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Microbiology part 2
1.
Most patthogenic streptococci belong
to:
a. Alpha-hemolytic sptreptococci
b. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
c. Gamma-nonhemolytic
streptococci
d. Delta streptococci
2.
Streptococci are:
a. Catalase-negative facultative
anaerobes
b. Catalase-negative obligate
anaerobe
c. Catalase-positive facultative
anaerobes
d. Catalase-positive aerobes
3.
Which of the following infection is
caused by Streptococcus equi?
a. Glanders
b. Strangles
c. Equine cervicitis and mertritis
d. Mastitis
4.
The CAMP (Christie, Atkins, MunchPetersen) phenomenon refers to which
of the following?
a. Hemolytic synergism between
two staphylococcal species
b. Hemolytic synergism between
two streptococcal species
c. Hemolytic synergism between
staphylococcal beta-toxin and
a Streptococcus agalactiae
toxin
d. Hemolytic antagonism
between a streptococcal
species and a staphylococcal
species
5.
6.
A condition probably caused by an
immune complex following strangles in
horses is:
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Purpura haemorrhagica
c. Acute glomerulonephritis
d. Jaundice
Which of the following does not belong
to the family Pasteurellaceae?
a. Haemophilus
b. Pasteurella
c. Actinobacillus
d. Pseudomonas
1
7.
Which of the following infections may
not be caused by a Pasteurella sp.?
a. Fowl cholera
b. Hog cholera
c. Haemorrhagic septicemia
d. Atrophic rhinitis
8.
A culture medium that naturally
contains X and V growth factors for
Haemophilus sp. Is:
a. Chocolate agar
b. Nutrient broth
c. Blood agar plate
d. MacConkey agar
9.
A Staphylococcus is inoculated across
plates where Haemophilus has been
streaked, and Haemophilus growth
occurs only in the staph streak. This
phenomenon is called:
a. Satellitism
b. Moon lighting
c. Willy Wonka phenomenon
d. Microbial synergism
10. Which of the following has been
implicated in porcine atrophic rhinitis,
canine kennel cough, and
bronchopneumonia in many animal
species?
a. Bordetella bronchiseptica
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Bartonella hanselae
d. Pasteurella multocida type D
11. Which of the following bacterial genera
is characterized by bipolar staining with
Wright’s stain?
a. Actinobacillus
b. Haemophilus
c. Pasteurella
d. Bordetella
12. What virus is specifically associated
with post-weaning multisystemic
wasting syndrome (PMWS) in pigs?
a. Porcine circovirus 1
b. Porcine circovirus 2
c. Porcine reproductive and
respiratory syndrome virus
(PRRSV)
d. Pseudorabies virus
13. The reservoir of glanders bacillus is:
a. Soil
b. Infected horses
Microbiology part 2
c.
d.
Domestic dogs and cats
Wild fowls
14. The cause of “true” glanders is:
a. Pseudomonas mallei
b. Pseudomonas pseudomallei
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Streptococcus equi
15. The main characteristic of the bacterial
class Molicutes is:
a. They lack the genetic
machinery to form a cell wall
b. The revert to walled bacterial
forms when passaged on
noninhibitory medium
c. They usually form fried
scrambled-egg colonies
d. They stain Gram-positive
16. Bacterial organisms that become cellwall deficient when grown in
environment that contains substances
inhibiting cell wall synthesis are
referred to as:
a. L-forms
b. R-forms
c. Piliforms
d. Uniforms
17. Leptospirosis causes abortion in which
of the following species?
a. Cows
b. Mares
c. Bitches
d. Sows
18. The principal hosts of Leptospira
icterohemorrhagiae and L. canicola are:
a. Cattle
b. Dogs
c. Pigs
d. Sheep
19. The most frequent leptospiral carriers
are:
a. Rodents
b. Horses
c. Dogs
d. Pigs
20. Most metazoans, protozoans, funfi and
bacteria, based on their nutritional
requirements are considered:
a. Chemoautotrophs
b. Chemoheterotrophs
2
c.
d.
Photoheterotrophs
Photoautotrophs
21. Brilliant Green agar is a selective
medium for:
a. Shigella
b. Salmonella
c. Proteus
d. Escherichia
22. An enrichment medium is one that:
a. Contains inhibitory substances
that suppress the growth of
unwanted substances
b. Is used to increase the number
of selected organisms where
they may be outnumbered by
unwanted species
c. Contains certain reagents or
supplements which when
incorporated into culture media
may allow differentiation of
various kinds of bacteria
d. Is used for long-term storage
of organisms in viable state
23. Acid fast staining is based on the
relative bacterial contents of which of
the following substances?
a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Polysaccharides
d. Nucleic acids
24. Acid fast staining aims to differentiate
which organisms from the others?
a. Tubercle bacilli
b. Leptospires
c. Fungi
d. Mycoplasmas
25. Gram-stain and acid-fast stain are
examples of what type of stains?
a. Spore stains
b. Differential stains
c. Negative stains
d. Neutral stains
26. Which of the following microbes are
not identified with the binomial system
of nomenclature of Linneaus?
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoans
Microbiology part 2
27. The bacterial cell wall type that
generally stains Gram-negative is:
a. Firmicute
b. Gracilicute
c. Mollicute
d. I-am-cute!
28. The bacterial cell wall type that
generally stains Gram-positive is:
a. Firmicute
b. Gracilicute
c. Mollicute
d. I-am-cute!
29. This is the phase of bacterial growth in
which an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
such as penicillin is generally most
active.
a. Lag phase
b. Logarithmic phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Death
30. In determining the MIC of an
antibacterial agent using
spectrophotometry, bacterial growth is
indirectly measured by the degree of
____ of the culture.
a. Turbidity
b. Coloration
c. Solidification
d. Liquefaction
31. Members of Enterobacteriaceae are:
a. Obligate anaerobe
b. Facultative anaerobe
c. Aerobe
d. Microareophilic
32. Which of the following does not belong
to Enterobacteriaeae?
a. Klebsiella
b. Proteus
c. Haemophilus
d. Yersinia
33. The most important transfer of
resistance plasmids between bacterial
organisms is:
a. Conjugation
b. Transduction
c. Transformation
d. Recombination
3
34. Porcine spirochaetal colitis is caused
by:
a. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
b. Brachyspira pilosicoli
c. Lawsonia itracellularis
d. Clotridium perfringens type C
35. The cause of porcine proliferative
enteropathy is:
a. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
b. Brachyspira pilosicoli
c. Lawsonia itracellularis
d. Clotridium perfringens type C
36. Which of the following is considered is
an example of a microaerophilic
bacterium?
a. Bacteroides
b. Fusobacterium
c. Campylobacter
d. Clostridium
37. Of the pathogenic clostridia, which one
is the only one encapsulated?
a. C. perfringens
b. C. tetani
c. C. novyi
d. C. botulinum
38. This structure imparts clostridia
resistance to heat, irradiation, and
disinfection.
a. Capsule
b. Flagella
c. Endospores
d. Exospores
39. Spores are rarely demonstrated in this
clostridium.
a. C. perfringens
b. C. tetani
c. C. haemolyticum
d. C. botulinum
40. This is the cause of bacillary
hemoglobinuria (red water) in cattle and
sheep.
a. C. perfringens
b. C. tetani
c. C. haemolyticum (syn. C.
novyi type D)
d. C. botulinum
41. Clostridium chauvoei causes this
disease in ungulates.
a. Wooden tongue
Microbiology part 2
b.
c.
d.
Blackleg
“black disease” – infectious
necrotic hepatitis in sheep
osteomyelitis in water buffalo
42. Clostridium novyi Type B causes:
a. Wooden tongue
b. Blackleg
c. “black disease” – infectious
necrotic hepatitis in sheep
d. osteomyelitis in water buffalo
43. Infection with this clostridium may be
associated with liver fluke infection.
a. C. perfringens
b. C. tetani
c. C. novyi
d. C. botulinum
44. Which two clostridia are non-invasive?
a. C. novyi and C. perfringens
b. C. perfringens and C. tetani
c. C. tetani and C. botulinum
d. C. botulinum and C. chauvoei
45. Which of the following is not a feature
of Bacillus organisms?
a. Spore-forming
b. Aerobic
c. Gram-positive
d. Gram-negative
46. This bacillus is characterized by
“medusa head” appearance of colonies
grown in air.
a. B.subtilis
b. B. anthracis
c. B. cereus
d. B. piliformis
47. “Sulfur granules” are most
characteristic of which of the following
infections?
a. Actinomycosis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Anthrax
d. Glanders
48. The entire infectious unit of a virus is
called:
a. Virion
b. Viroid
c. Capsid
d. Genome
49. The genome of a virus contains:
4
a.
b.
c.
d.
DNA only
RNA only
Both RNA and DNA
DNA or RNA
50. Infection of either cell culture or whole
animals with two viruses often leads to
inhibiotion of multiplication of one of
the viruses. This effect is called:
a. Viral neutralization
b. Viral transformation
c. Viral modification
d. Viral interference
51. The most important advantage of
inactivated (killed) virus vaccines is:
a. Safety
b. Greater potency
c. Stimulation of both cellmediated and humoral
immunity
d. No need for adjuvants
52. Which of the following is not true of
Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. It cause a primary infection
b. A frequent cause of bacteremia
in human beings with burns
and leukemia
c. Commonly found in otitis
externa and cystitis
d. Gram-negative rods with
flagella
53. Concerning fungal infections, which
statement is least accurate?
a. Immunity is primarily humoral
b. Immunity is primarily cell
mediated
c. Chronic granulomatous
infections are common
d. Animals or people with
immunosuppression are often
infected
54. Uptake of naked DNA by a bacterium is
termed:
a. Transduction
b. Transfection
c. Transformation
d. Conjugation
55. Which method is most suitable for
sterilization of an antiserum?
a. Irradiation
b. Autoclaving
Microbiology part 2
c.
d.
Oven baking
Filtration
56. Which bacterium can survive
indefinitely and multiply in the soil?
a. Steptococcus equi
b. Corynebacterium renale
c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
57. Sporulation of Bacillus anthracis is
most likely to occur in:
a. An anaerobic atmosphere
b. Healthy tissue
c. Necrotic tissue
d. An anaerobic atmosphere
58. The different types of Clostridium
botulinum are identified on the basis of:
a. Neurologic or antigenic
specificity of their neurotoxins
b. Clinical signs seen in lab
animals
c. Serologic specificity of their
endotoxins
d. Differential biochemical tests
59. Concerning salmonellosis in farm
animals, which statement is least
accurate?
a. The carrier state can be readily
eliminated
b. Subclinical carriers are
common
c. In carriers, the organisms may
be found in Payer’s patches
d. Some Salmonella species
produce enterotoxins
60. The test used to detect glanders in
horses is based upon:
a. An agar-gel precipitin test
b. A delayed hypersensitivity
reaction
c. An agglutination reaction
d. ELISA
61. Concerning Actinobacillus
pleuropneumonia, which statement is
least accurate?
a. It causes hemorrhagic
necrotizing process
b. It produces heat-stable toxin
c. It was previously known as
Haemophilus pleuropneumonia
5
d.
It has a number of different
serotypes
62. Suspected Salmonella colonies on a
culture plate can be reliably identified
by
a. Serologic test
b. Carbohydrate fermentation
c. Morphologic characteristic
d. Mouse inoculation
63. Which tissue is most appropriate to
submit for examination if you suspected
that an animal has Tyzzer’s disease?
a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Lung
d. Blood
64. Bacillus piliformis is not a bacillus, and
so it has been renamed:
a. Clostridium piliforme
b. Streptococcus sp.
c. Staphyloccus aureus
d. Pseudomonas pseudomallei
65. Tyzzer’s disease is caused by:
a. Clostridium piliforme
b. Streptococcus sp.
c. Staphyloccus aureus
d. Pseudomonas pseudomallei
66. Which type of vaccine is used to
immunize horses against equine
influenza?
a. Fully virulent
b. Heterotypic live
c. Inactivated
d. Modified live
67. Equine infectious anemia, caused by a
retrovirus, is normally transmitted:
a. Vertically by milk
b. Vertically by the germ cell
c. Horizontally by contact
d. By an arthropod vector
68. Viruses that reproduce by “budding”
from the host cell nuclear membrane
are:
a. Herpesviruses
b. Togaviruses
c. Retroviruses
d. Orthomyxoviruses
Microbiology part 2
69. The most distinctively unusual feature
of retroviruses and hepadnaviruses is:
a. A single-stranded nucleic acid
genome
b. Cell entry by endocytosis
c. The requirement for reverse
transcriptase for replication
d. Oncogenecity
70. The mechanism that best explains
attenuation of a virus by serial passage
in vivo or in vitro is:
a. Viral stimulation of a cell
mediated immune response
b. Viral stimulation of humoral
immune response
c. Viral stimulation of
complement production
d. Selection of mutant virus
71. Rabies and vesicular stomatitis viruses
are classified in the family:
a. Reoviridae
b. Rhabdoviridae
c. Coronaviridae
d. Caliciviridae
72. Which virus has been associated with
abortion “storms” in foaling
establishments?
a. Virus of equine viral arteritis
b. Virus of equine serum hepatitis
c. Equine herpesvirus-3
d. Equine papilloma virus
73. Anaerobic, endospore-forming,
nonencapsulated bacteria are found in
the genus:
a. Bacillus
b. Haemophilus
c. Actinomyces
d. Clostridium
74. Beta hemolysis on blood agar culture
refers to:
a. Partial hemolysis of red blood
cells in the medium
b. Complete hemolysis of red
blood cells in the medium
c. A double zone of hemolysis of
red blood cells
d. No hemolysis of red blood
cells in the medium
75. All of the following are characteristics
of mycobacteria except:
6
a.
b.
c.
d.
Thin, straight rods
Aerobic
Acid fast
Gram-negative
76. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
a. Gram-positive
b. Nonmotile
c. Anaerobic
d. Catalase positive
77. Hoe do molds differ from bacteria and
yeasts?
a. Growth curve
b. Plant-like
c. Multinucleated
d. Gram reaction
78. Which of the following poultry diseases
is caused by an orthomyxovirus?
a. Fowl plague
b. Fowl cholera
c. Fowl pox
d. Fowl coryza
79. The Asian high pathogenecity avian
influenza is:
a. H5:N1
b. H5:N7
c. H5:N3
d. H7:N7
80. What type of agar media is used to
promote growth of fastidious bacteria?
a. Enrichment media
b. Enriched media
c. Selective media
d. Mass media