Download Chapter 10: Blood

MCQ IN ANATOMY &PHYSIOLOGY
Chapter 10: Blood.
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( )1- The process by which white blood cells move into and out of the blood vessels
is called?
a- passive transport.
b- Endocytosis.
c- Phagocytosis.
d- Diapedesis.
( ) 2-A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood?
a- is caused from carbon dioxide.
b- leads to thrombocytosis.
c- can lead to an immediate death.
d- is called, in any form, anemia.
( ) 3-The doctor pricks your finger, takes some blood and does a WBC count.
The count indicates 12,500 cells/cubed millimeter. This is known as leukocytosis.
What could you conclude?
a- A low WBC count, caused by certain drugs and anti-cancer agents.
b- You've received a blood transfusion, and are having a transfusion reaction.
c- You are perfectly healthy and no infections in the blood.
d- A high WBC count, indicating a bacterial or viral infection.
( ) 4-While blood typing, the sample is mixed with anti-A serum and anti-B
serum. There is no agglutination. You could conclude?
a- The sample is type O.
b- The sample is type AB.
c- The sample is type B.
d- The sample is type A.
( ) 5- Type O blood is known as
a- The least common blood type among US white population.
b- The universal donor.
c- The universal recipient.
( ) 6- The major function of the water in plasma is?
a- for osmotic balance, pH buffering and clotting of blood.
b- for transport of oxygen and help transport carbon dioxide.
c- a solvent for carrying other substances.
d- for regulation of membrane permeability.
( ) 7-Formed elements of the blood?
a- produce contents of plasma.
b- are megakaryocytes.
c- carry salts and buffer the pH of blood.
d- Include erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets.
( ) 8-The normal pH of blood?
a - 6,-6, 6, 4.
b- is generally slightly acidic.
c- 8,-1, 8, 0.
d- Is about 7.4.
( ) 9-An inadequate hemoglobin content in RBC?
a- can lead to pernicious anemia.
b- Is called hemorrhagic anemia.
c- can be a result of heavy menstrual flow or bleeding ulcer, and called iron-deficiency anemia.
d- causes sickle-cell anemia.
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( ) 10-When a huge number of immature WBCs are produced in the bone
marrow, it can cause the body to become easy prey for bacteria and viruses. This
is called?
a- leucopenia.
b- anemia.
c- leucopenia.
d- leukemia.
e- leukocytosis.
( ) 11-Erythropoietin controls?
a- production of bone marrow.
b- how much oxygen the RBCs can carry.
c- The kidney by monitoring the amount of oxygen in the blood.
d- The rate of erythrocyte production.
( ) 12-Characteristics of RBC include?
a- Multinucleate when immature, live about 100 days, carry oxygen.
b- Are generated in reticulocyte, take 8 days to form, live 100-120 days.
c- arise from a type of stem cell called hemocytoblast, multinucleate and about 100RBC: 1
WBC.
d- anucleate when mature, contain hemoglobin, live 100-120 days.
( ) 13-The rapid sequence of vascular spasms, platelet plug formation and
coagulation is known as?
a- hemostasis.
b- erythropoiesis.
c- hematopoiesis.
d- hemophilia.
( ) 14-A cerebral embolus can be caused from?
a- a clot that breaks away, and attempts to flow through a vessel in the brain that is too narrow.
b- a freely flowing clot moving throughout the heart.
c- a stroke.
d- a clot remaining in an unbroken blood vessel.
( ) 15-A transfusion reaction is rarely fatal, but can cause /have these
characteristics?
a- fever, chills and nausea.
b- agglutination, causing blockage of small vessels.
c- all of the above.
d- lysing of RBC, releasing hemoglobin into the blood.
( ) 16-During hemostasis, hairlike molecules of protein form, this protein is?
a- thromboplastin.
b- fibrin.
c- serotonin.
d- Elastin.
( ) 17-A hereditary bleeding disorder, commonly called the "bleeders disease''?
a- hemophilia.
b- hemocytosis.
c- thrombocytopenia.
d- hematocrit.
( ) 18-A measure of the percent of RBC in whole blood?
a- hemocytometer.
b- Often called the buffy coat.
c- hematocrit.
d- 55%.
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( ) 19-A normal salt content in the blood is normal, what is the function of the
salts?
a- to help fight foreign invaders.
b- Osmotic balance, pH buffering and regulation of membrane permeability.
c- blood clotting.
d- solutes carry other substances to the capillaries.
( ) 20-The most numerous white blood cell, which are active phagocytes and
increase rapidly during acute infections?
a- monocyte.
b- basophil
c- eosinophil
d- neutrophil
e- lymphocyte.
( ) 21-Blood does each of the following except?
a- transport nutrients.
b- increase fluid loss.
c- regulate body temperature.
d- regulate pH.
( ) 22-Each of the following occurs when blood clots after a cut except?
a- thrombin converts fibrin into fibrinogen.
b- thromboplastin converts prothrombin into thrombin.
c- platelets release clotting factor.
d- fibrin filaments trap cells to produce a clot.
( ) 23-Approximately 55 percent of blood is?
a- lymph.
b- plasma.
c- red blood cells.
d- white blood cells.
( ) 24-The fluid that leaks into the tissues from the blood is?
a- useless.
b- plasma.
c- harmfull
d- lymph.
( ) 25-Each of the following is true of red blood cells except that they?
a- contain hemoglobin.
b- live about 30 days.
c- are anucleate.
d- are formed in the red marrow.
( ) 26-Unlike red blood cells, white blood cells?
a- have a nucleus.
b- contain hemoglobin.
c- are biconcave.
d- live for one week.
( ) 27- The term that is unrelated to the others is?
a- phagocytosis.
b- blood clotting.
c- leukocytes.
d- antibodies.
( ) 28- A protein in the plasma which contributes to the osmotic pressure of
blood?
a- elastin.
b- prothrombin.
c- Albumin.
d-thrombin
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( ) 29- In a normal hematocrit, the buffy coat accounts for?
a- all of the white blood cells and plasma.
b- approximately 10 percent of whole blood.
c- The top portion of the centrifuged blood.
d- approximately 1 percent of blood volume.
( ) 30- Although it carries much oxygen, it is more attracted to pesticides and
carbon monoxide?
a- white blood cells.
b- plasma.
c- Thrombin.
d- Hemoglobin.
( ) 31- Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are alike in that they?
a- are granulocytes.
b- are the only phagocytic leukocytes.
c- lack a defined nucleus.
d- release histamine.
( ) 32- The largest of all WBCs is the?
a- Neutrophil
b- Eosinophil
c- Monocyte.
d- Lymphocyte.
e- Basophil
( ) 33- The WBC which increases during allergic reactions and parasitic worm
infections?
a- Lymphocytes.
b- Basophils.
c- Neutrophils.
d- Eosinophils.
e- Monocytes.
( ) 34- Fragments of megakaryocytes which rupture into pieces and responsible
for clotting?
a- RBC.
b- antibodies.
c- platelets.
d- WBC.
( ) 35- When oxygen levels are low, the _______ is stimulated to release--------?
a- bone, oxygen.
b- kidney, erythropoietin.
c- bone, erythropoietin.
d- Liver, calcitonin.
( ) 36- Hematopoiesis primarily occurs in?
a- liver.
b- Flat bones & epiphyses of long bones.
c- kidneys.
d- Irregular bones.
( ) 37- A woman with blood type O has a baby with type O. The father?
a- Could be A, B or O; but in no way AB.
b- Could possibly be AB.
c- Must be type O.
d-Is Rh.
( ) 38- The WBC which has a very thin rim of cytoplasm, thus having a large
spherical nucleus is?
a- Basophil
b- Eosinophil
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c- Neutrophil
d- Monocyte.
e- Lymphocyte.
( ) 39- Active macrophages that work in long-term cleanup of tissues?
a- Neutrophil
b- Eosinophil
c- Lymphocyte.
d- Basophil
e- Monocyte.
( ) 40- The WBC which releases histamine at sites of inflammation?
a- Lymphocyte.
b- Eosinophil
c- Basophil
d- Monocyte.
e- Neutrophil
Self test Chapter 10: Blood.
(a) 1- Which term refers to the
movement of white blood cells between endothelial cells lining capillary walls to
enter the tissue?
a- Diapedesis
b- Polycythemia
c- Hemostasis
d- Leukopenia
(b) 2- Which of these cells produce histamine and are involved in allergy?
a- Lymphocytes
b- Basophils
c- Neutrophils
d- Erythrocytes
(d) 3- An example of a formed element in blood is?
a- Plasma proteins
b- Electrolytes
c- Water
d- Leukocytes
(b) 4- Which of the cells below are active phagocytes?
a- Lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Basophils
d- Erythrocytes
(d) 5- Which type of blood cell differs from others because it is anucleate?
a- Monocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Basophils
d- Erythrocytes
(a) 6- Which of the following is a clot that forms in an uninjured vessel?
a- Thrombus
b- Hemophilia
c- Thrombocytopenia
d- Embolus
(b) 7- During hemostasis, which chemical is released by the platelet plug to trigger
vessel spasms which in turn decrease blood loss?
a- Thromboplastin
b- Serotonin
c- Prothrombin
d- Fibrinogen
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(d) 8- Any hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from lack of clotting factors is
called?
a- Thrombocytopenia
b- Embolus
c- Thrombus
d- Hemophilia
(c) 9- Which term below refers to a molecule which the body recognizes as
foreign?
a- Agglutination
b- Antibody
c- Antigen
d- Rh factor
(b) 10- Hemolytic disease in a newborn is most likely in?
a- The first born Rh+ baby of an Rh- mother
b- The second born Rh+ baby of an Rh- mother
c- The first born Rh- baby of an Rh- mother
d- The second born Rh- baby of an Rh- mother
(b) 11- What is the most common blood type in the U.S. population?
a- B
b- O
c- A
d- AB
(c) 12- Which blood type allows a patient to be a universal recipient?
a- B
b- O
c- AB
d- A
(a) 13- Very young and very old patients are more likely to develop leukocytosis
which may be indicative of?
a- Leukemia
b- Physiologic jaundice
c- Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d- Bleeder's disease
(c) 14- By age 7 months, what becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis in a
fetus?
a- Liver
b- Spleen
c- Red marrow
d- Thymus
Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System.
( ) 1- The tissue which forms a loose-fitting sac around the heart is the?
a- endocardium
b- parietal pericardium
c- visceral pericardium
d- myocardium
e- epicardium
( ) 2- The layer of serous membrane that covers the heart that lies closest to the
sternum is the?
a- endocardium
b- parietal pericardium
c- myocardium
d- visceral pericardium
e- epicardium
( ) 3- Heart muscle is also called?
a- visceral pericardium
b- epicardium
c- endocardium
d- myocardium
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e- endothelium
( ) 4- What is the specific name of the tissue that lines all the chambers of the
heart?
a- endothelium
b- endocardium
c- simple cuboidal epithelium
d- simple squamous epithelium
( ) 5- Blood flows from the right ventricle into the?
a- pulmonary trunk
b- pulmonary veins
c- coronary artery
d- right atrium
e- superior vena cava
( ) 6- Blood returning from the pulmonary part of the circulatory system enters
the _______ of the heart?
a- left ventricle
b- left atrium
c- right ventricle
d- right atrium
e- sinus venosus
( ) 7- The tricuspid valve prevents flow of blood from the?
a- pulmonary trunk to the right ventricle
b- right ventricle to the pulmonary arch
c- right atrium into the left atrium
d- right ventricle to the right atrium
e- left ventricle to the left atrium
( ) 8- The mitral valve is on the same side of the heart as the?
a- superior vena cava
b- aortic semilunar valve
c- tricuspid valve
d- pulmonary semilunar valve
e- opening of the coronary sinus
( ) 9- The cusps of the atrio-ventricular (A/V) valves are anchored to the
papillary muscles by the?
a- pericardium
b- chordae tendinae
c- intercalated discs
d- fossa ovalis
e- coronary sinus
( ) 10- What is the first branch off the base of the aorta?
a- brachiocephalic artery
b- left common carotid artery
c- left subclavian artery
d- right common carotid artery
e- coronary artery
( ) 11- Blood vessels carrying blood away from the heart are called?
a- veins
b- capillaries
c- coronaries
d- arteries
e- lymphatics
( ) 12- What is the heart's pacemaker?
a- medulla oblongata
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b- Atrio-Ventricular (A/V) node
c- Sino-Atrial (S/A) node
d- Cranial nerve X - Vagus nerve
e- both a and d above are correct
( ) 13- When considering the heart sounds (frequently given as lub, dup), we
should realize that?
a- the first sound is caused by contraction of the Purkinje fibers, the second by contraction of the
papillary muscles
b- the first sound is caused by closure of the A/V valves, the second by closure of the semilunar
valves
c- the first sound is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve, the second by closure of the mitral
valve
d- they are caused by contraction of the ventricles, followed by contraction of the atria
e- the first sound is caused by closure of the mitral valve, the second by closure of the tricuspid
valve
( ) 14- The correct sequence of parts that function to carry cardiac impulses is?
a- S/A Node ===> A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle ===> Purkinje fibers
b- S/A Node ===> Purkinje fibers ===> A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle
c- A/V Node ===> Atrioventricular bundle ===> Purkinje fibers ===> S/A Node
d- Atrioventricular bundle ===> S/A Node ===> A/V Node ===> Purkinje fibers
e- A/V Node ===> S/A Node ===> purkinje fibers ===> Atrioventricular bundle
( ) 15- What is the portion of the ECG that indicates ventricular repolarization?
a- R spike
b- QRS complex
c- P-Q interval
d- P wave
e- T wave
( ) 16-The product of the stroke volume and the heart rate is known as the?
a- cardiac reserve
b- end-systolic volume
c- blood pressure
d- cardiac output
e- end-diastolic volume
( ) 17- What is the circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the
liver called?
a- systemic circuit
b- hepatic portal system
c- renal portal system
d- pulmonary circuit
e- coronary circuit
( ) 18- You are not an athlete and you are not physical fit. If you suddenly
partake in physical exercise, then the increased demands of such vigorous exercise
on your body are met primarily by?
a- increased stroke volume
b- increased heart rate
c- increased blood volume
d- all of a, b and c above are correct
e- only b and c above are correct
( ) 19- The umbilical vein carries?
a- Metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the placent
b- oxygen and foods from the fetus to the placenta
c- from the navel directly into the inferior vena cava
d- oxygen and foods from the placenta to the fetus
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( ) 20- Which of the following fetal structures carries the most oxygenated blood?
a- umbilical arteries
b- foramen ovale
c- ductus arteriosus
d- umbilical vein
e- ductus venosus
( ) 21- What serous membrane encloses the heart?
a- cutaneous membrane
b- pericardium
c- peritoneum
d- pleura
e- synovial membrane
( ) 22- This heart valve prevents the return of blood to the right atrium from the
right ventricle?
a- mitral valve
b- aortic semilunar valve
c- bicuspid valve
d- tricuspid valve
e- pulmonary semilunar valve
( ) 23- Which on of the following blood vessels carries oxygen-rich blood?
a- pulmonary trunk
b- Coronary sinus
c- pulmonary vein
d- superior vena cava
e- inferior vena cava
( )24- Identify the final portion of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart
which carries the wave of depolarization over the ventricles causing them to
contract from the heart apex toward the atria?
a- atrioventricular bundle
b- Purkinje fibers
c- bundle branches
d- atrioventricular node
e- sinoatrial node
( )25- Which one of the following blood vessels returns blood to the left side of
the heart or left atrium?
a- coronary sinus
b- pulmonary artery
c- superior vena cava
d- pulmonary vein
e- aorta
( ) 26- Blood exits the right ventricle in which one of the following blood vessels?
a- pulmonary vein
b- coronary artery
c- aorta
d- pulmonary trunk
e- superior vena cava
( ) 27- Which of the following is involved in anchoring the AV valve flaps to the
walls of the ventricles?
a- Purkinje fibers
b- chordae tendinae
c- cuspidors
d- fenestrations
e- adhesions
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( ) 28- Which of the following indicates atrial depolarization in an
electrocardiogram?
a- QT interval
b- U wave
c- P wave
d- T wave
e- QRS complex
( ) 29-Which of the following would not lead to an increase in cardiac output?
a- release of epinephrine into the bloodstream
b- an increase in sympathetic stimulation
c- an increase in stroke volume
d- an increase in heart rate
e- a decrease in venous return
( ) 30- Exchanges of nutrients, gases, wastes, etc. between blood and tissue cells
occurs at?
a- capillaries
b- venules
c- veins
d- arterioles
e- arteries
( ) 31- Which of the following blood vessels is NOT part of the systemic
circulation?
a- inferior vena cava
b- carotid arteries
c- pulmonary artery
d- aorta
e- coronary artery
( ) 32- During fetal existence, this short blood vessel connects the pulmonary
trunk to the aorta allowing blood to bypass the fetal lungs which are
nonfunctional?
a- umbilical vein
b- ductus venosus
c- foramen ovale
d- ductus arteriosus
e- umbilical artery
( ) 33- Most often, systemic arterial blood pressure is measured in this artery
using the auscultatory method using a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer?
a- carotid artery
b- brachial artery
c- femoral artery
d- radial artery
e- aorta
( ) 34- Which of the following conditions is characterized by a rapid
uncoordinated shuddering of the heart muscle?
a- tachycardia
b- bradycardia
c- fibrillation
d- angina pectoris
e- myocardial infarction
( ) 35- Which of the following would NOT cause an increase in the heart rate?
a- release of epinephrine into the blood
b- exercise
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c- sympathetic stimulation
d- an increase in body temperature
e- stimulation of the vagus nerve
( )36- Which of the following drugs acts in a similar way to the vagus nerves to slow
steady the heart resulting in a stronger heartbeat?
a- digitalis
b- angiotensin II
c- thyroxine
d- epinephrine
e- renin
( ) 37- Compared to an artery, the wall of a vein differs in which of the following
ways?
a- It contains smooth muscle
b- It consists of three coats
c- The outer coat is composed largely of collagen fibers
d- The middle coat is thin
e- It is lined by a thin layer of endothelium
( )38- This unique feature connects the anterior and posterior blood supplies of
the brain providing more than one route for blood to reach brain tissue in a given
area?
a- circle of Willis
b- bundle branches
c- coronary circulation
d- ductus arteriosus
e- hepatic portal circulation
( ) 39- Which of the following is NOT true during ventricular systole?
a- intraventricular pressure rises
b- chordae tendinae prevent AV valve flaps from flipping up into the atria
c- semilunar valves close
d- the atria are relaxed
e- AV valves close
( ) 40- Which of the following does not aid the return of venous blood to the heart
from the lower extremities?
a- valves in veins
b- the large lumen of veins
c- the muscle "pump''
d- the respiratory "pump''
e- gravity
Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System Self Test.
(a) 1- The cardiac output of the heart is?
a- The amount of blood pushed from each ventricle in one minute
b- The amount of blood entering the pulmonary circulation
c- The amount of blood pushed from a ventricle with each beat
d- The number of beats per minute
(c) 2- Freshly oxygenated blood from pulmonary circulation is first received by
a- Right atrium
b- Right ventricle
c- Left atrium
d- Left ventricle
(c) 3- Which condition is the result of lack of oxygen to the muscle of the heart
causing extreme pain in the chest?
a- Fibrillation
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b- Arteriosclerosis
c- Angina pectoris
d- An infarct
e- Heart block
(a) 4- Which part of the nodal system is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart?
a- Sinoatrial (SA) node
b- Bundle branches
c- Atrioventricular bundle
d- Atrioventricular (AV) node
e- Purkinje fibers
(b) 5- Lack of blood supply to the heart, resulting in rapid, uncoordinated shuddering
heart muscle, is called?
a- An infarct
b- Fibrillation
c- Angina pectoria
d- Heart block
e- Arteriosclerosis
(d) 6- Which blood vessel tunic is composed of smooth muscle and controls the
diameter of the vessel?
a- Myocardium
b- Tunica externa
c- Tunica intima
d- Tunica media
(e) 7- Which structures of fetal circulation are designed to bypass the lungs in an
unborn baby?
a- Pulmonary arteries and veins
b- Hepatic vein and aorta
c- Umbilical arteries and veins
d- Aorta and vena cava
e- Ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale
(d) 8- Which vessel delivers blood to the liver from the digestive organs, spleen and
pancreas?
a- Superior vena cava
b- Umbilical vein
c- Superior mesenteric artery
d- Hepatic portal vein
(b) 9- Capillary beds are drained by?
a- Arteries
b- Venules
c- Arterioles
d- Veins
(a) 10- Which of the following factors does not contribute to vasoconstriction and
hypertension?
a- Alcohol
b- Nicotine
c- Renin
d- Cold
(b) 11- Any decrease in the elasticity of arteries is known as?
a- Atherosclerosis
b- Arteriosclerosis
c- Thrombophlebitis
d- Varicose veins
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(d) 12- Which of the following is a condition resulting from inflammation of a vein
which contains a clot?
a- Arteriosclerosis
b- Varicose veins
c- Atherosclerosis
d- Thrombophlebitis
Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses:
( ) 1- The most important nonspecific defense of the body is?
a- cilia and mucus b- Sweat glands c- antibodies d- The skin
( ) 2- White blood cells that engulf and destroy bacteria are?
a- phagocytes b- antibodies c- T-lymphocytes d- B-lymphocytes
( ) 3- A person who has recovered from mumps is protected from contracting the
disease again by a?
a- slow production of antibodies b- secondary immune response
c- lack of antibodies
d- primary immune response
( ) 4- Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be spontaneously killed by?
a- mucous membrane cells b- Natural Killer Cells c- macrophage d- antibodies e- Neutrophils
( ) 5- The body's second line of defense?
a- antibodies
b- Spleen
c- Mucous
d- MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue)
e- The inflammatory response
( ) 6- The rejection of tissue transplants is brought about by?
a- killer T-cells
b- helper T-cells
c- macrophages
d- NK cells
e- suppressor T-cells
( ) 7- The immune cells involved in allergic reactions, especially in the lining of
the nasal passages?
a- release macrophages
b- produce phagocytes
c- mast cells
d- cause asthma
( ) 8- Two indications that the body is fighting an infection are increased?
a- pain and fever
b- white blood cells and fever
c- red blood cells and pain
d- white and red blood cells
( ) 9- The scientist who developed the first successful polio vaccine was?
a- Salk
b- Sabin
c- Pasteur
d- Jenner
( ) 10- The substance produced by virus-infected cells that helps other cells resist
viral infection is?
a- an antigen
b- a marker protein
c- a receptor protein
d- interferon
e- an antibody
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( ) 11- A mass of linked viruses and antibodies are engulfed and destroyed by?
a- plasma cells
b- T-cells
c- phagocytes
d- B-cells
e- agglutination
( ) 12- An infection may spread throughout the body, causing swelling and
tenderness of the?
a- joints
b- nerve endings
c- skin
d- liver
e- lymph nodes
( ) 13- The sneezing, runny nose, and watery eyes that make a person having
allergies feel so miserable result from?
a- lysozyme
b- interferon
c- histamines
d- antibodies
( ) 14- The antibodies that are often given to travelers to protect them from
tropical diseases produce?
a- secondary immunity
b- passive immunity
c- active immunity
d- permanent immunity
( ) 15- Each of the following is true of antibodies except that?
a- They are released by plasma cells
b- each antibody binds to three antigens
c- They have two identical binding sites
d- They are shaped like the letter Y
( ) 16- The response in which the rapid loss of material from a cancerous cell
causes it to rupture and die is known as?
a- blood-mediated immunity
b- primary immune response
c- secondary immune response
d- cell-mediated immunity
( ) 17- Lysozyme?
a- Is the substance produced by the body to break down the cell walls of bacteria
b- Is a substance used to create antibody-mediated clonal cells
c- Is an organelle found in most cells to destroy invading organisms.
d- Is a chemical which causes the hypothalamus to “reset” its temperature higher than 98.6‫ ؛‬F.
( ) 18- Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except?
a- acquired immune deficiency syndrome
b- rheumatoid arthritis
c- juvenile onset diabetes
d- rheumatic fever
( ) 19- Each of the following is involved in the formation of antibodies except?
a- plasma cells release antibodies into the blood
b- suppressor T-cells grow and divide very rapidly
c- an antigen activates some of the body's B-cells
d- activated B-cells produce many plasma cells
( ) 20- The immune system's loss of its ability to distinguish "self" from
"nonself" results in ________?
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a- autoimmune diseases
b- cell-mediated immune deficiency diseases
c- immune-deficiency diseases
d- immune response diseases
( ) 21- The first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens?
a- antibodies
b- skin
c- white blood cells
d- vaccines
( ) 22- Interferon is?
a- a chemical producing antibodies
b- a chemical which inhibits the production of viruses
c- a substance produced by virus-infected cells that helps other cells resist viral infection
d- very similar to a vaccine
( ) 23- The immune cells involved in allergic reactions, especially in the lining of
the nasal passages, causing sneezing and runny noses?
a- produce phagocytes
b- inhibit production of myeloid stem cells
c- are mast cells
d- are macrophages
( ) 24- The inflammatory response?
a- is the body's second line of defense, after the skin
b- works with the phagocytic response
c- works with antibodies
d- Acts in response to production of mast cells
( ) 25- Two indications that the body is fighting an infection are increased?
a- red blood cells and pain
b- white and red blood cells
c- white blood cells and fever
d- pain and fever
( ) 26- When antibodies are present in the fluids of the blood?
a- it is called cell-mediated immunity
b- it creates anitigen specific response
c- lymphocytes work on viruses, or lyse foreign cells
d- it is called humoral immunity, or antibody-mediated immunity
( ) 27- The injection of weakened pathogens to produce immunity is a(n)?
a- vaccination
b- cellular mediated antigen response
c- antigens
d- self-antigen production
( ) 28- The basic functional unit of the immune system is?
a- antibody
b- B-lymphocyte
c- killer T-cell
d- marker protein
( ) 29- Each of the following is involved in the formation of antibodies except
that?
a- plasma cells release antibodies into the blood
b- an antigen activates some of the body's B-cells
c- activated B-cells produce many plasma cells
d- suppressor T-cells grow and divide very rapidly
( ) 30- The most common overreactions of the immune system are known as?
a- histamines
15
b- allergies
c- asthma
d- antihistamines
( ) 31- The substance produced by the body that breaks down the cell walls of
bacteria is?
a- interferon
b- mucus
c- lysozyme
d- hormone
( ) 32- An antibody has two identical ?
a- receptor proteins
b- antigen binding sites
c- marker proteins
d- killer T-cell binding sites
( ) 33- A form of natural passive immunity, in which no immunological memory
is established?
a- placenta or breast milk
b- vaccine
c- infection or contact with a pathogen
d- gamma globulin
( ) 34- Antibodies are soluble proteins secreted by?
a- Helper T-cells
b- Activated T-cells
c- Activated B-cells and B cell clone descendants
d- suppressor T-cells
( ) 35- Slowing or stopping the activity of a B cell or T cell is done by?
a- Killer T-cell
b- Helper T-cell
c- Memory Cell
d- Suppressor T cell
( ) 36- A substance capable of provoking an immune response, not normally
present in the body?
a- monokines
b- antigens
c- antibody
d- B-cells
( )37- After having the chicken pox, these cells would remain in the body,
enabling it to respond quickly and efficiently to subsequent infections of meetings
with the same anitigen?
a- Suppressor T cells
b- Memory cells
c- Macrophages
d- Memory B cells
( ) 38- An antibody producing machine, which produces a huge number of
immunoglobulin?
a- Memory cells
b- Mast cells
c- Stem cells
d- plasma cells
( ) 39- When the liver and spleen gather up nutrients such as iron and zinc, so
that bacteria cannot multiply, what is happening in the body?
a- interferon is being produced
16
b- complement fixation is working to find foreign cells
c- The body has a fever
d- gastric juices are clogging the ducts of the liver and spleen
( ) 40- Edema causes?
a- redness to an injured area
b- pain and swelling, thus temporarily limiting joint movement
c- The infected area to become hot, thus increasing metabolic rate
d- Clotting proteins to enter an area
Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses Self Test.
(d) 1- Which organ is not a lymphoid organ?
a- Tonsils
b- Spleen
c- Thymus
d- Gall bladder
(a) 2- Which is a lymphoid organ found in the small intestine?
a- Peyer's patches
b- Spleen
c- Thymus
d- Tonsils
(b) 3- Fever?
a- Interferes with bacterial replication
b- a, b, and c are correct
c- Speeds tissue repair processes
d- Increases human body metabolism
(d) 4- Which secretions or structures contribute to the effectiveness of the skin as a
mechanical barrier to infection?
a- Secretory IgA
b- Lysozyme
c- Cilia
d- b and c are correct
(c) 5- Which nonspecific body defense is designed to prevent the spread of viruses
to uninfected cells in adjacent tissues?
a- Complement
b- Natural killer cells
c- Interferon
d- Fever
(c) 6- Which type of cell does not require specific antigen activation to become
active?
a- Cytotoxic T cells
b- Helper T cells
c- Natural killer cells
d- B cells
(d) 7- Which type of effector T cells are responsible for attacking and lysing
infected and cancerous cells?
a- Supressor T cells
b- Delayed hypersensitivity T cells
c- Helper T cells
d- Cytotoxic T cells
(c) 8- Acute hypersensitivity or allergy is due to?
a- Lymphokines
b- Delayed hypersensitivity T cells
c- IgE antibodies
d- Activated macrophages
17
(d) 9- Which type of T cell is specifically targeted by HIV?
a- Cytotoxic T cells
b- All T cells are targeted by HIV
c- Supressor T cells
d- Helper T cells
(c) 10- Which of the following is an autoimmune disease in which the myelin
sheaths in the brain and spinal cord are destroyed over time?
a- Myasthenia gravis
b- Grave's disease
c- Multiple sclerosis
d- Systemic lupus erythematosus
(d) 11- Memory B cells?
a- Produce lymphokines that stimulate macrophages
b- Trigger the complement cascade
c- Are produced to destroy an antigen in response to the first exposure to that antigen.
d- Respond to repeated exposures to the antigen that caused their creation
(a) 12- Which of these lymphoid organs is well developed before birth?
a- Thymus
b- Tonsils
c- Red marrow
d- Liver
(d) 13- In the early stages of fetal development, the lymphatic vessels form by
branching from?
a- The thymus gland
b- Nerves
c- Arterioles
d- Veins
Chapter 13: The Respiratory System
( ) 1- Air in the larynx on its way to the lungs would enter which of the following
next?
a- pharynx
b- primary bronchus
c- trachea
d- bronchiole
e- esophagus
( ) 2- This partition separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity below?
a- epiglottis
b- nasal septum
c- palate
d- concha
e- thyroid cartilage
( ) 3- What is the maximum volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs
called?
a- residual volume
b- expiratory reserve volume
c- inspiratory reserve volume
d- vital capacity
e- tidal volume
( ) 4- What is the term for difficult or labored breathing?
a- dyspnea
b- cyanosis
c- apnea
d- eupnea
e- hypoxia
18
( ) 5- What muscular passageway serves as a common passageway for food and
air?
a- pharynx
b- trachea
c- glottis
d- larynx
e- esophagus
( ) 6- Which of the following is NOT true about the lungs?
a- They are divided into lobes
b- They contain elastic connective tissue in their walls
c- They receive air by way of primary bronchi
d- They are covered by visceral pleura
e- They are located in the mediastinum
( )7- Air in the conducting zone airways that is not in position to contribute to gas
exchange between the alveoli and the blood is termed?
a- dead space volume
b- expiratory reserve volume
c- tidal volume
d- residual volume
e- alveolar air
( ) 8- Respiratory distress syndrome in an infant is characterized by?
a- an expanded barrel chest
b- inadequate surfactant production
c- excessive production of mucus
d- loss of elasticity by the lungs
e- chronic inflammation
( ) 9- How is the bulk of the carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
a- as the bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in plasma
b- as carbon monoxide(CO) in the plasma
c- dissolved in the plasma
d- inside red blood cells
e- combined with hemoglobin
( ) 10- Which of the following is NOT true during inspiration?
a- intrapulmonary volume increases
b- the diaphragm contracts, moves inferiorly and flattens out
c- The external intercostal muscles contract lifting the rib cage and thrusting the sternum
forward
d- intrapleural pressure becomes equal to atmospheric air pressure
e- intrapulmonary air pressure decreases
( ) 11- Where is the center which sets the basic rhythm of inspiration and
expiration located?
a- cerebellum
b- cerebrum
c- pons
d- medulla
e- corpus callosum
( ) 12- The main stimulus for increasing the breathing rate and depth involves?
a- an increase in blood pH
b- a decrease in body temperature
c- an increase in the level of oxygen in the blood
d- an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
e- a decrease in the level of oxygen in the blood
19
( ) 13- In addition to the respiratory system, what other system shares the
responsibility of supplying cells of the body with oxygen and disposing of carbon
dioxide?
a- reproductive system
b- lymphatic system
c- cardiovascular system
d- urinary system
e- digestive system
( ) 14- Which of the following is NOT a protective mechanism of the respiratory
system?
a- gastric juice
b- sneezing
c- coughing
d- cilia mucus sweeping
e- ''dust cells"
( ) 15- Air must pass through this slit-like opening between the vocal cords in the
larynx to enter the trachea?
a- concha
b- palate
c- sinus
d- alveolus
e- glottis
( ) 16- Which of the following would increase the pH of blood leading to
alkalosis?
a- exercising
b- holding your breath
c- falling asleep
d- hyperventilating
e- rebreathing air in a brown paper bag
( ) 17- The serous membrane associated with each lung is the?
a- synovial membrane
b- peritoneum
c- pleura
d- pericardium
e- cutaneous membrane
( ) 18- Which of the following respiratory system disorders or defects is
INCORRECTLY paired with its brief description?
a- asthma - hypersensitivity to an irritant
b- cystic fibrosis - over secretion of mucus
c- emphysema - loss of elasticity by the lungs
d- sudden infant death syndrome - inadequate production of surfactant
e- cleft palate - bones forming the hard palate fail to fuse medially
( ) 19- Which of the following is not involved in conducting air to the lungs?
a- larynx
b- trachea
c- esophagus
d- bronchus
e- pharynx
( ) 20- Each of the following is directly connected to the pharynx except the?
a- nasal cavity
b- auditory tubes
c- oral cavity
d- trachea
20
e- larynx
( ) 21- Pick the correct order for the path followed by Trevor (an oxygen
molecule) as he travels from the outside to the lungs?
1. Primary bronchi
2. Laryngopharynx
3. Nasal cavity
4. External nares
5. Glottis
6. Oropharynx
7. Secondary bronchi
8. Larynx
9. Nasopharynx
10. Trachea
a- 6,3,9,4,5,2,8,10,1,7
d- 4,3,9,6,2,5,8,10,1,7
b- 4,9,3,6,2,5,8,1,10,7
e- 4,3,9,6,5,2,8,10,7,1
c- 6,9,2,3,5,4,10,8,1,7
( ) 22- The nose?
a- 1.moistens the air
b- 2.warms the air
c- 3.filters the air
d- 4.contains the olfactory receptors
.Only (1) and (3) above are correct
.Only (2) and (4) above are correct
.All of (1), (2), (3), and (4) above are correct
.Only (4) above is correct
.Only (1), (2), and (3) above are correct
( ) 23- The "Adam's Apple" is the common name for the?
a- arytenoid cartilage
b- hyoid bone
c- epiglottis
d- thyroid cartilage
e- pharynx
( ) 24- What prevents food from entering the trachea?
a- epiglottis
b- saliva
c- glottis
d- vocal cords and false vocal cords
e- Soft palate
( ) 25- Place the following in their correct order from the outside to inside?
1. lungs
2. pleural cavity
3. visceral pleura
4. parietal pleura
a- 3,2,4,1
b- 2,3,4,1
c- 4,2,3,1
d- 2,1,4,3
e- 1,2,3,4
( ) 26- Pleurisy results from an accumulation of fluid in the?
a- pleural cavity
b- nasal passages
c- auditory tubes
d- primary bronchi
e- alveoli
( ) 27- Inhalation results when the?
a- diaphragm relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract
b- intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract and make the chest cavity bigger
21
c- air pressure within the lungs increases drawing air into the lungs from the outside
d- intercostal muscles relax and the diaphragm contracts
e- lungs expand and make the chest cavity bigger
( ) 28- What supplies the force responsible for normal expiration?
a- diaphragm contracting
b- external intercostal muscles contracting
c- elastic recoil of the diaphragm
d- internal intercostal muscles contracting
e- both a and d above are correct
( ) 29- The tidal volume is air?
a- exhaled during normal breathing
b- forcefully exhaled
c- inhaled during normal breathing
d- forcefully inhaled
e- both a and c above are correct
( ) 30- The volume of air, over the tidal volume, that can be forced into the lungs
is called the?
a- residual air
b- inspiratory reserve volume
c- expiratory reserve volume
d- reserve air
e- vital capacity
( ) 31- What is (approximately) the average vital capacity for humans?
a- 6,000 ml
b- 1,200 ml
c- 3, 100 ml
d- 4, 300 ml
e- 4, 800 ml
( ) 32- Where would carbon dioxide concentration be the highest?
a- pulmonary vein blood
b- renal vein blood
c- pulmonary artery blood
d- renal artery blood
e- hepatic portal vein blood
( ) 33- Oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the lung membrane surface through?
a- osmosis
b- differences in atmospheric pressure
c- tidal air
d- active transport
e- diffusion
( ) 34- What is the form of hemoglobin that is responsible for carrying oxygen?
a- carbamino-hemoglobin
b- carboxyhemoglobin
c- deoxygenated hemoglobin
d- reduced hemoglobin
e- oxyhemoglobin
( ) 35- Where are the respiratory control centers located?
a- cerebrum
b- hypothalamus
c- medulla
d- pons
e- both c and d above are correct
( ) 36- The condition whereby the respiratory alveoli become enlarged and may
be replaced by fibrous tissue is known as?
a- pleurisy
b- pneumonia
c- emphysema
22
d- bronchitis
e- tuberculosis
( ) 37- The glottis is the?
a- space between the vocal cords
b- just above the larynx and esophagus
c- point where the trachea divides
d- moveable lid covering the opening into the larynx
e- pointed end of the lungs
( ) 38- How is oxygen carried in the trachea?
a- as a gas
b- as oxyhemoglobin
c- in solution in body fluids (e.g. mucin)
d- as a result of peristaltic actions
e- by buffering compounds like KCl (potassium chloride)
( ) 39- The largest amount of carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in the form
of?
a- carbamino-hemoglobin
b- dissolved carbon dioxide (gas bubbles) in the blood plasma
c- oxyhemoglobin
d- carbonic acid
e- bicarbonate ions
( ) 40- Which of the following is a substance found in cigarette smoke that
interferes with the ability of the blood to transport oxygen?
a- nicotine
b- asbestos
c- carbon monoxide
d- nitrogen
e- hydrogen cyanide
Chapter 13: The Respiratory System Self Test.
(b) 1- Which of the following describes the pathway air follows to reach the alveoli
during an inspiration?
a- bronchi pharynx bronchiole trachea larynx alveoli
b- pharynx larynx trachea bronchi bronchiole alveoli
c- trachea pharynx bronohile bronchi larynx alveoli
d- pharynx bronchi larynx bronchioli trachea alveoli
(a) 2- The respiratory membrane must be very ______ to allow rapid ______ of
O2 and CO2?
a- thin, diffusion
b- thick, osmosis
c- thick, diffusion
d- thin, osmosis
(a )3- The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae serve to?
a- increase the mucosal surface area and increase air turbulence in the nasal cavity
b- support the nasal septum and hard palate
c- produce mucus and prevent it from draining into the paranasal sinuses
d- resonate speech and drain the paranasal sinuses
(c) 4- Oxygen loading and carbon dioxide unloading between the pulmonary
capillary blood and the air in the alveoli is called?
a- breathing
b- internal respiration
c- external respiration
d- expiration
23
(c) 5- Most of the carbon dioxide (CO2) carried in the blood is carried?
a- bound to ferritin proteins in plasma
b- bound to hemoglobin in RBCs
c- as the bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in plasma
d- as a dissolved gas in the water of the plasma
(d) 6- A normal tidal volume is about ____ milliliters and it represents?
a- 150, the amount of air that remains in the air passageways
b- 1200, the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled
c- 300, the amount of air remaining in the lungs after each breath
d- 500, the amount of air moved into and out of the lungs with each breath
(a) 7- The acronym COPD is the abbreviation for?
a- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
b- Cancerous Oncologic Plural Disease
c- Cystic Occlusion Pneumatic Disorder
d- Colloid Osmotic Pressure Disorder
(c) 8- Over 90% of lung cancers are associated with?
a- smog
b- asbestos
c- smoking cigarettes
d- sawdust
(c) 9- When bronchial passageways become chronically inflamed and
hypersensitive the result is?
a- SIDS
b- tuberculosis
c- asthma
d- cystic fibrosis
(d) 10- Surfactant is a ________ that acts to ______ the surface tension of water
________ with the?
a- carbohydrate, lower, trachea
b- protein, raise, trachea
c- nucleic acid, raise, alveoli
d- lipid, lower, alveoli
(c) 11- The most common lethal genetic disease in the United States is?
a- asthma.
b- Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
c- cystic fibrosis.
d- squamous cell carcinoma.
Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Body Metabolism
( ) 1- An assailant stabs a man in the upper abdomen with a butcher knife. The
man's stomach is perforated. The first layer of tissue in the stomach wall to be cut
was the?
a- muscularis mucosa
b- serosa
c- lamina propria
d- submucosa
e- mucosa
( ) 2- A wave of muscular contraction moving from the oropharynx towards the
stomach is termed a[n]?
a- peristalsis
b- segmentation contraction
c- swallowing action
d- antiperistalsis
24
e- both a and c above are correct
( ) 3- Teeth that bite off pieces of food are the?
a- wisdom teeth
b- bicuspids
c- molars
d- premolars
e- incisors
( ) 4- The glands that frequently become inflamed when one gets the mumps are
called the _______ glands?
a- parotid
b- submandibular
c- sublingual
d- sustentacular
e- both b and c above are correct
( ) 5- The soft palate separates the oral cavity from the?
a- nasopharynx
b- larynx
c- nasal cavities
d- hard palate
e- laryngopharynx
( ) 6- The pyloric sphincter?
a- is located in the jejunum
b- opens to let food into the stomach
c- opens to let food into the duodenum
d- increases the surface area for absorption
e- both a and d above are correct
( ) 7- Chief cells of the gastric glands secrete?
a- mucus
b- HCl
c- pepsinogen
d- trypsin
e- both [a] and [c] above are correct
( ) 8- The cells that secrete hydrochloric acid are the _______ cells?
a- parietal
b- zymogen
c- Kupffer
d- chief
e- mucous neck
( ) 9- The finger-like projections of the small intestinal mucosa, which are so
important in nutrient absorption, are the?
a- rugae
b- plicae circulares
c- lacteals
d- villi
e- Krypts of Lieberkuehn
( ) 10- The terminal portion of the small intestine is the?
a- caecum
b- duodenum
c- ileum
d- jejunum
e- colon
25
( ) 11- A small blind tube attached to the caecum just below (inferior) to where
the ileum attaches is the?
a- sigmoid colon
b- ascending colo
c- transverse colon
d- appendix
e- rectum
( ) 12- Clusters of lymphoid tissue found in the walls of the ileum are called?
a- Brunner's glands
b- plicae circulares
c- ileocaecal valve
d- Peyer's patches
e- Krypts of Lieberkuehn
( ) 13- Bile is carried to the duodenum by the?
a- Haustra
b- bile duct
c- cystic duct
d- pancreatic duct
e- common hepatic duct
( ) 14- One of your digestive glands secretes enzymes that are capable of digesting
carbohydrates, lipids and proteins. The gland is the?
a- parotid gland
b- adrenal gland
c- liver
d- pancreas
e- cardiac gland
( ) 15- A digestive organ that provides a strongly acidic environment is the?
a- stomach
b- jejunum
c- ileum
d- oral cavity
e- colon
( ) 16- Pepsin initiates the chemical digestion of?
a- proteins
b- lipids into fatty acids and glycerol
c- all hormones
d- complex carbohydrates - such as starches
e- steroids
( ) 17- The stomach lining is protected from the stomach acid by?
a- mucus
b- lipase
c- intrinsic factor
d- gastrin
e- pepsinogen
( ) 18- Gastrin, secreted by the gastric and duodenal mucosa, acts to?
a- change pepsinogen into pepsin
b- increase the secretions of the gastric glands
c- inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid
d- slow down the muscular contractions of the stomach wall muscles
e- initiate the digestion of lipids
( ) 19- Trypsin acts to break down?
a- maltose
b- polypeptides
26
c- cellulose
d- cholesterol
e- triglycerides
( ) 20- Fat digestion in adult humans occurs in the?
a- mouth
b- duodenum
c- liver
d- stomach
e- ileum
( ) 21- Which part of the alimentary canal penetrates the diaphragm?
a- pharynx
b- large intestine
c- esophagus
d- stomach
e- small intestine
( ) 22- Which of the following does not contribute to the extensive surface of the
small intestine at which the bulk of chemical digestion and nearly all food
absorption occurs?
a- rugae
b- length and coiling of the tube
c- microvilli
d- villi
e- plicae circulares
( ) 23- These chisel-shaped teeth are adapted for cutting?
a- premolars
b- incisors
c- canines
d- molars
e- bicuspids
( ) 24- What is the main digestive function occurring in the stomach?
a- protein digestion
b- emulsification of fats
c- starch digestion
d- fat digestion
e- absorption of the end-products of digestion
( ) 25- Which of the following is not an enzyme contained in pancreatic juice?
a- lipase
b- trypsin
c- pepsin
d- chymotrypsin
e- amylase
( ) 26- Food in the stomach on its way through the alimentary canal would next
enter the?
a- ascending colon
b- esophagus
c- duodenum
d- ileum
e- Jejunum
( ) 27- Which of the following is NOT a major nutrient (makes up the bulk of
what we eat)?
a- lipids
b- vitamins
c- carbohydrates
27
d- water
e- proteins
( ) 28- Which of the following is the body's most concentrated source of energy?
a- protein
b- vitamins
c- glucose
d- fat
e- glycogen
( ) 29- The formation of muscle proteins from food you have eaten is an example
of?
a- peristalsis
b- deglutition
c- anabolism
d- catabolism
e- emulsification
( )30- When cells oxidize amino acids for energy their _______ groups are
removed and, ultimately, in the liver, converted to the waste _______ which is
flushed from the body in urine?
a- amine group; creatinine
b- carboxyl group; urea
c- amine group; uric acid
d- carboxyl group; creatine
e- amine group; urea
( ) 31- Which of the following is NOT an important role of the liver?
a- store glycogen
b- excretion of urea
c- produce blood proteins
d- phagocytosis
e- manufacture bile
( ) 32- In general, which of the following is probably the most important factor
involved in determining a person's basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
a- surface area in relation to body volume
b- emotional state
c- amount of thyroxine produced by the thyroid gland
d- gender of the individual
e- Age of the individual
( )33- This hormone, produced by the duodenum, causes an increase in the output
of bile by the liver and pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions?
a- gastrin
b- histamine
c- secretin
d- somatostatin
e- cholecystokinin
( ) 34- What substance, produced by gastric glands, is needed for the absorption
of vitamin B12 from the small intestine?
a- pepsinogen
b- hydrochloric acid
c- histamine
d- intrinsic factor
e- gastrin
28
( ) 35- What organ produces enzymes capable of digesting all of the major
categories of organic compounds?
a- stomach
b- pancreas
c- gall bladder
d- salivary gland
e- liver
( ) 36- Ketosis and acidosis are consequences of the incomplete oxidation of?
a- carbohydrates
b- proteins
c- glucose
d- starch
e- fats
( ) 37- Which of the following is not one of the four basic layers or tunics of the
wall of the alimentary canal?
a- muscularis externa
b- serosa
c- mucosa
d- mesentery
e- submucosa
( ) 38- Which of the following is not an enzyme associated with protein digestion?
a- pepsin
b- trypsin
c- chymotrypsin
d- lipase
e- carboxypeptidase
( ) 39- Proteins of plant origin (i.e. beans, corn, rice)?
a- are complete
b- are incomplete
c- contain all of the essential amino acids
d- are the highest quality proteins
e- meet all of the body's requirements for tissue maintenance and growth
( ) 40- Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the large intestine?
a- Its longitudinal smooth muscle occurs in three bands
b- It has numerous goblet cell in it mucosa
c- It is relatively large in diameter
d- It has finger-like projections called villi in its mucosa
e- Its wall exhibits pocket-like sacs called haustra
Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Body Metabolism Self Test.
(c) 1- Which of the following describes the food pathway through the digestive
process?
a- Mouth pharynx stomach esophagus small intestine large intestine
b- Mouth_ esophagus pharynx stomach large intestine small intestine
c- Mouth pharynx esophagus stomach small intestine large intestine
d- Mouth stomach_ small intestine large intestine esophagus pharynx
(c) 2- The walls of the alimentary canal from outside to inside are?
a- muscularis externa serosa mucosa submucosa
b- submucosa serosa mucosa muscularis externa
c- serosa muscularis externa submucosa mucosa
d- mucosa submucosa muscularis externa serosa
(d) 3- The two structures that keep food in the stomach during digestion are the?
a- submucosal and myenteric plexi
29
b- hepatic and splenic flexures
c- rugae and ileocecal valve
d- cardioesophageal and pyloric sphincters
(d) 4- The proper name for baby, or milk, teeth is?
a- monociduous teeth
b- gingival teeth
c- periodontal teeth
d- deciduous teeth
(d) 5- The chemical digestion of food occurs by a series of reactions called?
a- peristalsis
b- segmentation
c- synthesis
d- hydrolysis
(c) 6- In a broad sense, the digestion of food?
a- takes place entirely in the stomach
b- takes place outside the body and exits with propulsion
c- takes place outside the body and enters upon absorption
d- takes place entirely within the mouth and small intestine
(b) 7- Food swallowing occurs in which of the following two phases?
a- Peristaltic and sympathetic phases
b- Buccal and pharyngeal-esophageal phases
c- Deglutial and pharyngeal-esophageal phases
d- Pharyngeal-esophageal and gastric phases
(c) 8- The three main metabolic pathways of cellular respiration are the?
a- lipoid, saccharoid, and proteinoid pathways
b- glycemic, hyperglycemic, and hypoglycemic pathways
c- glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport pathways
d- fats, sugar, and protein pathways
(d) 9- Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
a- production of albumin and fibrinogen
b- production of bile
c- detoxification of drugs
d- storage of antibodies
(a) 10- The major nutrients are?
a- carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and water
b- water, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
c- grains, fruits, vegetables, and milk
d- vitamin A, vitamin K, vitamin D, and vitamin E
(d) 11- Metabolism can be defined as?
a- the breakdown of the major nutrients in the body
b- the detoxification processes that take place in the body
c- all the cellular respiration taking place in the body
d- all the anabolic and all the catabolic processes taking place in the body
(c) 12- The most important factor determining a person's basal metabolic rate is
the amount of __________ in the plasma?
a- lipid
b- thymopoietin
c- thyroxine
d- growth hormone
(a) 13- The most common congenital feeding defect of the digestive system is?
a- cleft palate
b- ulcers
c- PKU
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d- cystic fibrosis
(b) 14- Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the body's inability to?
a- absorb phenylketones properly
b- use phenylalanine properly
c- metabolize phenylketones properly
d- absorb phenylalanine properly
Chapter 15: The Urinary System.
( ) 1- What enzyme produced by the kidneys helps to regulate blood pressure?
a- renin
b- aldosterone
c- urochrome
d- erythropoietin
e- creatine
( ) 2- Blood in an afferent arteriole would enter which of the following next?
a- interlobular artery
b- efferent arteriole
c- peritubular capillaries
d- arcuate artery
e- glomerulus
( ) 3- The filtrate forced through the capillary walls in the kidneys enters which
of the following first?
a- distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
b- glomerular capsule
c- loop of Henle
d- collecting duct
e- proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
( ) 4- Which of the following is not normally in the filtrate forced from the
glomerular capillaries and, therefore, does not appear in urine?
a- proteins
b- glucose
c- water
d- amino acids
e- urea
( ) 5- Which of the following is normally present in the filtrate forced from the
glomerular capillaries but does not normally appear in the urine?
a- blood cells
b- water
c- proteins
d- glucose
e- urea
( ) 6- Which of the following is not located in the renal medulla?
a- interlobar artery
b- renal pyramid
c- glomerular capsule
d- collecting duct
e- renal column
( ) 7- From first to last, the correct order in which the filtrate would pass through
the structures listed is?
a- collecting duct-glomerular capsule-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT
b- glomerular capsule-collecting duct-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT
c- glomerular capsule-PCT-loop of Henle-DCT-collecting duct
d- glomerular capsule-DCT-loop of Henle-PCT-collecting duct
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e- glomerular capsule-loop of Henle-PCT-DCT-collecting duct
( ) 8- The metabolism of nucleic acids yields this nitrogenous waste that appears
in blood and urine?
a- uric acid
b- urochrome
c- urea
d- ammonia
e- creatinine
( ) 9- The regulation of blood pH by the elimination of excess acids or alkaline
substances from the body is accomplished by the?
a- renal mechanism
b- bicarbonate buffer system
c- protein buffer system
d- respiratory system
e- phosphate buffer system
( ) 10- Which of the following substances is not normally found in urine?
a- urochrome
b- urea
c- uric acid
d- water
e- red blood cells
( ) 11- Which of the following would not apply to the location of the kidneys?
a- ventral cavity
b- thoracic cavity
c- retroperitoneal
d- abdominal cavity
e- lumbar region
( ) 12- Podocytes are?
a- Cells of the wall of the glomerular capillaries
b- cells that line the urinary bladder
c- Cells of the inner layer of the glomerular capsule
d- kidneys cells that produce renin
e- phagocytic cells in the kidneys
( ) 13- A high specific gravity of urine indicates?
a- diabetes insipidus
b- alkalosis
c- acidosis
d- excessive fluid intake
e- kidney inflammation
( )14- Starting at the tip of a medullary pyramid, the correct sequence of
structures that urine passes through on its way out of the body is?
a- renal pelvis-calyx-ureter-urinary bladder-urethra
b- renal pelvis-calyx-urethra-urinary bladder-ureter
c- ureter-calyx-renal pelvis-urinary bladder-urethra
d- calyx-renal pelvis-ureter-urinary bladder-urethra
e- calyx-renal pelvis-urethra-urinary bladder-ureter
( ) 15- Which of the following is an indicator of the disease diabetes insipidus?
a- ketones in the urine
b- glucose in the urine
c- acidosis
d- a huge volume of dilute urine
e- hunger
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( ) 16- What are the structural and functional units of the kidneys involved in
forming urine?
a- calyces
b- medullary pyramids
c- renal columns
d- nephrons
e- renal pelvises
( ) 17- Which of the following terms refers to the formation of a large volume of
urine?
a- oliguria
b- polyuria
c- anuria
d- ptosis
e- dysuria
( ) 18- Which of the following terms refers to an inflammation of the urinary
bladder?
a- pyelitis
b- cystitis
c- ptosis
d- urethritis
e- glomerulonephritis
( ) 19- Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?
a- produce urea
b- produce renin
c- excrete urea
d- maintain acid-base balance
e- maintain water and electrolyte balance
( ) 20- Which of the following substances enters the renal tubule by both filtration
and secretion?
a- glucose
b- amino acids
c- creatine
d- urea
e- water
( ) 21- Each kidney is surrounded by a layer of fibrous tissue, the?
a- renal fat pad
b- hilus
c- renal fascia
d- renal capsule
e- renal pelvis
( ) 22- The notch on the medial surface of the kidney, through which the blood
vessels enter and leave the kidney, is called the?
a- renal cortex
b- renal pelvis
c- ureter
d- calyx
e- hilus
( ) 23- The expansion of the ureter into the substance of the kidney forms the?
a- renal fascia
b- renal capsule
c- renal fat pad
d- renal pelvis
e- hilus
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( ) 24- What is the outermost portion of the kidney?
a- renal pelvis
b- renal pyramid
c- renal calyx
d- renal medulla
e- renal cortex
( ) 25- Cortical tissue that extends between the medullary or renal pyramids is
termed the?
a- nephrons
b- renal medulla
c- renal papillae
d- medullary rays
e- renal columns
( ) 26- If you dissected a medullary or renal pyramid, what would you find
inside?
a- the vas deferens
b- the glomeruli
c- the collecting tubules
d- the calyx
e- an Egyptian King's tomb
( ) 27- What is the functional unit of the kidney?
a- nephron
b- renal medulla
c- glomerulus
d- renal corpuscle
e- renal cortex
( ) 28- The portion of the nephron closest to the collecting duct is called the?
a- distal convoluted tubule
b- proximal convoluted tubule
c- Loop of Henle
d- glomerulus
e- Bowman's capsule
( ) 29- The beginning of the nephron is dilated to form the?
a- glomerulus
b- renal calyx
c- renal pelvis
d- proximal convoluted tubule
e- Bowman's capsule
( ) 30- Urine formation requires which of the following?
a- Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion
b- Glomerular filtration and tubular secretion only
c- a lot of patience
d- Tubular secretion, tubular filtration and glomerular reabsorption
e- Glomerular reabsorption and tubular filtration only
( ) 31- The uptake of substances from the lumen of the nephrons is known as?
a- tubular secretion
b- tubular filtration
c- does not occur
d- tubular reabsorption
e- tubular distension
( ) 32- The filtrate materials found in the nephron first leave the blood at the?
a- urinary bladder
b- Loop of Henle
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c- contractile vacuole
d- nephridium
e- glomerulus
( ) 33- Where does most reabsorption of substances from the glomerular filtrate
occur?
a- in the distal convoluted tubule
b- in the loop of Henle
c- in the collecting tubule
d- in the proximal convoluted tubule
e- in the Bowman's Capsule
( ) 34- Which of the following can enter the urine by tubular secretion?
a- H+
b- K+
c- Creatinine
d- All of a, b and c above are correct about tubular secretion
e- Only a and b above are correct about tubular secretion
( ) 35- What does renin do?
a- It forms paracasein with a milk protein in the stomach
b- It catalyses the formation and release of angiotensin
c- It is concerned with lipid digestion in the stomach
d- It reduces blood pressure
e- It is concerned with carbohydrate digestion in the stomach
( ) 36- The cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
a- secrete aldosterone
b- secrete renin
c- are located in the proximal convoluted tubule
d- both a and c above are correct about the juxtaglomerular cells
e- both b and c above are correct about the juxtaglomerular cells
( ) 37- Aldosterone is secreted in response to?
a- low extracellular sodium (Na+) ion concentrations
b- high extracellular potassium (K+) ion concentrations
c- increased plasma angiotensin
d- all of a, b and c above are correct about aldosterone
e- only a and c above are correct about aldosterone
( )38- Which endocrine gland is primarily concerned with sodium (Na+) and
potassium (K+) ion balance in the body?
a- Parathyroids
b- thyroids
c- adrenal cortex
d- corpus luteum
e- adrenal medulla
( ) 39- Just before the final exam in Anatomy and Physiology, to relax yourself
and ease your tensions, you drank ten pints of beer. The production and release of
ADH [Antidiuretic Hormone or Vasopressin] would?
a- be carried out by the kidney
b- decrease
c- be controlled by the anterior pituitary
d- increase dramatically
e- remain the same
( ) 40- ADH stimulates tubular reabsorption of?
a- water.
b- Na+ ions.
c- K+ ions.
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d- all of a, b and c above are correct about ADH.
e- only b and c above are correct about ADH.
Chapter 15: The Urinary System Self Test.
(a) 1- The kidneys are located?
a- posterior to the peritoneum and in the superior lumbar region
b- superior to the peritoneum and in the inferior lumbar region
c- superior to the stomach and in the superior thoracic region
d- posterior to the stomach and in the inferior thoracic region
(b) 2- The structural and functional units of the urinary system are the?
a- glomerular capsules
b- nephrons
c- collecting ducts
d- kidneys
(b) 3- Which of the following describes the pathway of glomerular filtrate through
the nephron?
a- proximal convoluted tubule glomerular capsule distal convoluted tubule loop of Henle.
b- glomerular capsule proximal convoluted tubule loop of Henle distal convoluted tubule.
c- Loop of Henle glomerular capsule proximal convoluted tubule distal convoluted tubule.
d- distal convoluted tubule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubule glomerular capsule.
(b) 4- The major factor regulating sodium ion concentration in the extracellular
fluid (ECF) is?
a- cortisol
b- aldosterone
c- angiotensin
d- potassium
(c)5- The "tube" that carries urine from the urinary bladder to the outside world
is the ____________ and the "tube" that carries urine from the kidney to the
_____________ urinary bladder is the?
a- collecting duct, nephron
b- nephron, collecting duct
c- urethra, ureter
d- ureter, urethra
(c) 6- The urinary bladder is made up of ________ smooth muscle layers and may
contain _______ milliliters of __________ when moderately full?
a- 2, 300, water b- 3, 1000, blood
c- 3, 500, urine
d- 2, 400, urine
(c) 7- Dysuria is?
a- a kidney infection
b- a bladder infection
c- painful urination
d- a ureter infection
(c) 8 - Control of voluntary urination through the night does not usually occur in
children before?
a- 6 years of age.
c- 4 years of age.
b- 8 years of age.
d- 10 years of age.
(a) 9 - The glomerular filtration rate drops by about _____ percent by the age of
70?
a- 50
b- 10
c- 75
Chapter 16: The Reproductive System.
( ) 1- Gonads are?
a- found only in the male
b- found only in the female
c- secondary sex organs
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d- 25
d- primary sex organs
e- both a and c above are correct
( ) 2- The cells forming the outer layer (i.e. that closest to the basement
membrane) of the seminiferous tubule are the?
a- spermatogonia
b- sustentacular cell
c- spermatids
d- interstitial cells
e- secondary spermatocytes
( ) 3- The spermatozoa complete their maturation in the?
a- ductus deferens
b- epididymis
c- seminal vesicles
d- rete testis
e- ejaculatory duct
( ) 4- Which structures in the testes produce spermatozoa?
a- seminiferous tubules
b- sustentacular cells
c- spermatogenesis
d- interstitial cells
e- inguinal canals
( ) 5- Why are the testes are located in the scrotum?
a- The temperature in the abdominal cavity is too high
b- They would become tangled in their ducts if they were in the abdominal cavity
c- There is no room for them in the abdominal cavity
d- They must be located closer to the penis
e- They can move more freely during spermatogenesis
( ) 6- The spermatic cord contains?
a- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, ductus deferens, epididymis
b- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, seminal vesicle
c- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, ductus deferens
d- spermatic artery, spermatic vein, spermatic nerve, epididymis
e- ovarian artery, ovarian vein, ovarian nerve, inguinal canal
( ) 7- The spermatic cord leaves the scrotum through the?
a- acoustic tube
b- gubernaculum
c- ductus deferens
d- eustachian tube
e- inguinal canal
( ) 8- Vasectomy does not affect the male secondary sexual characters because?
a- the bulbourethral glands are not affected
b- the interstitial cells are untouched
c- the semen will still contain spermatozoa
d- the testes are found in the scrotum
e- the ductus deferens produces the male sex hormones
( ) 9 - From the ejaculatory duct, sperm can pass directly into the?
a- seminal vesicle
b- epididymis
c- seminiferous tubule
d- urethra
e- ductus deferens
( ) 10 - What is the cone-shaped, terminal portion of the penis?
37
a- prepuce
b- external auditory canal
c- epididymis
d- glans penis
e- foreskin
( ) 11- Erectile tissue becomes turgid due to the?
a- contraction of skeletal muscle
b- a bony structure
c- blood sinuses filling with blood
d- elastic cartilage
e- elastic connective tissue
( ) 12-The largest of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system is the?
a- Bartolini's glands
b- seminal vesicles
c- seminal receptacles
d- prostate glands
e- bulbourethral glands
( ) 13- The interstitial cells?
a- produce ova
b- produce spermatozoa
c- secrete estrogens
d- dissolve any spermatozoa that are not ejaculated
e- secrete testosterone
( ) 14- The hormone directly responsible for the development of the male
secondary sexual characters is called?
a- cortisol
b- testosterone
c- FSH
d- epinephrine
e- LH
( ) 15- In oogenesis, the secondary oocyte is liberated into the?
a- fallopian tube
b- vagina
c- fimbriae
d- uterus
e- abdominal cavity
( ) 16- What is the rupture of the Graafian follicle and the release of its contents
called?
a- placentation
b- mastication
c- menstruation
d- ovulation
e- fertilization
( ) 17- The finger-like structures around the internal opening of the uterine or
Fallopian tube are known as the?
a- cervix
b- fundus
c- cilia
d- endometrium
e- fimbriae
( ) 18- The soft, vascular mucosal lining of the uterus is the?
a- peritoneum
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b- corpus luteum
c- mesentery
d- endometrium
e- fundus
( ) 19- The tubular portion of the uterus, that extends downwards into the upper
part of the vagina, is known as the?
a- myometrium
b- epimetrium
c- peritoneum
d- cervix of the uterus
e- endometrium
( ) 20- Ovulation depends on?
a- declining levels of FSH and a sudden surge in the levels of LH
b- low levels of both FSH and LH
c- very low estrogen levels and high progesterone levels
d- high levels of FSH and low levels of LH
e- low levels of both progesterone and estrogen
( ) 21- The usual site of implantation is the?
a- uterus
b- uterine tube
c- ovary
d- vestibule
e- vagina
( ) 22- One of the "sperm-forming factories" inside each testis is called a?
a- urethra
b- seminiferous tubule
c- ejaculatory duct
d- vas deferens
e- epididymis
( ) 23- This nonmotile cell, produced by meiosis, develops into a motile sperm by
losing excess cytoplasm and developing a tail?
a- secondary spermatocyte
b- interstitial cell
c- spermatogonium
d- spermatid
e- primary spermatocyte
( )24- Developing follicles produce this hormone which stimulates thickening of
the endometrium during each menstrual cycle and enlargement of female
reproductive organs and breast development in a young woman?
a- LH
b- progesterone
c- estrogen
d- testosterone
e- FSH
( ) 25- Starting at the site of sperm production, the correct sequence of structures
sperm pass through to reach the outside is?
a- ejaculatory duct-epididymis-rete testis-vas deferens- urethra
b- rete testis-epididymis-vas deferens-ejaculatory duct- urethra
c- rete testis-epididymis-ejaculatory duct-vas deferens- urethra
d- ejaculatory duct-rete testis-epididymis-vas deferens- urethra
e- epididymis-rete testis-vas deferens-ejaculatory duct- urethra
( ) 26- This structure begins embedding itself in the endometrium of the uterus
about 7 days after ovulation?
39
a- fetus
b- zygote
c- blastocyst
d- four-cell stage
e- morula
( ) 27- What hormone produced by the blastocyst prods the glandular corpus
luteum to continue producing its hormones to maintain the endometrium?
a- testosterone
b- follicle stimulating hormone
c- progesterone
d- human chorionic gonadotropin
e- oxytocin
( ) 28- During embryonic development ectoderm, one of the three primary
germlayers, gives rise to which of the following?
a- nervous system
b- muscles
c- skeleton
d- kidneys
e- lining of the digestive tract
( ) 29- All body systems are present in at least rudimentary form by the end of
this week of development?
a- 8
b- 16
c- 2
d- 12
e- 40
( ) 30- Which of the following is NOT true about the placenta?
a- Consists of choronic villi in cooperation with tissues of the mother's uterus
b- removes wastes from the blood of the embryo and fetus
c- produces hormones including estrogen and progesterone
d- delivers oxygen and nutrients to the blood of the embryo and fetus
e- forms from the inner cell mass
( ) 31- Sperm maturation occurs in which of the following locations?
a- vas deferens
b- ejaculatory duct
c- urethra
d- seminiferous tubule
e- epididymis
( ) 32- Since the reproductive system structures of males and females are
identical during early development, what determines whether male accessory
reproductive organs are formed?
a- absence of testosterone
b- presence of LH
c- presence of FSH
d- absence of FSH
e- presence of testosterone
( ) 33- Female reproductive capabilities end, and reproductive organs begin to
atrophy during?
a- cryptorchidism
b- parturition
c- menopause
d- menses
e- menarche
( ) 34- What is a mature follicle that is ready to undergo ovulation called?
a- corona radiata
b- corpus luteum
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c- blastocyst
d- Graafian follicle
e- antrum
( ) 35- This male hormone, or androgen, is necessary for sperm production and
causes the appearance of male secondary sex characteristics starting at puberty?
a- testosterone
b- LH
c- progesterone
d- FSH
e- estrogen
( ) 36- Which of the following is NOT a male reproductive function?
a- implantation
b- ejaculation
c- erection
d- spermatogenesis
e- testosterone production
( ) 37- Enlargement of the prostate gland can interfere with a male's reproductive
function and urination because it surrounds part of this tubular structure?
a- epididymis
b- vas deferens
c- urethra
d- ureter
e- uterine tube
( ) 38- Acrosomal enzymes are needed for?
a- maintenance of the corpus luteum
b- sperm motility
c- implantation
d- maintenance of the endometrium of the uterus
e- sperm penetration of an "egg''
( ) 39- Which of the following events occurring during the menstrual cycle is
caused by an increase in estrogen in the blood?
a- increase in blood supply and glandular secretion of the endometrium
b- ovulation
c- degeneration of the corpus luteum
d- sloughing off of the endometrium
e- thickening of the endometrium
( ) 40- Which of the following methods of contraception works mainly by
preventing ovulation?
a- coitus interruptus
b- intrauterine device
c- birth control "pill''
d- diaphragm
e- tubal ligation
Chapter 16: The Reproductive System Self Test.
(d) 1- Which of the following describes the pathway that sperm follow when
leaving the male body?
a- prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra, epididymis ductus (vas) deferens,
ejaculatory duct, urethral orifice
b- ejaculatory duct, prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra, epididymis ductus
(vas) deferens, urethral orifice
c- urethral orifice, spongy urethra, membranous urethra, prostatic urethra, ejaculatory duct,
ductus (vas) deferens epididymis
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d- epididymis ductus (vas) deferens, ejaculatory duct, prostatic urethra, membranous urethra,
spongy urethra, urethral orifice
(a) 2- The endocrine product of the testis is _________ while the exocrine product
___________ is?
a- testosterone, sperm
b- estrogen, semen
c- semen, estrogen
d- sperm, testosterone
(a) 3- Semen is composed of?
a- sperm and secretions from the prostate, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands
b- sperm and secretions from the prostate, epididymis, and interstitial cells
c- sperm and secretions from the epididymis, ductus deferens, and urethra
d- sperm and secretions from the testes
(b) 4- Testosterone production is carried out by the ________ cells after being
___________ stimulated by?
a- follicle, progesterone
b- interstitial, luteinizing hormone
c- egg, estrogen
d- sperm, progesterone
(d) 5- The progression of development in spermatogenesis is?
a- spermatogenocyte primary spermatid secondary spermatid tertiary spermatid sperm cell
b- sperm cell spermatid secondary spermatocyte primary spermatocyte spermatogonium
c- spermatid primary meiocyte secondary meiocyte acrosomal meiocyte sperm cell
d- spermatogonium primary spermatocyte secondary spermatocyte spermatid sperm cell
(c) 6- Which of the following glands produce both exocrine and endocrine
products?
a- testes, ovaries, mammaries
b- testes, ovaries, anterior pituitary
c- testes, ovaries, pancreas
d- testes, ovaries, thymus
(b) 7- Which of the following describes a pathway an ovum would follow to the
exterior of the body?
a- ovary
b- ovary
c- ovary
d- ovary
fundus uterine tube urethra
uterine tube uterus vagina
vagina myometrium endometrium
uterus vagina fallopian tube
(d) 8- The three layers of the uterus from the inside to the outside are?
a- intrametrium mediometrium exometrium
b- endomuscularis myomuscularis epimuscularis
c- interiomuscularis mediomuscularis exteriomuscularis
d- endometrium myometrium epimetrium
(a) 9- The products of meiosis I in oogenesis are the?
a- secondary oocyte and first polar body
b- primary oocyte and first polar body
c- secondary oocyte and second polar body
d- primary oocyte and second polar body
(a) 10- The follicle cells of the ovary produce ________ and the corpus luteum
_________ produces?
a- estrogen, progesterone
b- progesterone, estrogen
c- luteinizing hormone, estrogen
d- estrogen, luteinizing hormone
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(c) 11- The pathway of milk from the mammary gland to the outside of the body
is?
a- lactiferous duct alveolar gland nipple
b- nipple lactiferous duct alveolar gland
c- alveolar gland lactiferous duct nipple
d- lobule gland alveolar gland lactiferous duct
(d) 12- The mammary glands are modified?
a- uterine glands
b- areolar glands
c- sebaceous glands
d- sudoriferous glands
(d) 13- The three primary germ layers are the?
a- chorion, amnion, and placenta
b- exoepidermis, mediodermis, and endohypodermis
c- epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
d- endoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
(d) 14- The sequential stages of labor from the beginning are?
a- placental, dilation, and expulsion
b- softening, crowning, and contraction
c- softening, contraction, and stretch
d- dilation, expulsion, and placental
(a) 15- Which of the following represents a possible sequence of events in
embryonic development?
a- zygote morula blastocyst
b- blastocyst zygote morula
c- embryo vesicle zygote
d- vesicle blastocyst zygote
(b)16- usually occurs about _____ year(s) after puberty in females? _____
a- menopause, 3
b- menarche, 2
c- menarche, 1
d- menopause, 2
(b) 17- Menopause is considered to have begun when?
a- hot flashes begin
b- a year has passed without a menstruation
c- the blood levels of progesterone increase above normal
d- the blood levels of estrogen increase above normal
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