Download Final Exam 2016 Medical Terminology

1) Which of the following medications is required to prevent rejection of a transplanted
organ?
A) antihistamine
B) corticosteroid
D) immunosuppressant
C) protease inhibitor
2) Which term means lymph gland inflammation?
A) lymphangiitis
B) lympangiogram
C) lymphadenitis
D) lymphadenopathy
3) Which anemia results from the loss of functioning bone marrow?
A) sickle cell anemia
B) hemolytic anemia
D) aplastic anemia
C) hypochromic anemia
4) Which type of anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency?
A) hemolytic anemia
C) aplastic anemia
B) hypochromic anemia
D) pernicious anemia
5) Which blood type is called the Universal Recipient?
C) Type AB
A) Type O
B) Type A
D) Type B
6) Which of the following medications prevents blood clot formation?
B) anticoagulant
A) hematinic
C) antihemorrhagic
D) thrombolytic agent
7) Which of the following blood tests is an indicator of the presence of an inflammatory
disease?
A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B) culture and sensitivity
C) hematocrit
D) pro-time
8) Which of the following conditions is a cancer?
A) septicemia
B) pernicious anemia
C) leukemia
D) polycythemia vera
9) Which is NOT one of the formed elements of the blood?
A) platelets
B) white cells
C) red cells
D) plasma
10) Which of the following conditions is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow?
B) lymphedema
A) lymphangiography
C) lymphangioma
D) lymphadenitis
11) Which condition results in thick blood as a result of having too many red blood
cells?
A) hyperlipidemia
B) thalassemia
C) polycythemia vera
D) hemophilia
12) Which term means pertaining to blood?
A) sanguinous
C) hematologic
B) hematic
D) both A and B
13) Which term means red (cell) production?
A) thrombopoiesis
B) hematopoiesis
C) leukopoiesis
D) erythropoiesis
14) Which of the following statements regarding the tonsils is NOT true?
A) The palatine tonsils are located in the nasal cavity.
B) The tonsils are composed of lymphatic tissue.
C) Sometimes the tonsils have to be removed if they become chronically infected.
D) The tonsils remove pathogens for the digestive and respiratory systems.
15) Which of the following is NOT part of the immune response?
A) stimulation of natural killer cells to destroy pathogens
B) production of antibodies by A lymphocytes
C) exposure to a pathogen
D) phagocytosis of infectious agents
16) Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic reaction?
A) AIDs-related complex
B) elephantiasis
C) anaphylactic shock
D) sarcoidosis
17) Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease?
A) sarcoidosis
B) Kaposi’s sarcoma
C) elephantiasis
D) mononucleosis
18) Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system?
A) liver
B) lymph nodes
C) lymphatic vessels
D) spleen
19) Which of the following medications helps to block an allergic reaction?
A) antihistamine
B) corticosteroid
C) protease inhibitor
D) immunosuppressant
20) Which of the following statements regarding lymph nodes is NOT true?
A) They remove pathogens and cell debris from lymph.
B) Lymph nodes are found only in a certain few areas of the body, like the
neck.
C) They trap and destroy cancerous cells.
D) They house lymphocytes and antibodies.
21) Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?
C) sodium
A) globulins
B) fibrinogen
D) albumin
22) Which term means blood destruction?
A) hemolytic
C) hemolysis
B) hematolytic
D) both A and C
23) Red blood cells appear red because:
A) of the size of their nucleus
C) they contain hemoglobin
B) they transport oxygen
D) they contain bilirubin
24) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus gland is NOT true?
A) The thymus secretes thymosin.
B) The thymus is located in the mediastinum of the chest.
C) The thymus increases in size throughout life.
D) The thymus is important for the proper development of the immune system.
25) Which of the following medications is useful for treating autoimmune diseases?
B) corticosteroid
A) antihistamine
C) protease inhibitor
D) immunosuppressant
26) Which of the following substances is NOT transported by plasma?
C) oxygen
A) amino acids
B) glucose
D) calcium
27) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a blood test?
C) BMT
A) PT
B) HCT
D) CBC
28) Which of the following is NOT an example of acquired immunity?
A) antibodies formed during direct exposure to a pathogen
B) an antitoxin injection
C) immunizations
D) antibodies crossing the placenta from the baby to the mother
29) Which of the following medications relaxes muscle spasms in the bronchial tube?
B) bronchodilator
A) expectorant
C) antitussive
D) antihistamine
30) Which condition is characterized by the destruction of the walls of the alveoli
resulting in overexpanded air sacs?
A) emphysema
B) histoplasmosis
C) empyema
D) pneumoconiosis
31) Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic laboratory test?
B) ABGs
A) CPR
C) ENT
D) ARDS
32) Which condition is a bacterial upper respiratory infection characterized by the
formation of a thick membranous film across the throat?
A) diphtheria
B) asthma
C) pertussis
D) croup
33) The upper section of the pharynx is called:
A) oropharynx
C) laryngopharynx
B) hypopharynx
D) nasopharynx
34) The paranasal sinuses are located within the ________.
A) nasopharynx
B) nasal cavity
C) facial bones
D) inner ear
35) Which of the following statements regarding respiration is NOT true?
A) Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the bloodstream.
B) Carbon dioxide is the byproduct of metabolism.
C) Oxygen is needed for the body cells’ metabolism.
D) Carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the cells.
36) Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic test?
A) PFT
B) SOB
C) TB
37) Mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract is called:
D) URI
A) sputum
B) hemoptysis
C) phlegm
D) stridor
38) Which diagnostic procedure measures the oxygen level in the blood?
A) polysomnography
B) bronchography
D) oximetry
C) ventilation-perfusion scan
39) Which kind of medication is suspended in a mist in order to be inhaled?
A) aerosol therapy
B) pulmonary medications
C) endotracheal medications
D) postural drainage
40) Which term means narrowing of the trachea?
A) tracheosclerosis
C) tracheostenosis
B) tracheostomy
D) tracheoectasis
41) Which of the following terms means air in the chest?
A) hemothorax
B) pyothorax
C) pneumothorax
D) pulmothorax
42) Which of the following conditions may result in a collapsed lung?
B) pneumothorax
A) pleural effusion
C) tuberculosis
D) pulmonary embolism
43) Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis?
A) pulmonary angiography
B) sputum cytology
C) sweat test
D) spirometry
44) The pulmonary capillaries tightly encase the:
A) main bronchi
B) apex
C) alveoli
D) bronchioles
45) Which condition is commonly called walking pneumonia?
A) histoplasmosis pneumonia
B) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) pulmonary edema pneumonia
46) Which term means abnormal condition of lung dust?
A) pulmoconiosis
B) pneumoanthracosis
C) pneumoconiosis
D) anthracosis
47) The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers
________ to the cells of the body.
A) carbon dioxide
B) sodium
D) oxygen
C) nutrients
48) Which of the following is an inherited condition?
A) atelectasis
B) histoplasmosis
C) cystic fibrosis
D) emphysema
49) Which term means open or unblocked?
A) patent
B) stridor
C) asphyxia
D) percussion
50) Which therapeutic procedure uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions
from the bronchi?
A)
B)
C)
D)
postural drainage
intermittent positive pressure breathing
Heimlich maneuver
thoracentesis
51) Which term means inflammation of the nose and throat?
A) rhinopharyngitis
B) nasolaryngitis
C) nasopharyngitis
D) rhinolaryngitis
52) The opening through the vocal cords is called the:
A) epiglottis
B) adenoids
C) glottis
D) thyroid cartilage
53) Which medication is used to treat obesity?
A) antiemetic
B) antacid
C) laxative
D) anorexiant
54) Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the digestive system?
B) tracheal
A) gastrointestinal
C) alimentary
D) gut
55) Which medical term means inflammation of appendix?
B) appendicitis
A) appendicopathy
C) appendicosis
D) appenditis
56) Which of the following procedures provides the patient with intravenous nutrition?
A) gavage
B) nasogastric intubation
C) total parenteral nutrition
D) lavage
57) The common bile duct empties into the:
B) duodenum
A) stomach
C) gallbladder
D) liver
58) Which of the following endoscopic exams would be used to view inside a section of
the colon?
A) gastroscopy
B) esophagoscopy
D) sigmoidoscopy
C) laparoscopy
59) The ________ section of the stomach tapers off into the pyloric sphincter.
D) antrum
A) rugae
B) fundus
C) body
60) The liver produces ________ to aid in digestion.
A) chyme
B) amylase
C) buffers
D) bile
61) Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition?
C) GERD
A) NG
B) FOBT
D) O&P
62) Which medical term means removal of gallbladder?
A) cholelithiasis
B) choledochectomy
D) cholecystectomy
C) cholelithectomy
63) A ________ is a small tumor on a stem attachment.
A) polyp
B) pyrosis
C) denture
D) melena
64) Which medication is used to neutralize stomach acid?
B) antacid
A) antiemetic
C) laxative
65) The stomach secretes:
A) water
C) hydrochloric acid
B) sulfuric acid
D) saliva
66) The crown of a tooth is covered by:
A) gingiva
B) cementum
C) enamel
D) anorexiant
D) dentin
67) Food leaving the small intestine first enters the ________ of the colon.
B) cecum
A) sigmoid colon
C) ascending colon
D) appendix
68) The folds in the lining of the stomach are called:
A) sphincters
B) fundus
C) chyme
D) rugae
69) Saliva contains digestive enzymes to begin digesting:
A) cholesterol
B) protein
D) carbohydrates
C) fats
70) Pancreatic enzymes digest:
A) fats
C) protein
B) carbohydrates
D) all the above
71) The proper name for the baby teeth is the ________ teeth.
C) deciduous
A) molar
B) permanent
D) incisor
72) The correct order of the three sections of the small intestine is:
A) duodenum, jejunum, ileum
B) ileum, jejunum, duodenum
C) duodenum, ileum, jejunum
D) jejunum, duodenum, ileum
73) Which X-ray would be used to visualize the gallbladder?
A) IV cholecystography
B) lower GI series
C) cholangiography
D) upper GI series
74) Which molecule is NOT an electrolyte?
A) Cl–
C) Na+
B) K+
D) all are electrolytes
75) Which clinical laboratory test can identify an infection?
A) blood urea nitrogen
B) culture and sensitivity
D) B and C
C) urinalysis
76) Which term is misspelled?
A) incontinene
B) enuresis
77) Which term is misspelled?
A) hemidialysi
B) micturition
s
78) Which abbreviation is an X-ray?
C) urethrrhagia
D) diuresis
C) azotemia
D) retention
A) KUB
B) C & S
C) CRF
79) Which term means drooping kidney?
A) nephrostomy
C) nephroptosis
B) nephromegaly
D) nephrosis
80) Which combining form is misspelled?
B) glomeral/o
A) glycos/o
C) pyel/o
D) GU
D) meat/o
81) ________ is a greater than normal occurrence of the urge to urinate, without an
increase in the total daily volume of urine.
A) Frequency
B) Hesitancy
C) Enuresis
D) Diuresis
82) The renal papilla empties urine into the:
A) ureter
B) renal pelvis
C) nephron
83) Which abbreviation is an X-ray of the renal pelvis?
C) IVP
A) BNO
B) KUB
D) calyx
D) ESRD
84) Which condition is commonly called a floating kidney?
A) nephroptosis
B) nephrotic syndrome
C) nephrolithiasis
D) nephromegaly
85) Specific gravity indicates:
A) the amount of dissolved substances in the urine
B) the amount of acid in the urine
C) the amount of blood in the urine
D) the amount of water in the urine
86) Which abbreviation is a blood test?
A) UTI
B) KUB
C) BUN
D) ATN
87) Which term refers to frequent urination?
A) oliguria
B) dysuria
C) anuria
D) polyuria
88) In a cystocele, the bladder bulges into the:
A) kidney
B) colon
C) vagina
D) urethra
89) Which kidney structure empties into the ureter?
B) renal pelvis
A) renal papilla
C) renal pyramid
D) calyx
90) Hematuria may be a symptom of:
A) bladder cancer
C) enuresis
B) renal failure
D) urinary retention
91) Which term means condition of scanty amount of urine?
A) polyuria
B) nocturia
C) dysuria
D) oliguria
92) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure?
C) D & C
A) GYN
B) HDN
D) PAP
93) Which surgical procedure reverses a vasectomy?
B) vasovasostomy
A) vasoplasty
C) orchidoplasty
D) orchidopexy
94) The male reproductive system and the urinary system share which organ?
A) urethra
B) prostate gland
C) bladder
D) ureter
95) Which surgical procedure delivers a baby through an abdominal incision?
A) cesarean section
B) dilation and curettage
C) episiotomy
D) conization
96) Which surgical procedure removes the prepuce?
B) circumcisio
A) sterilization
C) castration
n
D) TUR
97) Which is NOT a function of the female reproductive system?
A) nourish newborn
B) location for fertilization
D) all are functions
C) produce ova
98) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic test?
A) PAP
B) OB
C) IUD
D) GYN
99) Which medical term means surgical fixation of testes?
A) orchiotomy
B) orchioplasty
D) orchidopexy
C) orchidectomy
100) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a medical specialty?
C) OB
A) TSS
B) LMP
D) PID
101) A premature infant is born prior to the completion of ________ weeks of gestation.
D) 37
A) 40
B) 25
C) 38
102) Which of the following conditions occurs when the placenta forms over the mouth
of the cervix, blocking the birth canal?
A) placenta previa
B) eclampsia
C) choriocarcinoma
D) abruptio placentae
103) Just prior to the eighth week of gestation the infant is called a(n):
C) embryo
A) fetus
B) zygote
D) neonate
104) Which of the following is the primary male sex hormone?
A) testosterone
B) oxytocin
C) progesterone
D) luteinizing hormone
105) Which surgical procedure is used to treat cryptorchidism?
C) orchidopex
A) vasectomy
B) circumcisio
y
n
106) The first stage of labor and delivery is called the ________ stage.
A) effacement
B) placental
C) expulsion
D) TUR
D) dilation
107) Which of the following glands is NOT regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone?
B) pineal
A) adrenal cortex
C) gonads
D) thyroid
108) Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the cells of the body to rapidly
divide?
A) luteinizing hormone
B) melanocyte stimulating hormone
C) growth hormone
D) follicle stimulating hormone
109) Which of the following terms means insufficient sodium in the blood?
B) hyponatremia
A) hypercalcemia
C) hyperkalemia
D) hypoglycemia
110) Which of the following is NOT one of the families of hormones secreted by the
adrenal cortex?
A) epinephrines
B) glucocorticoids
C) mineralocorticoids
D) steroid sex hormones
111) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition?
B) DM
A) TSH
C) FSH
D) ACTH
112) Which anterior pituitary hormone is also called somatotropin?
A) luteinizing hormone
B) prolactin
D) growth hormone
C) melanocyte stimulating hormone
113) Which of the following diagnostic procedures can be used to measure the levels of
hormones in the blood?
A) fasting blood sugar
B) total calcium
C) radioimmunoassay
D) protein-bound iodine test
114) Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses radioactive iodine as part of the
test?
A) two-hour postprandial
B) thyroid echogram
D) thyroid scan
C) thyroid function test
115) The nerve irritability and muscle cramps that develop as a result of
hypoparathyroidism is called:
C) tetany
A) myxedema
B) acromegaly
D) cretinism
116) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary?
A) antidiuretic hormone
B) follicle stimulating hormone
D) A and C
C) oxytocin
117) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) aldosterone — regulates sodium levels
B) cortisol — regulates carbohydrate metabolism
C) epinephrine — critical during emergency situations
D) androgens — female sex hormones
118) Gynecomastia is the:
A) development of breast tissue in a male
B) development of irregular menstrual periods
C) development of an excessive amount of hair
D) excessive growth of the body
119) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic lab test?
B) FBS
A) FSH
C) TSH
D) DM
120) Which of the following abbreviations is a pathological condition?
A) PET
B) ANS
C) EEG
D) CP
121) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to insufficient
neurotransmitter at a synapse?
A) Guillain-Barré syndrome
B) multiple sclerosis
C) myasthenia gravis
D) shingles
122) Which part of the brain serves as a center for relaying impulses from the eyes, ears,
and skin to the cerebrum?
B) thalamus
A) hypothalamus
C) pons
D) cerebrum
123) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition in which
there is a loss in the myelin sheath around nerves?
B) MS
A) CVA
C) TIA
D) SCI
124) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) motor neuron — efferent neuron
B) somatic nerves — serve the eyes and ears
C) ganglion — knot-like mass of nerve cell bodies
D) sensory neuron — afferent neuron
125) Which layer of the meninges is applied directly to the surface of the brain?
B) pia mater
A) dura mater
C) subdural layer
D) arachnoid layer
126) Which of the following is the part of a neuron that receives the impulse?
A) dendrite
B) nerve cell body
C) axon
D) myelin
127) Which of the following surgical procedures treats hydrocephalus?
A) cerebrospinal fluid shunt
B) laminectomy
C) carotid endarterectomy
D) nerve block
128) Which of the following is the elevated portion of the convolutions on the surface of
the cerebrum?
A) gyri
B) ventricles
C) synapse
D) sulci
129) Which of the following conditions results from a Herpes zoster virus infection of the
nerve root?
A) Guillain-Barré syndrome
B) multiple sclerosis
D) shingles
C) myasthenia gravis
130) Which part of the brain controls body temperature, appetite, sleep, sexual desire,
and emotions?
A) cerebrum
C) thalamus
B) hypothalamus
D) cerebellum
131) Which of the following blood tests measures the volume of red blood cells within
the total volume of blood?
A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B) culture and sensitivity
C) hematocrit
D) pro-time
132) Which of the following statements regarding the different types of leukocytes is
NOT true?
A) Lymphocytes protect through immunity activity.
B) Eosinophils destroy parasites.
C) Monocytes release histamine.
D) Neutrophils are phagocytic.
133) Which of the following abbreviations is a test for HIV-AIDS?
A) ELISA
B) KS
C) PCP
D) GVHD
134) A(n) ________ transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient’s own body.
D) autologous
A) analogous
B) homologous
C) self
135) Which term means clotting cell?
A) erythrocyte
B) leukocyte
C) thrombocyt
e
136) Which of the following conditions is a blood infection?
A) hemophilia
B) thalassemia
C) leukemia
D) granulocyte
D) septicemia
137) Which of the following is a term meaning a substance that causes an allergic
reaction?
B) allergen
A) atypical protein
C) allergist
D) allergy
138) Which of the following conditions is cancerous?
B) Hodgkin’s disease
A) AIDs-related complex
C) lymphadenitis
D) sarcoidosis
139) Which of the following statements regarding erythrocytes is NOT true?
A) Hemoglobin is an iron-containing molecule inside red blood cells.
B) Bilirubin from worn out red blood cells is recycled by the liver.
C) Erythrocytes live an average of 120 days.
D) Worn out erythrocytes are removed by the spleen.
140) Which is the severe itching associated with hives?
A) lymphedema
B) anaphylactic
C) urticaria
D) dyscrasia
141) Which diagnostic procedure monitors a patient while sleeping to identify sleep
apnea?
B) polysomnography
A) bronchoscopy
C) pulmonary function test
D) ventilation-perfusion scan
142) The two external openings into the nasal cavity are called the:
A) cilia
B) nasal septum
D) nares
C) sinuses
143) Which term means pleural pain?
A) pleurectomy
B) thoracalgia
C) pleuritis
144) Which of the following does not make up part of the lungs?
C) trachea
A) bronchi
B) alveoli
D) pleurodynia
D) bronchioles
145) Which of the following medications relieves the urge to cough?
A) expectorant
B) bronchodilator
C) antitussive
D) antihistamine
146) The small hairs that line the opening to the nose and the airways are called:
C) cilia
A) sinuses
B) nares
D) septa
147) Which of the following choices presents the airways in anatomical order?
A) larynx, trachea, pharynx, bronchial tubes
B) pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes
C) bronchial tubes, trachea, pharynx, larynx
D) pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchial tubes
148) Which term means abnormal condition of blue?
A) cyanosis
B) cyanitis
C) cyaniosis
D) cyanotic
149) Which is an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A) salivary gland
B) liver
D) all the above are accessory organs
C) pancreas
150) Which of the following is NOT a salivary gland?
A) buccal
B) parotid
C) sublingual
D) submandibular
151) The section of the pharynx associated with the mouth is the:
B) oropharynx
A) nasopharynx
C) hypopharynx
D) laryngopharynx
152) An elevated alanine transaminase level indicates ________ disease.
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) stomach
D) colon
153) Which of the following is NOT a grinding tooth?
A) pre-molars
B) bicuspids
C) molars
D) cuspids
154) The twisting of the colon on itself is called:
A) volvulus
C) hiatal hernia
B) intussusception
D) hemorrhoids
155) The medical term for vomiting is:
A) bruxism
C) melena
B) deglutination
D) emesis
156) The presence of ketones in the urine may indicate:
B) diabetes
A) renal failure
C) anemia
D) kidney infection
157) Which term means condition of difficult urination?
A) dysuria
B) ketonuria
C) anuria
158) A neurogenic bladder results in:
A) anuria
C) urinary incontinence
D) polyuria
B) urinary retention
D) protein in the urine
159) Which clinical laboratory test measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the
blood?
A) blood urea nitrogen
B) culture and sensitivity
C) creatinine clearance
D) urinalysis
160) Which medical term is misspelled?
B) oligouria
A) glycosuria
C) anuria
D) proteinuria
161) Which condition allows red blood cells and protein to enter the filtrate?
A) nephrolithiasis
B) polycystic kidneys
D) glomerulonephritis
C) nephroptosis
162) After spermatogenesis, sperm are stored in the:
A) urethra
B) vas deferens
D) epididymis
C) seminal vesicle
163) Which of the following abbreviations is a surgical procedure?
C) TUR
A) PSA
B) BPH
D) A and C
164) The male reproductive system has two of all of the following organs except the:
A) epididymis
B) seminal vesicle
D) prostate gland
C) vas deferens
165) The vas deferens connects:
A) testes to penis
C) epididymis to bladder
B) testes to urethra
D) epididymis to urethra
166) Which organ does NOT frequently develop cancerous tumors?
A) ovary
B) endometrium
D) fallopian tube
C) cervix
167) Which of the following statements regarding mineralocorticoid hormones is NOT
true?
A) Mineralocorticoid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex.
B) Mineralocorticoids regulate carbohydrate metabolism in the body.
C) Aldosterone is an example of a mineralocorticoid.
D) Aldosterone regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body.
168) Which of the following statements regarding glands is NOT true?
A) Exocrine glands release their secretions into a duct to the outside of the body.
B) Sweat glands are an example of exocrine glands.
C) Exocrine glands are also referred to as ductless glands.
D) Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream.
169) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the ovaries?
A) estrogen
B) melatonin
D) A and C
C) progesterone
170) An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called:
A) myxedema
B) adenocarcinoma
D)
goiter
C) insulinoma
171) The medical term for abnormal sensations such as burning or tingling is:
A) paresthesia
B) tremor
C) tic
D) seizure
172) Which of the following statements regarding the spinal cord is NOT true?
A) The spinal cord extends from the medulla oblongata down to the sacrum.
B) Ascending tracts carry sensory information up to the brain.
C) Descending tracts carry motor commands from the brain to a peripheral nerve.
D) Cerebrospinal fluid is found within the central canal of the spinal cord.
173) Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a cerebrovascular accident?
A) cerebral hemorrhage
B) compression
D) all are potential causes
C) embolus
174) Involuntary, repetitive, alternating movements of a body part is called:
D) tremor
A) paresthesia
B) syncope
C) lethargy
175) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A) platelets — control bleeding
B) plasma — tissue repair
C) red cells — transporting substances
D) leukocytes — protect the body from invasion
176) Which of the following statements regarding antigens is NOT true?
A) Antigens are marked for phagocytosis by an antibody.
B) Antigens are foreign proteins.
C) Antigens stimulate the immune response.
D) Antigens hide a pathogen from lymphocytes.
177) The mixture of plasma and blood cells is called:
A) serum
B) packed blood
C) whole blood
D) transfusion
178) The ________ is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity.
D) palate
A) septum
B) sinuses
C) nares
179) Which of the following terms means excessive (deep) breathing?
C) hyperpnea
A) tachypnea
B) hypopnea
D) orthopnea
180) Which of the following is an emergency treatment given to patients when their
breathing and heart stops?
A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B) intermittent positive pressure breathing
C) thoracentesis
D) Heimlich maneuver
181) Which medical term means abnormal appetite?
A) dysorexia
B) dysphagia
C) dysprandial
D) dyspepsia
182) A partial or complete set of artificial teeth is called a(n):
B) denture
A) bridge
C) implant
D) crown
183) Which stage of urine production involves returning water, nutrients, and
electrolytes to the blood stream?
D) reabsorptio
A) secretion
B) filtration
C) excretion
n
184) Which term is misspelled?
A) glomerulonephritis
C) nephroptosis
B) cystoscopy
D) urinalosis
185) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic lab test?
C) PSA
A) STD
B) TUR
D) BPH
186) ________ is a condition of pregnancy characterized by convulsive seizures and
coma.
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Cystocele
C) Eclampsia
D) Endometriosis
187) Which of the following conditions results from hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in
an adult?
A) myxedema
B) pheochromocytoma
C) tetany
D) ketoacidosis
188) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary?
B) oxytocin
A) prolactin
C) thyroid stimulating hormone
D) growth hormone
189) Which of the following statements regarding the autonomic nervous system is NOT
true?
A) The sympathetic branch raises blood pressure.
B) The parasympathetic branch slows down heart rate.
C) The parasympathetic branch inhibits digestion.
D) The sympathetic branch dilates airways
190) Which of the following statements regarding hemostasis is NOT true?
A) Fibrin then converts platelets into a clot.
B) Thromboplastin reacts with prothrombin to form thrombin.
C) Thrombin works to convert fibrinogen to fibrin.
D) Platelets release thromboplastin.
191) The respiratory membrane consists of:
A) pulmonary capillary bed
B) walls of bronchioles and alveoli
C) walls of alveoli and mucous membrane
D) walls of alveoli and capillaries
192) An inguinal hernia is found in the:
A) stomach
B) liver
C) navel
193) ________ is feeling the need to urinate immediately.
B) Urgency
A) Frequency
C) Micturition
D) groin
D) Stricture
194) Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the uterine lining for
abnormalities?
A) PAP smear
B) cervical biopsy
D) endometrial biopsy
C) chorionic villus sampling
195) Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is NOT true?
A) Glucagon has an effect opposite that of insulin on blood sugar level.
B) Glucagon works through the liver to lower blood glucose level.
C) Glucagon is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas.
D) Glucagon is released when the body needs more sugar.
196) The medical term for fainting is:
B) syncope
A) aura
C) vertigo
D) lethargy
197) Which of the following therapeutic procedures consists of removing plasma from
the body and replacing it with donor plasma?
A) plasma transfusion
B) plasma aspiration
C) plasmapheresis
D) phlebotomy
198) Which organ of the respiratory system is used by both the respiratory and digestive
systems?
C) pharynx
A) nasal cavity
B) stomach
D) trachea
199) The yellow cast to the skin that indicates liver disease is called:
A) melena
B) cachexia
D) jaundice
C) hematochezia
200) Under normal circumstances, which substance should NOT be found in urine?
A) blood
B) glucose
D) none of these should be in urine
C) albumin
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
D
C
D
D
C
B
A
C
D
B
C
D
D
A
B
C
A
A
A
B
C
D
C
C
B
C
C
D
B
A
B
A
D
C
D
A
A
D
A
C
C
B
C
C
D
C
D
C
A
A
C
52)
53)
54)
55)
56)
57)
58)
59)
60)
61)
62)
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
68)
69)
70)
71)
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
83)
84)
85)
86)
87)
88)
89)
90)
91)
92)
93)
94)
95)
96)
97)
98)
99)
100)
101)
102)
103)
C
D
B
B
C
B
D
D
D
C
D
A
B
C
C
B
D
D
D
C
A
A
D
D
C
A
A
C
B
A
D
C
A
A
C
D
C
B
A
D
C
B
A
A
B
D
A
D
C
D
A
C
104)
105)
106)
107)
108)
109)
110)
111)
112)
113)
114)
115)
116)
117)
118)
119)
120)
121)
122)
123)
124)
125)
126)
127)
128)
129)
130)
131)
132)
133)
134)
135)
136)
137)
138)
139)
140)
141)
142)
143)
144)
145)
146)
147)
148)
149)
150)
151)
152)
153)
154)
155)
A
C
D
B
C
B
A
B
D
C
D
C
D
D
A
B
D
C
B
B
B
B
A
A
A
D
B
C
C
A
D
C
D
B
B
B
C
B
D
D
C
C
C
D
A
D
A
B
A
D
A
D
156)
157)
158)
159)
160)
161)
162)
163)
164)
165)
166)
167)
168)
169)
170)
171)
172)
173)
174)
175)
176)
177)
178)
179)
180)
181)
182)
183)
184)
185)
186)
187)
188)
189)
190)
191)
192)
193)
194)
195)
196)
197)
198)
199)
200)
B
A
B
A
B
D
D
C
D
D
D
B
C
D
D
A
A
D
D
B
D
C
D
C
A
A
B
D
D
C
C
A
B
C
A
D
D
B
D
B
B
C
C
D
D