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BI 200 - Exam #2
Fall 2004
Name
Lab Section
Disclaimer
A. Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple
choice). You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have
merit, you may receive partial or full credit.
A. Multiple Choice - 1 point each
1. Biochemical synthesis of new cell material is called
a. metabolism
b. anabolism
c. catabolism
d. synthatabolism.
2. What is the oxidation number of the phosphorous atom in phosphoric acid, H3PO4?
a. -5
b. -2
c. 0
d. +2
e. +5
3. What is the average oxidation number of the carbon atoms in pyruvate, C3H4O3?
a. -1
b. -1/3
c. 0
d. +1/3
e. +1
4. In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference in
reduction potentials between the
a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor
b. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron acceptor
c. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor
d. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor
5. NADH is the most important _________ carrying molecule in the cell, while _______
is the most important energy high energy phosphate compound in living organisms
a. carbon ; CoA
b. electron ; ATP
c. energy; glucose
d. none of the above is correct
6. The oxidation of the six carbon atoms in glucose, C6H12O6, to 6 CO2 involves the
transfer of _____ electrons to 6 O2.
a. 0
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24
7. The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
8. In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is
a. hydrogen.
b. oxygen.
c. water.
d. ATP.
9. In chemiosmosis (establishment of a proton gradient)
a. OH- accumulates on the outside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the inside.
b. OH- accumulates on the inside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the outside.
c. Both OH- and H+ accumulate on the inside of the membrane.
d. Both OH- and H+ accumulate on the outside of the membrane.
10. As each molecule of pyruvate traverses the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of
CO2 are generated?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. When DNA or RNA is being synthesized the next nucleotide is added to the ______
of the existing chain
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5’ phosphate
3’ phosphate
2’ hydrogen
3’ hydroxyl
5’ hydroxyl
12. Supercoiling in prokaryotes is removed by ______________ which creates single
stranded breaks in the DNA
a. Topoisomerase I
b. DNA polymerase
c. Topoisomerase II
d. Gyrase
13. AT-rich DNA will melt
a. at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA
b. at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA
c. at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA
14. Which part of RNA polymerase in prokaryotes is responsible for recognizing the
promotor region?
a.  alpha
b.  beta
c.  sigma
d. core
15. If a bacterial chromosome contains 30% adenine bases, what will be the percent of
guanine?
a. 0%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
16. Some guys named Avery, McCarty, and McLeod studied DNA exchange among
bacteria and found that Dnase could inhibit the process. They were studying
a. Conjugation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Mutation
17. In conjugation genes on plasmids are transferred in matings between:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
two F- strains
F+ and F- cells
two F+ strains
a and b
b and c
18. Which of the following is not true about transformation?
a. Viruses are not involved.
b. The process is sensitive to the enzyme DNase.
c. DNA cannot be transferred between species.
d. The donor cell must be lysed before transfer can take place.
19. The exchange of homologous DNA molecules in general recombination requires:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
RecA protein
insertion sequences
topoisomerase I
virus
low levels of DNA homology
20. Which of the following bacteria are not naturally competent?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Escherichia
Streptococcus
Bacillus
Haemophilis
21. The type of bacterial virus which is covalently inserted into its host’s DNA is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
bacteriophage
temperate phage
macrophage
virulent phage
22. When lysogenized the bacterial host
a. is immune to further infection
b. may produce additional toxins as with diptheria and scarlet fever
c. can reproduce indefinitely
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
23. Of the following, the earliest of these proteins expressed during a lytic infection is
a.
b.
c.
d.
capsomere
tail fiber protein
lysozyme
DNA polymerase
24. Viruses may be as small as
a. 0.02 nm
b. 0.02 m
c. 0.02 mm
d. 0.02 inches
25. The virus that poses the largest health threat to human beings, in terms of number of
people that have died since 1900, is
a. HIV
b. rhabdovirus
c. orthomyxovirus
d. Ebola virus
26. Which of the following sequences is consistent with the order of events during a lytic
infection?
a. attachment, penetration, assembly, synthesis, release
b. attachment, synthesis, penetration, assembly, release
c. penetration, attachment, assembly, release, synthesis
d. attachment, penetration, synthesis, assembly, release
27. Which would be an early gene expressed in lytic infection by T4?
a. lysozyme
b. capsomere
c. tail fiber
d. DNA polymerase
28. Which virus shows an unusually broad host range and is considered a zoonose?
a. Rhabdovirus
b. Paramyxovirus
c. Parvovirus d. Hepatitis A
29. What type of virus causes SARS?
a. Picornavirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Corona virus
d. Rhabdovirus
30. Herpes virus causes all of the following except
a. Mononucleosis
b. Polio
c. Chicken pox
d. Cold sores
31. Which of the following is tumorogenic?
a. Ebola
b. HIV
c. Human papilloma virus
d. T4
32. Which of the following bacteriophage is helical?
a. Lambda
b. M13
c. T4
d. orthomyxovirus
33. Which of the following bacteriophage is temperate?
a. Lambda
b. M13
c. T4
d. orthomyxovirus
34. The life style exhibited by HIV is best described as
a. tumorogenic
b. lytic
c. persistant
d. latent
B. True or False (1 point each) Place the whole word True or the whole word False
before each of the following statements indicating their validity
1.___________ Transcription and translation are said to be coupled in prokaryotes.
2.___________ Eukaryotic genes contain non-coding regions called operons.
3.___________ Transcription is carried out by ribosomes
4.___________ RNA processing involves removal of 5’caps and 3’tails.
5.___________ DNA binding proteins attach to the major groove
6.___________ Supercoiling in prokaryotes does not involve histone protein
7.___________ Complementary strands of DNA are identical in base composition
8.___________ Codons are normally larger than transposons
9.___________ Introns occur in prokaryotic genes.
10.___________ A theta structure occurs in a partially replicated eukaryotic
chromosome.
11.___________ Mutations are errors during translation
12.___________ High copy number plasmids may reach 1000 per cell
13.__________ In some cases, plasmids can also mobilize chromosomal DNA and cause
its transfer from one cell to another.
14.__________ Female bacteria are turned into male bacteria after conjugation, but the
bacteria can be cured of maleness by loss of plasmid
15.__________ The virion replicates independently of the host
16.__________ In viruses DNA is always double stranded, while RNA is always single
stranded.
17.__________ The membrane of an enveloped virus is taken from the host cell
18. __________ Hepatitis B is also known as “food born” hepatitis
19. __________In an oxidation-reduction reaction electrons are transferred from the
reduced form of one couple to the oxidized form of a more positive
couple
20. __________ Metabolism involves two basic kinds of chemical transformations,
building up (biosynthetic) processes, called anabolism, and breaking
down processes, called catabolism, which usually result in energy
release.
21. __________ About two thirds of the energy generated by a cell is spent on motility.
22. __________ Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a chemical reaction.
23. __________ Coenzyme A is involved with electron transfer, while NAD+ is involved
in transfer of carbon atoms.
24. __________ The net result of proton extrusion through the membrane is acidification
of the cytoplasm
25. __________ ATPase makes ATP by substrate level phosphorylation
26. __________ Chlorophyll and cytochromes both contain porphoryn (tetrapyrole) ring
structures
27. __________ Bacteriochlorophyll and chlorophyll differ greatly in their structure, but
absorb the same type of light.
28. __________ Heterocysts are specialized cells in cyanobacteria that are involved in
nitrogen fixation.
29. __________ BI 200 (micro) is harder than BO 200 or ZO 200
30. __________ BI 200 is more fun than BO 200 or ZO 200
Complete the following narrative by circling the word or phrase in each bold faced
parenthesis that most accurately completes the statement. (1 point each).
C.
The study of variation in bacteria has several features that are distinct from the study of
genetics in eukaryotic organisms. Bacteria typically have (a single, two, multiple)
chromosome(s) that is(are) composed of (single stranded RNA, single stranded DNA,
double stranded DNA). There are (one, two) copies of the (linear, circular) molecule.
There may be additional small pieces of circular DNA called (introns, plasmids,
satellites) carrying accessory genes. The outward appearance of the organism, or
(genotype, karyotype, phenotype) is determined by which version of the particular gene
that is present. The different versions of the gene are called (heterozygotes, plasmids,
alleles). The normal looking individual is called the (wild type, mutant, marker).
Visible phenotypes studied in bacteria include colony pigmentation and texture, but
(selectable, differential, magic) markers involving fermentation of particular sugars are
often studied. Mutations in genes that confer the ability to grow, or not grow, under a
given set of conditions are called (selectable, differential) phenotypic markers. Bacteria
can often synthesize their own growth factors like amino acids, and are called
(chemotrophs, auxotrophs, prototrophs). Mutants unable to synthesize their own
growth factors are called (autotrophs, auxotrophs, prototrophs). Since bacteria
reproduce asexually all the members of a colony are genetically identical and referred to
(plasmids, clones, homozygotes). There are limited means of gene exchange in bacteria.
These include the transfer of free DNA called (transduction, translation,
transformation), transfer during mating called (conjugation, transduction,
competence), and gene transfer mediated by virus called (transduction, theta structure,
conjugation).
D. Matching. Place the name of one of
the microbes on the right that fits the
description. You may use a name more
than once, but place only one answer in
each – no multiple guesses.
14. _____________________________
Any green algae
1. _____________________________
Any obligate anaerobe
16. _____________________________
Your least favorite microbe
2. _____________________________
Any lactic acid fermenter
Alcalignenes
Anabena
Aquaspirillum
Aquifex
Bacillus
Beggiatoa
Chlamydomonas
Chlorobium
Chloroflexus
Chromatium
Clostridium
Desulfovibrio
Escherichia
Gallionella
Geobacter
Halobacterium
Hydrogenobacter
Lactobacillus
Leptothrix
Methanosarcina
Navicula
Nitrobacter
Nitrosomonas
Oscillatoria
Paracoccus
Pseudomonas
Rhodospirillum
Rhodopseudomonas
Saccharomyces
Shewanella
Spirogyra
Streptococcus
Sulfolobus
Synechococcus
Thiobacillus
Volvox
Zymomonas
3. _____________________________
Any lithotroph
4. _____________________________
Any archea
5. _____________________________
Any anoxygenic phototroph
6. _____________________________
Any purple or purple non-sulfur
anoxygenic phototroph
7. _____________________________
Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas
(N2)
8. _____________________________
Oxidizes nitrite (NO2-) to nitrate (NO3-)
9. _____________________________
Reduces sulfate (SO42-) to sulfide (H2S)
10. _____________________________
Oxidizes Fe3+ to Fe2+
11. _____________________________
Sulfur-oxidizing bacterium
12. _____________________________
Any eukaryote
13. _____________________________
Any cyanobacterium
15. _____________________________
Your favorite microbe
E. Matching. Match the structure or enzyme on the right
to the description on the left that is most appropriate.
There is only one best answer. 1 point each
1. ________ Electron carrier in autotrophic phototrophs
A. Carboxysome
2. ________ Substrate oxidation enzyme in
Nitrosomonas
3. ________ Photosynthetic pigment in Halobacterium
halobium
B. Grana
C. APS
D. Bacteriorhodopsin
4. ________ Fluorescent cofactor in Methanogens
E. Rusticyanin
5. ________ Central chlorophyll molecule in non-cyclic
photophosphorylation
6. ________ Adenylated intermediate of sulfate
reduction
7. ________ Alternative electron carrier that replaces
ubiquinone in iron reducers
8. ________ Membrane bound sack rich in the RuBisCo
enzyme.
F. Ammonium
monooxygenase
G. Menaquinone
H. Sulfur granules
I. Alcohol
dehydrogenase
J. F420
9. ________ Iron oxidation enzyme in Thiobacillus
ferroxidans
K. Heterocyst
10. ________ 2H+ + 2 e-  H2
L. P680
11. ________ Key enzyme in the reductive stage of
fermentation by yeast
M. P870
12. ________ Disc-like membrane structures found in
cyanobacteria and chloroplasts
13. ________ Found in denitrifying bacteria
14. ________ Central bacteriochlorophyll molecule in
cyclic photophosphorylation
15. ________ Specialized cell that carriers out N2fixation
16. ________ Formed by purple and green sulfur
bacteria
N. NADPH
O. Nitrite Reductase
P. Hydrogenase
F. Fill in the empty boxes for these familiar pathways. (18 responses required - 1 point each).
Trait or Characteristic
Substrates
Glycolysis
3.
1.
Pyruvate, NAD+, FAD+
Ethanol Fermentation
(reduction only)
Pyruvate, NADH
4.
Products
5.
Pyruvate, NADH, ATP
2.
6.
7.
3 CO2, NADH, FADH
8.
ATP, Sulfur
9.
O2: consumed,
produced, both or
neither?
Representative
organisms or cellular
localization in eukaryote
11.
Neither consumed or
produced
Cytoplasm of
Chemoorganotrophs
Animals, Plants,
Protozoa, Bacteria
14. (give cellular
localization in
eukaryote)
10.
12.
15. (give representative
eukaryote)
13.
Chromatium,
Thiocapsa,
Ectothiocapsa
16. (give representative
prokaryote)
Key Enzymes or
Intermediates
17.
18.
Coenzyme A, Citric
Acid, Succinyl-CoA,
Dehydrogenase
Enzymes
Alcohol Dehydrogenase
RC Bacteriochlorophyll,
Carotenoid, Ubiquinone,
Cytochrome bc