
35. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding an undefined food agar?
a. It is made of materials with complicated formulas
b. It is made of complex biological materials
c. It provides all the growth factors that are required for the growing of the microorganism
d. It uses for growing spoiled bacteria
e. B+c+d
f. All of the above
36. Microaerophils bacteria:
a. Don't need oxygen
b. Need oxygen in low concentrations
c. Grow in the presence of a high concentration of CO2
d. Need a mixture of PO4, O2, CO2
e. Grow only on rich agar
37. What is the reason why buffer is added to the food agar?
a. To maintain PH level to avoid infections
b. To maintain a steady temperature
c. To keep the connection between the oxygen and the nutrients
d. To keep the H ions concentration when the bacteria grow
e. All f the above
38. What enables the bacteria adjustment?
a. The nutrients concentration in the agar
b. The right temperature
c. The right oxygen concentration
d. The H ions concentration in the agar
e. All of the above
39. Growing bacteria is based on:
a. A rise in the components of the cell
b. The ability of the bacteria to take advantage of the available nutrients
c. The doubling of the genetic material
d. Binary division
e. All of the above
40. It is possible to quantitatively determine the bacteria growth using:
a. An indirect methods using dilutions, sowing in plates and counting colonies
b. A direct method of counting with a microscope
c. An indirect method of counting with an electric device
d. All of the above
e. A+b
41. What is the shape of the bacterial growth curve?
a. Trapezoid
b. Triangle
c. Square
d. Non of the above
42. When can you draw a bacterial growth curve?
a. When you grow the bacteria in a closed system
b. When the bacteria grow in an arithmetic way
c. When the bacteria are divided in a binary form
d. A+c
43. What are the continuous culture advantages?
a. You can keep the bacteria in its binary division phase
b. You can learn about the physiological qualities of the bacteria
c. All objects are in the same cell cycle phase
d. A+b
e. B+c
44. Taxonomy is defined as:
a. A helping tool for understanding biochemical processes
b. A source for identifying/classifying species
c. It defines a bacterial field only
d. It is a base for chemical reactions
e. C+d
45. Classification with bacteria is problematic because:
a. Bacteria are not fertile
b. Bacteria divide using a non sexual reproduction
c. Bacteria that divide using a sexual reproduction way are not fertile
d. The bacteria mix every 20 min. and that makes the classification harder
e. Non of the above
46. It is custom to point out that a prokaryotic creatures are:
a. Bacteria + algae + protozoa
b. Some of the bacteria + 3 kinds of archea + fungi
c. Bacteria + archea
d. Protozoa + fungi + algae
e. Archea + algae
47. Coxiella burnetti is a name that defines:
a. The name of the micro-organism by a binary nomenclature
b. States only the micro-organism's species status
c. States which kingdom does the micro-organism belongs to
d. The last name
e. All of the above
48. The years 1929, 1935, 1940 are reference dates for the antibiotics area because they
are:
a. Birth dates of important scientists in this field
b. Land marks of the 2nd world war
c. The discovery dates of E.coli, Salmonella, Enterococcus bacteria
d. The dates when the resistance for different antibiotics was discovered
49. Cephalosporin antibiotics are different than Penicillin by:
a. The first one has a tight range and the second is wide ranged
b. The first is more accepted for use against gram negative bacteria and the second
against gram positive coccs
c. Penicillin is more stable against penicillinase than cephalosporin
d. A+b
e. B+c
50. A patient arrives to the department with bacterial infection signs. A sample was taken
to the lab and an antibiotic treatment with Vancomycin was begun, on the basis of an
existing protocol. Talking with the lab rules out the possibility that it is a gram positive
bacterium, and meanwhile there was deterioration in his status.
a. There must be an infection caused by a few bacteria combined
b. We need to change the treatment immediately because Vancomycin is not active
against gram negative
c. It is probably bacteria that is resistant to Vancomycin inspite of its strength and
wide-range
d. His deterioration is a side effect of the Vancomycin treatment
e. There is always a chance that the drug will not work
51. What is the risk in drugs that are active against the cell membrane?
a. Since eukaryotic and prokaryotic have a similar membrane structure thedrug can
harm also the host cells
b. Since it effects only bacteria with double cell wall like gram negative
c. The main action is inhibiting the build of chains of sugars, that is common to all
cells
d. B+c
e. A+c
52. What is the difference between Penicillin and Kanamycin?
a. They are both active against all kinds of bacteria, but Kanamycin is better against
anaerobic
b. Penicillin is working on the cell wall and Kanamycin is working on the nucleic
acid synthesis system
c. Penicillin is working only on the cell membranes and Kanamycin is working only
on the protein synthesis
d. Penicillin is good only for anaerobic and Kanamycin is good only for gram
negative
53. What is the action mechanism of Staphylococci against Penicillin?
a. Dismantling by an enzymatic process
b. A transformation in the building of the peptidoglycan layer
c. Inhibiting protein synthesis
d. Stopping the translation process
e. All of the above
Possible answers 2004:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
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f
e
c
a
d
a
c
f
g
e
d
e
d
b
a
a
a
d
f
c
c
d
d
b
f
28.
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b
f
e
e
a
d
e
e
b
d
e
e
e
a
d
b
b
c
a
d
b
b
a
c
a