Download 1 - Modesto City Schools

AP Module 21 22 test bank 11 12
1. The persistence of learning over time most clearly depends on:
A) the serial position effect.
B) imagery.
C) visual encoding.
D) memory.
2. The process of encoding refers to:
A) the persistence of learning over time.
B) the recall of information previously learned.
C) getting information into memory.
D) a clear memory of an emotionally significant event.
3. Storage is to encoding as ________ is to ________.
A) recognition; recall
B) imagery; mnemonics
C) rehearsal; retrieval
D) retention; acquisition
4. The process of getting information out of memory is called:
A) encoding.
B) relearning.
C) retrieval.
D) rehearsal.
5. A modern information-processing model that views memories as emerging from particular
activation patterns within neural networks is known as:
A) mnemonics.
B) connectionism.
C) the peg-word system.
D) automatic processing.
6. Your consciously activated but limited-capacity memory is called ________ memory.
A) short-term
B) implicit
C) mood-congruent
D) explicit
7. The integration of new incoming information with knowledge retrieved from long-term
memory involves the activity of:
A) implicit memory.
B) iconic memory
C) echoic memory.
D) working memory.
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8. Automatic processing and effortful processing involve two types of:
A) encoding.
B) retrieval.
C) chunking.
D) storage.
9. Automatic processing occurs without:
A) iconic memory.
B) semantic encoding.
C) conscious awareness.
D) long-term potentiation.
10. During her psychology test, Kelsey could not remember the meaning of the term long-term
potentiation. Surprisingly, however, she accurately remembered that the term appeared on the
fourth line of a left-hand page in her textbook. Her memory of this incidental information is best
explained in terms of:
A) automatic processing.
B) the spacing effect.
C) echoic memory.
D) the serial position effect.
11. You are most likely to automatically encode information about:
A) politicians' names.
B) friends' birthdates.
C) new phone numbers.
D) the sequence of your day's events.
12. The effortful processing of information:
A) typically interferes with the capacity to think creatively.
B) cannot easily be suppressed and inhibited.
C) can become automatic through practice.
D) occurs less frequently among adults than children.
13. The conscious repetition of information in order to maintain it in memory is called:
A) automatic processing.
B) rehearsal.
C) priming.
D) chunking.
14. In an effort to remember how to spell “rhinoceros,” Samantha spells the word aloud 30 times.
She is using a technique known as:
A) rehearsal.
B) the peg-word system.
C) chunking.
D) the serial position effect.
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15. Priming is to retrieval as rehearsal is to:
A) encoding.
B) chunking.
C) imagery.
D) automatic processing.
16. Ebbinghaus' use of nonsense syllables to study memory led to the discovery that:
A) the amount remembered depends on the time spent learning.
B) what is learned in one mood is most easily retrieved in that same mood.
C) information that is automatically processed is rarely forgotten.
D) our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited.
17. Jamille performs better on foreign language vocabulary tests if she studies the material 15
minutes every day for 8 days than if she crams for 2 hours the night before the test. This
illustrates what is known as:
A) the spacing effect.
B) the serial position effect.
C) chunking.
D) automatic processing.
18. The tendency to immediately recall the first and last items in a list better than the middle
items is known as the ________ effect.
A) serial position
B) misinformation
C) imagination
D) spacing
19. One day after Usha hears her mother's list of 12 grocery items, Usha is most likely to
remember the items ________ of the list.
A) at the beginning and end
B) at the end
C) at the beginning
D) in the middle
20. The day after Kirsten was introduced to 13 people at a business luncheon, she could recall
the names of only the first 4 people to whom she had been introduced. Her effective recall of
these particular names best illustrates the benefits of:
A) automatic processing.
B) rehearsal.
C) flashbulb memory.
D) the peg-word system.
21. The fact that our preconceived ideas contribute to our ability to process new information best
illustrates the importance of:
A) semantic encoding.
B) automatic processing.
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C) iconic memory.
D) rosy retrospection.
22. Semantic encoding refers to the processing of:
A) sounds.
B) meanings.
C) visual images.
D) unfamiliar units.
23. When people are asked to recall a list of words they had earlier memorized, they often
substitute synonyms for some of the words on the original list. This best illustrates the effects of:
A) implicit memory.
B) chunking.
C) semantic encoding.
D) state-dependent memory.
24. Superior memory for rap lyrics that include the most rhymes best illustrates the value of:
A) the spacing effect.
B) mood-congruent memory.
C) the serial position effect.
D) acoustic encoding.
25. Children can better remember an ancient Latin verse if the definition of each unfamiliar Latin
word is carefully explained to them. This best illustrates the value of:
A) iconic memory.
B) semantic encoding.
C) rosy retrospection.
D) the pegword system.
26. In order to remember the information presented in her psychology textbook, Susan often
relates it to her own life experiences. Susan's strategy is an effective memory aid because it
facilitates:
A) iconic memory.
B) semantic encoding.
C) sensory memory.
D) the serial position effect.
27. We are more likely to remember the words “typewriter, cigarette, and fire” than the words
“void, process, and inherent.” This best illustrates the value of:
A) long-term potentiation.
B) flashbulb memory.
C) imagery.
D) iconic memory.
28. Elaine's memory of her Paris vacation is more positive today than it was last year just after
she went. This best illustrates:
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A) the self-reference effect.
B) priming.
C) rosy retrospection.
D) the spacing effect.
29. A mnemonic device is a:
A) sensory memory.
B) test or measure of memory.
C) technique for automatic processing.
D) memory aid.
30. Visually associating five items needed from the grocery store with mental images of a bun, a
shoe, a tree, a door, and a hive best illustrates the use of:
A) the spacing effect.
B) implicit memory.
C) rosy retrospection.
D) the peg-word system.
31. Chunking refers to:
A) getting information into memory through the use of visual imagery.
B) the organization of information into meaningful units.
C) the unconscious encoding of incidental information.
D) the tendency to recall best the first item in a list.
32. Chess masters can recall the exact positions of most pieces after a brief glance at the game
board. This ability is best explained in terms of:
A) the spacing effect.
B) chunking.
C) the serial position effect.
D) mood-congruent memory.
33. Sherry easily remembers the telephone reservation number for Holiday Inns by using the
mnemonic 1-800-HOLIDAY. She is using a memory aid known as:
A) chunking.
B) the primacy effect.
C) the serial position effect.
D) the peg-word system.
34. Using the mnemonic ROY G. BIV to remember the colors of the rainbow in the order of
wavelength illustrates the use of:
A) rosy retrospection.
B) an acronym.
C) the spacing effect.
D) the peg-word system.
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35. Sabrina went to the store for furniture polish, carrots, pencils, ham, sponges, celery, notebook
paper, and salami. She remembered to buy all these items by reminding herself that she needed
food products that included meats and vegetables and that she needed nonfood products that
included school supplies and cleaning aids. Sabrina made effective use of:
A) the spacing effect.
B) hierarchical organization.
C) the peg-word system.
D) acoustic encoding.
36. When Sperling visually displayed three rows of three letters each for only 1/20th of a second,
experimental participants:
A) recalled only half the letters because they had insufficient time to see all of them.
B) recalled only about seven of the letters due to memory storage limitations.
C) had a momentary photographic memory of all nine letters.
D) recalled all the letters in any particular row when given a special recall signal several seconds
after the letters had disappeared.
37. A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli is called ________ memory.
A) echoic
B) implicit
C) iconic
D) flashbulb
38. The address for obtaining tickets to a popular quiz show flashes on the TV screen, but the
image disappears before Sergei has had a chance to write down the complete address. To his
surprise, however, he has retained a momentary mental image of the five-digit zip code. His
experience best illustrates ________ memory.
A) iconic
B) implicit
C) echoic
D) statedependent
39. Explicit memory is to long-term memory as iconic memory is to ________ memory.
A) sensory
B) short-term
C) flashbulb
D) implicit
40. Echoic memory refers to:
A) the encoded meanings of words and events in long-term memory.
B) a vivid memory of an emotionally significant event.
C) the automatic retention of incidental information about the timing and frequency of events.
D) a momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli.
41. For a moment after hearing his dog's high-pitched bark, Mr. Silvers has a vivid auditory
impression of the dog's yelp. His experience most clearly illustrates ________ memory.
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A) short-term
B) iconic
C) implicit
D) echoic
42. Some of the information in our ________ memory is encoded into ________ memory.
A) iconic; short-term
B) short-term; sensory
C) flashbulb; short-term
D) long-term; iconic
43. Peterson and Peterson demonstrated that unrehearsed short-term memories for three
consonants almost completely decay in as short a time as:
A) 12 seconds.
B) 1 minute.
C) 12 minutes.
D) 1 hour.
44. After being asked to remember three consonants, participants in a study by Peterson and
Peterson counted aloud backward by threes in order to prevent:
A) implicit memory.
B) the social position effect.
C) the spacing effect.
D) rehearsal.
45. “The magical number seven, plus or minus two” refers to the storage capacity of ________
memory.
A) short-term
B) explicit
C) flashbulb
D) implicit
46. Short-term recall is slightly better:
A) for random digits than for random letters.
B) for visual information than for auditory information.
C) in children than in adults.
D) in females than in males.
47. Which type of memory has an essentially unlimited capacity?
A) echoic memory
B) short-term memory
C) long-term memory
D) iconic memory
48. Karl Lashley trained rats to solve a maze and then removed pieces of their cortexes. He
observed that storage of their maze memories:
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A) was restricted to their right cerebral hemispheres.
B) was restricted to their left and right frontal lobes.
C) was restricted to their left and right occipital lobes.
D) was not restricted to specific regions of the cortex.
49. Research by Kandel and Schwartz on sea slugs indicates that memory formation is associated
with the:
A) structure of DNA molecules.
B) release of certain neurotransmitters.
C) activity level of the hippocampus.
D) development of the cerebellum.
50. The increase in synaptic firing potential that contributes to memory formation is known as:
A) chunking.
B) automatic processing.
C) long-term potentiation.
D) semantic encoding.
51. Long-term potentiation is a(n):
A) elimination of anxiety-producing thoughts from conscious awareness.
B) disruptive effect of prior learning on recall of new information.
C) process of getting information out of memory.
D) neural basis for learning and memory.
52. Passing an electric current through the brain during electroconvulsive therapy is most likely
to disrupt ________ memory.
A) implicit
B) mood-congruent
C) shortterm
D) flashbulb
53. The temporary release of stress hormones into the bloodstream facilitates:
A) explicit memory.
B) automatic processing.
C) flashbulb memory.
D) long-term potentiation.
54. Stress hormones facilitate the formation of new memories by:
A) decreasing the availability of serotonin.
B) increasing the availability of glucose.
C) decreasing the availability of epinephrine.
D) increasing the availability of dopamine.
55. Joshua vividly recalls his feelings and what he was doing at the exact moment when he heard
of his grandfather's unexpected death. This best illustrates:
A) sensory memory.
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B) mood-congruent memory.
C) flashbulb memory.
D) the serial position effect.
56. A flashbulb memory would typically be stored in ________ memory.
A) iconic
B) implicit
C) echoic
D) long-term
57. After having a stroke, Aaron has great difficulty recalling any of his subsequent life
experiences. He is most likely suffering from:
A) long-term potentiation.
B) the serial position effect.
C) mood-congruent memory.
D) amnesia.
58. The ability to learn something without any conscious memory of having learned it suggests
the need to distinguish between:
A) automatic and effortful processing.
B) short-term memory and long-term memory.
C) recognition and recall.
D) explicit memory and implicit memory.
59. A retention of skills and dispositions without conscious recollection is known as ________
memory.
A) state-dependent
B) flashbulb
C) short-term
D) implicit
60. Remembering how to solve a jigsaw puzzle without any conscious recollection that one can
do so best illustrates ________ memory.
A) explicit
B) flashbulb
C) implicit
D) sensory
61. Memory of facts is to ________ as memory of skills is to ________.
A) brainstem; hippocampus
B) explicit memory; implicit memory
C) automatic processing; effortful processing
D) short-term memory; long-term memory
62. The hippocampus plays a critical role in ________ memory.
A) iconic
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B) explicit
C) echoic
D) implicit
63. Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned
verbal information. Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of
newly learned visual designs.
A) right hippocampus; left hippocampus
B) left hippocampus; right hippocampus
C) right cerebellum; left cerebellum
D) left cerebellum; right cerebellum
64. The rear area of the ________ grows bigger the longer a London cab driver has been
navigating the maze of city streets.
A) thalamus
B) amygdala
C) hippocampus
D) hypothalamus
65. Although Faustina can learn and remember how to read reversed mirror-image writing, she is
unable to learn and remember the names of people to whom she has been introduced. Faustina is
most likely to have suffered damage to her:
A) hypothalamus.
B) brainstem.
C) hippocampus.
D) cerebellum.
66. Cerebellum is to ________ memory as hippocampus is to ________ memory.
A) short-term; long-term
B) long-term; short-term
C) implicit; explicit
D) explicit; implicit
67. Rabbits fail to learn a conditioned eye-blink response when the ______ is temporarily
deactivated during the process of training.
A) hypothalamus
B) motor cortex
C) hippocampus
D) cerebellum
68. An understanding of the distinction between implicit and explicit memories is most helpful
for explaining:
A) the serial position effect.
B) the spacing effect.
C) state-dependent memory.
D) infantile amnesia.
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69. When an eyewitness to an auto accident is asked to describe what happened, which test of
memory is being used?
A) recognition
B) rehearsal
C) recall
D) relearning
70. Which memory test would most effectively reveal that Mr. Quintano, at age 55, still
remembers many of his high school classmates?
A) recall
B) recognition
C) rehearsal
D) reconstruction
71. Which test of memory typically provides the fewest retrieval cues?
A) recognition
B) recall
C) relearning
D) rehearsal
72. Words, events, places, and emotions that trigger our memory of the past are called:
A) retrieval cues.
B) iconic traces.
C) context effects.
D) schemas.
73. When 80-year-old Ida looked at her old wedding pictures, she was flooded with vivid
memories of her parents, her husband, and the early years of her marriage. The pictures served as
powerful:
A) encoding devices.
B) iconic memories.
C) implicit memories.
D) retrieval cues.
74. Memories are primed by:
A) déjà vu.
B) retrieval cues.
C) the spacing effect.
D) chunking.
75. Hearing the word “rabbit” may lead people to spell the spoken word “hair” as “h-a-r-e.” This
best illustrates the outcome of a process known as:
A) chunking.
B) long-term potentiation.
C) recognition.
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D) priming.
76. Watching a TV soap opera involving marital conflict and divorce led Andrea to recall several
instances in which her husband had mistreated her. The effect of the TV program on Andrea's
recall provides an example of:
A) the spacing effect.
B) visual encoding.
C) the serial position effect.
D) priming.
77. After learning that kicking would move a crib mobile, infants showed that they recalled this
learning best if they were tested in the same crib. This best illustrates the impact of ________ on
recall.
A) the serial position effect
B) retrieval cues
C) the spacing effect
D) infantile amnesia
78. Déjà vu refers to the:
A) emotional arousal produced by events that prime us to recall associated events.
B) tendency to remember experiences that are consistent with one's current mood.
C) unconscious activation of particular associations in memory.
D) eerie sense of having previously experienced a situation or event.
79. While in a context similar to one you've been in before, you see a stranger who looks and
walks like one of your friends. These circumstances are likely to trigger the experience of:
A) déjà vu.
B) implicit memory.
C) rosy retrospection.
D) long-term potentiation.
80. After his last drinking spree, Fakim hid a half-empty liquor bottle. He couldn't remember
where he hid it until he started drinking again. Fakim's pattern of recall best illustrates:
A) the spacing effect.
B) implicit memory.
C) the serial position effect.
D) statedependent memory.
81. Mood-congruent memory refers to the effect of emotional states on the process of:
A) encoding.
B) storage.
C) retrieval.
D) relearning.
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82. Whenever he feels sexually jealous, David is flooded with painful recollections of the rare
occasions in which he had observed his girlfriend flirting with other men. David's experience
best illustrates:
A) rosy retrospection.
B) déjà vu.
C) mood-congruent memory.
D) recognition memory.
83. A person who has trouble forgetting information, such as the Russian memory whiz S, often
seems to have a limited capacity for:
A) implicit memory.
B) explicit memory.
C) abstract thinking.
D) visual imagery.
84. In describing what he calls the seven sins of memory, Daniel Schacter suggests that storage
decay contributes to:
A) absent-mindedness.
B) repression.
C) transience.
D) implicit memory.
85. In considering the seven sins of memory, misattribution is to the sin of ________ as blocking
is to the sin of ________.
A) retroactive interference; proactive interference
B) distortion; forgetting
C) proactive interference; retroactive interference
D) intrusion; distortion
86. The inability to recall which numbers on a telephone dial are not accompanied by letters is
most likely due to:
A) encoding failure.
B) intrusion.
C) retroactive interference.
D) source amnesia.
87. Austin can't remember Jack Smith's name because he wasn't paying attention when Jack was
formally introduced. Austin's poor memory is best explained in terms of:
A) proactive interference.
B) encoding failure.
C) retroactive interference.
D) source amnesia.
88. Our inability to remember information presented in the seconds just before we fall asleep is
most likely due to:
A) motivated forgetting.
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B) the misinformation effect.
C) retroactive interference.
D) encoding failure.
89. The famous Ebbinghaus forgetting curve indicates that how well we remember information
depends on:
A) how long ago we learned that information.
B) the nature of our mood during encoding and retrieval.
C) whether the information is part of our implicit or explicit memory.
D) whether the information was acoustically or visually encoded.
90. Ebbinghaus discovered that the rate at which we forget newly learned information is initially:
A) slow and subsequently stays slow.
B) slow and subsequently speeds up.
C) rapid and subsequently stays rapid.
D) rapid and subsequently slows down.
91. Judy is embarrassed because she momentarily fails to remember a good friend's name. Judy's
poor memory most likely results from a failure in:
A) storage.
B) encoding.
C) rehearsal.
D) retrieval.
92. The title of a song is on the tip of Gerard's tongue, but he cannot recall it until someone
mentions the songwriter's name. Gerard's initial inability to recall the title was most likely caused
by:
A) encoding failure.
B) motivated forgetting.
C) retrieval failure.
D) repression.
93. The fact that elderly people are often less able than younger adults to recall recently learned
information can be best explained in terms of the greater difficulty older people have with:
A) automatic processing.
B) the misinformation effect.
C) interference.
D) retrieval.
94. The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information is called:
A) retroactive interference.
B) the misinformation effect.
C) transience.
D) proactive interference.
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95. Arnold so easily remembers his old girlfriend's telephone number that he finds it difficult to
recall his new girlfriend's number. Arnold's difficulty best illustrates:
A) retroactive interference.
B) rosy retrospection.
C) source amnesia.
D) proactive interference.
96. After learning the combination for his new locker at school, Milton is unable to remember
the combination for his year-old bicycle lock. Milton is experiencing the effects of:
A) source amnesia.
B) retroactive interference.
C) proactive interference.
D) automatic processing.
97. Retroactive interference involves the disruption of:
A) encoding.
B) storage.
C) retrieval.
D) all of these processes.
98. The finding that people who sleep after learning a list of nonsense syllables forget less than
people who stay awake provides evidence that forgetting may involve:
A) encoding failure.
B) repression.
C) implicit memory loss.
D) interference.
99. Compulsive gamblers frequently recall losing less money than is actually the case. Their
memory failure best illustrates:
A) source amnesia.
B) proactive interference.
C) motivated forgetting.
D) retrieval failure.
100. Michael Ross and his colleagues observed that people exposed to very convincing
arguments about the desirability of frequent toothbrushing tended to:
A) quickly forget the arguments if they were in the habit of brushing frequently.
B) quickly forget the arguments if they were not in the habit of brushing frequently.
C) exaggerate how frequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.
D) exaggerate how infrequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.
101. A type of motivated forgetting in which anxiety-arousing memories are blocked from
conscious awareness is known as:
A) retroactive interference.
B) proactive interference.
C) repression.
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D) source amnesia.
102. Sigmund Freud emphasized that the forgetting of painful experiences is caused by a process
that involves:
A) retroactive interference.
B) memory decay.
C) retrieval failure.
D) long-term potentiation.
103. Among contemporary memory researchers, increasing numbers think that ______ rarely, if
ever, occurs.
A) long-term potentiation
B) automatic processing
C) source amnesia
D) repression
104. Research on memory construction indicates that memories of past experiences are likely to
be:
A) difficult to retrieve but never completely lost.
B) distorted by our current assumptions.
C) much more vivid if they are seldom rehearsed.
D) retrieved in the very same form and detail as they were originally encoded.
105. Our assumptions about the past often influence the form in which information is retrieved
from long-term memory. This fact is most relevant to appreciating the importance of:
A) long-term potentiation.
B) automatic processing.
C) memory construction.
D) retrieval cues.
106. Loftus and Palmer asked two groups of observers how fast two cars had been going in a
filmed traffic accident. Observers who heard the vividly descriptive word “smashed” in relation
to the accident later recalled:
A) broken glass at the scene of the accident.
B) that the drivers of the vehicles were intoxicated.
C) that the drivers of the vehicles were males.
D) the details of the accident with vivid accuracy.
107. Many of the experimental participants who were asked how fast two cars in a filmed traffic
accident were going when they smashed into each other subsequently recalled seeing broken
glass at the scene of the accident. This experiment best illustrated:
A) proactive interference.
B) imagination inflation.
C) source amnesia.
D) the misinformation effect.
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108. Research on the misinformation effect indicates that:
A) events from the distant past are especially vulnerable to memory distortion.
B) people can easily distinguish between their own true and false memories.
C) hypnotic suggestion is an effective technique for accurate memory retrieval.
D) it is very difficult to lead people to construct memories of events that never happened.
109. After reading a newspaper report suggesting that drunken driving might have contributed to
a recent auto accident, several people who actually witnessed the accident began to remember
the driver involved as traveling more recklessly than was actually the case. This provides an
example of:
A) proactive interference.
B) long-term potentiation.
C) imagination inflation.
D) the misinformation effect.
110. The misinformation effect best illustrates the dynamics of:
A) memory construction.
B) repression.
C) proactive interference.
D) mood-congruent memory.
111. Direct perception of an object and mental visualization of that object activate similar brain
areas. This most clearly contributes to:
A) absent-mindedness.
B) proactive interference.
C) imagination inflation.
D) mood-congruent memory.
112. People with vivid imaginations are more likely than others to experience a(n):
A) mood-congruent memory.
B) false memory.
C) implicit memory.
D) sensory memory.
113. By incorporating errors originating from a hypnotist's leading questions, hypnotically
refreshed memories often illustrate:
A) repression.
B) rosy retrospection.
C) the misinformation effect.
D) proactive interference.
114. Karl and Dee had a joyful wedding ceremony. After their painful divorce, however, they
began to remember the wedding as a somewhat hectic and unpleasant event. Their recollections
best illustrate the nature of:
A) proactive interference.
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B) memory construction.
C) source amnesia.
D) rosy retrospection.
115. When asked to recall their attitudes of 10 years ago regarding marijuana use, people offer
recollections closer to their current views than to those they actually reported a decade earlier.
This best illustrates:
A) memory construction.
B) proactive interference.
C) transience.
D) mood-congruent memory.
116. After attending group therapy sessions for adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse, Karen
mistakenly remembered details from others' traumatic life stories as part of her own life history.
This best illustrates the dangers of:
A) proactive interference.
B) mood-congruent memory.
C) implicit memory.
D) source amnesia.
117. As a child, Andre dreamed that he was chased and attacked by a ferocious dog. Many years
later, he mistakenly recalled that this had actually happened to him. Andre's false recollection
best illustrates:
A) mood-congruent memory.
B) proactive interference.
C) implicit memory.
D) source amnesia.
118. Which of the following poses the greatest threat to the credibility of children's recollections
of sexual abuse?
A) blocking
B) persistence
C) the misinformation effect
D) long-term potentiation
119. When children are officially interviewed about their recollections of possible sexual abuse,
their reports are especially credible if:
A) they are asked specific, detailed questions about the issue rather than more general, openended questions.
B) after responding to an interviewer, they are repeatedly asked the same question they just
answered.
C) they use anatomically correct dolls to indicate if and where they had been physically touched.
D) involved adults have not discussed the issue with them prior to the interview.
120. Research on young children's false eyewitness recollections has indicated that:
A) children are less susceptible to source amnesia than adults.
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B) children are no more susceptible to the misinformation effect than adults.
C) it is surprisingly difficult for both children and professional interviewers to reliably separate
the children's true memories from false memories.
D) all of these answers are true.
121. Incest survivors who lack conscious memories of their sexual abuse may sometimes be told
that they are simply in a stage of “denial” and “repression.” This explanation for their lack of
abuse memories emphasizes:
A) proactive interference.
B) encoding failure.
C) transience.
D) retrieval failure.
122. Which of the following techniques used by professional therapists are highly likely to
promote the construction of false memories?
A) hypnosis
B) drug-induced recall
C) imagination-enhancing exercises
D) all of these techniques
123. With respect to the controversy regarding reports of repressed memories of sexual abuse,
statements by major psychological and psychiatric associations suggest that:
A) the accumulated experiences of our lives are all preserved somewhere in our minds.
B) the more stressful an experience is, the more quickly it will be consciously forgotten.
C) repression is the most common mechanism underlying the failure to recall early childhood
abuse.
D) adult memories of experiences happening before age 3 are unreliable.
124. Memory experts who express skepticism regarding reports of repressed and recovered
memories are most likely to emphasize that:
A) people rarely recall memories of long-forgotten events.
B) most extremely traumatic life experiences are never encoded in long-term memory.
C) only those memories that are recovered with the help of a professional psychotherapist are
likely to be reliable.
D) extremely stressful life experiences are especially likely to be well remembered.
125. When memory researcher Elizabeth Loftus was an adolescent, her uncle incorrectly insisted
that as a child she had found her own mother's drowned body. Loftus herself later falsely
recollected finding the body. This best illustrates:
A) proactive interference.
B) implicit memory.
C) the misinformation effect.
D) mood-congruent memory.
126. Speed-reading complex material yields little long-term retention because it inhibits:
A) misattribution.
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B) source amnesia.
C) proactive interference.
D) rehearsal.
127. Forming many associations between new course material and what you already know is an
effective way to build a network of:
A) retrieval cues.
B) sensory memories.
C) state-dependent memories.
D) implicit memories.
128. You should study before sleeping in order to minimize:
A) mood-congruent memory.
B) retroactive interference.
C) long-term potentiation.
D) memory reconstruction.
1. When rehearsal of incoming information is prevented, which of the following will most likely
occur? (AP94) (Mod 21 )
(A) The information will remain indefinitely in short-term memory.
(B) There will be no transfer of the information to long-term memory.
(C) The sensory register will stop processing the information.
(D) Retrieval of the information from long-term memory will be easier.
(E) Information already in long-term memory will be integrated with the incoming
2. According to the information-processing view of memory, the first stage in memory
processing involves (AP99) (Mod 21 )
(A) Retrieval
(B) Storage
(C) Rehearsal
(D) Encoding
(E) Transfer
3. An individual's ability to remember the day he or she first swam the length of a swimming
pool is most clearly an example of which of the following kinds of memory? (AP99) (Mod 21 )
(A) Semantic
(B) Flashbulb
(C) Procedural
(D) Priming
(E) Episodic
4. Material that an individual cannot remember but is on the “tip of the tongue” is (AP04) (Mod
21 )
(A) In episodic memory, but not in semantic memory
(B) In sensory memory, but not in iconic memory
(C) In short-term memory, but not in long-term memory
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(D) Available, but not accessible
(E) Retrieved, but not encoded
5. Elena is presented with a list of 20 numbers. When asked to recall this list, she remembers
more numbers from the beginning than from the end of the list. This phenomenon demonstrates
which of the following types of effect? (AP94) (Mod 21 )
(A) Mnemonic
(B) Primacy
(C) Recency
(D) Secondary
(E) Clustering
6. John suffered a head injury in an accident five years ago. He now has clear memories of
events that occurred before the accident, but he has great difficulty remembering any of the
experiences he has had since the accident. John's symptoms describe (AP99) (Mod 21 )
(A) anterograde amnesia
(B) Broca's aphasia
(C) cue-dependent forgetting
(D) Selective amnesia
(E) Retroactive interference
7. When a list of words is learned in order, the words most likely to be forgotten are those that
are (AP99) (Mod 21 )
(A) At the beginning of the list
(B) At the end of the list
(C) In the middle of the list
(D) Hardest to pronounce
(E) Easiest to spell
8. When Shelly first had cable television service installed, Public broadcasting (PBS) was on
channel 9. Her cable company then switched PBS to channel 16. Shelly now has trouble
remembering that PBS is on channel 16 and not on channel 9. This memory problem represents
(AP04) (Mod 22 )
(A) Memory decay
(B) Retrograde amnesia
(C) Reconstructive errors
(D) Retroactive interference
(E) Proactive interference
9. Remembering how to roller skate involves which of the following kinds of memory? (AP04)
(Mod 22 (A) Semantic
(B) Episodic
(C) Priming
(D) Procedural
(E) Prospective
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10. Which of the following is and example of retrograde amnesia? (AP04) (Mod 22 )
(A) Ty cannot recall the face of the thief he saw running from the scene of the crime
(B) Cassie’s vivid memory of the explosion of the space shuttle Challenger is not corroborated
by those she was with at the time
(C) Alberto is unable to remember anything since the accident that destroyed portions of his
hippocampus
(D) Katie attributes her poor performance on a standardized test to the fact that she took the
exam in a room other than the one that she learned the material.
(E) Alyse cannot remember any details of what happened right before her car accident
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