Download TESTS FOR GROUNDING IN MODULE 1

TESTS FOR GROUNDING IN MODULE 1
Answers multiple tests, choose and indicate the correct answer/statement, please:
1. The non-membranous organelles are:
a) ribosomes; CORRECT
b) Golgi body;
c) lysosomes;
d) Endoplasmic reticulum;
e) nucleus
2. Chloroplasts and mitochondria both NOT:
a) are found in plant cells;
b) have two membranes;
c) contain DNA;
d) are found in animal cells; CORRECT
e) contain a matrix.
3. The way of formation of somatic cells in human body is:
a) amitosis
b) mitosis CORRECT
c) meiosis
d) gametogenesis
4. In what phase of the cell cycle the period when DNA replication and histone synthesis occurs,
resulting in duplication of the chromosomes? At the end of this phase, each chromosome consists
of two identical chromatids attached to one another at the centromere. Choose the correct
answer:
a) G1 phase
b) S phase CORRECT
c) G2 phase
d) mitosis
5. Some phase begins when the sister chromatids separate and begin their migration to opposite
poles of the cell. What is the name of this mitosis stage?
a) telophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase CORRECT
d) prophase
6. In which stage of prophase I does crossing-over occur?
a) leptotene
b) zygotene
c) pachytene CORRECT
d) diplotene
7. In which period of spermatogenesis does meiosis take place?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation CORRECT
d) formation
8. Human diploid number has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes migrate to each pole
during meiosis I in anaphase? How many chromatids migrate to each pole during meiosis II in
anaphase?
a) 23 chromosomes, 23 chromatids CORRECT
b) 46 chromosomes, 46 chromatids
c) 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids
d) 46 chromosomes, 23 chromatids
9. Work with microscope starts from a small magnification (according to the rules).
Magnification is x 56. Indicate, please, the correct answer:
a) ocular x 7, objective 8
b) ocular x 10, objective 40
c) ocular x 15, objective 40
d) objective x 8, ocular 10 CORRECT
e) objective x 40, ocular 10
10. In what organelle proteins are matured into their final forms?
a) mitochondria
b) lysosomes
c) Golgi apparatus CORRECT
d) ribosomes
11. What does an optical part of the light microscope consist of?
a) refractor
b) diaphragm
c) condenser
d) turret
e) ocular CORRECT
12. The membranes that partition the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells (endomembrane system)
include:
a) Golgi complex;
b) lysosomes;
c) endoplasmic reticulum; CORRECT
d) transport recycles;
e) plasma membrane.
13. The “cytoskeleton” of eukaryotic cells does NOT:
a) changes constantly;
b) includes microfilaments;
c) includes some DNA; CORRECT
d) extends into the nucleus;
e) includes protein.
15. Cell membrane functions include:
a) energy transduction;
b) selective permeability;
c) isolation of different chemical reaction;
d) concentration of reactants;
e) all of these above CORRECT
16. The chromosome is acrocentric if:
a) centromere divides it into two arms of approximately length
b) centromere establishes one long arm and one short arm
c) it pinches off only a small amount of material. CORRECT
17. What chromosome number is present in sex cells?
a) haploid (n) CORRECT
b) diploid (2n)
c) tetraploid (4n)
d) triploid (3n)
18. In what types of reproduction gametes are formed?
a) vegetative;
b) asexual;
c) sexual. CORRECT
d) budding
e) shizogonia
19. In which period of ovogenesis does mitosis take place?
a) reproduction CORRECT
b) growing
c) maturation
d) formation
20. What organelles of special purpose (carry out the directed functions in cells with narrow
specialization) do you know? Choose the correct answer:
a) organelles of moving (flagellae, pseudopodia) CORRECT
b) organelles produce polysaccharides
c) organelles founding in plant cells
d) correct answer is absent
e) All of these
21. During what phase of meiosis the secondary oocyte is formed and how many chromosomes
and DNA are present:
a) meiosis I (n, 2c) CORRECT
b) meiosis II (n, c)
c) meiosis I (2n, c)
d) meiosis II (2n, 2c)
e) meiosis I (2n, 4c)
22. What organelles belong to the organelles for special purpose?
a) lysosomes
b) rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
d) cilia CORRECT
e) mitochondria
23. The lysosome membrane is destroyed. What will happen with a cell?
a) phagocytosis
b) endocytosis
c) lysis CORRECT
d) mitosis
e) pinocytosis
24. How many homologous chromosomes and chromatids after replication are present in human
karyotype?
a) 46 chromosomes and 92 chromatids CORRECT
b) 46 chromosomes and 46 chromatids
c) 92 chromosomes and 92 chromatids
d) 92 chromosomes and 46 chromatids
25. Choose definition corresponding with different cell types:
a) Prokaryotic cells:…______________
b) Eukaryotic cells:…_______________
1. Bacteria and blue-green algae, (Cyanobacteria)
2. Genetic material spread out in the cytoplasm
3. Nucleus and nuclear membrane lacking
4. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body and mitochondria lacking.
5. Plant and animal cells.
6. Genetic material concentrated within the nucleus.
7. Nucleus and nuclear membrane present.
8. One or more nucleoli present.
9. All such organelles present.
10. Genetic material organized in a single closed loop-like chromosome.
11. Nuclear spindle formed
12. Nuclear spindle never formed during cell division
26. In which period of gametogenesis does reduplication of DNA and chromosomes take place?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation
d) formation
27. Where do chromosomes located in metaphase during mitosis or meiosis:
a) in a nucleus
b) on the poles of a cell
c) on the equator of a cell CORRECT
d) not visible
28. How many chromosomes and DNA molecules does mature ovum, spermatozoa have?
a) 46 chromosomes and 46 DNA;
b) 23 chromosomes and 46 DNA;
c) 23 chromosomes and 23 DNA; CORRECT
d) 46 chromosomes and 23 DNA.
29. The types of asexual reproduction in single-cellular organisms are:
a) binary fission
b) budding
c) sporogony
d) schizogony
e) all of these above CORRECT
30. What is NOT living level among definitions listed below? Choose correct answer:
a) biogeocenotic (population-species)
b) molecular-genetic
c) cellular
d) biosphere (ecosystem)
e) tissue (organ)
f) organism (ontogenesis)
g) chromosomal CORRECT
31. What does an illuminative part of light microscope consist of?
a) micrometer screw
b) macrometer
c) objective screw
d) refractor CORRECT
e) ocular
32. What is the main function of mitochondrion?
a) synthesis of proteis
b) secretory
c) ATP synthesis CORRECT
d) lipid synthesis
e) degradation of intracellular debris
33. Which type of chromosome is if centromere divides it into two equal arms?
a) acrocentric
b) submetacentric
c) metacentric CORRECT
d) telocentric
34. What two-membranous organelles do you know?
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) mitochondrion CORRECT
c) Goldgi complex
d) lysosomes
e) peroxisomes
f) vacuoles
36. The chromosomes can be distinguished by such main sighs, as:
a) size, centromere position CORRECT
b) centromere position, width
c) length of the arms, condensation level
d) chromatids number, size
37. What phase of mitosis chromosomes are visible, differentiated, condensed and reduplicated:
a) prophase
b) telophase
c) metaphase CORRECT
d) anaphase
38. The types of asexual reproduction in multi-cellular organisms are:
a) vegetative (regeneration)
b) polyembrionya
c) sporogony
d) budding
e) all of these CORRECT
39. In which period of spermatogenesis sperms are formed?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation
d) formation CORRECT
40. Which of the following cells contain plastids?
a) animal
b) plant CORRECT
c) some eukaryotic
d) some prokaryotic
e) all cells
41. Lysosomes do NOT:
a) contain digestive enzymes
b) possess a membrane
c) contain nucleic acids CORRECT
d) break down complex molecules
e) break down organelles
42. The functions of nucleus are:
a) establishes one long arm and one short arm
b) storages the genetic information
c) moves to opposite poles of the cell
d) reduplicates of the genetic information
e) B+D
43. In which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur?
a) telophase I
b) metaphase II
c) anaphase II
d) prophase I CORRECT
44. How many chromosomes groups are there in the human karyotype?
a) 46
b) 23 CORRECT
c) 92
d) 7
e) 9
45. In what phase the sister chromatids are separate and begin their migration to opposite poles
of the cell?
a) telophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase CORRECT
d) prophase
46. How many chromosomes are present in each secondary oocyle?
a) 46
b) 23 CORRECT
c) 1600
d) 400
e) 22
47. The types of sexual reproduction in single-cellular organisms are:
a) polyembrionya
b) sporogony
c) binary fission
d) budding
e) conjugation CORRECT
f) schizogony
48. Each sperm consists of:
a) a head region
b) body or midpiece
c) tail or flagellum.
d) end piece
e) all of these CORRECT
49. How many chromosomes are present in each spermatogonium, an oogonium?
a) 46 CORRECT
b) 23
c) 1600
d) 400
e) 22
50. Some phase begins when the sister chromatids separate and begin their migration to opposite
poles of the cell.What named this phase during meiosis?
a) telophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase CORRECT
d) prophase
51. Which type of chromosome characterized that the is if a centromere divides it into two nonequal arms (one of them is more longer)?
a) acrocentric
b) submetacentric CORRECT
c) metacentric
d) telocentric
56. What one-membranous components do you know:
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Goldgi complex
c) lysosomes
d) peroxisomes
e) vacuoles
f) all of these above CORRECT
61. The way of formation of sex cells in human body is:
a) amitosis
b) mitosis
c) meiosis CORRECT
d) gametogenesis
63. The parts of a mitochondrion that are rich in enzymes are:
a) the cristae. CORRECT
b) intermembrane space.
c) outer membrane.
d) inner membrane.
e) matrix.
64. Actin, myosin, and tubulin are
a) proteins.
b) components of filaments.
c) constructed on ribosomes
d) all of these CORRECT.
65. Organic matters which are carrying out in a cell and functions as enzymes are:
a) proteins, CORRECT
b) carbohydrates,
c) lipids,
d) of nucleic acids,
e) phospholipids.
66. Choose organelles of a cell, in which a photosynthesis occur:
a) mitochondrion,
b) lysosome,
c) ribosome,
d) chloroplasts, CORRECT
e) cellular center.
67. What is a mean of division in a somatic cells:
a) amitosis,
b) mitosis, CORRECT
c) meiosis,
d) schizogony,
e) budding?
68. Choose a haploid number of chromosomes of the man:
a) 18,
b) 46,
c) 40,
d) 23, CORRECT
e) 36.
69. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically
dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
a) Interfase
b) Telophase
c) Anaphase CORRECT
d) Metaphase
e) Prophase
70. What cell structure contain DNA?
a) Nucleolus
b) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus CORRECT
d) Lysosomes
e) Golgi apparatus
71. A granular endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are well developed in cells. What
main function do these cells perform?
a) Production of energy
b) Phagocytosis and digestion of entrapped particles
c) Release of protein secretion CORRECT
d) Transmission of nervous stimulation
e) Production of protein
72. Nucleosomes are held together in large coiled loops by
a) histones. CORRECT
b) chromatin,
c) scaffolding proteins,
d) topoisomerases.
e) protosomes.
73. Lysosomes are vesicles containing digestive enzymes. The isolation of these enzymes in
lisosomes protects the rest of the cell from inappropriate digestive activity.
a) Phagocytosis
b) Endocytosis
c) Lysis CORRECT
d) Mitosis
e) Pinocytosis
TESTS FOR GROUNDING IN MODULE 2
1. During the examination of the man’s epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was established that in
most cells the nuclei had Barr bodies. What syndrome is it typical of?
a) Turner’s syndrome.
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome CORRECT.
c) Down’s syndrome.
d) Edward’s syndrome.
2. The dominant relationships of the alleles are follows: A—brown eyes; a—blue eyes. The
genes for these traits assort independently and present in autosomes. Indicate genotype of browneyed woman.
a) Aa or aa
b) AA or Aa CORRECT
c) aa
d) AA or aa
3. Parents have I and III groups of blood. Which groups of blood may their children get?
a) I or II
b) I or III CORRECT
c) II or III
d) I or IV
4. What will be the phenotypic ration in the first filial generation during test cross, if an
analyzing person is heterozygous by one pair of genes:
a) 3:1;
b) 9:3:3:1;
c) 1:1 CORRECT
d) segregation is absent.
5. How many alleles that control blood group every human has?
a) one
b) two CORRECT
c) three
d) four
6. What from human diseases listed is example of the modifi cation variability:
a) albinism;
b) haemophilia
c) infl uenza CORRECT
d) color blindness
7. What type of mutations has the greatest probability to be expressed in the next generation?
a) recessive, linked with a sex, which arises in X-chromosome;
b) recessive, which arises in autosomes;
c) dominant autosomal mutation CORRECT
d) all of these avove
8. A human has galactosemia — a disease of accumulation. Which genetic method can we use to
diagnose the case?
a) Cytogenetic.
b) Biochemical. CORRECT
c) Population-statistical.
d) Pedigree analysis.
9. The intensity of human skin pigmentation is controlled by a few pairs of non-allelic dominant
genes. It was found that if the quantity of the genes increased, the pigmentation became more
intensive. What do we call this type of genes’ interaction?
a) Pleiotropy.
b) Polymery. CORRECT
c) Codominance.
d) Complementary.
10. There is ichtyosis in the family pedigree. This feature appears in each generation and is
typical only for males. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a) Recessive, X-linked.
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Autosomal-recessive.
d) Y-linked. CORRECT
11. In a family of students from Africa a child with signs of anemia was born. The child died
within a short time. It was found that the child’s erythrocytes were shaped like a sickle. What
genotypes may the parents have if they have a light form of anemia?
a) and AA.
b) and AA.
c) aa and aa.
d) and Aa. CORRECT
12. A child is ill with phenylketonuria. The child’s parents are healthy. What genotype may the
parents have?
a) aa and AA.
b) Aa and AA.
c) aa and aa.
d) Aa and Aa. CORRECT
13. The study of the female karyogram shows that the centromere in X-chromosome is placed
near the centre. What do we call such chromosome?
a) Telocentric.
b) Subacrocentric.
c) Submetacentric. CORRECT
d) Acrocentric.
14. During the pedigree analysis of a family with such an inherited pathology as transgression of
enamel formation, it was found that the disease appeared in each generation. It is inherited by
daughters from fathers. What type of inheritance can we observe in this case?
a) Dominant, X-linked. CORRECT
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Autosomal-recessive.
d) Recessive, X-linked.
15. “Cat’s cry” syndrome is characterized by the underdevelopment of laryngeal muscles,
“miaowing” voice timbre, psychomotoric immaturation of a child. This disease is the result of:
a) Duplication of a fragment of the 5th chromosome.
b) Translocation of the 21st chromosome on the 15th.
c) Deletion of the short arm of the 5th chromosome. CORRECT
d) Deletion of the short arm of the 21st chromosome.
16. Endemic goiter is widespread among Transcarpathian population due to iodine deficiency in
food. What form of variability is this case based on?
a) Mutation.
b) Modification. CORRECT
c) Combinative.
d) Genotypical.
17. The pathoanatomic inspection of a newborn boy’s dead body showed the following
abnormalities: polydactily, microcephaly, a cleft lip and cleft palate, hypertrophy of the
parenchymal organs. These symptoms are typical of Patau’s syndrome. What is the cause of this
disease?
a) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
b) Trisomy on the 18th chromosome.
c) Trisomy on the 13th chromosome CORRECT.
d) Monosomy on X-chromosome
18. Due to the results of the pedigree analysis a geneticist found out that feature became apparent
in each generation, a male and a female inherited feature with the same frequency, both parents
transmitting this feature heir children. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a) Recessive, X-linked.
b) Autosomal-recessive.
c) Dominant, X-linked.
d) Autosomal-dominant. CORRECT
19. A baby boy has deformations of cerebral and facial cranial parts, microphthalmia, an ear
deformation and cleft plate. The baby’s karyotype is 47, XY,13+. What disease is it?
a) Edward’s syndrome.
b) Patau’s syndrome. CORRECT
c) Down’s syndrome.
d) Turner’s syndrome.
20. A 10-year-old girl has got shortened extremities, a small skull, a face anomaly, the
mongolian type of eyelid fold, epicanthus, mental retardation, disorders of the heart and vascular
structure. In a genetic clinic the girl’s karyotype was determined. What was the girl’s karyotype?
a) 45, XO.
b) 47, XX,13+.
c) 47, XX,21+. CORRECT
d) 47, XXX.
21. Excessive ear pilosis (hypertrichosis) is determined by the gene, which is localized in Ychromosome. A man has got this feature. What is the probability of his having a son with such
feature?
a) 75 %.
b) O%.
c) 25 %.
d) 100 % CORRECT
22. According to the rule of the permanent chromosomes number, each animal species can be
characterized by a specifi c and permanent number of chromosomes. What mechanism provides
this feature during sexual reproduction?
a) Reparation.
b) Meiosis. CORRECT
c) Mitosis.
d) Cytokinesis.
23. How many sperms do 400 spermatogonies give?
a) 400
b) 100
c) 1600 CORRECT
d) 800
24. Inclination to diabetes mellitus is provoked by the autosomal-recessive gene. This gene
becomes apparent only in 30% of homozygous individuals. What genetic regularity is observed
in this case?
a) Complementarity.
b) Gene expressiveness.
c) Incomplete penetrance. CORRECT
d) Pleiotropy.
25. In which period of spermatogenesis does meiosis take place?
a) reproduction
b) growing
c) maturation CORRECT
d) formation
26. What chromosome number is present in sex cells?
a) haploid CORRECT
b) diploid
c) tetraploid
d) triploid
27. Antibiotic actinomycin D is known to have no toxic effect on the maternal organism, on the
other hand, it impairs the formation of tissues and organs of ectodermic origin in the embryo
organism. A woman was taking actinomycin D during pregnancy. What organs or systems of the
fetus can be impaired as a result?
a) Sex glands.
b) Skeleton muscles.
c) Locomotion system.
d) Nervous system. CORRECT
28. How many ovums do 400 oogonies give?
a) 400 CORRECT
b) 100
c) 1600
d) 800
29. Which type of the human blood group is example of codominance:
a) I (O)
b) II (A)
c) III (B)
d) IV (AB) CORRECT
30. Parents have I and III groups of blood. Which groups of blood may their children get?
a) I or II
b) I or III CORRECT
c) II or III
d) I or IV
31. The stage of blastocyst the beginning of a human embryo implantation into the womb wall
was recorded. What term of embryogenesis does it occur at?
a) 10-12 days.
b) 3-4 days.
c) 6-7 days. CORRECT
d) 24-26 days.
32. A baby was born with abnormalities of the external and internal organs development. During
the check up the following abnormalities were found: epicanthus, shortened extremities,a small
skull, impaired development of the cardiovascular system. On these grounds theprovisional
diagnosis of Down’s syndrome was made. What genetic method can confi rm this pathology?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Population-statistical.
c) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
d) Biochemical.
33. How do we call the individual development of organisms from the moment of formation of a
zygote up to the end of life?
a) phylogenesis;
b) ontogenesis CORRECT
c) normogenesis;
d) ovogenesis;
34. What number of chromosome has a zygote?
a) haploid;
b) diploid; CORRECT
c) polyploidy;
d) aneuploid.
35. Which kind of sex is heterogametic in human being?
a) male CORRECT
b) female
c) male and female
d) none of these
36. Allelic genes:
a) have the different loci (sites) in the homologous chromosomes
b) are situated in the non-homologous chromosomes
c) are situated in the homologous chromosomes
d) have the same loci in the homologous chromosomes. CORRECT
37. Which form of gene interactions is characterized that one gene masks the phenotypic effect
of gene from different pair:
a) complete dominance
b) epistasis CORRECT
c) superdominance
d) codominance.
38. In a P2 cross, an AABBindividual is paired with an aabbcc individual. What will be the
expected frequency of aabbcc individuals in the F2 generation?
a) 16/64;
b) 4/64;
c) 2/64;
d) 1/64. CORRECT
39. How many and which types of gametes are present in the person with such genotype:
AaBBCc?
a) two: ABABc
b) three: ABABc, A
c) four: ABABc, aBaCORRECT
d) six: ABABc, aBaBc, abc, Abc.
40. The fi rst step in diagnosing diseases provoked by the disorder of metabolism is the
application of express methods which are based on a simple quality reaction of determining
metabolites in blood or urine. The second step is to confirm the diagnosis, for which exact
chromatographical methods of enzymes and amino acids study are used. What genetic method
can be applied?
a) Biochemical. CORRECT
b) Study of twins.
c) Cytogenetic.
d) Population-statistical.
41. In human genes A and B located in the same autosome. What types of sperms does a man
with genotype AB//ab produce in the case of complete linkage?
a) AB, ab CORRECT
b) Aab, Ab, aB
c) Ab, AB
d) Aa, Bb
42. A segment of DNA of normal diploid cell has the sequence of the nucleotides: AATGCT.
After ionizing radiation mutant DNA have the sequence of the nucleotides: AATTCG. What
kind of mutation does take place?
a) deletion;
b) duplication;
c) inversion; CORRECT
d) insertion.
43. What syndromes involving autosomal chromosome aneuploidy do you know?
a) Patau’s syndrome; CORRECT
b) Turner’s syndrome;
c) Tryplo-X syndrome;
d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
44. A human has galactosemia - a disease of accumulation. Which genetic method can we use to
diagnose the case?
a) Cytogenetic.
b) Biochemical. CORRECT
c) Population-statistical.
d) Pedigree analysis.
45. One of the forms of rickets is inherited in the autosomal dominant way. This disease is a
result of:
a) Aneuploidy.
b) Changes in the number of chromosomes.
c) Chromosomal mutations.
d) Gene mutations. CORRECT
46. Children with normal hearing have been born by deaf and dumb parents with the genotype
DDee and ddEE. What is the form of gene interaction between the genes D and E?
a) Complementarity. CORRECT
b) Complete dominance.
c) Polymery.
d) Codominance.
47. Both a mother and a father are phenotypically healthy. They have a sick baby in whose blood
and urine phenylpyruvic acid has been found, which indicates phenylketonuria. What is the type
of the inheritance of this disease?
a) Autosomal-dominant.
b) Recessive, X-linked.
c) Autosomal-recessive. CORRECT
d) Dominant, X-linked.
48. Some people with good clinical health can feel anemia symptoms in the conditions of high
mountains. During their blood test we can find sickle-shaped erythrocytes. What genotype can a
person with occasional symptoms of sickle cell anemia have?
a) XCXC.
b) aa.
c) AA.
d) Aa. CORRECT
50. 18-year-old young man is tall and has narrow shoulders, a large pelvis, an adult woman
pattern of hair distribution, and oxyphonia. Mental retardation is also present. Based on these
symptoms, the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome was made by a doctor. What
genetic method can confirm the diagnosis?
a) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
b) Pedigree analysis.
c) Study of twins.
d) Population-statistical
51. In which stage of prophase I does crossing-over occur?
a) diakinesis
b) zygotene
c) pachytene CORRECT
d) diplotene
52. How many types of gametes are present in the person with such genotype: AaBbCC?
a) 2 CORRECT
b) 4
c) 8
d) 3
53. What is the genotype of man with the rhesus-negative IV group of blood?
a) IAIA RhRh
b) IBirhrh
c) IAIB Rhrh
d) IAIB rhrh CORRECT
54. Genes M and N are linked. The frequency of crossing over between genes M and N is 25%.
Which type of linkage is?
a) complete linkage
b) incomplete linkage CORRECT
c) complete and incomplete linkage
d) none of these
55. What is the karyotype formula for normal females?
a) 46, XY
b) 47, XXX
c) 45, XO
d) 46, XX CORRECT
56. During the checkup of an 18-year-old boy some physical and psychical developmental
defects are found. They as following: eunuchoidism, female stature and an adult woman pattern
of hair distribution, muscular hypoplasia, mental deficiency. Using the cytogenetic method, the
karyotype of the patient was determined. Which karyotype was it?
a) 47,XY,21+.
b) 45, X0.
c) C 47, XXY. CORRECT
d) 47, XYY.
57. 18-year-old girl has a body disproportion: wide shoulders, a narrow pelvis, shortened low
extremities, swallowed skin folds on the neck, underdevelopment of the ovaries. During the
laboratory analysis neither “drumsticks” in the neutrophil nuclei nor Barr bodies in the nuclei of
the buccal epithelium cells were found. Using the dermatoglyphics method it was determined
that the atd palmar angle was equal to 66°. What provisional diagnosis can we make?
a) Down’s syndrome.
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
c) Turner’s syndrome. CORRECT
d) Patau syndrome.
58. The skin of a newborn boy is covered with a thick layer of keratinized scales (ichtyosis). It
looks like reptile skin. After the investigation of the pedigree of his family it was revealed that
this feature occurs in each generation only in males. Which of the below mentioned biological
regularities becomes apparent in this case?
a) The law of independent assortment.
b) The law of unit characters.
c) Sex-linked inheritance. CORRECT
d) Linkage of genes.
59. Three forms of Down’s syndrome — trisomic, translocational, and mosaic — are known.
What genetic method do we have to use to distinguish these forms?
a) Population-statistical.
b) Study of twins.
c) Pedigree analysis.
d) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
60. Sickle-sell anemia, when erythrocytes are in the form of a sickle, if widespread among the
population of some districts in tropic Africa. What biological phenomenon is this disease based
on?
a) Gene mutation. CORRECT
b) Chromosomal aberration.
c) Modifi cation.
d) Chromosomal mutation.
61. Parents with normal health have an ill with phenylketonuria son, but owing to a special diet
he has normal development. What type of variability is his normal development connected with?
a) Mutational variability.
b) Combinative variability.
c) Modifi cative variability. CORRECT
d) Genotype variability.
62. The checkup of an 18-year-old girl showed underdevelopment of the ovaries, wide shoulders,
a narrow pelvis, shortened extremities, and a “neck of sphinx”. The girl was mentally healthy.
The case was diagnosed as Turner’s syndrome. What changes in the chromosomes’ quantity is
this disease connected with?
a) Trisomy of the X-chromosome.
b) Trisomy of the 13th chromosome.
c) Monosomy on X-chromosome. CORRECT
d) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
63. The analysis of the fetus’s amniotic fluid cells for the presence of sexual chromatin shows
that the majority of their nuclei have two Barr bodies each. Which inherited disease can this baby
have?
a) Trisomy on X-chromosome. CORRECT
b) Turner’s syndrome.
c) Patau syndrome.
d) Edward’s syndrome.
64. A proband, his three sons, his brother and father have ichtyosis. His sisters and two daughters
do not have this sign. What is the character of the inheritance of this sign?
a) Autosomal-recessive.
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Holandric. CORRECT
d) Recessive, X-linked.
65. Parents with a normal phenotype gave a birth to an albino child (the feature that is inherited
by the autosomal-recessive manner). What genotype do the parents have?
a) AA and aa.
b) AA and AA.
c) AA and Aa.
d) Aa and Aa. CORRECT
66. Pedigree analysis showed that the proband’s disease occurred in each generation, affected a
relatively big number of sibs, both males and females. What type of inheritance does it point
out?
a) Autosomal-recessive.
b) Dominant, X-linked.
c) Recessive, X-linked.
d) Autosomal-dominant. CORRECT
67. The parents of an ill 5-year-old girl came for advice to a genetic consultation. In her
karyotype 46 chromosomes were found. One of the chromo some of the 15th pair was longer
thar usual due to joining a part of chromosome of the 21th pair to it. What mul tion took place in
this case?
a) Inversion.
b) Deletion.
c) Translocation. CORRECT
d) Duplication.
68. During the cytogenetic analysis a patient was found to have cells with chromosome number
46, XY and 47, XXY in the same proportions. What condition the doctor diagnose?
a) Down’s syndrome.
b) Patau syndrome.
c) C.Klinefelter’s syndrome. CORRECT
d) Turner’s syndrome.
69. A 14-year-old girl has some abnormalities: her height is lower than in girls of the same age,
the signs of puberty are absent, her neck is very short, her shoulders are wide, during the
cytogenetic analysis the one X-chromosome was found, the girl has normal intellectual
development. What disease does the girl have?
a) Turner’s syndrome. CORRECT
b) Down’s syndrome.
c) C.Patau syndrome.
d) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
70. Alkaptonuria is inherited as an autosomalrecessive feature. Parents with a normal phenotype
have a baby with alkaptonuria. What genotype do these parents have?
a) AA and AA.
b) AA and Aa.
c) Aa and aa.
d) Aa and Aa. CORRECT
71. A teenager with the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome came for advice to a
genetic consultation. What genetic method does the doctor have to apply to make a correct
diagnosis?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
c) Study of twins.
d) Population-statistical.
72. During the analysis of the woman’s buccal mucosa epithelium cells no sexual chromatin was
found. Which of the below mentioned diseases can it be?
a) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
b) Down’s syndrome.
c) Turner’s syndrome. CORRECT
d) Patau syndrome.
73. A patient has mental defi ciency, a short stature, and the Mongolian type of the eyelid fold.
The microscopical examination of the patient’s karyotype revealed the presence of trisomy on
the 21st chromosome. What do we call the disease which is caused by this chromosomal
abnormality?
a) Down’s syndrome. CORRECT
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
c) Edward’s syndrome.
d) Patau syndrome.
74. In a family pedigree hypertrichosis (excessive pilosis of the auricle) is observed. This feature
appears in each generation and is typical only of men. What type of inheritance does this feature
have?
a) Autosomal-dominant.
b) Y-linked. CORRECT
c) Dominant, X-linked.
d) Recessive, X-linked.
75. During the cytogenetic analysis in the cells of an abortive fetus only 44 chromosomes were
found due to the absence of both chromosomes from the 3rd pair. What type of mutation
occured?
a) Monosomy.
b) Chromosomal aberration.
c) Polyploidy.
d) Nullisomy. CORRECT
76. means of the cytogenetic analysis the karyotype 47, XX, 13+ of a child with plural defects of
the skull, extremities, and internal organs was determined. What syndrome did the baby have?
a) Edward’s syndrome.
b) Patau syndrome. CORRECT
c) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
d) Down’s syndrome.
77. A baby has following pathology: anomaly of the lower jaw and the larynx development
accompanied by voice changes resembling a cat’s cry. Moreover, the baby has microcephaly,
heart trouble, and four fi ngers. A likely cause of such anomaly is the deletion of:
a) Short arm of the 7th chromosome.
b) Short arm of the 9th chromosome.
c) C.Short arm of the 5th chromosome. CORRECT
d) Short arm of the 21st chromosome.
78. During the examination of a newborn the diagnosis of Down’s syndrome was made. What is
the main cause of this pathology?
a) Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
b) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome. CORRECT
c) Trisomy on X-chromosome.
d) Monosomy on the 1st chromosome.
79. The male karyotype is 47, XXY He has endocrine hypertrophy development of testicles and
absence of spermatogenesis. What disease do these symptoms suggest?
a) Patau syndrome.
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome. CORRECT
c) C.Turner’s syndrome.
d) Down’s syndrome.
80. A child, ill with hemophilia, has been born to healthy parents, but the mother’s grandfather
had hemophilia, too. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a) Autosomal-recessive.
b) Dominant, X-linked.
c) Recessive, X-linked. CORRECT
d) Autosomal-dominant.
81. Under the infl uence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a chromosome is lost. What
chromosomal mutation is it?
a) Deletion. CORRECT
b) Duplication.
c) Inversion.
d) Intrachromosomal translocation.
82. Under the infl uence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a chromosome is turned by 180°.
What chromosomal mutation has taken place?
a) Duplication.
b) Deletion.
c) Inversion. CORRECT
d) Interchromosomal translocation.
83. During the inspection of a girl’s karyotype a shortened arm of the 20th pair of chromosome
was found. How do we call this mutation?
a) Deletion. CORRECT
b) Inversion.
c) Translocation.
d) Monosomy on the 20th chromosome.
84. A patient has phenylpyruvic acid in the blood and urine. Based on this the diagnosis of
phenylketonuria is made. What genetic method is used?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Population-statistical.
c) Biochemical. CORRECT
d) Imunological.
85. In a maternity hospital a child with numerous development anomalies of the internal organs,
such as the heart, kidneys, digestive system, was born, doctor suspected Edward’s syndrome.
What genetic method can confi rm these diagnosis?
a) Biochemical.
b) Dermatoglyphic.
c) Pedigree analysis.
d) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
86. In a cytogenetic laboratory the karyotype of a healthy man was studied. 46 chromosomes
were seen in each somatic cell. How many autosomes does each cell include?
a) 23.
b) 22.
c) 44. CORRECT
d) 46.
87. In a maternity hospital a child with numerous development anomalies was diagnosed with
Patau syndrome. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
a) Pedigree analysis.
b) Biochemical.
c) Population-statistical.
d) Cytogenetic. CORRECT
88. In the genetic consultation a provisional diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome of a 14-year old girl
was made. What karyotype does the girl have?
a) 47,XY,13+.
b) 46, XX.
c) 47, XXY.
d) 45, X0. CORRECT
89. The pathologoanatomic inspection of a newborn boy’s dead body showed the following
abnormalities: polydactily, microcephaly, a cleft lip and cleft palate, hypertrophy of the
parenchymal organs. These symptoms are typical of Patau syndrome. What is the cause of this
disease?
a) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
b) Trisomy on the 18th chromosome.
c) Trisomy on the 13th chromosome. CORRECT
d) Trisomy on X-chromosome.
90. What are possible karyotype formulae for girl with Down syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+
b) 47, XY, 21+, 46, XY t15q21q
c) 46, XX t15q21q, 47, XX, 21+ CORRECT
d) 46, XY t15q21q
91. What are possible karyotype formulas for boy with Down syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+
b) 47, XY, 21+, 46, XYt15q21q CORRECT
c) 46, XX t15q21q, 47, XX, 21+
d) 46, XY t15q21q
92. What is the karyotype formula for girl with Patau syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 18+
b) 47, XX, 18+, 46, XX t15q18q
c) 47, XX, 13+, 46, XX t15q13q CORRECT
d) 47, XX, 21+, 46, XX t15q21q
93. What is the karyotype formula for girl with Edward syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 47, XY, 18+; 46, XY t15q18q
c) 47, XX, 18+; 46, XX t15q18q CORRECT
d) 46, XX, 5p94. What are possible karyotype formulae for persons with Klinefelter syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 47, XY, 21+; 46, XY t15q21q
c) 47, XXY; 48 XXXY CORRECT
d) 46, XX, 5p95. What is the karyotype formula for girl with cru-di-chat syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 46, XX, 5p- CORRECT
c) 46, XY, 5pd)
47, XXX
96. What is karyotype formula for person with Turner syndrome?
a) 47, XX, 18+
b) 45, XO CORRECT
c) 47, XXX
d) 47, XXY, 48 XXXY
97. What is the karyotype formula for boy with Edward syndrome?
a) 47, XY, 21+; 46, XX t15q21q
b) 47, XY, 18+; 46, XY t15q18q CORRECT
c) 47, XX, 13+; 46, XX t15q13q
d) 45, XO
98. Which form of gene interactions is characterized that heterozygous phenotype intermediate
between the two homozygous?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance CORRECT
c) continuous variation (polimery)
d) codominance
99. Which form of gene interactions is the manifestation in heterozygous state traits, which are
defined by two genes?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) superdominance
d) codominance CORRECT
100. Which form of gene interactions is an interaction between the products of two genes in
which each of them gives characteristic phenotype in the end?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) complementarity CORRECT
d) codominance
101. Which form of gene interactions makes an organism not viable?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) superdominance CORRECT
d) codominance
102. Which form of gene interactions is present when one allelic gene in heterozygous
completely masks the other allelic gene?
a) complete dominance CORRECT
b) incomplete dominance
c) superdominance
d) codominance
103. Which form of gene interactions is characterized that different dominant non-allele’s genes
affect on one trait, making it more expressive?
a) complete dominance
b) incomplete dominance
c) continuous variation (polimery) CORRECT
d) codominance
104. What type of inheritance is if trait can affect both sexes (female and male) and the trait is
viable in each generation?
a) autosomal-dominant CORRECT
b) autosomal-recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) Y-linked.
105. What type of inheritance is if trait can pass only from father to their sons?
a) autosomal-recessive
b) X-linked recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) Holandric inheritance (Y-linked) CORRECT
106. What type of inheritance is if trait is not appeared in each generation and is usually for
children born in consanguineous marriages?
a) autosomal-dominant
b) autosomal-recessive CORRECT
c) X-linked recessive
d) X-linked dominant
107. What type of inheritance is if trait is appeared in sons of a carrier mothers?
a) autosomal-dominant
b) X-linked recessive CORRECT
c) X-linked dominant
d) Y-linked
108. What type of inheritance is if trait is affects mostly females and an affected father passes the
trait to his daughters only?
a) autosomal-dominant
b) X-linked Recessive
c) X-linked dominant CORRECT
d) Y-linked
109. In maize there are 10 pairs of homologous chromosomes. How many linkage groups does
maize have?
a) 20
b) 10 CORRECT
c) 5
d) 2
110. In garden pea there are 7 pairs of homologous chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does garden pea have?
a) 14
b) 10
c) 7 CORRECT
d) 3,5
111. The gene of prostate gland cancer is located in the X-chromosome. Which type of trait does
it form? Indicate the irrefragable answer, please.
a) Sex-limited
b) Both sex-linked and sex-influenced
c) Both sex-linked and sex-limited CORRECT
d) Both sex-limited and sex-infl uenced
112. Healthy man is married woman whose father was colour-blind. What is the probability their
child will be healthy?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75% CORRECT
113. Curly hair is incompletely dominant over the strait hair. Heterozygous individuals have
wavy hair. What is the probability of wavy-haired children birth if both parents have wavy hair
too?
a) 25%
b) 50% CORRECT
c) 75%
d) 100%
114. In human Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder (h— allele of the haemophilia,
H—allele of the normal blood clotting). Healthy woman whose father has haemophilia marries a
healthy man. What is the probability their child will have haemophilia?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
115. Skin colour is quantitative trait, that are controlled by two pairs of genes A1, A2,a1, a2. A
woman with white skin married a mediumbrown man. What is the probability of their child
having a white skin?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
116. What is the probability of birth a male offspring who is color-blind with I blood group if
parents have normal color vision and II blood group. Color-blindness is sex-linked recessive
trait.
a) ¼
b) 1/8
c) 1/16 CORRECT
d) 2/16
117. Polydactyly (extra fingers and toes) is dominant trait in humans. A heterozygous woman
has polydactyly and brown eyes. The man has 5 fingers and blue eyes. The genes for these traits
assort independently. What is the probability that their child will have the same genotype as
mother?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
118. Absents of the sweat glands in human is determined by recessive gene, which is located in
X-chromosome. Healthy man marries a heterozygous woman. What is the probability of the
disease be revealed in offspring?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
119. In human Brown tooth syndrome is a sex-linked dominant disorder, genes of blood group
inheritance are located in autosomes. The woman with Brown tooth syndrome and II group
blood, whose father has I group blood and white tooth married man with white tooth I group
blood. What is the possibility of the father’s both signs to be inherited by their child?
a) 25% CORRECT
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
120. In human Vitamin D-resistant rickets is a sex-linked dominant disorder (ХR – vitamin Dresistant rickets, Xr - normal metabolism of vitamin D). Healthy woman marries a man with
vitamin D-resistant rickets. What is the probability that their child will have these disease?
a) 25%
b) 50% CORRECT
c) 75%
d) 0%
121. In human alkaptonuria is recessive disorder. A homozygous woman with normal
metabolism marries a diseased man. What are the chances that their children will be with
alkaptonuria?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 0% CORRECT
TESTS FOR GROUNDING IN MODULE 3
1. Parents with ill child came to the doctor. Theyvworked in one of the Asian countries for a long
time. Child has earthy colored skin, loss of appetite, laxity, enlarged liver, spleen, peripheral
glands. What protozoan illness can this child have?
a) Visceral leishmaniasis
b) Balantidiasis
c) Toxoplasmosis
d) Lambliasis
e) Amebiasis
2. In laboratory are feces with an impurity of blood of the patient with amoebic dysentery. What
forms of Entamoeba histolytica can be revealed?
a) Cyst with 2 nuclei
b) Eggs
c) Cyst with 6 nuclei
d) Cyst with 1 nuclei
e) Cyst with 4 nuclei
3. In infectious hospital comes the patient with the complaints to an often-liquid stool and pain in
the fi eld of a stomach. Stool examination has revealed vegetative form of amoeba by size 15
microns without erythrocytes incorporations. Faces have placed in a refrigerator and in day 10
microns in diameter cysts have come. Every cyst had 4 nuclei. What kind of amoebas is the
parasite of the patient?
a) Balantidium
b) Lamblia
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Trichomonas
e) Intestinal amoeba
4. At the student, which has returned from Central Asia, on the face has appeared crimson
papule. In 10 days papule has turned to ulcer. What protozoa disease can be suspected?
a) Balantidiasis
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) Skin leishmaniasis
d) Lambliasis
e) Amebiasis
5. The domestic fly transfers cysts of Giardia lamblia and Amoebae on their legs. What is the
name of this host type?
a) Reservoir
b) Intermediate
c) Final
d) Speifi c
e) Mechanical
6. At the patient with pain in duodenum and gall bladder area, 2-4 nuclear oval half moonshaped
cysts 10-14 microns in size were revealed during stool examination. What protozoa disease do
patient has?
a) Lambliasis
b) Balantidiuasis
c) Amebiasis
d) Trichomonosis
e) Leishmaniasis
7. Sick men has addressed to the doctor with symptoms of an inflammation of urogenital ways.
In smear from vagina mucous oval-pearshaped protozoa with axostyle on the end of a body,
large nucleus and undulating membrane are revealed. Put the laboratory diagnosis.
a) Balantidiasis
b) Lambliasis
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Enterobiasis
e) Ascariasis
8. In hospital have brought the patient with the complaints to a headache, pain in left
hypochondrium. He is sick for 1,5 weeks. The illness began sharply from increase of temperature
of a body up to 39,90 C. In 3 hours has decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat
rhythmically in every 48 hours. The patient was at excursion in one of the African countries. The
doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory diagnosticss is necessary for using?
a) Blood examination
b) Immunological tests
c) Stool examination
d) Examination of vaginal and urethral
discharge
e) Urine examination
9. In hospital have brought the patient with the complaints to a headache, pain in left
hypochondrium. He is sick for 4,5 weeks. The illness began sharply from increase of temperature
of a body up to 39,90 C. In 3 hours has decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat
rhythmically everyone 72 hours. The patient was at excursion in one of the African countries.
The physician has suspected “malaria”. What kind of Plasmodium can be assumed?
a) Plasmodium falciparum
b) Plasmodium vivax
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium ovale
e) Plasmodium minuta
10. At the woman the dead child with infringements of development was born. What protozoa
disease can cause destruction of a fetus?
a) Balantidium
b) Lamblia
c) Trichomonas
d) Intestinal amoeba
e) Toxoplasma
11. At the three-year child temperature sharply has risen, have appeared pneumonia, diarrhea,
increase of a liver and spleen. At the cat, which lived at the patient, some time ago the eyes are
sick, and then she has lost sight. What disease can be assumed at the child?
a) Toxoplasma
b) Balantidium
c) Lamblia
d) Trichomonas
e) Intestinal amoeba
12. The working woman of pig farm has addressed to the doctor with the complaints to a pain in
a stomach, often stool with an impurity of blood and slime, reduction of appetite, loss of weight.
What protozoa disease can cause such symptoms?
a) Toxoplasma
b) Lamblia
c) Balantidium
d) Trichomonas
e) Intestinal amoeba
13. The man in feces has slime, blood, the protozoa 30-200 microns of length is revealed. The
body is covered by cilias, has oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide round
shaped back end. On the forward end mouth is visible. In cytoplasm are two nucleuses and two
short vacuoles. For whom the described attributes are characteristic?
a) Balantidium
b) Lamblia
c) Dysenteric amoeba
d) Trichomonas
e) Intestinal amoeba
14. In three weeks after mission in India, the journalist’s temperature of the body has sharply
increased in the morning, being accompanied with shivering and bad headache. In some hours
the temperature has decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. The diagnosis – tropical
malaria was made. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for anopheles-female?
a) Gametocytes
b) Shizontes
c) Merozoites
d) Microgamete
e) Sporozoites
15. The child had vomiting, nausea and the pains in the right hypochondrium. In stool
examination oval-shaped cysts (8-14 μm) with 2-4 nuclei have been found out. What disease can
be suspected in the patient?
a) Amoebiasis
b) Тrichomoniasis
c) Trypanosomiasis
d) Leishmaniasis
e) Giardiasis
16. To the patient the preliminary diagnosis of genitourinary trichomoniasis was made. For
specification of the diagnosis it is necessary to:
a) Find out vegetative form in feces
b) Find out vegetative form in urethral discharge
c) Find out vegetative form in blood
d) Find out cysts in feces
e) Make serological tests
17. A woman gave birth to a child with fatal disorders of development. What protozoa might
have been the cause of fetus death?
a) Toxoplasma gondii
b) Plasmodium vivax
c) Lamblia intestinalis
d) Leishmania donovani
e) Trichomonas vaginalis
18. Patients with similar complaints applied to the doctor: weakness, pain in the intestines,
disorder of GIT. Examination of the faeces revealed that one patient with four nucleus cysts
should be hospitalized immidiately. For what protozoa are such cysts typical?
a) Dysenteric amoeba
b) Balantidium
c) Lamblia
d) Trichomonas
e) Intestinal amoeba
19. In some regions of the world the cases of malaria became more frequent. What insect is a
carrier of the agent of malaria?
a) Culex mosquito.
b) Phlebotomus sandfl y.
c) Simulium black fl y.
d) Anopheles mosquito.
e) Aedes mosquito.
20. A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion, frequent cases of bloody diarrhea (3 — 5 times a day). Laboratory analysis showed
that the patient’s feces contained vegetative forms of protozoans with an unstable body shape.
Their cytoplasm contained food vacuoles with erythrocytes. What representative of Protozoa was
found in the patient’s feces?
a) Giardia intestinalis.
b) Balantidium coli.
c) Entamoeba coli.
d) Trichomonas vaginalis.
e) Entamoeba histolytica.
21. A patient with bile ducts inflammation was admitted to a gastrointestinal department. In the
bile ducts the pear-shaped protozoans with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of fl agella were found. What
protozoan disease did the patient have?
a) Giardiasis.
b) Toxoplasmosis.
c) Balantidiasis.
d) Trichomoniasis.
e) Amebiasis.
22. A patient with attacks of wasting fever and the body temperature rising up to 40° C was
admitted to an infectious department of a hospital. The attacks repeated rhythmically every 48
hours. It was known from anamnesis that the patient had recently returned from South Africa
where he had been staying for 3 years. What was the causative organism of the disease?
a) Agent of Gambian trypanosomiasis.
b) Agent of giardiasis.
c) Agent of four-days’ malaria.
d) Agent of toxoplasmosis.
e) Agent of three-days’ malaria.
23. Cysts with 8 nuclei were found in the feces examined through a microscope. Which
protozoans did those cysts belong to?
a) Balantidium coli.
b) Entamoeba coli.
c) Giardia intestinalis.
d) Trichomonas hominis.
e) Toxoplasma gondii.
24. Some antelopes were brought to the Kyiv zoo from Africa. Trypanosoma gambiense were
found in their blood. Are these antelopes epidemically dangerous?
a) Dangerous to domestic animals and human.
b) Dangerous only to human.
c) Are not epidemically dangerous at all.
d) Dangerous to other antelopes.
e) Dangerous only to predators.
25. Having returned from Turkmenia, a patient with ulcers on his face came to a doctor. The
doctor diagnosed cutaneous leishmaniasis. How did the disease agent get into the patient’s
organism?
a) By the inoculable way.
b) By the respiratory way.
c) By a direct contact.
d) By a sexual contact.
e) By food.
26. Cysts were found in the feces of a restaurant worker. They had 4 nuclei of the same size.
Which of the protozoans did the cysts belong to?
a) Entamoeba coli.
b) Balantidium coli.
c) Entamoeba histolytica.
d) Trichomonas vaginalis.
e) Toxoplasma gondii.
27. During the examination of duodenal aspirates of a patient with indigestion pear-shaped
protozoans measuring 10 — 18 micrometers with 4 pairs of flagella were found. High power
magnification shows 2 symmetrically placed nuclei.
Which of the protozoan parasitized within the patient’s body?
a) Entamoeba coli.
b) Entamoeba histolytica.
c) Trichomonas hominis.
d) Giardia intestinalis.
e) Balantidium coli.
28. A patient has typical symptoms of malaria: wasting fever, exhaustion. These attacks repeat
after certain intervals of time. What stage of Plasmodium is in the patient’s blood?
a) Ookinete.
b) Oocysts.
c) Sporozoites.
d) Sporocysts.
e) Merozoites.
29. A doctor is staying in one of Asian countries taking care of 10-year-old sick children. The
symptoms of the disease are: exhaustion, fever, anemia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, there
are a lot of mosquitoes in country; the children are likely sick with:
a) Visceral leishmaniasis.
b) Balantidiasis.
c) Toxoplasmosis.
d) Giardiasis.
e) Amebiasis.
30. In the feces of a person ill with chronic colitis round cysts with 4 nuclei, 10 micrometers in
diameter were found. Which of the protozoans do they belong to?
a) Entamoeba gingivalis.
b) Entamoeba coli.
c) Entamoeba histolytica.
d) Giardia intestinalis.
e) Balantidium coli.
31. A patient with a provisional diagnosis of liver abscess was delivered to surgical department
of a hospital. The patient was staying in Ukraine. He had stomach disorder, indigestion, and
frequent bloody diarrhea. The patient hadn’t consulted a doctor before. Which protozoan illness
could the patient be ill with?
a) Malaria.
b) Trypanosomiasis.
c) Leishmaniasis.
d) Amebiasis.
e) Toxoplasmosis.
32. The parents of an ill boy have borne to consult an infectious disease doctor. The family has
lived in an Asian country for a while, where there are a lot of mosquitoes. The boy’s skin is of
dark color. He has a bad appetite, malaise, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, and peripheral
lymph nodes enlargement. Which protozoan illness are these symptoms typical of?
a) Giardiasis.
b) Balantidiasis.
c) Amebiasis.
d) Toxoplasmosis.
e) Visceral leishmaniasis.
33. A female patient with symptoms of the inflammatory process of urogenital apparatus had
large unicellular organisms observed in the vagina smear. The cell bodies of the organisms are
pear-shaped with a pointed posterior part, a large nucleus, and an undulating membrane. What
protozoans have been found in the smear?
a) Trichomonas vaginalis.
b) Trichomonas hominis.
c) Toxoplasma gondii.
d) Trypanosoma gambiense.
e) Giardia intestinalis.
34. A woman who had two miscarriages came to a women’s consultating centre. Which
protozoan illness could provoke the miscarriages?
a) Balantidiasis.
b) Trichomoniasis.
c) Toxoplasmosis.
d) Giardiasis.
e) Amebiasis.
35. During the examination of a patient a doctor found small ulcers with rough edges on the
patient’s skin. The patient had just returned from an Asian country where there were a lot of
mosquitoes. What disease can be suspected?
a) Trypanosomiasis.
b) Toxoplasmosis.
c) Malaria.
d) Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
e) Scabies.
36. A patient was taken to a hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion. The feces examination revealed large cysts and vegetative forms of ciliated
protozoa. Which protozoan are these features most typical of?
a) Giardia intestinalis.
b) Entamoeba coli.
c) Balantidium coli.
d) Entamoeba gingivalis.
e) Entamoeba histolytica.
37. Which host gives to parasite to get a sexual maturation?
a) The last one
b) Intermediate host
c) Definitive host
d) The fi rst one
e) Additional host
38. Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is pathogenic in human being?
a) The last one
b) Forma minuta
c) Forma magna
d) The fi rst one
e) Cyst
39. Which host carries larval parasitic stages?
a) The last one
b) Intermediate host
c) Defi nitive host
d) The fi rst one
e) Additional host
40. Which stage of Balantidium coli is infective for humans?
a) The last one
b) Forma minuta
c) Forma magna
d) The fi rst one
e) Cyst
41. Mosquitoes bites caused appearance of ulcers on the human skin; the ulcers were observed
under microscope. The ulcer’s contents analysis revealed nonfl agelated protozoans. What
disease is this?
a) Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
b) Visceral leishmaniasis.
c) Malaria.
d) Scabies.
e) Myiasis.
42. A patient complained of general weakness, bad appetite, and nausea. After the examination
in the duodenal aspirates pear-shaped protozoans with 4 pairs of flagella and two nuclei were
found. Which disease could the patient be ill with?
a) Trichomoniasis.
b) Leishmaniasis.
c) Giardiasis.
d) Toxoplasmosis.
e) Malaria.
43. The examination of a patient showed that he had toxoplasmosis. Which material was used for
diagnosing of the disease?
a) Feces.
b) Blood.
c) Urine.
d) Duodenal contents.
e) Phlegm.
44. A woman gave birth to a dead baby with a lot of failures of development. What protozoan
disease could cause the fetus’s death?
a) Malaria.
b) Amebiasis.
c) Toxoplasmosis.
d) Leishmaniasis.
e) Giardiasis.
45. In the woman’s anamnesis there were two miscarriages. The third pregnancy ended in a birth
of a baby with a lot of malformations (upper extremities were absent and lower extremities were
underdeveloped). The presence of what protozoans in the woman’s body could cause such
abnormalities?
a) Entamoeba histolytica.
b) Giardia intestinalis.
c) Balantidium coli.
d) Trichomonas hominis.
e) Toxoplasma gondii.
46. During the checkup of restaurant workers doctors often notice assymptomatic parasitosis: a
totally healthy person is a carrier of cysts which infect other people. The parasitism of which
parasites makes it possible?
a) Entamoeba histolytica.
b) Plasmodium vivax.
c) Trypanosoma gambiense.
d) Leishmania donovani.
e) Leishmania infantum.
MEDICAL HELMINTHOLOGY
48. A 35-year-old man came to a doctor complaining of epigastric pain. As it appeared, the
patient was fond of fishing and often ate raw fish. Eggs of helminths were found in the patient’s
feces. The eggs were dark and ovalshaped with an operculum on one of the poles, 30x15
micrometers in size. Which helminthosis did the patient have?
a) Opisthorchiasis.
b) Paragonimiasis.
c) Fascioliasis.
d) Schistosomiasis.
e) Ancylostomiasis.
49. A hunter drank raw water from a pond. Which of helminthosis may the man get?
a) Opisthorchiasis.
b) Fascioliasis.
c) Paragonimiasis.
d) Clonorchiasis.
e) Taeniasis.
50. During the examination a patient was diagnosed with opisthorchiasis. With what food could
the patient get the agent of opisthorchiasis?
a) Cysticercosis beef.
b) Dirty vegetables.
c) Cysticercosis pork.
d) Dirty fruit.
e) Undercooked fish.
51. A helminth 2 m long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The helminth’s
body consists segments, has a little head with hook and four suckers. Which helminth did the
patient have?
a) Taenia solium.
b) Taenia saginata.
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Ehinococcus granulosus.
e) Diphyllobothrium latum
52. A helminth 10 m long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The
helminth’s body consists segments, has a little head with suckers. Which helminth did the patient
have?
a) Taenia solium.
b) Taenia saginata.
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Ehinococcus granulosus.
e) Diphyllobothrium latum
53. A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found in
his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7—12 lateral branches. Which helminth does the patient
have?
a) Diphyllobothrium latum.
b) Taenia saginata.
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Taenia solium.
e) Echinococcus granulosus.
54. A patient came to a doctor complaining of general weakness and indigestion. He brought
segments of a tape worm found on his bedclothes. Which of the helminths did the patient have?
a) Hymenolepis nana.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Taenia saginata.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum.
e) Echinococcus granulosus.
55. During the microscopy of the scrape of the anal mucosa of a child assymmetric colorless
eggs were found. Which helminth did those eggs belong to?
a) Ancylostoma duodenale.
b) Ascaris lumbricoides.
c) Enterobius vermicularis.
d) Trichocephalus trichiurus.
e) Hymenolepis nana.
56. During the operation white helminths 40 mm long with a thin fi liform anterior part of the
body were found in the appendix. After the preliminarily examination of the patient’s feces ovalshaped eggs with two prominent plugs on the poles were found. What helminth was found
during the operation?
a) Ancylostoma duodenale.
b) Enterobius vermicularis.
c) Ascaris lumbricoides.
d) Trichocephalus trichiurus.
e) Strongyloides stercoralis.
57. It is well known that some of the helminths at the larval stage parasitize in the muscles of
fish. What helminthosis may a person get if he eats raw fish?
a) Ascariasis.
b) Taeniasis.
c) Enterobiasis.
d) Trichinosis.
e) Diphyllobothriasis.
58. A worker of a live-stock farm was made a provisional diagnosis of echinococcosis. The
diagnosis was confi rmed during a surgery. From what animal could the patient get the disease?
a) A sheep.
b) A pig.
c) A dog.
d) A rabbit.
e) A caw.
59. A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found in
his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7—12 lateral branches. Which helminth does the patient
have?
a) Diphyllobothrium latum.
b) Taenia saginata.
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Taenia solium.
e) Echinococcus granulosus.
60. After the dissection of a woman’s pad body larvae of helminths — cysticerci were found in
the tissue of the brain. Which helminth did the larvae belong to?
a) Alveococcus multilocularis.
b) Taenia saginata.
c) Echinococcus granulosus.
d) Hymenolepis nana.
e) Taenia solium.
61. A woman came to a doctor complaining of general weakness, epigastic pain and indigestion.
After the examination j of the patient anemia concerned with vitamin B12 defi ciency was found.
It was known from anamnesis that living
in the Far East she used to eat caviar. Laboratory analysis showed that the feces contained eggs
of helminth which were oval-shaped, yellow, and had an operculum on one of the poles. What
disease did the patient have?
a) Taeniasis.
b) Echinococcosis.
c) Diphyllobothriasis.
d) Trichinosis.
e) Ascariasis.
62. A child doesn’t sleep well; sometimes he scratches the area around the anus. After the
examination of the child’s nightwear white filiform helminths 1 cm long were found. During the
microscopic examination of a specimen from perianal folds of the child small ovoid
asymmetrical colourless eggs were observed. What is the helminth, which parasitizes in the
child’s organism, called?
a) Trichinella spiralis.
b) Ascaris lumhricoides.
c) Strongyloides stercoralis.
d) Enterobius vermicularis.
e) Trichocephalus trichiurus.
63. Fragments of a helminth were found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. These
fragments had a tape like segmented structure. The width of the segments exceeded their length.
In the centre of the segment there was a rosette-shaped uterus. Which helminth did the patient
have?
a) Diphyllobothrium latum.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Taenia saginata.
d) Alveococcus multilocularis.
e) Hymenolepis nana.
64. A sick child had recurrent diarrhea, epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting. Once after the child’s
vomiting his mother found a spindleshaped helminth 20 cm long. Which disease could cause
such a condition?
a) Trichuriasis.
b) Ascariasis.
c) Ancylostomiasis.
d) Dracunculiasis.
e) Trichinosis.
65. A microscopy revealed yellow-brown knobby-coated eggs of helminths with a thick wall in
the feces of a schoolboy. Which helminth did the eggs belong to?
a) Trichocephalus trichiurus.
b) Enterobius vermicularis.
c) Ascaris lumhricoides.
d) Hymenolepis nana.
e) Diphyllobothrium latum.
66. A mother of a 5-year-old girl found filiform helminths 0.5 — 1 cm long with sharp tips on
the child’s nightwear. She brought them to a laboratory. Which disease did these parasites cause?
a) Ascariasis.
b) Diphyllobothriasis.
c) Taeniasis.
d) Enterobiasis.
e) Opisthorchiasis.
67. The treatment of a patient with pneumonia didn’t relieve his condition. He began
complaining of stomachache, vomiting, indigestion, worsening of his general state. The analysis
of the feces revealed oval-shaped helminth’s eggs covered with a thick tuberculate envelope.
What diagnosis can be made basing on the above mentioned data?
a) Fascioliasis.
b) Trichuriasis.
c) Diphyllobothriasis.
d) Enterobiasis.
e) Ascariasis.
68. A woman came to a doctor complaining of indigestion. In her feces fl atworm white mving
segments constantly appeared. Laboratory examination revealed that they were long, narrow
proglottids with a longitudinal canal of the uterus which had 17 — 35 lateral branches on each
side. Which of the helminths did the woman have in her intestines?
a) Hymenolepis nana.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Taenia saginata.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum.
e) Echinococcus granulosus.
69. During the checkup of school girls colorless asymmetric oval eggs with larvae inside were
found in the scrape of perianal folds of a 10-year-old girl. What disease does it indicate?
a) Amebiasis.
b) Ascariasis.
c) Enterobiasis.
d) Trichuriasis.
e) Ancylostomiasis.
70. A 35-year-old man was taken to the hospital. He failed to see with one of his eyes. It was
known from anamnesis that he used to eat pork. After the radiologic examination and serologic
findings he was diagnosed with cysticercosis. What helminth is an agent of cysticercosis?
a) Taenia saginata.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Trichocephalus trichiurus.
d) Trichinella spiralis.
e) Diphyllobothrium latum.
71. A patient, who came to Ukraine from Australia, consulted a doctor complaining of pain
during urination. The analysis of his day urine specimens revealed large terminally spined eggs.
What helminth did the patient have?
a) Opisthorchis felineus.
b) Schistosoma mansoni.
c) Schistosoma japonicum.
d) Schistosoma haematobium.
e) Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
72. During the examination of a man who has recently come back from Africa schistosomiasis is
diagnosed. How could the pathogenic organism penetrate into the organism of the patient?
a) While eating pork.
b) While eating fi sh.
c) While swimming in the river.
d) Through dirty hands.
e) In case of mosquitos’ bites.
73. A tourist who was staying in Eastern Asia had been hospitalized to a therapeutic department
with suspected pneumonia. During the examinationof the patient’s sputum and feces the eggs of
Paragonimus ringeri were found. With what food could the patient get the pathogenic organism?
a) Undercooked crabs.
b) Unboiled water.
c) Undercooked fi sh.
d) Undercooked pork.
e) Dirty fruit and vegetables.
74. Larvae of roundworms (Nematoda) have been found in the sputum of a patient with the
provisional diagnosis of pneumonia. What species of the roundworm is this?
a) Fasciola hepatica.
b) Paragonimus ringeri.
c) Ascaris lumbricoides.
d) Taenia solium.
e) Echinococcus granulosus.
75. A patient came to a stomatological department complaining of pain in the chewing muscles.
It was known from anamnesis that he was fond of hunting and often ate meat of wild animals.
The encysted larva of what parasite was found in the result of muscle biopsy of the patient?
a) Ancylostoma duodenale.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Dracunculus medinensis.
d) Trichinella spiralis.
e) Wuchereria bancrofti.
76. What type of host are human beings for Fasciola hepatica?
a) Intermediate
b) Definitive
c) Panxenous
d) Monoxenous
e) Reserve
77. What type of host are human beings for Opisthorhis felineus?
a) Intermediate
b) Definitive
c) Panxenous
d) Monoxenous
e) Reserve
78. What host for Himenolepis nana human is?
a) Defi nitive
b) Intermediate
c) Both definitive and intermediate
d) Reservoir
e) First
79. What is the first intermediate host for Difillobotrium latum?
a) Fish
b) Crustaceans
c) Snail
d) Human
e) Bear
80. What is the source of broad tapeworm ingestion for humans?
a) Water
b) It passes with the contaminated hands
c) Fish
d) Pork
e) Beef
81. What host are human beings for E. granulosus?
a) First
b) Last
c) Intermediate
d) Definitive
e) Reservoirs
82. What vectors are responsible for the lymphatic filariasis transmitting?
a) Mosquitoes
b) Blackflies
c) Deerflies
d) Ticks
e) Midges
83. What roundworms listed below can invade human body actively by themselves?
a) Shistosoma mansoni
b) Strongiloides stercoralis
c) Onchocerca volvulis
d) Ancylostoma duodenale
e) Necator americanus
84. What vectors are responsible for the subcutaneous filariasis transmitting?
a) Mosquitoes
b) Blackflies
c) Deerflies
d) Ticks
e) Midges
ARAHNOENTOMOLOGY
85. Grey insects measuring 1 - 1.2 mm with a short wide body covered with setae were observed
on the pubis of some boys during the medical check up. What insects were these?
a) Sarcoptes scabiei.
b) Pulex irritans.
c) Pediculus humanus capitis.
d) Cimex lectularius.
e) Phthirus pubis.
86. Grey arthropods measuring 3 mm in length with three pairs of legs were found on a patient’s
head. The arthropods had deep incisures on each side of the body. What arthropods did the
patient have?
a) Sarcoptes scabiei.
b) Pulex irritans.
c) Pediculus humanus capitis.
d) Cimex lectularius.
e) Phthirus pubis.
87. Patient with itched rash between fingers and on abdomen came to the doctor. After
microscopic examination of his rash small roundish haired arthropods without eyes were found.
What disease may be diagnosed?
a) Ichtiosis
b) Demodicosis
c) Scabies
d) Pediculosis capitis
e) Pediculosis pubis
88. Single lady came to the doctor with her dog complaining of itching, inflammation of facial
skin, ruseola. After skin microscopic examination elongated mites without legs and eyes were
revealed in lady skin. What disease may be diagnosed in this case?
a) Ichtiosis
b) Demodicosis
c) Scabies
d) Pediculosis capitis
e) Pediculosis pubis
89. A child complained of itching in the occipital and temporal parts of the head. After the
examination of his head surface ulcers on the head skin and white nits on the hair were found.
What arthropod was parasitizing on the child’s head?
a) Wohlfahrtia fl y.
b) Body louse.
c) Human flea.
d) Head louse.
e) Crab louse.
90. А patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of rashes which appeared on his body and
legs skin surface. After their fl at’ sanitary-hygienic control black roundish insects about 8 mm
long were revealed which feeds on patient’ blood and cause rashes. What animal infected the
patient?
a) Follicle mite.
b) Itch mite.
c) Human flеа.
d) Bedbug.
e) Wohlfahrtia fl y.
91. А patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of ulcers which appeared on his face and neck
skin surface. After the laboratory examination of the ulcers mobile parasitic arachnids were
found. What animal infected the patient?
a) Follicle mite.
b) Itch mite.
c) Human flеа.
d) Bedbug.
e) Wohlfahrtia fly.
92. A patient came to a doctor with complaints of itchy skin especially between the fingers and
at the bottom of his abdomen. Sinuous passages with disseminations on their ends were found on
the patient’s skin. What disease did these symptoms point out?
a) Pediculosis.
b) Scabies.
c) Toxoplasmosis.
d) Malaria.
e) Myiasis
93 . A patient came to a doctor complaining of itching between the fingers and on the abdomen,
which intensified at night. After the examination of his skin rash and thin grey stripes were
found. What pathogenic organism could produce such symptoms?
a) Ixodes ricinus.
b) Sarcoptes scabiei.
c) Ornithodoros papillipes.
d) Dermacentor pictus.
e) Ixodes persulcatus.
94. A 40-year-old man who in a pisewalled house came to a laboratory. He found dark-grey
arthropods with a long oval body and a somewhat pointed front end in the wall chink. The mouth
apparatus of the arthropod were placed in the notch of the abdomen surface. The arthropod had 4
pairs of ambulatory legs, the sexual opening was placed at the level of the first pair of legs. What
arthropod is it?
a) Ixodes ricinus.
b) Ixodes persulcatus.
c) Ornithodoros papillipes.
d) Sarcoptes scabiei.
e) Dermacentor nuttalli
95. A man lives in the area of dermal leishmaniasis distribution. He hasn’t been inoculated
against this disease because of his having contraindication against it. What insects’ bites should
this man avoid?
a) Mosquitoes.
b) Fleas.
c) Gadflies.
d) Sandflies.
e) Stable flies.
96. Old patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of subcutaneous furunculoid and boillike
lesions. In these lesions white undeveloped creatures were found. What animal infected the
patient?
a) Follicle mite.
b) Itch mite.
c) Human flеа.
d) Bedbug.
e) Wohlfahrtia fly.
98. After the examination a patient was diagnosed with relapsing fever. How he could be
infected?
a) By means of a soft tick’s bite.
b) By means of an itch mite’s bite.
c) By means of a hard tick’s bite.
d) By means of a housefl y mite’s bite.
e) By means of a dog tick’s bite.
99. After the examination, а patient was diagnosed with Russian spring-summer encephalitis.
How was the patient infected?
a) By means of аn itch mite’s bite.
b) By means of а malaria mosquito’s bite
c) By means of а soft tick’s bite.
d) By means of а sand fl y’s bite.
e) By mеаns of а hard tick’s bite.
100. Patient with brain envelops inflammation was delivered to the hospital located in fieldforest zone. It was known this patient like hunting and sometimes eliminate from his body some
ticks. Can you suppose which arthropods have carried disease to this patient?
a) Argasidae tick
b) Ixodidae tick
c) Demodex folliculorum
d) Demodex brevis
e) Sarcoptes scabiei
101. Living in the slum dwelling in Primorskoe recreation department at the sea students found
after they waked up in the morning some tick on the body of their friend. Can you suppose which
arthropod it was?
a) Argasidae tick
b) Ixodidae tick
c) Demodex folliculorum
d) Demodex brevis
e) Sarcoptes scabiei
102. What amimals from listed below can transmit demodicosis to humans?
a) Anopheles mosquito
b) Glossina palpalis
c) Dogs
d) Black fl y
e) Musca domestica
103. What diseases are transmitted to humans by Anophelino mosquito?
a) Trench fever
b) Malaria
c) Dirofilariosis
d) Lymphatic filariasis
e) Subcutaneous filariasis
104. What diseases are transmitted to humans by Aedes and Culex mosquitoes?
a) Trench fever
b) Malaria
c) Dirofilariosis
d) Lymphatic filariasis
e) Subcutaneous filariasis
105. What is endoparasite?
a) Organism living on the host
b) Organism living in the host
c) Organism living with the host
d) Free-living individual
e) E. Organism living near the host
106. What is ectoparasite?
a) organism living on the host
b) Organism living in the host
c) Organism living with the host
d) Free-living individual
e) Organism living near the host
107. What is constant parasite?
a) Organism parasitizing on the other organism
b) Organism parasitizing on the other organism for the whole life
c) Organism living with the host
d) Free-living individual
e) Organism living near the host
RANKING OF STUDENTS’ MARKS AT CONCLUDING SESSION FOR MODULES:
During this Concluding session you would answer 40 tests among those listed above.
Each correct answer for the test would give you 2 scores. You can get maximum 80 scores
as a total result. Marks arrangement is listed below:
Mark Scores
“5” ( excellent) 71-80 scores
“4” (good) 61-70 scores
“3” (satisfactory) 50-60 scores
“2” (unsatisfactory) Less than 50 scores
If you have got less than 50 scores you have to repeat Concluding session for Module.