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PSE Fall Final Exam 06-07
Do NOT write on this exam. Bubble in the correct/best answer for each
question.
1. Scientific Method is performed in what sequence
a. Hypothesis, Problem, Research, Observations, Conclusion
b. State the Problem, Conduct Research, Form a Hypothesis, Make Observations, Collect Data,
Accept/Reject Hypothesis, Conclusion
c. Conduct Research, State the Problem, Form a Hypothesis, Make Observations, Collect Data,
Accept/Reject Hypothesis, Conclusion
d. All of the above are correct
2. The control is
a. An educated guess about the solution to a problem
b. Used to show that the result of an experiment is due to the condition being tested
c. The factor that changes in an experiment
d. The group in which the independent variable is changed
3. An experiment is
a. A logical explanation for events that occur in nature
b. A judgment based on the results of an experiment
c. An organized process to test a hypothesis
d. Many observations and measurements recorded during an experiment
4. 260.4 deciliters is equal to how many dekaliters?
a. 2,600
b. 0.2604
c. 2.604
d. 0.002604
5. 630.2 meters is equal to how many centimeters?
a. 630,200
b. 6302
c. 0.6302
d. 0.06302
6. The amount of space an object takes up is the
a. mass
b. volume
c. density
d. area
7. On a line graph the x-axis contains the
a. dependent variable
b. descriptive title
c. independent variable
d. vertical variable
8. A correct graph should have
a. variables
b. descriptive title
c. units
d. all of these
9. The outermost layer of the earth is called the
a. inner core
b. mantle
c. crust
d. outer core
10. Which layer of the earth behaves like a plastic? It is neither solid, nor liquid.
a. inner core
b. mantle
c. crust
d. outer core
11. All of the following are pieces of evidence for Continental Drift EXCEPT
a. animal fossils.
c. shape of continents .
b. plant fossils.
d. temperature of earth.
12. The scientist who proposed the Theory of Continental Drift was
a. James Hutton.
c. Charles Lyell.
b. Alfred Wegener.
d. Charles Darwin.
13. A plate boundary at which two plates slide past each other horizontally is a
a. divergent boundary.
c. convergent boundary.
b. transform boundary.
d. subduction zone.
14. What happens when two oceanic plates collide?
a. The plates come to a standstill.
b. The lighter plate subducts beneath the other plate.
c. The denser plate subducts beneath the other plate.
d. They both subduct, forming a deep trench.
15. Mountains are built when two continental plates come together in a process called
a. convergence.
c. sea-floor spreading.
b. divergence.
d. transforming.
16. The Theory of Plate Tectonics states that
a. the earth’s crust is constantly moving.
b. crustal plates are spreading apart, colliding and/or grinding past one another.
c. new ocean is made by sea floor spreading.
d. all of the above
Use the following illustration to answer questions # 17-19.
17. Which of the following statements describes the elevation change from point Z to point X?
a. a 20 meter climb
c. a 20 meter descent
b. a 40 meter climb
d. a 40 meter descent
18. Approximately what distance would you travel between point X and point Y?
a. 10 kilometers
c. 45 kilometers
b. 25 kilometers
d. 100 kilometers
19. What is the direction of water flow in this segment of the Cohocton River?
a. NE to SW
c. SE to NW
b. NW to SE
d. SW to NE
20. Which statement best describes the difference between lines of latitude and lines of longitude?
a. Lines of longitude circle the globe “horizontally,” while lines of latitude run between the
poles “vertically.”
b. Lines of latitude and longitude converge (cross) at the equator.
c. Lines of latitude and longitude never cross.
d. Lines of latitude circle the globe “vertically,” while lines of longitude run between the
poles “horizontally.”
21. On a topographic map, elevation is shown by means of:
a. great circles.
c. contour lines.
b. verbal scale.
d. fractional scale.
22. Contour lines, which are darker and have the elevation printed on them, are known as
a. gradients.
b. reliefs.
c. contour intervals.
d. index contours.
Use the following illustration to answer questions # 23-24.
23. Look at the map above. What type of feature is shown by the contour lines at R?
a. a depression
c. a waterfall
b. a small hill
d. a river valley
24. In the map above, which two points are at the same elevation?
a. O and M
b. N and R
c. R and K
d. L and P
Match the following words with the correct definition (#25 – 29).
25.
chemical properties
a. negatively charged subatomic particle
26.
proton
27.
neutron
b. characteristic properties that describe how a substance
reacts with other substances to form new substances.
28.
physical properties
c. characteristics that can be observed without changing
the composition of the substance.
29.
electron
d. subatomic particle without charge.
e. positively charged subatomic particle
30. Which of the following statements is the best summary of the rock cycle?
a. Rock deep below ground rise to the surface, are moved back underground, then rise to the
surface again.
b. Igneous rock and sedimentary rock change to metamorphic rock.
c. The rock cycle has a single pathway from one type of rocks to another type of rock.
d. Every type of rock can be changed into every other type of rock. The type of rock that
forms depends on the conditions that affect the rock.
31. The word igneous comes from a Latin term that means
a. “from fire.”
b. “from wind.”
c. “from rock.”
d. “from fossils.”
32. Rocks get broken down into small fragments by:
a. freezing.
b. erosion.
d. crystallization.
c. deposition.
33. Which of the following best describes the process by which metamorphic rocks are formed?
a. A rock is subjected to intense heat and pressure and is chemically altered.
b. A rock is compressed into a very dense layer.
c. Earth’s internal forces grind the stone into a powder.
d. Over thousand’s of years, layers of decomposed plant materials fuse together to form a
new kind of rock.
34. Light-colored igneous rocks are generally part of the
a. basalt family.
c. intermediate family.
b. felsic family.
d. mafic family.
35. Based on the processes that form them, which rocks would be most likely to have features such as
fossils?
a. metamorphic
c. sedimentary
b. metamorphic and igneous
d. igneous
36. Sediment that has grains of approximately the same size is said to be
a. well sorted.
c.
moderately sorted.
b. poorly sorted.
d.
very poorly sorted.
37. Three factors that determine whether rock melts are
a. heat, pressure, and the presence of fluid.
b. pressure, the presence of fluid, and crystallization.
c. the presence of fluid, crystallization, and heat.
d. crystallization, heat, and pressure.
38. The most common silicate minerals are the
a. feldspars.
b. halides.
c. carbonates.
39. The ratio of a mineral’s mass to its volume is the mineral’s
a. atomic weight.
b. density.
c. mass.
d. sulfates.
d. weight.
40. What mineral property involves iron? (Hint: Iron is a key element in magnetite.)
a. radioactivity
b. density
c. refraction
d. magnetism
41. A minerals hardness is largely determined by
a. its cleavage.
b. the strength of the atomic bonds.
c. its density.
d. luster
42. The tendency of a mineral to break into irregular, uneven surfaces
a. luster.
b. streak.
c. fracture.
d. cleavage.
43. The tendency of a mineral to split to form smooth, flat surfaces
a. luster.
b. streak.
c. fracture.
d. cleavage.
44. The color of a mineral in its powdered form is called
a. luster.
b. streak.
c. fracture.
d. cleavage.
45. A mineral’s ability to resist scratching is called
a. density.
b. hardness.
d. streak.
c. fracture.
46. The place on Earth’s surface directly above the location where the earthquake occurs is called the
_____________.
a. focus
b. epinode
c. epicenter
d. epitaph
47. The San Andreas fault system is a well-known example of a(n) _________ fault.
a. transform
b. normal
c. reverse
d. thrust
Match the type of fault with its correct picture (#48 – 50).
a. normal
b. reverse
c. transform
48.
49.
51. P waves are also known as:
a. Surface waves
b. compression waves (Primary waves)
50.
c. Love waves
d. Rayleigh waves
52. The scale that measures earthquake magnitude is known as the:
a. Mercalli scale
b. Fujita scale
c. Moh’s scale
d. Richter scale
53. When oceanic and continental lithospheres collide:
a. the oceanic plate subducts
c. their momentum stops each other
b. the continental plate subducts
d. they reach isostasy
54. The Himalaya Mountains formed as a result of:
a. massive volcanic flows
b. a divergent plate boundary
c. subduction
d. colliding continents
55. The area underneath the Earth’s surface where a plate is being pushed under another plate is
called:
a. a conduction zone
c. the asthenosphere
b. a trench
d. a subduction zone
56. In the diagram below, what type of waves are represented by the letter “C”.
a. Love & Rayleigh waves (surface waves)
c. Secondary waves
b. Compressional waves
d. Primary waves
57. Which of the following pieces of laboratory equipment (instrument) would be the most useful for
measuring the magnitude of an earthquake?
a. Richter scale
c. seismograph
b. shake table
d. epicenterometer
58. The epicenter of an earthquake is located using the distances from a minimum of ___________
seismic stations.
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
59. Normal faults form as a result of ________________ stress.
a. compressive
b. shear
c. tensional
d. brittle
60. _______________ waves cause the ground to move in an elliptical motion.
a. Love
b. Rayleigh
c. Primary
d. Body
61. This area is both a major earthquake zone and volcano zone.
a. Pacific Ring of Volcanoes
c. Oceanic Ring of Fire
b. Pacific Ring of Fire
d. Pacific Island Arc
62. When an underwater volcano erupts, the magma cools quickly, forming
a. pillow lava.
b. pyroclastics.
c. aa lava.
63. Mount St. Helens is an example of a(n):
a. cinder volcano
b. divergent plate boundary
d. pahoehoe lava.
c. shield volcano
d. composite volcano
64. The eruption of Mount St. Helens was a(n)
a. oceanic volcano
b. explosive eruption c. quiet eruption
d. small eruption
65. Any activity that includes the movement of magna to Earth’s surface is called
a. a vent.
b. volcanism.
c. a volcano.
d. lava.
66. A large circular depression that forms when the magma chamber below a volcano partially
empties, causing the ground above it to sink, is called a
a. crater.
b. cone.
c. caldera.
d. crust.
67. An area of volcanic activity far from a tectonic plate boundary, for example, inside the interior
part of continental crust, is called a(n)
a. hot spot.
b. island arc.
c. cone.
d. caldera.
68. What is an atom that has a different number of neutrons than other atoms of the same element?
a. ion
b. electron
c. isotope
d. molecule
69. What are counted in an atom to determine mass number?
a. neutrons
b. protons and neutrons
c. protons and electrons
70. What is the atomic number of an element?
a. the number of protons and neutrons
b. the number of valence electrons
c. the number of neutrons
d. the number of protons
71. Elements are arranged on the periodic table
a. in order of molecular numbers
b. in order of atomic numbers
c. alphabetically
d. randomly
d. electrons
72. When elements and compounds combine to form new compounds, the reaction is described in a
___________.
a. chemical mixture
c. gravity field
b. chemical equation
d. chemical bond
73. What does "2" mean in the formula for water, H2O?
a. two molecules of water
c. two atoms of hydrogen
b. two molecules of hydrogen
d. two atoms of oxygen
74. Where are electrons found in atoms?
a. in the electron sphere
b. in the electron zone
c. in the atomic ring cycle
d. in the electron cloud
75. The attractive force between oppositely charged ions that result from the transfer of electrons from
one atom to another is known as __________.
a. a covalent bond
c. an atomic bond
b. a physical bond
d. an ionic bond
76. What are two ways that fresh water supplies can be maintained?
a. conservation and alternative ways of obtaining fresh water.
b. conservation and condensation.
c. conservation and evapotranspiration.
d. conservation and declassification
77. About 90% of the water used by cities and industry is returned to rivers or to oceans as_________.
a. runoff
c. salt water
b. wastewater
d. precipitation
78. What is the name for the land that is drained by a river system?
a. watershed
c. floodplain
b. water table
d. bedrock
Match the following words with the correct definition.
79.
evaporation
a. the process of removing salt from ocean water.
80.
evapotranspiration
b. any form of water that falls to Earth’s surface
81.
desalination
c. the change of state from gas to liquid
82.
condensation
d. the process by which liquid water changes in water vapor
83.
precipitation
e. total loss of water from an area, from land and from
organisms
84. Which of the following is true regarding water distribution in California?
a. Southern California receives 75% of the precipitation and Northern California receives
25% of the precipitation.
b. Southern California receives 25% of the precipitation and Northern California receives
75% of the precipitation.
c. Precipitation in California is evenly distributed between Northern and Southern California.
d. Surface water is regularly pumped from Southern California to Northern California in
order to meet the water demands of Northern California
85. Water for Southern California’s population is mostly provided by
a. local precipitation alone
b. local precipitation and groundwater alone
c. aqueducts from Northern California alone
d. aqueducts from Northern California and from the Colorado River.
86. The largest use of water in California is for
a. agriculture
b. home use
c. industry
d. drinking water
87. In the foul water lab, which method was used to remove sand and other solids from water?
a. sand – gravel separation
c. oil-water filtration
b. paper filtration
d. reverse osmosis
88. In the foul water lab, the method used to reduce odor from the water was
a. sand – gravel separation
c. oil-water filtration
b. charcoal filtration
d. reverse osmosis
89. In the foul water lab, the liquid material that was less dense was______ so it _________.
a. water; floated
c. water; sank
b. oil; floated
d. oil sank
90. Which is the correct order of the stages of the water cycle?
a. precipitation, evaporation, condensation, runoff
b. precipitation, runoff, condensation, evaporation
c. precipitation, runoff, evaporation, condensation
d. precipitation, evaporation, runoff, condensation
91. The largest watershed in California is the
a. coastal mountains
b. San Gabriel mountains
c. Sierra Nevada mountains
d. Santa Monica mountains
92. The best source of ground water would be found in
a. rock with high porosity and high permeability
b. rock with low porosity and high permeability
c. rock with low porosity and low permeability
d. rock with high porosity and low permeability
93. A body of rock or sediment in which large amounts of water can be stored is called a(n)
a. karst topography
b. geyser
c. aquifer
d. cone of depression
94. The upper surface of ground water is called a(n)
a. zone of saturation
b. capillary action
c. zone of aeration
d. water table
95. Groundwater flows because of ____________. The speed that it flows depends on the
___________ of the water table.
a. gravity; gradient
b. gravity; size
c. wind; gradient
d. heat; size
96. Which of the following can lower the water table?
I. Drought
II. Pumping water from a well
III. Protecting a recharge zone
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I, II, and III
97. The layer of an aquifer in which the pore space is filled to capacity with water is the
a. zone of saturation
c. zone of aeration
b. capillary action
d. water table
98. Metals are known to
a. have a dull surface.
b. provide fuel.
c. conduct heat and electricity.
d. occur only in placer deposits.
99. An example of a metal valued for its beauty is
a. gypsum.
b. calcite.
c. gold.
100.
d. sulfur.
Subsurface mining techniques are used for mineral deposits
a. close to Earth’s surface.
c. in stream beds.
b. in the oceans.
d. below Earth’s surface.