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Midterm Exam, Oral Pathology (DENS 2702)
March 3, 2006
1. Which of the following lesions is NOT associated with pseudoepitheliomatous
hyperplasia?
a. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
b. Granular cell epulis
c. Granular cell myoblastoma
d. Epulis fissuratum
e. All of the above are associated
2. Which of the following statements is TRUE for hemangioma?
a. Infant-onset skin lesions often disappear spontaneously after a few years
b. The usual type of vessel involved is the artery
c. It usually occurs in middle-aged persons
d. It is best treated by radiotherapy
e. It is a malignant neoplasm
3. Which of the following statements is TRUE for neuroectodermal tumor of infancy?
a. It is comprised of two different lesional cell types
b. It is derived from neural crest cells
c. It is associated with vanillylmandelic acid in the blood
d. It occurs primarily in infants
e. All of the above are true
4. The cystic hygroma is a form of:
a. Cavernous hemangioma
b. Capillary hemangioma
c. Angiosarcoma
d. Lymphangioma
e. Lymphangiosarcoma
5. Which of the following statements is TRUE for granular cell epulis
a. It is often associated with pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
b. It is found primarily in the posterior mandible
c. It is typically congenital
d. It may transform into granular cell sarcoma
e. It has a predilection for males
6. Which of the following lesions is best treated with a two-fold method: surgical
excision and replacement or repair of the offending denture?
a. Irritation fibroma
b. Epulis fissuratum
c. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
d. Herniated buccal fat pad
e. Traumatic angiomatous lesion
7. The Cutright tumor, which results from denture trauma, is a special form of which of
the following lesions?
a. Fibromatosis
b. Neurofibroma
c. Traumatic neuroma
d. Osseous choristoma
e. Cartilage choristoma
8. Which of the following statements is TRUE for granular cell tumor
a. It originates from striated muscle
b. Half of all such tumors in the body are oral
c. It is at risk of transforming into a malignancy
d. It usually becomes more than 4 cm. in diameter
e. It is usually found in infants
9. Which of the following features is/are NOT part of von Recklinghausen
neurofibromatosis?
a. Schwannomas
b. Café au lait spots
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Lisch nodules of iris
e. Autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE for central giant cell granuloma?
a. It is usually diagnosed in persons older than 60 years of age
b. It has erythrocytes in the stroma (rather than in blood vessels)
c. It recurs 10-20% of the time, after surgical curettage
d. It is not capable of expanding the cortex
e. It is typically a painful lesion
11. Which of the following is TRUE for Paget disease of bone?
a. It is often associated with elevated alkaline phosphatase serum levels
b. It is associated with elevated serum levels of parathormone
c. It occurs much more frequently in females than in males
d. It is an inherited disorder
e. It is an acute disease process
12. Multiple bone fractures during infancy and childhood is MOST LIKELY seen in
which of the following:
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Cherubism
e. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE for cleidocranial dysplasia?
a. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder
b. It is associated with a defective gene on chromosome 21
c. It is associated with a less than normal number of teeth
d. It is associated with premature tooth eruption
e. It affects primarily the femur and humerus
14. Which of the following statements is TRUE relative to eosinophilic granuloma?
a. It is the most severe form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis
b. It is characterized by radiolucencies with scattered radiopaque flecks
c. It may produce periodontitis-like alveolar bone destruction
d. It occurs primarily in infancy
e. It has a predilection for females
15. The neuromas in the multiple mucosal neuromas syndrome (MEN IIB, MEN III) are
at increased risk of malignant transformation to neurofibrosarcoma. This statement
is:
a. True
b. False
16. - 20. Match EACH of the examples in List B with the most appropriate lesion List A.
Answers from List A may be used more than once and not all List A answers need to
be used.
List A:
a. Verocay body
b. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
c. Kaposi sarcoma
d. Blue sclera
e. Port wine stain
List B:
16. Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
17. Osteogenesis imperfecta
18. Sturge-Weber angiomatosis
19. Schwannoma
20. AIDS
a
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
d
e
e
e
e
e
21. How does the juvenile ossifying fibroma DIFFER from the central ossifying fibroma?
a. It is usually diagnosed in persons older than 30 years of age
b. It has more “bland” or innocuous looking stromal cells
c. It remains small than central ossifying fibroma
d. It is more likely to recur
e. It is typically a painful lesion
22. Which of the following lesions MUST be located on the gingiva or alveolar mucosa
because it is of periodontal ligament origin?
a. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
b. Pyogenic granuloma
c. Granular cell tumor
d. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
e. More than one of the above
23. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with (or is caused by?) human herpesvirus 8 (HHV 8).
This statement is:
a. True
b. False
26. Osseous choristoma is a benign neoplasm of long bones. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
27. Which of the following statements is TRUE for aneurysmal bone cyst?
a. It is a disease of persons older than 50 years
b. It occurs primarily in the maxilla
c. It perforates rather than expands the cortex
d. It is filled with blood
e. It tends to transform into osteosarcoma if left untreated
28. Which of the following statements is TRUE for ameloblastoma?
a. It is a malignant neoplasm of odontogenic origin
b. It usually occurs in children
c. It has a strong predilection for the posterior mandible
d. It tends to perforate the cortex, rather than expand it
e. It is a mixed radiolucent/radiopaque lesion
29. How does the unicystic ameloblastoma differ from the routine ameloblastoma ?
a. It is diagnosed at a much older patient age
b. It is occurs almost always in females
c. It has a much lower recurrence rate
d. It is not associated with the crown of an impacted tooth
e. More than one of the above statements is true
30. Which of the following lesions has the HIGHEST RISK of recurrence after
conservative surgical removal, e.g. curettage or enucleation?
a. Odontogenic fibroma
b. Complex odontoma
c. Ameloblastoma
d. Ameloblastic fibroma
e. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
31. The peripheral or extraosseous variant of ameloblastoma is more aggressive than its
intraosseous counterpart. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
32. Which of the following bone disorders is MOST LIKELY to first be diagnosed in
older persons (more than 60 years of age)?
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Cherubism
c. Paget’s disease of bone
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
e. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
29. How does the unicystic ameloblastoma differ from the routine ameloblastoma ?
a. It is diagnosed at a much older patient age
b. It is occurs almost always in females
c. It has a much lower recurrence rate
d. It is not associated with the crown of an impacted tooth
e. More than one of the above statements is true
30. Which of the following lesions has the HIGHEST RISK of recurrence after
conservative surgical removal, e.g. curettage or enucleation?
a. Odontogenic fibroma
b. Complex odontoma
c. Ameloblastoma
d. Ameloblastic fibroma
e. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
31. Which of the following is TRUE for Paget disease of bone?
a. It is often associated with elevated alkaline phosphatase serum levels
b. It is often associated with elevated serum levels of parathormone
c. It occurs much more frequently in females than in males
d. It is an inherited disorder
e. It has an acute onset with pain and paresthesia
32-36. Match EACH of the diseases in List B with the most appropriate term from List A.
Answers from List A may be used more than once and not all List A answers need to be
used.
List A:
a. Paramyxovirus is suspected etiology
b. Intestinal adenomas
c. Opalescent dentin
d. CBFA1 gene on chromosome 21
e. Postzygotic mutation
List B:
32. Cleidocranial dysplasia
33. Paget disease
34. Osteogenesis imperfecta
35. Fibrous dysplasia
36. Gardner syndrome
a b c d
a b c d
a b c d
a b c
a b c d
e
e
e
d e
e
37. Which of the following statements is FALSE for osteogenesis imperfecta?
a. Type I is the most common variant
b. Defective type I collagen is formed
c. Involved teeth have enamel hypoplasia
d. Shell teeth may be associated with it
e. Fractures may be present at birth
38. Which of the following statements is FALSE for infantile osteopetrosis?
a. Patient usually dies in the first decade of life
b. It is the most common form of osteopetrosis
c. It results from poor osteoclastic function
d. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant disease
e. Marrow spaces fill with bone, causing anemia and poor immunity
39.-47. Match EACH of the signs or symptoms in List B with the MOST
APPROPRIATE systemic disorder from List A. Answers from List A may be used
more than once and not all List A answers need to be used.
List A:
a. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
b. Gardner syndrome
c. McCune Albright syndrome
d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
e. Osteogenesis imperfecta
List B:
39. Café au lait spots
40. Missing clavicles
41. Pathologic fracture
a b c d e
a b c d e
a b c d e
42. Osteoma
43. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
44. Local destruction of alveolus
45. Blue sclera
46. Precocious puberty
a
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
d
e
e
e
e
e
47. Which of the following statements is TRUE for focal osteoporotic marrow defect
a. Chronic local ischemia is a suspected etiology
b. It occurs primarily in men
c. It occurs primarily in young children
d. It typically presents as a well-demarcated radiopacity
e. Bony trabecula are thicker than normal
48. Which of the variants of Langerhans cell histiocytosis is MOST LIKELY to present
as a single punched-out radiolucency of the jaw or skull?
a. Letterer-Siwe disease
b. Hand-Schüller-Christian disease
c. Eosinophilic granuloma
d. Histiocytosis X
e. None of the above
49. Which of the following lesions is MOST LIKELY to present with hollow or “airfilled” marrow spaces:
a. Cherubism
b. Chondroma
c. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
d. Aneurysmal bone cyst
e. Simple bone cyst
50. Which of the following statements is TRUE for osteosarcoma of the jaws?
a. It is much more lethal than osteosarcomas of other bones
b. It is found in a younger age group than osteosarcomas of other bones
c. 5-year survival is approximately 15%
d. Lesions tend to metastasize via lymphatic channels
e. Some microscopic variants produce cartilage
51. Which of the following statements is TRUE for inflammatory papillary hyperplasia?
a. It only occurs under dentures
b. It is much more common in males
c. Even long-standing lesions are reversible if denture is removed
d. May be symptomatic because of secondary candidiasis
e. It is seen primarily in young adults
52. Which of the following lesions is NOT associated with pseudoepitheliomatous
hyperplasia?
a. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
b. Granular cell epulis
c. Granular cell myoblastoma
d. Epulis fissuratum
e. All of the above are associated
53. Which odontoma is MOST LIKELY to have tooth-shaped structures in it?
a. Complex odontoma
b. Compound odontoma
c. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
d. Ameloblastic fibroma
e. Ameloblastoma
54.-58. Match EACH of the lesions in List B with the most appropriate term from
List A. Answers from List A may be used more than once and not all List A answers
need to be used.
List A:
a. Cells may look dysplastic
b. Liesegang rings in calcified globules
c. Old name = “juvenile ameloblastoma”
d. WHO type or variant
e. Develops from and destroys tooth root
List B:
54. Odontogenic fibroma
55. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
56. Pindborg tumor (CEOT)
57. Ameloblastic fibroma
58. Cementoblastoma
a
a
a
a
a
b
b
b
b
b
c
c
c
c
c
d
d
d
d
d
e
e
e
e
e