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Transcript
Module 1. Dermatovenerology Tests 1. Stratum basale is responsible for: A. Resiliency B. Skin color C. Elasticity D. *Mitotic activity and proliferation E. All are correct 2. Petechiae is: A. Elevated solid primary skin lesion B. Secondary skin lesion C. *Equal to plane of the skin D. Above the plane of the skin E. All are wrong 3. Wheal is characterized by all, except: A. Sharply circumscribed, raised lesion (dermal edema) B. Usually erythematous C. Variable shape and size D. Transient E. *Presence of chancre 4. The best method diagnosing of scabies is? A. Wasserman reaction B. Tzank smear C. Dark-field microscopy D. *Direct visualization E. Diascopy 5. The most superficial layer of the epidermis is: A. *Stratum corneum B. Stratum lucidum C. Stratum basale D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum 6. A circumscribed elevation of skin containing purulent fluid is: A. Vesicle B. Bullae C. Tumor D. Nodule E. *Pustule 7. Secondary skin lesions are all, except: A. Fissure B. Erosion C. Crusts D. Ulcer E. *Bulla 8. Excoriation can result in: A. Both are wrong B. *Ulcers C. Vesicle D. Papules E. Patch 9. Pediculosis corporis is caused by: A. Pubic lice B. *Body louse C. Head louse D. Scabies mite E. All are correct 10. Crusting is: A. A collection of dried serum B. A collection of cellular debris C. Yellow in colour D. Brown in colour E. *All are correct 11. Pediculosis capitis is caused by: A. Pubic lice B. Body louse C. *Head louse D. Scabies mite E. Both are correct 12. Burrow is characterized for: A. Psoriasis B. Lichen planus C. Pediculosis D. *Scabies E. All are correct 13. Papules are characterized for: A. Pituriasis versicolor B. Vitiligo C. *Lichen planus D. Urticaria E. Impetigo 14. Langerhans cell are responsible for: A. Resiliency B. Skin color C. Elasticity D. Water maintain E. *Antigen presenting cell in skin 15. Nodules are characterized for all diseases except: A. Warts B. Lipoma C. Erythema nodosum D. Furnuncle E. *Pituriasis versicolor 16. Primary skin lesions without cavity are all, except: A. Macule B. Papule C. Patch D. Nodule E. *Bulla 17. Mitotic stem cells are characterized for: A. Stratum corneum B. *Stratum basale C. Sratum spinosum D. Srratum lucidum E. Stratum granulosum 18. Primary skin lesions are all, except: A. Macule B. Papule C. Nodule D. *Fissure E. Urticaria 19. The intercellular connections (desmosomes) are characterized for: A. Stratum basale B. Srratum lucidum C. *ratum spinosum D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum corneum 20. Erosion is vertical loss of: A. Subcutaneous fat B. Dermis C. *Epidermis D. Dermis and subcutaneous fat E. Epidermis and subcutaneous fat 21. White striaform symmetric lesions in the buccal mucosa and flat papules on the skin are characterized for: A. Primary syphilis B. Herpes zoster C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. *Lichen planus E. Herpes simplex 22. Dermis is composed of: A. Fibrous tissue B. Epithelial tissues C. *Connective tissue D. Granular tissue E. Interstitial tissue 23. Primary skin lesions without cavity are all, except: A. Macule B. Papule C. Patch D. Nodule E. *Vesicle 24. Definitive diagnosis of scabies is made by direct visualization of the: A. Mite B. Eggs C. *Mite, eggs D. Free fluid E. All are correct 25. Epidermis is composed of: A. *Epithelial tissues B. Connective tissue C. Fibrous tissue D. Granular tissue E. Interstitial tissue 26. What layer of the epidermis is characterized by mitotic stem cells? A. Stratum corneum B. *Stratum basale C. Sratum spinosum D. Srratum lucidum E. Stratum granulosum 27. Secondary skin lesions are all, except: A. Fissure B. Erosion C. *Nodule D. Crusts E. Ulcer 28. Tumor is: A. Large patch B. Large fissure C. *Large nodule D. Large plaque E. Large burrow 29. Stratum corneum is formed by: A. Flattened cells B. *Dead cells C. Mitotic stem cells D. Mercel cells 30. Melanocytes are responsible for: A. Resiliency B. Elasticity C. *Skin color D. Water maintain E. All are correct 31. Serpentine burrow localized in: A. Stratum granulosum B. Sratum spinosum C. Srratum lucidum D. *Stratum corneum E. Stratum basale 32. Excoriations are characterized for all disease, except: A. *Pituriasis versicolor B. Scabies C. Atopic dermatitis D. Eczema E. Allergic contact dermatitis 33. Papulosquamous means presence of such skin lesions: A. Vesicle B. Patch C. Macule D. *Scales E. Fissure 34. Pustule is characterized for all disease, except: A. Impetigo B. Herpes simplex C. Acne D. *Pituriasis versicolor E. Herpes zoster 35. Rosacea triggering factors means all, except: A. Alcohol B. Hot baths or shower C. Spicy foods D. *Trauma E. Humidity 36. Primary skin lesions are all, except: A. *Erosion B. Macule C. Papule D. Nodule E. Urticaria 37. Skin appendages are all, except: A. Sebaceous glands B. Hair C. *Subcutis D. Nails E. Eccrine sweat glands 38. Acne Conglobata is characterized by such skin lesions: A. Comedones B. Pustules C. Papules D. *Nodules E. Vesicles 39. Secondary skin lesions are all, except: A. *Patch B. Fissure C. Erosion D. Crusts E. Ulcer 40. Dermatological status of patient include all, except: A. Inspection B. Palpation C. Scraping D. Diascopy E. *Tzank smear 41. Dermis is composed of: A. *Connective tissue B. Fibrous tissue C. Epithelial tissues D. Granular tissue E. Interstitial tissue 42. The most common bacteria associated with acne is: A. Corynebacterium B. Pseudomonas C. Fusobacterium D. Acinetobacter E. *Propionibacterium 43. Skin vessels form: A. Superficial net B. *Superficial and deep net C. Deep net D. Deep and medium E. Medium net 44. Nodules are characterized for all diseases, except: A. Neurofibromatosis B. Erythema nodosum C. Furnuncle D. *Pamphigus vulgaris E. Hemangioma 45. Vesicles are characterized for all diseases, except: A. Herpes zoster B. Herpes simplex C. Eczema D. Chicken pox E. *Erythrasma 46. Tumor means: A. Large fissure B. *Large nodule C. Large patch D. Large plaque E. Large burrow 47. Papular minivesicular dermatitis means all, except: A. Contact dermatitis B. *Pemphigus vulgaris C. Atopic dermatitis D. Scabies E. Dermatophytosis 48. Macula or patch are characterized for all diseases, except: A. *Lichen planus B. Pituriasis versicolor C. Vitiligo D. Lentigo E. Xanthelasma 49. Phthiriasis mens: A. Scabies B. *Pediculosis C. Ascarides D. Giardiasis E. Demodicidosis 50. Pediculosis Vestimenti means: A. *Pediculosis Corporis B. Pediculosis Capitis C. Pediculosis Pubis D. All are correct E. All are wrong 51. Such layer of the epidermis consists of a single layer of keratinocytes: A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum spinosum C. Stratum lucidum D. *Stratum basale E. Stratum granulosum 52. Which of the following methods should be undertaken for scabies diagnosis? A. Prick test B. “Burrow-ink test” C. Tzanck test D. Balzer test E. Wood’s light 53. The color of normal skin depends primarily on pigments such as: A. Melanin B. Deoxyhemoglobin C. Carotene D. Oxyhemoglobin E. *All are correct 54. Ulcer area of skin loss: A. Extending into the dermis B. *All are correct C. Heals with a scar D. Associated surface exudates E. Associated surface crust 55. Connective tissue is present in: A. Stratum spinosum B. *Dermis C. Stratum corneum D. Stratum lucidum E. Stratum basale 56. Plaque is: A. *Above the plane of the skin B. Associated surface crust C. Secondary skin lesion D. Equal to plane of the skin E. Heals with a scar 57. Acne patients should look for properties in cosmetics with which of the following: A. Oil-free B. Hypoallergenic C. Nonirritating D. Non-comedogenic E. *All are correct 58. Which of the followings includes the function of skin? A. Barrier to infection B. Sensory receptor C. Regulate temperature D. Absorption E. *All are correct 59. Rosacea symptoms can be aggravated by: A. Wine and caffeine B. Exercise C. Topical steroid D. Anxiety E. *All are correct 60. Excoriation can result in: A. *Erosions B. Papules C. Nodules D. Scales E. All are correct 61. Which one of the following is self - resolving condition? A. *Pityriasis Rosea B. Rosacea C. Psoriasis D. Seborrheic Dermatitis E. Hyperkeratosis 62. Basement membrane selectively filters molecules moving between: A. *Epidermis and dermis B. Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum C. Stratum basale and stratum granulosum D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum 63. Erosion: a wider tear in the: A. *Epidermis B. Dermis C. Subcutis D. All are correct E. All are wrong 64. Patient has well defined 2-Cm localized hair loss in the posterior scalp. This condition is most likely: A. Telogium effluvium B. Anagen effluvium C. Traction alopecia D. Traumatic alopecia E. *Alopecia areata 65. Rosacea triggering factors means all, except: A. Sun / stress B. Hot weather C. *B-blocker D. Cold wind E. Exercise 66. The deepest layer of the epidermis is: A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum lucidum C. *Stratum basale D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum 67. Eccrine glands and deep hair follicles extend to: A. Stratum lucidum B. Dermis C. Stratum basale D. *Subcutaneous tissue E. Stratum granulosum 68. Apocrine sweat glands are: A. Large, deep glands in dermal layer B. Mostly in groin C. Mostly in axillae D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 69. Scaling - excess dead epidermal cells caused by: A. Stress B. *Abnormal keratinisation C. Overcooling D. Scrubbing E. Skin infection 70. Acne Vulgaris is a disease of: A. Sweat glands B. *Pilosebaceous follicles C. Epidermis and sweat glands D. Dermis and sweat glands E. All are correct 71. Hidradenitis Suppurativa must be differential with: A. Cellulitis B. Pilonidal cysts C. Bacterial folliculitis D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 72. Folliculitis must be differential with all disease, except: A. Insect bites B. Scabies C. *Pituriasis versicolor D. Rosacea E. Tinea 73. Telangiectasia is: A. Associated surface crust B. Secondary skin lesion C. *Equal to plane of the skin D. Above the plane of the skin E. Heals with a scar 74. Which secondary skin changes are characterized for psoriasis? A. Cicatricial atrophy B. *Secondary hyper or hypo pigmentation C. Secondary atrophy D. Keloid E. Atrophy of the hair follicles 75. Morphological variant of psoriasis are all, except: A. Total psoriasis B. *Scalp psoriasis C. Diffuse psoriasis D. Guttate psoriasis E. Erythrodermia 76. Pyoderma is a group name for: A. *Pyococcal dermatoses B. Allergic dermatoses C. Contact dermatitis D. Viral dermatitis E. All are wrong 77. Phenomenon of “stearic spot” at psoriasis is conditioned by: A. Acantholysis B. Spongiosis C. *Parakeratosis D. Papillomatosis E. Disceratosis 78. Variations of psoriasis are all, except: A. *Secondary psoriasis B. Scalp psoriasis C. Generalized psoriasis D. Guttate psoriasis E. Palmoplantar psoriasis 79. Skin lesions in case of ecthyma localised in all places, except: A. Buttocks B. Thighs C. Legs D. *Oral cavity E. All are correct 80. What symptom is characterized for diagnosis of “psoriatic nail dystrophy”? A. “Nail pitting” B. “Oil drop” C. *Onycholysis D. Discoloration of the nail E. Acantholysis 81. Prescription of antibiotics is arbitrary in case of such diagnose. A. Intertrigenous psoriasis B. Palmoplantar psoriasis C. Eruthrodermic psoriasis D. Scalp psoriasis E. *Guttate psoriasis 82. Koebner’s phenomenon at psoriasis is: A. Second appearance of the skin lesions at the same place B. Appearance of the skin lesions in the open areas of the skin C. *Appearance of the skin lesions at sites of trauma D. Appearance of the skin lesions after using of some medicines E. Appearance of the skin lesions after stress 83. “Oil drop” symptom of the nails is characterized for diagnosis of: A. Epidermolysis bullosa B. Lichen planus C. Onychomycosis D. *Psoriasis E. Chronic urticaria 84. Psoriatic phenomenons is: A. “Christmas tree” B. “Venera necklace” C. “Biet collar” D. *“Terminal film” E. “Moth eaten” 85. Clinical features of psoriasis in children are: A. Affection of the palms and soles B. Frequent affection of the joints C. *Atypical localization of the skin lesions D. Absence of itching E. Eruthrodermic psoriasis 86. Guttate form of psoriasis is often connected with: A. Stress B. Bad nourishment C. Use of medicines D. *Following group A beta-hemolytic strep pharyngitis E. Presence of parasites 87. Ecthyma is: A. Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. *Pyoderma D. Autoimmune disease E. All are correct 88. Diagnosis of a psoriatic plaque is based on: A. Diascopy B. *Grating with a glass slide C. Skin prick test D. Dermographism test E. Tzanck test 89. Lichen planus is characterized by all “P” words, except: A. Planar B. Purple C. Polished D. *Patch E. Polygonal 90. “Wickham striae” are characterized for: A. Psoriasis B. Atopic dermatitis C. Scabies D. *Lichen planus E. Dermatophytosis 91. Sites of predilection of chronic plaque psoriasis are all, except: A. Elbows B. Knees C. *Mucous membranes D. Scalp E. Hands and feet 92. Inverse psoriasis involves: A. Nails B. Bones C. Scalp D. *Groin E. All are correct 93. Papules are characterized for: A. Pituriasis versicolor B. Vitiligo C. *Lichen planus D. Urticaria E. Impetigo 94. White striaform symmetric lesions in the buccal mucosa and polygonal papules are characterized for: A. Primary syphilis B. Pemphigus vegetans C. *Lichen planus D. Pemphigus vulgaris E. Herpes simplex 95. Hyperpigmentation in psoriasis-result of regress of: A. *Plaques B. Vesicle C. Pustules D. Bulla E. All are correct 96. Objective investigation of patients with psoriasis includes all methods, except: A. Inspection of skin lesions B. Palpation C. General patient state D. *Bulzer test E. Scrubbing 97. Carbuncle is conglomerate of: A. Papules B. *Boils C. Macula’s D. Erosions E. Crusts 98. Localization of furuncle is: A. Neck B. Face (chin, upper lip) C. *All are correct D. Buttocks E. Perinea region 99. White striaform symmetric lesions in the buccal mucosa and pruritic papules are characterized for: A. *Lichen planus B. Primary syphilis C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. Herpes zoster E. Herpes simplex 100. Papulosquamous means presence of such lesions: A. *Scales B. Vesicle C. Patch D. Macula E. Fissure 101. Guttate psoriasis must be diffdiagnosed with: A. *Secondary syphilis B. Furuncle C. Pituriasis versicolor D. Atopic dermatitis E. Scabies 102. Which of the following skin conditions is commonly known as a boil? A. Ecthyma B. *Furuncle C. Psoriasis D. Impetigo E. All are correct 103. Psoriatic nail changes are all, except: A. Onycholysis B. “Oil drops” C. Pitting D. *“Salmon patches” E. Subungual hyperkeratosis 104. Deep pyoderma means all, except: A. B. C. D. E. 105. A. B. C. D. E. 106. A. B. C. D. E. 107. A. B. C. D. E. 108. A. B. C. D. E. 109. A. B. C. D. E. 110. A. B. C. D. E. 111. A. B. C. D. E. 112. A. B. C. D. *Impetigo Folliculitis of leg Furuncle Carbuncle Sycosis Barbae Drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are all, except: Beta blockers Lithium *Corticosteroids IFN-alpha Antimalarials Variants of lichen planus are all, except Plaque Atrophic Erosive Affection of buccal mucosa *Patch Classification of pyoderma according to etiology: Staphyloderma *All are correct Streptoderma Streptostaphyloderma Atipical forms Morphological variant of psoriasis are all, except: Total psoriasis Diffuse psoriasis *Psoriatic arthritis Guttate psoriasis Erythrodermia Papulosquamous means presence of such lesions: Fissures Vesicles *Papules Patches Maculae’s Wickhams striae are characterized for: Psoriasis Contact dermatitis *Lichen planus Scabies Dermatophytosis Involved of oral, other mucous membranes and nails are characterized for: Pemphigus vulgaris Pyoderma Herpes zoster *Lichen planus Pituriasis versicolor Psoriatic phenomenons is: “Christmas tree” *“Stearic spot “Venera necklace” “Biet collar” 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. E. “Moth eaten” Psoriatic phenomenons is: A. *“Bleeding points” B. “Christmas tree” C. “Venera necklace” D. “Biet collar” E. “Moth eaten” Pruritic, purple, polygonal papules are characterized for: A. Contact dermatitis B. Primary syphilis C. Scabies D. *Lichen planus E. Psoriasis Location variants of psoriasis are all, except: A. Inverse psoriasis B. Nail psoriasis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Scalp psoriasis E. *Nummular psoriasis What kind of infection ecthyma is? A. Fungal B. Viral C. *Bacterial D. Parasitogenic E. All are wrong “Seborrheic area” is: A. Nails B. *Central chest C. Vagina D. Oral cavity E. All are correct Predisposing factors of pyoderma are: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Chronic infections C. *All are correct D. Diminished of immunity E. Hypovitaminosis Causative agent of furuncle is: A. Treponema pallidum B. Scabies mite C. Herpes virus infection D. *Staphylococcus aureus E. All are correct Erythrasma is caused by: A. Mite B. *Corynebacterium minutissimum C. Staphylococcal aureus D. Streptococcal agent E. All are correct Skin lesions of erythrasma are: A. Papules B. *Macula’s 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. C. Erosions D. Crusts E. Pustules What type of infection eythrasma is? A. Fungal B. Viral C. All are correct D. *Bacterial E. All are wrong Morphological variant of psoriasis are all, except: A. Total psoriasis B. Diffuse psoriasis C. Guttate psoriasis D. Erythrodermia E. *Nail psoriasis Location variants of psoriasis are all, except: A. Inverse psoriasis B. Nail psoriasis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. *Diffuse psoriasis E. Scalp psoriasis Inverse psoriasis involves: A. Nails B. *Axillae C. Scalp D. Bones E. All are correct Non-bullous impetigo is a superficial skin infection that manifests as: A. Nodules B. Ulcers C. *Honey-colored crust D. Clusters of patches E. Clusters of maculae’s "Seborrheic area” is A. Nails B. *Scalp C. Vagina D. Oral cavity E. All are correct Lichen planus is characterized by all “P” words, except: A. *Pustule B. Planar C. Purple D. Polished E. Polygonal Clinical improvement of lichen planus include all, except: A. *Presence of pustules B. Presence of papules C. Presence of “Wickham’s striae” D. Presence of “Koebner’s phenomenon” E. Affection of nails “Woronow ring” is characterized for: A. B. C. D. E. 131. A. B. C. D. E. 132. A. B. C. D. E. 133. A. B. C. D. E. 134. A. B. C. D. E. 135. A. B. C. D. E. 136. A. B. C. D. E. 137. A. B. C. D. E. 138. A. B. C. D. Licnen planus Pyoderma *Psoriasis Scabies Syphilis Clinical types of impetigo are all, except: Impetiginous perleche (angular stomatitis) Annular impetigo Acute diffuse impetigo Bullous impetigo *“Wickham’s striae” Hypopigmentation in psoriasis-result of regress of: Erosion Pustules Bulla *Papules All are correct Psoriasis of the nails are characterized by all, except: Nail pitting “Oil drops” Onycholysis All are correct *Presence of pus Predisposing factors of pyoderma are all, except: Diabetes mellitus *Stress Chrohic infections Diminished of immunity Hypovitaminosis The main characteristic skin lesion in case of pyoderma is: *Pustule Papule Erosion Scale Maculae Pyoderma means: Viral infection of the skin Tinea infection of the skin All are correct *Bacterial infection of the skin All are wrong Deep pyoderma means all, except: Folliculitis of leg Furuncle Carbuncle Sycosis Barbae *Impetigo Carbuncle means: *Large deep ulcer Large deep fissure Large deep papule Large deep pustule E. Large deep erosion 139. Impetigo is: A. Very superficial viral infection of the skin B. *Very superficial bacterial infection of the skin C. Very superficial fungal infection of the skin D. Very superficial parasitic infection of the skin E. Deep bacterial infection of the skin 140. Deeper skin infection with staphylococcus or streptococcus bacteria are all, except: A. Boil B. Furuncle C. Abscess D. Carbuncle E. *Impetigo 141. Carbuncle is? A. Viral infection B. Fungal infection C. *Bacterial infection D. Parasitogenic infection E. All are wrong 142. Koebner’s phehomenon is typical for: A. Allergic dermatitis B. Impetigo C. *Psoriasis D. Furuncle E. Ecthyma 143. Location variants of psoriasis are all, except: A. *Erythrodermia B. Inverse psoriasis C. Nail psoriasis D. Psoriatic arthritis E. Scalp psoriasis 144. “Wickham’s striae” are white network on the surface of: A. Crust B. Bulla C. Vesicle D. *Papule E. All are correct 145. Which of the following skin conditions is commonly known as a boil? A. Ecthyma B. *Furuncle C. Abscess D. Impetigo E. All are correct 146. Folliculates means: A. Deep bacterial inflammation of hair follicles B. Deep viral inflammation of hair follicles C. Deep parasitic inflammation of hair follicles D. *Superficial bacterial inflammation of hair follicles E. Superficial viral inflammation of hair follicles 147. Folliculitis means: A. Superficial infection involving only the whole follicle B. C. D. E. 148. A. B. C. D. E. 149. A. B. C. D. E. 150. A. B. C. D. E. 151. A. B. C. D. E. 152. A. B. C. D. E. 153. A. B. C. D. E. 154. A. B. C. D. E. 155. A. B. C. D. E. *Superficial infection involving only the upper portion of the follicle Deep infection involving only the whole follicle Deep infection involving only the upper portion of the follicle Superficial infection involving only the upper and media portion of the follicle Psoriasis is characterised by: Not- demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale Well-demarcated white maculae’s with silvery scale *Well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale Well-demarcated erythematous nodules with silvery scale Well-demarcated erythematous plaques with red scale A carbuncle is an infection involving: *Subcutaneous tissue around several hair follicles Subcutaneous tissue around one hair follicle Subcutaneous tissue around sweat gland Subcutaneous tissue around only sebaceous gland All are correct Pustular psoriasis means psoriasis of: Scalp Beard zone Groin *Soles, palms Nails Arrangement of lesions in case of pyoderma means all, except: Annular *Chard chancre Circinate Linear Reticulate Impetigo means: *Skin infection caused by bacteria Skin infection caused by HSV Skin infection caused by CMV Skin infection caused by EBV Skin infection caused by mite Furuncles are skin abscesses caused by staphylococcal infection, which involve: Stratum spinosum *A hair follicle and surrounding tissue Sweat gland and surrounding tissue Sebaceous gland and surrounding tissue Stratum corneum Furuncles (boils) are: Tender maculae’s or pustules caused by staphylococcal infection Tender nodules or patch caused by staphylococcal infection Tender maculae’s or plagues caused by staphylococcal infection *Tender nodules or pustules caused by staphylococcal infection Tender nodules or erosions caused by staphylococcal infection Carbuncles are clusters of: Maculae’s that are subcutaneously connected Patches that are subcutaneously connected *Furuncles that are subcutaneously connected Vesicles that are subcutaneously connected Pustules that are subcutaneously connected 156. Hidradenitis suppurativa means a chronic, scarring inflammation of apocrine glands of all, except: A. Of the axillae B. Of the groin C. Around the nipples D. *Of the scalp E. Around the anus 157. Non-bullous impetigo is a superficial skin infection that manifests as: A. *Clusters of pustules B. Clusters of patches C. Clusters of maculae’s D. Scarring E. Ulcers 158. Lab. diagnosis of bacterial infection of skin means all, except: A. Skin biopsy B. Skin swab C. Pus swab D. Nasal / skin swab E. *Tzanck test 159. Dermatophytosis- is: A. Virus infection of the skin B. Bacteria infection of the skin C. *Fungal infection of the skin D. All are correct E. Parasitogenic disease of the skin 160. Therapy of dermatophytes include: A. *Griseofulvin B. Steroids C. Cyclosporine D. Tricyclic antidepressants E. Leukotriene blockers 161. Typical skin lesion of tinea is : A. *Annular or arcuate plaque B. Ulcer C. Crust D. Burrow E. All are correct 162. Dermatophytes - keratinophilic fungi, which live in: A. Derma B. Vessels C. Nerves D. *Superficial dead keratin E. All are correct 163. Favus caused by: A. T.mentagrophytes B. T.rubrum C. M.canis D. *All are wrong E. All are correct 164. Trichophyton affect: A. Only skin B. Skin, hair 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. C. Nails, hair D. Skin, nails E. *Skin, hair, nails Skin lesions of pityriasis versicolor are: A. *Macula's B. Nodules C. Fissures D. Erosions E. Bullas ANSWER A Microsporum is type of dermatophytosis, which affect: A. Only hair B. Nails C. Only skin D. *Skin, hair E. Only nails Wood’s lamp examination - method of diagnosis of: A. Syphilis B. Virus infection C. Scabies D. Gonococcal infection E. *Tinea infection Tinea Versicolor treatment include: A. *Itraconazole B. H1 anti-histamines C. Leukotriene blockers D. H2 anti-histamines E. Steroids Wood’s lamp examination- method of diagnosis of: A. Lichen planus B. *Tinea infection C. Scabies D. Virus infection E. Syphilis Anthropophilic fungi means spread from: A. *Human to human B. Animals to man C. Soil to man D. All are correct E. Animal to animal Zoophilic fungi means spread from: A. Human to human B. *Animals to man C. Soil to man D. All are correct E. Animal to animal Geophilic fungi means spread from: A. Human to human B. Animals to man C. *Soil to man D. All are correct E. Animal to animal 173. A. B. C. D. E. 174. A. B. C. D. E. 175. A. B. C. D. E. 176. A. B. C. D. E. 177. A. B. C. D. E. 178. A. B. C. D. E. 179. A. B. C. D. E. 180. A. B. C. D. E. 181. A. B. C. Typical skin lesion of tinea is: Scales Ulcer Crust *Annular or arcuate plaque All are correct Scutula skin lesions characterized for: Furuncle Carbuncle *Favus Lichen planus Syphilis Wood’s lamp examination- method of diagnosis of: Atopic dermatitis Eczema Virus infection Scabies *Tinea infection Onychomycosis - means: *Tinea infection of the nails Tinea infection of the head Tinea infection of the skin Tinea infection of the hand All are correct Onychomycosis can be: Normotrophic Hypertrophic Atrophic All are wrong *All are correct Predisposing factors of tinea pedis are: Occlusive foot wear Hyperhidrosis of soles Sharing of wash places Presence of tinea unguium *All are correct Skin lesion of pityriasis versicolor are: Nodules Fissures *Macula's Erosions All are correct The sites of choice in pityriasis versicolor are: Upper part of the trunk Upper parts of the arms Neck Forehead and cheeks *All are correct Main complaint of patients with pityriasis versicolor are: Severe pain *Asymptomatic Hard itch 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. D. Enlargement of lymphatic nodes E. All are correct The clinical picture of pityriasis versicolor is: A. Well demarcated, indurate plaque B. Flaccid bulla C. *Macula D. Nodule E. Ulcer The main sites of choice in pityriasis versicolor are : A. *Upper part of the trunk and arms B. Nails C. Hair D. Groin E. All are correct The causative agent of pityriasis versicolor is: A. Epidermophyton B. *Malassezia furfur C. Microsporum D. Trichophyton E. All are correct Mycoses caused by dermatophytes are called: A. Dermatophytoses B. Tinea C. Ringworm D. Pityriasis versicolor E. *All are correct, except pityriasis versicolor Classification of tinea according site of involvement include all, except: A. Tinea capitis B. *Tinea versicolor C. Tinea barbae D. Tinea cruris E. Tinea pedis Tinear barbae means affection of: A. Scalp B. Hands C. *Beared area D. Nails E. Groin In case of oral candidiasis white adherent plaques are seen over: A. Buccal mucosa B. Tongue C. Palate D. Gingiva. E. *All are correct Kerion is: A. Inflammatory type of tinea cruris B. *Inflammatory type of tinea capitis C. Inflammatory type of tinea pedis D. Inflammatory type of tinea unguium E. Inflammatory type of tinea manuum Favus is: A. Non-inflammatory type of tinea capitis B. C. D. E. 191. A. B. C. D. E. 192. A. B. C. D. E. 193. A. B. C. D. E. 194. A. B. C. D. E. 195. A. B. C. D. E. 196. A. B. C. D. E. 197. A. B. C. D. E. 198. A. B. C. D. E. Inflammatory type of tinea pedis Non-Inflammatory type of tinea unguium *Inflammatory type of tinea capitis Inflammatory type of tinea manuum Therapy of dermatophytes include: *Ketoconazole Tricyclic antidepressants Leukotriene blockers Cyclosporine Steroids Black dot type is: Non-inflammatory type of tinea cruris *Non inflammatory type of tinea capitis Non-inflammatory type of tinea manuum Non-inflammatory type of tinea unguium Non-inflammatory type of tinea pedis There are such types of tinea pedis: Intertriginous Hyperceratotic Vesicular Squamosis *All are correct Wood’s lamp examination- method diagnosis of: Syphilis Psoriasis *Pyoderma Scabies All are correct Culture of Sabouraud’s media is used for diagnosis of: Salmonella Streptococcus Treponema pallidum *Tinea Chlamydia KOH preparation is used for diagnosis of: Streptococcus Treponema pallidum Salmonella Chlamydia *Tinea Culture of Sabouraud’s media is used for diagnosis of: Streptococcus Treponema pallidum *Candidiasis Salmonella Chlamydia Wood’s lamp examination- method of diagnosis: Syphilis Psoriasis Lichen planus *Pityriasis versicolor All are correct 199. A. B. C. D. E. 200. A. B. C. D. E. 201. A. B. C. D. E. 202. A. B. C. D. E. 203. A. B. C. D. E. 204. A. B. C. D. E. 205. A. B. C. D. E. 206. A. B. C. D. E. 207. A. B. C. KOH preparation is used for diagnosis of: Chlamidia Streptococcus Treponema pallidum Salmonella *Pityriasis versicolor Dermatophytosis is superficial fungal infection, which affected: *Sratum corneum Stratum lucidum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale Stratum granulosum Atopic dermatitis is characterized by all, except: Scaling Excoriations *Burrow Oozing Lichenification Dermatophytosis is superficial fungal infection, which affected: Stratum lucidum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale *Sratum corneum Derma Different color of macula’s are characterized for: Tinea *Pituriasis versicolor Psoriasis Pioderma All are correct Dermatophytes which grow inside and outside the hair shaft we call: *Endothrix and ectothrix Endothrix Ectothrix All are correct All are wrong Broken hair which look like as hook (coma) is found in: Kerion Secondaty siphilis Favus All are correct *Non inflammatory type of tinea capitis Pityriasis with variety of color is: Pityriasis alba Pityriasis rosea Pityriasis lichenoides *Pityriasis versicolor All are correct Typical skin lesion of tinea is: Ulcer Crust Bulla 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. D. *Annular or arcuate plaque E. All are correct Balzer test is used for diagnosis of: A. Candidiasis B. Tinea C. *Pityriasis versicolor D. Dermatomycosis E. All are correct Favus is characterized by such forms: A. Scutular form B. Squamosis form C. Impetigo’s form D. Infiltrarive-purulent form E. *All are correct “Stamp symptom” is characterized for: A. Trichophytia B. Dermatophytia C. Rubrophitia D. All are correct E. *Microsporia Skin lesion of pityriasis versicolor are: A. *Macula's B. Nodules C. Fissures D. Papules E. Bullas Favus referred to: A. *Tinea capitis B. Tinea barbae C. Tinea cruris D. Tinea pedis E. All are wrong Site of infection by tinea cruris is: A. Scalp B. Feet C. Face D. *Groin E. Nails Which onychomycosis presentation relates to immunosuppresed condition? A. Distal subungual B. *Proximal subungual C. Nail pitting D. Onycholysis E. All are correct Therapy of dermatophytes include: A. Leukotriene blockers B. Cyclosporine C. Steroids D. *Terbinafine E. Tricyclic antidepressants How many types of onychomycosis you know? A. 5 B. C. D. E. 4 6 *3 2 217. What is the main patient complain is characterized for tinea corporis? A. *Itching B. Pain C. Intoxication D. Fever E. All are wrong 218. Which areas are the most common infected in case of tinea pedis? A. Head B. *Feet C. Chest D. Arms E. Trunk 219. In case of acute vesicular tinea pedis specimens for potassium hydroxide examination should be taken from: A. Under the vesicle B. *Root of the vesicle C. Maculae’s D. Burrow E. Around the vesicle 220. What is the meaning of tinea? A. *Fungal infection B. Bacterial infection C. Sexually transmitted disease D. All are correct E. Viral infection 221. Color of fluorescence in Wood’s light in case of tinea capitis will be: A. Yellow B. Coral pink C. *Green D. Brown E. Blue 222. Tinea Versicolor treatment include: A. Leukotriene blockers B. H1 anti-histamines C. Tricyclic antidepressants D. Steroids E. *Fluconazole 223. Color of fluorescence in Wood’s light in case of erythrasma will be: A. Green B. Yellow C. *Coral red D. Brown E. Blue 224. Treatment of urticaria means all, except: A. Adrenaline B. *Itraconazole C. Terfinadin D. Desloratidin 225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. E. Hydrocortisone What factors determine the treatment of tinea infection? A. Site of lesions B. Extent of lesions C. Chronic disease D. Patient complaints E. *All are correct Therapy of dermatophytes include: A. Cyclosporine B. Steroids C. *Itraconazole D. Tricyclic antidepressants E. Leukotriene blockers Atopic dermatitis is characterized by all, except: A. Dry skin B. Pruritus C. Erythema D. Edema E. *Hive “Atopic triad” means: A. *Asthma, allergic rhinitis, atopic dermatitis B. Asthma, atopic dermatitis, psoriasis C. Atopic dermatitis, eczema, urticaria D. Atopic dermatitis, asthma, urticaria E. Allergic rhinitis, urticaria, atopic dermatitis “Jock itch” means: A. Tinea corporis B. Tinea barbae C. *Tinea cruris D. Tinea capitis E. Tinea Pedis “Smooth skin” means: A. *Tinea corporis B. Tinea barbae C. Tinea cruris D. Tinea capitis E. Tinea Pedis In case of Tinea versicolor yeast grows in: A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum lucidum C. *Stratum corneum D. Stratum basale E. Stratum granulosum Favus is caused by: A. T.rubrum B. M.canis C. E.floccosum D. *All are wrong E. Microsporum Tinea Versicolor treatment include: A. Cyclosporine B. H1 anti-histamines C. H2 anti-histamines D. *Ketoconazole E. Steroids 234. Hyperpigmented or depigmented maculae on chest, back, arms, abdomen are characterised for: A. Psoriasis B. *Tinea Versicolor C. Tinea corporis D. Tinea cruris E. Tinea manuum 235. In case of oral candidiasis white adherent plaques are seen over: A. Gingiva B. Tongue C. Palate D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 236. Direct microscopic examination of KOH-treated skin scrapings which show a typical aspect of mycelia and spores described as "spaghetti and meatballs” is characterized for: A. Tinea pedis B. Tinea corporis C. *Tinea versicolor D. Tinea cruris E. Tinea manuum 237. Therapy of dermatophytes include: A. Steroids B. Cyclosporine C. Tricyclic antidepressants D. Leukotriene blockers E. *Miconazole 238. Such genera comprise group of dermatophytes: A. Microspourm B. Trichophyton C. Epidermophyton D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 239. Dermatophytes which grow only inside the hair shaft we call: A. *Endothrix B. Ectothrix C. Endothrix and ectothrix D. All are correct E. All are wrong 240. Dermatophytes means: A. *All are correct B. Microsporum C. Trichophyton D. Epidermophyton E. All are wrong 241. Superficial mycoses are: A. *Fungal infections of the outermost keratinized layers of the skin B. Viral infections of the outermost keratinized layers of the skin C. Fungal infections of the derma 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248. 249. 250. D. Viral infections of the derma E. Viral infection of the epidermis Dermatophytosis involve: A. Skin B. Hair C. Nails D. All are wrong E. *All are correct Tinea versicolor - characterized by a blotchy discoloration of: A. *Skin B. Nails C. Hair D. All are wrong E. All are correct Ringworm of the bearded areas of the face and neck, known as: A. Tinea corporis B. Tinea cruris C. *Tinea barbae D. Tinea manuun E. Tinea pedis Microsporum affected: A. Only skin B. Only hair C. *Skin and hair D. Skin and nails E. All are wrong Epidermophyton affected: A. Only skin B. Only hair C. Only nails D. *Skin and nails E. All are wrong Trichophyton affected: A. Only skin B. Only hair C. Only nails D. *Skin, hair, nails E. All are wrong Tinea cruris means: A. Tinea of beard zone B. Tinea of the nails C. Tinea pedis D. Tinea of the scalp E. *All are wrong Tinea cruris means: A. Tinea of beard B. Tinea of the trunk C. Tinea pedis D. Tinea of the scalp E. *Tinea of the groin Onycholysis means: A. Tinea of the beard zone B. C. D. E. 251. B. C. D. E. F. 252. A. B. C. D. E. 253. A. B. C. D. E. 254. A. B. C. D. E. 255. A. B. C. D. E. 256. A. B. C. D. E. 257. A. B. C. D. E. 258. A. B. C. D. E. *Separation of the nail from its bed Tinea of the nails Discoloration of the nails All are wrong Favus caused by: *T.schoenleinii T.mentagrophytes T.rubrum M.canis E.floccosum Predisposing factors of candidiasis are: Diabetes mellitus Antibiotics Obesity (friction) Poor hygiene *All are correct Predisposing factors of candidiasis are: High humidity Antibiotics Obesity (friction) Poor hygiene *All are correct Candida intertrigo localized: Under the breasts *All are correct In the armpits In the groin All are wrong In case of oral candidiasis white adherent plaques are seen over: Buccal mucosa Tongue Palate *All are correct Genital organs Treatment of urticaria means all, except: Diphenhydramine Terfinadin Desloratidin Hydrocortisone *Miconazole Fluorescent “Wood’s lamp” examination can be used to identify: Microsporum canis Corynebacterium Malassia furfur Microsporum andouinii *All are correct Pemphigus vulgaris is: Viral disease *Autoimmune disease Bacterial disease Sexually transmitted disease Papulosquamosis disease 259. Common term used for vesicle or bulla means: A. *Blister B. Patch C. Plaque D. Crust E. All are wrong 260. Nikolsky’s sign is positive in: A. Psoriasis B. Scabies C. *Bullous disorders (Pemphigus) D. Syphilis E. Lichen planus 261. Acantholytic epidermal cells are characterized for: A. Psoriasis B. Pyoderma C. Lichen planus D. *Pemphigus vulgaris E. Tinea 262. Fluid-filled raised lesion > 5 mm across means: A. Wheal B. Macula C. Plaque D. Patch E. *All are wrong 263. Clinical features of Pemphigus Vulgaris are all, except: A. Tense of flaccid bulla appear on normal skin B. The lesions may be few and sparse, or extensive C. The eruption is usually symmetrical D. They are usually irregular in shape E. *Nodules are certain skin lesions 264. Tzanck smear is used as a diagnostic test for which of the following skin condition? A. Scabies B. HIV C. Psoriasis D. *Pemphigus Vulgaris E. Eczema 265. Common skin lesions above the plane of the skin are: A. Vesicle B. Pustule C. Bulla D. Nodule E. *All are correct 266. Common skin lesions above the plane of the skin are all, except: A. Papule B. Nodule C. Cyst D. *Patch E. Vesicle 267. Clinical features of Pemphigus Vulgaris are all, except: A. Tense of flaccid bulla appear on normal skin B. On rupturing, form painful erosions C. The eruption is usually symmetrical D. They are usually irregular in shape E. *Nikolsky’s sign is negative 268. Fluid-filled raised lesion > 5 mm across means: A. Wheal B. *Bulla C. Plaque D. Patch E. Nodule 269. Therapy of HSV infection include all, except: A. Acyclovir B. Valacyclovir C. Famciclovir D. H1 anti-histamines E. *Fluconazole 270. Clinical features of Pemphigus Vulgaris are all, except: A. Tense of flaccid bulla appear on normal skin B. On rupturing, form painful erosions C. The eruption is usually symmetrical D. *They are usually regular in shape E. Nikolsky’s sign is positive 271. Pemphigus Foliaceus localized in: A. *Epidermis B. Derma C. Subcutis D. Epidermis, derma E. All are correct 272. Tzanck smear is used as a diagnostic test for which of the following skin condition? A. HIV B. Psoriasis C. *Pemphigus Vulgaris D. Lichen planus E. Impetigo 273. Fluid-filled raised lesion 5 mm or less across means: A. Nodule B. Wheal C. *Vesicle D. Plaque E. Patch 274. Pemphigus Foliaceus is characterised by all, except: A. Presence of fflaccid bulla and exfoliating scales B. *Presence of papules C. Slowly the disease spreads D. Nikolsky’s sign is positive E. Bulla rapture rapidly 275. Therapy of HSV infection include all, except: A. Acyclovir B. H2 anti-histamines C. Valacyclovir D. *Itraconazole E. Famciclovir 276. A. B. C. D. E. 277. A. B. C. D. E. 278. A. B. C. D. E. 279. A. B. C. D. E. 280. A. B. C. D. E. 281. A. B. C. D. E. 282. A. B. C. D. E. 283. A. B. C. D. E. 284. A. B. C. Blister means: *Bulla Plaque Patch Nodule Cyst Exfoliating scales are characterized for such types of pemphigus: Pemphigus Vegetans *Pemphigus Foliaceus Pemphigus Vulgaris Pempgigus Erythematosus All are correct Acantholytic epidermal cells are characterized for : Pyoderma Psoriasis *Pemphigus foliaceus Lichen planus Tinea Fluid-filled raised lesion 5 mm or less across means: Patch Nodule Wheal Plaque *All are wrong Senear-Usher syndrome is synonym of: Pemphigus Foliaceus Pemphigus Vulgaris Pemphigus Vegetans *Pempgigus Erythematosus Phemhigoid The main characteristic skin lesion of Pemphigus Vulgaris is: Burrow Nodule Cyst *Bulla Erosion Common skin lesions above the plane of the skin are all, except: Papule Vesicle Nodule Bulla *Macula The main characteristic skin lesion of Pemphigus Erythematosus is: Cyst Burrow Plaque *Bulla Nodule Blister means: *Vesicle Plaque Patch D. Nodule E. Borrow 285. Pruritic, polygonal, flat papules and white striaform symmetric lesions in the buccal mucosa are characterized for: A. Pemphigus foliaceus B. Pemphigus vegetans C. *Lichen planus D. Pemphigus vulgaris E. Pemphigus vegetans 286. Which of the pemphigus never involve mucosal surface? A. Pemphigus Erythematosus B. Pemphigus Vegetans C. *Pemphigus Foliaceus D. Pemphigus Vulgaris E. All are wrong 287. Senear-Usher disease means: A. *Pemphigus Erythematosus B. Pemphigus Vegetans C. Pemphigus Vulgaris D. Pemphigus Foliaceus E. All are wrong 288. Acantholysis means: A. Intercellular edema between the keratinocytes in the epidermis B. Is thickening of the stratum corneum, often associated with a qualitative abnormality of the keratin C. *Loss of intercellular connection in epidermis D. Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia E. The formation of vacuoles within or adjacent to cells 289. Tzanck smear is used as a diagnostic test for which of the following skin condition? A. Psoriasis B. HIV C. *HSV D. Lichen planus E. Impetigo 290. Fluid from intact vesicle smeared on a microscope slide which is stained with either Giemsa’s or Wright’s stain means: A. Balzer test B. Auspits sign C. *Tzanck smear D. Psoriatic phenomenon E. Woronow wring 291. Systemic therapy in dermatology means: A. Anti fungal B. Antibacterial agents C. Anti viral agents D. *All are correct E. Antihistamines drugs 292. Fluid from intact vesicle and smeared on a microscope slide which is stained with either Giemsa’s or Wright’s stain means: A. “Auspits” sign B. “Balzer”test C. Psoriatic phenomenon D. “Woronow wring” E. *All are wrong 293. Loss of intercellular connections resulting in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes is: A. Vacuolization B. Spongiosis C. Exocytosis D. Dyskeratosis E. *All are wrong 294. Pemphigus vulgaris is: A. Papulosquamosis disease B. Pyoderma C. Bacterial disease D. Sexually transmitted disease E. *ll are wrong 295. Common skin lesions above the plane of the skin are: A. Erosion B. Macula C. Patch D. *Bulla E. Excoriation 296. Pemphix means: A. Bubble or papule B. Bubble or patch C. *Bubble or blister D. Nodule E. Patch 297. Color of Wood’s light in case of Erythrasma is: A. Dull yellow B. *Coral C. Green D. Compelete depigmentation E. All are wrong 298. Treatment of Pemphigus vulgaris means: A. Oral steroids B. Systemic steroids C. Immunosuppressive agents D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 299. Pemphigus occurs in patients with: A. Papulosquamosis disease B. Viral disease C. *Autoimmune diseases D. Bacterial disease E. Sexually transmitted disease 300. Pemphigus vulgaris can involve: A. Skin B. Esophagus C. Cervix D. Oral cavity E. *All are correct 301. Application of tangential pressure on normal skin results in formation of anew bulla means: A. “Auspits” sign B. *”Nikolsky’s” sign C. “Balze”r test D. “Woronow” wring E. All are wrong 302. Application on pre-existing bulla results in the spread of bulla, means: A. “Balzer” test B. “Auspits” sign C. “Woronow” wring D. *“Nikolsky’s” sign E. All are wrong 303. In case of Pemphigus vulgaris acantholysis produced: A. Intraepithelial vesicles or papule B. *Intraepithelial vesicles or bulla C. Intraepithelial vesicles or nodule D. Intraepithelial cyst or bulla E. All are wrong 304. In case of Pemphigus vulgaris intraepithelial vesicles or bulla appeared in: A. Stratum basale B. Prickle cell layer C. *Stratum spinosum or the prickle cell layer D. Dermis E. Subcutis 305. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized with: A. Flaccid blister B. Clear fluid inside blister C. Healthy skin around blister D. *All are correct E. Positive Nikolsky’s sign 306. The main aim in treating Pemphigus vulgaris is to: A. Decrease blister formation B. Promote healing of blister C. Determine the minimum dose of medication necessary to control the disease process D. *All are correct E. Prevent secondary complications 307. Diet in case of Pemphigus vulgaris means restricted on: A. Spicy foods B. Tomatoes C. Orange juice D. *All are correct E. Nuts 308. Diet in case of Pemphigus vulgaris means restricted on hard foods that may traumatize oral epithelium mechanically: A. Nuts B. Chips C. Hard vegetables D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 309. Human Herpes Viruses can be: A. B. C. D. E. 310. A. B. C. D. E. 311. A. B. C. D. E. 312. A. B. C. D. E. 313. A. B. C. D. E. 314. A. B. C. D. E. 315. A. B. C. D. E. 316. A. B. C. D. E. 317. A. B. C. D. Alphaherpesvirinae Betaherpesvirinae Gammaherpesvirinae *All are correct All are wrong Complications of herpes zoster are: Post herpetic pain Ophthalmic zoster -corneal scarring Loss of vision *All are correct All are wrong “Shingles” means: Herpes labialis *Zoster ophthalmicus Cytomegalovirus Chicken pox All are wrong Therapy of HSV infection include: Acyclovir Valacyclovir Famciclovir *All are correct Antihistamines To inspect skin means look for signs of: Edema Moisture Petechiae Ecchymosis *All are correct We must assess each lesion for: Asymmetry of shape Border irregularity Color variation within one lesion Diameter *All are correct We must inspect and palpate the hair for: Cleanliness Distribution, Cleanliness Correct is answer A *Correct is answer B All are wrong We must evaluate fingernails and toenails for: Color Shape Thickness Texture *All are correct Minor associations with the aging process of the nail include: Gradual thickening of the nail plate Presence of longitudinal ridges Yellowish-gray discoloration *All are correct E. All are wrong 318. Diagnostic tests in dermatology are: A. Skin biopsy B. Skin cultures C. “Tzanck” smear D. *All are correct E. “Balzer” test 319. Classic recurring cold sore is: A. Varicella Zoster B. *Type 1 herpes simplex virus C. Cytomegalovirus D. Chicken pox E. Epstein-Barr virus 320. Classic recurring cold sore is: A. Type 2 herpes simplex virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Chicken pox D. Varicella Zoster E. *All are wrong 321. Genital herpes is: A. Cytomegalovirus B. *Type 2 herpes simplex virus C. Chicken pox D. Varicella Zoster E. All are wrong 322. After first infection, Herpes Zoster Virus dormant in a: A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum basale C. *Nerve ganglia D. Stratum pallidum E. All are wrong 323. Herpetic whitlow-a form of: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Chicken pox C. *Herpes simplex infection D. Varicella Zoster E. Epstein-Barr virus 324. Multiple lesions occur in a segmental distribution on the skin area innervated by the infected nerve are characterized for: A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Chicken pox C. *Herpes zoster D. Herpes simplex E. Pemphigus Vulgaris 325. Herpes Zoster caused by reactivation of the dormant virus in clients who have previously had: A. Herpes Zoster B. *Chickenpox C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Cytomegalovirus E. All are correct 326. Systemic therapy in dermatology means: A. B. C. D. E. Anti viral agents Antibacterial agents Anti fungal agents Antihistamines *All are correct 327. Palpation of the skin confirms all, except: A. The size of the lesions B. *Psoriatic phenomenon C. Type of lesions D. Skin temperature E. Turgor 328. Herpes Zoster caused by reactivation of the dormant virus in clients who have previously had: A. *Chickenpox B. Pemphigus erythematous C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Cytomegalovirus E. Pemphigus vulgaris 329. In case of Herpes Zoster eruption lasts for: A. Several days B. *Several weeks C. Several hours D. All are wrong E. Several years 330. Herpetic whitlow-a form of herpes simplex infection occurring: A. On the scalp of medical personnel B. *On the fingertips of medical personnel C. On the groin of medical personnel D. All are wrong E. All are correct 331. Environmental triggers for re-activation of HSV are: A. Stress B. UV radiation C. Menstruation D. All are wrong E. *All are correct 332. Environmental triggers for re-activation of HSV are: A. Fever B. Pregnancy C. Immunosuppression D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 333. Objective assessment of a patient with a skin complaint (special examination technique) include: A. Diascopy B. Skin-surface microscopy C. Wood’s light D. *All are correct E. Skin scrapping 334. In diagnosis of skin disease we can use: A. Routine tests B. Special tests 335. 336. 337. 338. 339. 340. 341. 342. 343. C. Skin Biopsy D. Blood analysis E. *All are correct Special tests in dermatology means all, except: A. Skin scrapings B. Patch test C. *Blood analysis D. Tzank smear E. Electron microscopy Therapy of HSV infection include all, except: A. Acyclovir B. *Miconazole C. H1 anti-histamines D. Valacyclovir E. Famciclovir Dermatological status of patient include all, except: A. Diascopy B. *Tzank smear C. Inspection D. Palpation E. Scraping Tzanck preparation means: A. Culture is taken from a fresh blister. B. The slide is prepared with Giemsa C. The slide is prepared with Wright’s stain D. *All are correct E. All are wrong Color of Wood’s light in case of Tinea Versicolor is: A. *Dull yellow B. Coral C. Green D. Compelete depigmentation E. All are wrong Color of Wood’s light in case of tinea capitis is: A. Dull yellow B. Coral C. *Green D. Compelete depigmentation E. All are wrong Treatments of skin disease can be: A. Topical B. *All are correct C. Systemic D. Surgical E. All are wrong Dermatological status of patient include: A. Inspection B. Palpation C. Scraping D. Diascopy E. *All are correct PUVA or Photochemotherapy used mainly for severe: A. B. C. D. E. 344. A. B. C. D. E. 345. A. B. C. D. E. 346. A. B. C. D. E. 347. A. B. C. D. E. 348. A. B. C. D. E. 349. A. B. C. D. E. 350. A. B. C. D. E. 351. A. B. C. D. *Psoriasis Type 1 herpes simplex virus Cytomegalovirus Chicken pox Varicella Zoster PUVA or Photochemotherapy used mainly for: *All are wrong Type 1 herpes simplex virus Cytomegalovirus Chicken pox Varicella Zoster Systemic therapy in dermatology means: Immunosuppressive Anti viral agents Antibacterial agents Anti fungal agents *All are correct During skin inspection doctor must look for signs of: Edema Moisture Petechiae *All are correct Color During skin inspection doctor must look for all signs, except: Petechiae Ecchymosis Edema Moisture *Tzank smear Palpation of the skin confirms: The size of the lesions Type of lesions Skin temperature Turgor *All are correct Palpation of the skin confirms all, except: The size of the lesions Type of lesions *Balzer test Skin temperature Turgor Each lesion is necessary to assess for: Asymmetry of shape *All are correct Border irregularity Color variation within one lesion Diameter Punch biopsy: 2-10 mm in diameter, helpful in the diagnosis of: Discoid lupus Bullous pemphigoid Cutaneous T-cell Lymphoma *All are correct 352. 353. 354. 355. 356. 357. 358. 359. 360. E. All are wrong Nail assessment include: A. Nail bed color B. *All are correct C. Texture & Consistency D. Nail angle E. Surrounding tissues Assessment of hair means: A. Alopecia B. *All are correct C. Color D. Distribution E. All are wrong Abnormal color of the nail means: A. Cyanosis B. Leukonychia C. Pink D. *Correct are A and B E. Correct are B and C Abnormal color of the nail means: A. Cyanosis B. Leukonychia C. Melanochyia D. Correct are A and B E. *All are correct Abnormal color of the nail means: A. Melanochyia B. Pink C. Cyanosis D. Correct are B and C E. *Correct A and C Human Herpes Viruses can be: A. Alphaherpesvirinae B. Alphaherpesvirinae, Betaherpesvirinae C. Alphaherpesvirinae, Gammaherpesvirinae, Betaherpesvirinae D. Correct is answer B E. *Correct is answer C Complications of herpes zoster are: A. Only post herpetic pain B. Post herpetic pain, ophthalmic zoster -corneal scarring C. Only loss of vision D. Only ophthalmic zoster corneal scarring E. *Correct is answer B Tinea pedis means: A. Scabies of the soles B. Eczema of the soles C. Dermatitis of the soles D. *Dermatophytosis of the soles E. Psoriasis of the soles Sexually ttransmitted infections includes: A. Pediculosis Pubis B. Scabies 361. 362. 363. 364. 365. 366. 367. 368. 369. C. Condyloma acuminate D. Condyloma lata E. *All are correct “Venera necklace” is : A. *Combination of hyperpigmentation and depigmentation in secondary syphilis B. Combination of hyperpigmentation and nodules in secondary syphilis C. Combination of nodules and depigmentation in secondary syphilis D. Affection of hair in secondary syphilis E. Nodules in secondary syphilis Sexually transmitted infections includes: A. Genital Herpes B. Granuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis) C. Lymphogranuloma Venereum D. Correct are B and C E. *All are correct Sexually transmitted infections includes: A. Chancroid B. *All are correct C. Syphilis D. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) E. Correct are A and C The main clinical symptoms of primary syphilis are: A. “Hard chancre” B. *Hard chancre, regional lymphadenitis C. Vaginal discharges D. Roseola E. Regional lymphadenitis “Hard chancre” is: A. Soft B. Thick C. Painful D. Painless E. *Thick and painless Variations of the classic chancre are: A. Non-indurate ulcers B. Painful ulcers C. Multiple ulcers D. *All are correct E. All are correct, except ”non-indurate ulcers “ “Hard chancre” is clinical symptom of: A. Gonococcal infection B. *Primary syphilis C. Secondary syphilis D. Late syphilis E. Congenital syphilis Typical “chard chancre” is: A. Macular B. *Button like , painless lesion C. Patch D. Nodule E. Nodule, maculae, patch Treponema pallidum is: A. B. C. D. E. 370. A. B. C. D. E. 371. A. B. C. D. E. 372. A. B. C. D. E. 373. A. B. C. D. E. 374. A. B. C. D. E. 375. A. B. C. D. E. 376. A. B. C. D. E. 377. A. B. C. D. Virus Protozoa Dermatophytes *Spirochete Mite “Hard chancre” begins as: A single papule Well defined papule Painless papule *All are correct Button like papule “Hard chancre” begins as: Regular red brown papule Indurate (button-like) red brown papule Vaginal discharges All are correct *All are correct, except “vaginal discharges” Variations of the classic chancre are: Painful ulcers Multiple ulcers *All are correct Secondarily infected ulcers Correct are A and B Duration of primary Sero-negative period of syphilis is: 1 week 2 weeks 3 month Till appearance of roseola *Till appearance positive results of Wasserman reaction Syphilis cannot be contracted through: Toilet seats Daily activities Accidental inoculation *Correct are A and B All are correct Syphilis cannot be contracted through: Through contaminated blood Hot tubs Daily activities *Correct are B and C All are correct The mode of transmission of syphilis can be all, except: Sexual *Toilet seats Kissing Sexual perversion Accidental inoculation The mode of transmission of syphilis can be all, except: Through contaminated blood Toilet seats Correct is only answer A *Correct is only answer B E. During delivery 378. The mode of transmission of syphilis can be all, except: A. Accidental inoculation B. Through contaminated blood C. *Daily activities D. Sex E. Kissing 379. Treponema pallidum can be observed by: A. Gram stain B. *Dark-field microscopy C. Direct visualization D. Prick test E. All are wrong 380. Which of the following methods should be undertaken for Treponema pallidum diagnosis? A. Prick test B. “Burrow-ink test” C. *Dark-field microscopy D. Balzer test E. Wood’s light 381. Clinical improvement of primary syphilis are: A. Incubation period 3-4 month B. Presence of subjective sensations C. All are correct D. *Wassermann reaction is positive E. All are wrong 382. Clinical improvement of primary syphilis are : A. Button-like, painless ulcer B. *All are correct C. Incubation period 3-4 weeks D. Absence of subjective sensations E. Wasserman reaction is positive 383. Treponema pallidum is: A. Stable in outside B. Very sensitive to dehumidification C. Very sensitive to boiling D. Correct is only answer B E. *All are correct, except “stable in outside” 384. Treponema pallidum is: A. Very sensitive to disinfectants B. Very sensitive to dehumidification C. Not stable in outside D. Very sensitive to boiling E. *All are correct 385. Primary sero-negative syphilis means: A. Presence of chard chancre B. Enlargement of regional lymphatic node C. Diagnosis of treponema pallidum by dark-field microscopy D. *All are correct E. Wassermann’s reaction – is negative 386. Complication of hard chancre is: A. Arthritis B. C. D. E. 387. A. B. C. D. E. 388. A. B. C. D. E. 389. A. B. C. D. E. 390. A. B. C. D. E. 391. A. B. C. D. E. 392. A. B. C. D. E. 393. A. B. C. D. E. 394. A. B. C. D. E. *Phimosis Bleeding All are correct Vaginal discharges Complication of hard chancre is: *Gangrene Arthritis Vaginal discharges All are correct Bleeding Complications of hard chancre are: Paraphimosis Phagedenism Gangrene Phimosis *All are correct Wassermann’s reaction – specific reaction for: Psoriasis Pioderma Tinea infection *Syphilis Gonococcal infection Wassermann’s reaction is positive after: 2-3 days *3-4 weeks 1-2 days 7-8 days 2 weeks Clinical improvement of primary syphilis are all, except: *Wassermann reaction is negative Presence of regional lymphadenitis Absence of subjective sensations Incubation period 3-4 weeks Button-like, painless ulcer Alopecia in secondary syphilis is characterized as : *“Moth eaten” “Christmas tree” “Herald patch” “Snail-track” All are wrong Alopecia in secondary syphilis is characterized as : “Biet collar” “Christmas tree” “Herald patch” “Snail-track” *All are wrong Post-infectious immunity after treatment of syphilis can preserve: 1 year *Can’t preserve at all 2 years 5 years The whole life 395. A. B. C. D. E. 396. A. B. C. D. E. 397. A. B. C. D. E. 398. A. B. C. D. E. 399. A. B. C. D. E. 400. A. B. C. D. E. 401. A. B. C. D. E. 402. A. B. C. D. E. 403. A. B. C. “Hard chancre” is: Soft Thick Painful Painless *Thick and painless Typical “chard chancre” is: Erosion Papule Nodule Maculae *Papule, erosion, ulcer Typical “chard chancre” is: *Erosion Macular Patch Nodule Nodule, maculae, patch Secondary syphilis is characterized by: Different types of skin lesions *All are correct Regress of syphilides without treatment Presence of treponema pallidum in syphilides Serological tests are positive Papules in secondary syphilis can regress into: Atrophy Scar *Secondary pigmentation Calcification All are correct Syphilitic papules are characterized by: Copper-red in color Thickness Absence of acute inflammation Absence of subjective sensations *All are correct Syphilitic papules are characterized by all, except: Copper-red in color Thickness *Presence of acute inflammation Absence of subjective sensations Absence of acute inflammation Syphilitic papules are characterized by all, except: Copper-red in color Thickness Absence of acute inflammation *Presence of subjective sensations Absence of acute inflammation “Venera necklace” is: Erosion in late syphilis Affection of hair in secondary syphilis Affection of nails in secondary syphilis D. *Combination of hyperpigmentation and depigmentation in secondary syphilis E. Nodules in secondary syphilis 404. “Venera necklace” is: A. Combination of hyperpigmentation and nodules in secondary syphilis B. Affection of hair in secondary C. *Combination of hyperpigmentation and depigmentation in secondary syphilis D. Affection of nails in secondary syphilis E. Nodules in secondary syphilis 405. “Moth eaten” is symptom of: A. *Alopecia in secondary syphilis B. Combination of hyperpigmentation and depigmentation in secondary syphilis C. Combination of hyperpigmentation and nodules in secondary syphilis D. Combination of nodules and depigmentation in secondary syphilis E. Nodules in secondary syphilis 406. To diagnose treponema pallidum in dark-field microscopy, we must take smear from: A. Hard chancre B. Erosions or ulcers from genital organs C. Erosions or ulcers of anorectal zone D. Erosions or ulcers of oral cavity E. *All are correct 407. “Biet collar” is characterized for: A. Primary syphilis B. *Secondary syphilis C. Congenital syphilis D. All are correct E. All are wrong 408. “Hard chancre” is clinical symptom of: A. Both are correct B. Secondary syphilis C. *Primary syphilis D. Late syphilis E. Congenital syphilis 409. Optimal temperature for treponema pallidum development is: A. 60˚С B. 20˚С C. 70˚С D. *37˚С E. 45˚С 410.Treponema pallidum is characterized by all, except: A. Is not stable in outside B. Is very sensitive to disinfectants C. It is very sensitive to dehumidification D. It is very sensitive for boiling E. *Can be diagnose by Gram stain 411. Drugs of choice in syphilis treatment are: A. *Penicillin B. Corticosteroids C. Antiviral drugs D. Antihistamines E. All are correct 412. To precede Wassermann’s reaction, we must take: A. B. C. D. E. Patient urine Patient saliva *Patient serum Patient sweat All are wrong 413. "Chard chancre” is characterized by: A. Itch B. Pain C. Hemispherical growth D. *Well demarcation and painless E. Well demarcation and itch 414. Skin lesions in secondary syphilis are connected with: A. Itch B. Pain C. Paresthesia D. Burning E. *Subjective sensations are absent 415. Shorting of incubation period of primary syphilis is characterized for: A. Children B. Old patients C. Pregnancy women D. All are correct E. *All are correct, except pregnancy women 416. Typical lesion of primary syphilis is called: A. *Hunterian chancre B. Hunterian scales C. Hunterian pustules D. Hunterian maculae’s E. Hunterian patches 417.Treponema pallidum is characterized by all, except: A. *Can de diagnose by Balser test B. Is very sensitive to disinfectants C. Is not stable in outside D. It is very sensitive to dehumidification E. It is very sensitive for boiling 418. Diagnostic tests for syphilis are all, except: A. Dark-field examination B. VDRL C. FTA_ABS D. *Prick test E. RPR 419. Diagnostic tests for syphilis are all, except: A. Dark-field examination B. *Balzer test C. VDRL D. FTA_ABS E. RPR 420. Syphilis can be: A. Early syphilis B. Late syphilis C. Congenital syphilis D. Pruritc syphilis E. *All are correct, except pruritic 421. Condiloma lata are characterized for: A. Lichen planus B. Psoriasis C. *Syphilis D. Virus infection E. Pituriasis versicolor 422. Condiloma lata are characterized for: A. *Syphilis B. Lichen planus C. Psoriasis D. Virus infection E. All are wrong 423. Diagnostic tests for syphilis are all, except: A. FTA_ABS B. Dark-field examination C. *Tzanck smear D. VDRL E. RPR 424. Alopecia in secondary syphilis is characterized as: A. “Koebner’s” phenomenon B. “Christmas tree” C. “Herald patch” D. “Snail-track” E. *All are wrong 425. “Snail-track” is affection of : A. Hair in secondary syphilis B. Skin in secondary syphilis C. *Mucous membranes in secondary syphilis D. Bones in secondary syphilis E. All are wrong 426. “Snail-track” is affection of : A. Mucous membranes in primary syphilis B. Hair in s primary syphilis C. Skin in secondary syphilis D. Bones in secondary syphilis E. *All are wrong 427. Specific symptom of syphilitic papules is: A. “Bleeding point” B. “Terminal film” C. “Stearetic spot” D. *“Biet collar” E. All are wrong 428.Manifestation of secondary syphilis are characterized by: A. Affection of the skin B. Affection of mucous membranes C. Affection of the hair D. Affection of the nails E. *Affection of the skin, mucous membranes, hair 429.Manifestation of secondary syphilis are: A. Affection of the nails B. Affection of the skin 430. 431. 432. 433. 434. 435. 436. 437. 438. C. Affection of mucous membranes D. Affection of the hair E. *Affection of the skin, mucous membranes, hair “Biett “collar” and “Venera necklace” are characterized for: A. Primary syphilis B. *Secondary syphilis C. Late syphilis D. Congenital syphilis E. All are correct Primary skin lesion in primary syphilis is called: A. *“Chard chancre” B. “Biett “collar” C. “Venera” necklace” D. Mite chancre E. All are wrong Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is characterized for: A. Allergic dermatitis B. Urticaria C. *Syphilis D. Tinea infection E. All are correct Incubation period of “classis” syphilis : A. 2-3 days B. 1 week C. *3-4 weeks D. 2-3 monthі E. 6-9 month Connection of such skin lesions can be present during secondary syphilis: A. Roseola and papule B. Roseola, papule and pustule C. Papule and pigmentation D. Alopecia and pigmentation E. *All are correct Secondary syphilis can be present by all skin lesions, except: A. Roseola and papule B. *“Chard chancre” C. Roseola, papule and pustule D. Papule and pigmentation E. Alopecia and pigmentation Immunity in case of syphilis is: A. Congenital B. Gain C. Non-sterility D. Infective E. *Non-sterility, infective “Hard chancre” is: A. Oval or around B. Well demarcated C. Have indurate base D. Have non-inflammative base E. *All are correct “Hard chancre” is characterized by all, except: A. B. C. D. E. 439. A. B. C. D. E. 440. A. B. C. D. E. 441. A. B. C. D. E. 442. A. B. C. D. E. 443. A. B. C. D. E. 444. A. B. C. D. E. 445. A. B. C. D. E. 446. A. B. C. D. Oval or around *Soft Well demarcated Have indurate base Have non-inflammative base Regional lymphadenitis in case of primary syphilis is: Classically rubbery Painless Bilateral *All are correct All are wrong Identification of Treponema pallidum in lesions means: Wasserman reaction Tzank smear *Dark-field microscopy Direct visualization Diascopy Identification of Treponema pallidum in lesions means: *Direct fluorescent antibody Wasserman reaction Tzank smear Direct visualization Diascopy Treponemal serologic tests of syphilis are: TP-PA FTA-ABS EIA *All are correct All are wrong Nontreponemal serologic tests of syphilis are all, except: VDRL RPR TRUST USR *FTA-ABS Nontreponemal Serologic tests of syphilis are all, except: *TP-PA VDRL RPR TRUST USR Nontreponemal Serologic tests of syphilis are all, except: VDRL *EIA RPR TRUST USR Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is: *Self-limited reaction to anti-treponemal therapy Self-limited reaction to antifungal therapy Self-limited reaction to antiviral therapy All are correct 447. 448. 449. 450. 451. 452. 453. 454. 455. E. All are wrong “Hard chancre” and regional lymphadenitis are characterized for: A. Secondary syphilis B. *Primary syphilis C. Congenital syphilis D. Late syphilis E. All are correct “Venera necklace” is combination of hyperpigmentation and depigmentation in: A. *Secondary syphilis B. Erythrasma C. Pituriasis versicolor D. Psoriasis E. All are wrong Clinical improvement of primary syphilis are: A. Incubation period 3-4 weeks B. Absence of subjective sensations C. Button-like, painless ulcer D. Presence of regional lymphadenitis E. *All are correct Treponema pallidum is causative agent of: A. Gonococci infection B. *Syphilis C. Chancroid D. Favus E. All are wrong Jarisch-Herxheimer is an allergic reaction to: A. Antiviral drugs B. *Penicillin C. Antifungal drugs D. Steroids E. B-blockers Clinical improvement of primary syphilis are all, except: A. Incubation period 3-4 weeks B. *Presence of subjective sensations C. Button-like, painless ulcer D. Presence of regional lymphadenitis E. Wassermann reaction is positive Clinical improvement of primary syphilis are : A. Absence of regional lymphadenitis B. Presence of subjective sensations C. Incubation period 3-4 month D. *All are wrong E. Large amount of scales “ Snail-track” are: A. *Superficial ulcers of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity B. Deep ulcers of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity C. Superficial and deep ulcers of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity D. All are correct E. All are wrong “Snail-track” and “Venera necklace” are characterized for: A. Primary syphilis B. *Secondary syphilis 456. 457. 458. 459. 460. 461. 462. 463. C. Late syphilis D. Congenital syphilis E. All are wrong Treatment of syphilis may trigger: A. Balzer test B. *Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction C. Psoriatic phenomenon D. Woronow wring E. All, except Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction The Spirochetes means: A. Treponema B. Leptospira C. Borrelia D. *All are correct E. All are wrong Primary syphilis means: A. Red or brown rash on skin B. *Appearance of hard chancre at site of inoculation C. Both are correct D. Sore throat E. Fever What types of antibodies can pass through placenta? A. Ig A B. Ig M C. *Ig G D. Ig D E. Ig E What types of antibodies can pass through placenta? A. Ig M B. Ig D C. Ig A D. *Ig G E. All are correct In what period of pregnancy treponema pallidum can cross the placenta? A. *After 17-18 weeks of pregnancy. B. After 20-28 weeks of pregnancy. C. After 30-38 weeks of pregnancy. D. After 40-48 weeks of pregnancy. E. After 7-8 weeks of pregnancy Possible results of pregnancy, according to the time of affection of pregnant are: A. Abortion B. Stillbirth C. Birth of child with congenital syphilis D. Fetus can affected from mother in delivery E. *All are correct Diagnosis of congenital syphilis includes all, except: A. Mother’s anamnesis B. *Tzanck smear C. An examination of the placenta and umbilical cord D. Assessment of typical characteristics of congenital syphilis in different growing groups 464. 465. 466. 467. 468. 469. 470. 471. 472. E. Treponema pallidum can be demonstrated in a smear from skin lesions with moist surface. Mother’s anamnesis in diagnosis of congenital syphilis means: A. Abortion B. Stillbirth C. Burning of macerated fetus D. High children lethality after burning E. *All are correct Diagnosis of congenital syphilis includes all, except: A. Clinical assessment of parents and others family members B. *Balzer test C. Serological tests of child, his parents and others family children D. Consultations of others physicians E. Modern characteristic features of congenital syphilis Syphilis of placenta is characterized by all features, except: A. Placenta is edematous B. Placenta is pale C. Placenta is greasy D. Placenta is bulky E. *Placenta is white Congenital syphilis can be: A. Early B. Late C. Primary D. Secondary E. *Early and late Congenital syphilis can be: A. *Early and late B. Early and secondary C. Primary and secondary D. Primary and late E. Early and secondary Syphilis of the fetus is characterized by all features, except: A. Skin of the fetus is macerated. B. Fetus sometimes dead C. Little weight of the fetus D. Enlargement of liver and spleen of the fetus E. *Enlargement of the fetus weight Syphilitic chorioretinitis is characterized by such symptom: A. *“Salt -and -pepper” B. “Moth eaten” C. “Snail-track” D. “Venera necklace” E. “Christmas tree” Syphilitic chorioretinitis is characterized by such symptom: A. “Herald patch” B. “Christmas tree” C. *“Salt -and -pepper” D. “Moth eaten” E. “Snail-track” “Salt -and -pepper” symptom is characterized for: A. Primary syphilis B. C. D. E. 473. A. B. C. D. E. 474. A. B. C. D. E. 475. A. B. C. D. E. 476. A. B. C. D. E. 477. A. B. C. D. E. 478. A. B. C. D. E. 479. A. B. C. D. E. 480. A. B. C. D. E. Secondary syphilis *Congenital syphilis Late syphilis All are correct Symptom of “salt -and -pepper” is found during assessment of: *Eye ground Hair of the head Mucous membrane of the oral cavity Mucous membrane of the genital organs Placenta In case of late syphilitic ophtalmopathic serological tests are positive in: *100% 80% 75% 50% 25% Hutchinson’s teeth are characterized for: Early congenital syphilis *Late congenital syphilis Primary syphilis Secondary syphilis Primary syphilis and secondary syphilis Syphilitic pemphigus is characterized for: Late congenital syphilis *Early congenital syphilis Primary syphilis Secondary syphilis Primary and secondary syphilis Syphilitic rhinitis is characterized for: Primary syphilis Secondary syphilis *Early congenital syphilis Late congenital syphilis Primary and late congenital syphilis Syphilitic chorioretinitis is characterized for: *Early congenital syphilis Primary syphilis Late congenital syphilis Secondary syphilis Primary and early congenital syphilis “Pneumonia alba” is characterized for: Gonococci infection *Early congenital syphilis Primary syphilis Late congenital syphilis Secondary syphilis Eight nerve deafness is characterized for: Primary syphilis Gonococci infection Secondary syphilis Early congenital syphilis *Late congenital syphilis 481. Syphilitic pemphigus is characterized by: A. *Vesicles and erosions on the front of the palms and soles B. Maculae and papules on the trunk C. Vesicles and erosions on the trunk D. Maculae and papules on the front of the palms and soles E. Patches on the front of the palms and soles 482. Syphilitic pemphigus is characterized by: A. Patches on the front of the palms and soles B. Maculae and papules on the trunk C. Vesicles and erosions on the trunk D. *All are wrong E. Maculae and papules on the front of the palms and soles 483. Gumma is characterized for: A. Primary syphilis B. Secondary syphilis C. Early congenital syphilis D. Late congenital syphilis E. *Late syphilis 484. Condiloma lata are characterized for: A. Early congenital syphilis B. *Secondary and congenital syphilis C. Late congenital syphilis D. Primary syphilis E. Secondary syphilis 485. Examination of the placenta and umbilical cord we use to diagnose: A. Primary syphilis B. Primary and secondary syphilis C. *Congenital syphilis D. Late syphilis E. Secondary syphilis 486. Diffuse infiltration in patient with congenital syphilis appeared within the first weeks or month of birth around all zones, except: A. Angles of mouth B. Lips C. *Scalp D. Buttocks E. Palms 487. Diffuse infiltration in patient with congenital syphilis appeared within the first weeks or month of birth around: A. Angles of mouth B. Lips C. Buttocks D. Palms E. *All are correct 488. Syphilitic rhinitis is characterized by all, except: A. Difficult of nasal breathing B. Presence of highly infectious purulent-serous and hemorrhagic nasal discharges (snuffles) C. *Without future deformation of the nose D. Hoarse breathing E. Dislocation of nasal septum 489. Osteochondritis - the main specific and characteristic changes of the bones in patient with congenital syphilis in children: A. *Before the age of 1 year B. After the age of 1 year C. After the age of 2 year D. After the age of 3 year E. After the age of 4 year 490. Late congenital syphilis can appear in patient with: A. 1-4 years old B. *5-20 years old C. 1-2 years old D. 1-2 years old E. All are wrong 491. Late congenital syphilis is characterized by specific changes in the: A. Skin B. Bones C. Mucous membranes D. Inner organs E. *All are correct 492. Late congenital syphilis is characterized by all specific changes, except: A. Nerve system B. Sensitive organs C. *Hard chancre D. Bones E. Mucous membranes 493. Late congenital syphilis is characterized by all specific changes, except: A. Mucous membranes B. *Syphilitic pemphigus C. Nerve system D. Sensitive organs E. Mucous membranes 494. Hutchinson’s triad means: A. Interstitial keratitis B. Hutchinson’s teeth C. Eight nerve deafness D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 495. Hutchinson’s triad means all, except: A. Eight nerve deafness B. Interstitial keratitis C. Hutchinson’s teeth D. *Syphilitic pemphigus E. All are wrong 496. Hutchinson’s triad means all, except: A. Hutchinson’s teeth B. *Osteochondritis C. Eight nerve deafness D. Interstitial keratitis E. All are wrong 497. Mothers anamnesis (abortion, stillbirth, burning of macerated fetus, high children lethality after burning) we use to diagnose: A. Primary syphilis B. C. D. E. *Early congenital and late congenital syphilis Late congenital syphilis Secondary syphilis Primary and secondary syphilis 498. Syphilis of placenta is caused by: A. Microsporum B. Chlamidia trachomatis C. Ureaplasma urealyticum D. Trichomonas vaginalis E. *Treponema pallidum 499. Syphilis of the fetus is caused by: A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. *Treponema pallidum C. Chlamidia trachomatis D. Ureaplasma urealyticum E. Dermatophytes 500. Benzathine pehicillin (extencillin) is: A. *Antibiotic B. Corticosteroids C. Antiviral agent D. Antihistamines E. Antifungal drug 501. Tetracycline is: A. Antiviral agents B. *Antibiotic C. Corticosteroids D. Antihistamines E. Antifungal drug 502. Bicillin-1 is: A. Antifungal drug B. Antiviral agents C. *Antibiotic D. Corticosteroids E. Antihistamines 503. Bicillin-3 is: A. Antihistamines B. Antifungal drug C. Antiviral agents D. Corticosteroids E. *Antibiotic 504. Bicillin-5 is: A. *Antibiotic B. Antifungal drug C. Antiviral agents D. Corticosteroids E. Antihistamines 505. Congenital syphilis of children before the age of 1 year is characterized by all, except: A. Syphilitic pemphigus B. *Hard chancer C. Diffuse infiltration D. Syphilitic rhinitis E. Ostechondritis 506. Preventive treatment of syphilis means use of all drugs, except: A. Bicillin-1 (1 200 000 units) B. Tetracycline, erythromycin C. Bicillin-3 (1 800 000 units) D. *Antiviral agents E. Bicillin-5 (1 500 000 units) 507. Specific fuciform radial atrophic scars (Robinson-Furnye) are results of: A. *Diffuse infiltration B. Syphilitic pemphigus C. Syphilis of placenta D. Syphilis of the fetus E. Syphilitic rhinitis 508. Diffuse infiltration in patient with congenital syphilis appeared: A. Recently after birth B. *Within the first weeks or month of birth C. 10 year after birth D. 14 year after birth E. Never appeared 509. The spirochetes means: A. Candida B. *Leptospira C. Streptococci D. All are correct E. All are wrong 510. The spirochetes means: A. *Treponema pallidum B. Dermatophytes C. Candida D. All are correct E. All are wrong 511. The spirochetes means: A. Dermatophytes B. Streptococci C. *Borelia D. All are correct E. All are wrong 512. A condition of the teeth characteristic of congenital syphilis are: A. Accessional teeth B. *Hutchinson’s teeth C. Successional teeth D. Temporary teeth E. Deciduous teeth 513. International classification of late congenital syphilis means all, except: A. Late syphilitic ophtalmopathic B. Late congenital neurosyphilis C. Others form of late congenital syphilis, late congenital neurosyphilis, late syphilitic ophtalmopathic D. *Chard chancre E. Others form of late congenital syphilis 514. Others form of late congenital syphilis means all, except: A. Affection of bones 515. 516. 517. 518. 519. 520. 521. 522. B. *Chard chancre C. Hutchinson’s teeth D. Affection of ears (suppurative otitis media) E. Hutchinson’s triad Others form of late congenital syphilis means all, except: A. Affection of bones B. Affection of ears (suppurative otitis media) C. Hutchinson’s teeth D. *Accessional teeth E. Hutchinson’s triad Others form of late congenital syphilis means all, except: A. *Deciduous teeth B. Affection of bones C. Affection of ears (suppurative otitis media) D. Hutchinson’s teeth E. Hutchinson’s triad Others form of late congenital syphilis means all, except: A. Hutchinson’s teeth B. Affection of bones C. Affection of ears (suppurative otitis media) D. Hutchinson’s triad E. *Successional teeth Non-treponemal tests are all, except: A. Flocculation tests B. Venereal disease reaginic laboratory test (V.D.R.L.) C. Rapid plasma reaginic test D. Complement fixation test E. *Treponema pallidum immobilization test (TPI) Treponemal tests are all, except: A. Treponema pallidum immobilization test (TPI) B. Reiter treponeme complement fixation test C. Fluorescent antibody test (FTA-ABS) D. *Venereal disease reaginic laboratory test (V.D.R.L.) E. Treponema pallidum haemagglutination test (TPHA) What drugs we must prescribe for patient with chronic Chlamydia urethritis? A. Corticosteroids B. Anti inflammation drugs C. Antifungal drugs D. *Antibiotics E. Antiviral drugs Drugs of choice for patients with Chlamydia infection are: A. Antiviral drugs B. Antihistamines C. *Antibiotics D. Anti inflammation drugs E. Corticosteroids The main complications of Chlamydia infection in male are all, except: A. Prostatitis B. Epididymitis C. *Hepatitis D. Infertility E. Reiter syndrome 523. 524. 525. 526. 527. 528. 529. 530. 531. Causative agent of congenital syphilis is : A. *Bacteria B. Fungi C. Virus D. Mite E. All are wrong Causative agent of Chlamydia infection is: A. Fungi B. *Bacteria C. Virus D. Both are wrong E. Mite Causative agent of Gonorrhea is: A. Virus B. Fungi C. *Bacteria D. Mite E. All are wrong Causative agent of Trichomoniasis is: A. Virus B. Fungi C. Mite D. *Bacteria E. All are wrong Causative agent of genital herpes is: A. *Virus B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. All are wrong E. Mite Neisseria gonorrhea survives in all, except: A. Cervix B. Mouth C. *Scalp D. Throat E. Eyes Neisseria gonorrhea survives in all, except: A. Rectum B. Throat C. Eyes D. *Nails E. Cervix You can not catch gonorrhea from all, except: A. *Vaginal sex B. Simple kissing C. Sharing baths D. Towels E. Cups You can not catch gonorrhea from all, except: A. Toilet seats B. Cups C. Simple kissing 532. 533. 534. 535. 536. 537. 538. 539. 540. D. *Anal sex E. Towels Non-specific symptoms of Gonococci cervicitis are all, except: A. Abnormal vaginal discharge B. Intermenstrual bleeding C. Dysuria D. Lower abdominal pain E. *Purulent cervical discharge Clinical manifestations of disseminated gonococci infection are all, except: A. Skin lesions B. *Chard chancre C. Arthralgias D. Tenosynovitis E. Arthritis Gonorrhea is often treated with all drugs, except: A. Cefixime B. Ceftnaxone C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ofloxacin E. *Azeleic Acid Gonorrhea is often treated with all drugs, except: A. Tetracycline B. Ceftnaxone C. Ofloxacin D. *B-blocker E. Cefixime Gonococcal infections in women & men means all, except: A. *Onychomycosis B. Proctitis C. Pharyngeal infections D. Conjunctivitis E. Disseminated Gonococcal Infection Gonococcal infections in women & men means all, except: A. Pharyngeal infections B. *Pemphigus C. Proctitis D. Conjunctivitis E. Disseminated gonococcal infection Gonococcal infections in women & men means all, except: A. Disseminated gonococcal infection B. Pharyngeal infections C. Infertility D. *Presence of scales E. Conjunctivitis Gonococcal infections in women & men means all, except: A. *Kerion B. Disseminated gonococcal infection C. Pharyngeal infections D. Conjunctivitis E. Proctitis Gonococcal Infections in women & men means all, except: A. Conjunctivitis 541. 542. 543. 544. 545. 546. 547. 548. B. Disseminated gonococcal Infection C. Pharyngeal infections D. *Favus E. Proctitis Diagnostic methods of gonococcal infection include all, except: A. Gram stain smear B. Culture C. *Tzanck smear D. Antigen Detection Tests: EIA & DFA E. Nucleic Acid Detection Tests Neisseria gonorrhea means: A. *Gram negative intracellular diplococci B. Gram positive intracellular diplococci C. Gram negative intracellular streptococci D. Gram positive intracellular streptococci E. All are wrong Ophthalmia neonatorum prophylaxis means: A. *Silver nitrate 1% aqueous solution topical x 1 B. Erythromycin 0.5% ointment topical x 2 C. Tetracycline 1% ointment topical x 4 D. Erythromycin 2.5% ointment topical x 2 E. Tetracycline 10% ointment topical x 4 Ophthalmia neonatorum prophylaxis means: A. Tetracycline 1% ointment topical x 4 B. Silver nitrate 10% aqueous solution topical x 4 C. *Erythromycin 0.5% ointment topical x 1 D. Erythromycin 2.5% ointment topical x 2 E. Tetracycline 10% ointment topical x 4 Chlamydia unusual presentations mean all, except: A. Trachoma B. Inclusion conjunctivitis C. *Urethritis D. Lymphogranuloma venereum E. Trachoma, inclusion conjunctivitis, lymphogranuloma venereum Prophylaxis of ophthalmia neonatorum means: A. *Erythromycin 0.5% ointment topical x 1 B. Tetracycline 1% ointment topical x 4 C. Silver nitrate 10% aqueous solution topical x 4 D. Erythromycin 2.5% ointment topical x 2 E. Tetracycline 10% ointment topical x 4 Palmar Syphilides of late syphilis are characterized by all, except: A. Occur on the palms and soles B. They are scaly C. Have great moister surface D. They are nodular or gummatous E. *Presence of “Wickham striae” Diagnostic methods of Gonococcal infection include all, except: A. Clinical examination B. Gram stain C. *Venereal disease reaginic laboratory test (V.D.R.L.) D. Culture E. Nucleic acid probes 549. 550. 551. 552. 553. 554. 555. 556. 557. Diagnostic methods of Gonococcal infection include all, except: A. Gram stain B. Clinical examination C. Nucleic acid probes D. *Treponema pallidum immobilization test (TPI) E. Culture Diagnostic methods of syphilis include all, except: A. Clinical examination B. Culture C. *Dark field microscopy D. Serology screening test E. Serology confirmatory test Diagnostic methods of syphilis include all, except: A. Dark field microscopy B. Clinical examination C. Serology screening test D. *Gram stain E. Serology confirmatory test Gonococcal infection diagnosis means all, except: A. Clinical examination B. Gram stain C. *Venereal disease reaginic laboratory test (V.D.R.L.) D. Culture E. Nucleic acid probes Late stage syphilis principal clinical manifestations are all, except: A. Destructive gummas B. Aortic valve injury C. *Chard chancre D. Dementia E. Tabes dorsalis Late stage syphilis principal clinical manifestations are all, except: A. Destructive gummas B. Aortic valve injury C. Dementia D. *“Pneumonia alba” E. Tabes dorsalis Congenital syphilis clinical manifestations are all, except: A. Fetal death B. *Destructive gummas C. Growth restriction D. Multiple anomalies E. Immediately apparent at birth Congenital syphilis clinical manifestations are all, except: A. Multiple anomalies B. Fetal death C. *Tabes dorsalis D. Immediately apparent at birth E. Growth restriction Genital Herpes possible complications are all, except: A. Meningitis B. *“Pneumonia alba” C. Narrowing of the urethra due to scarring 558. 559. 560. 561. 562. 563. 564. 565. 566. D. Increased risk of becoming infected with HIV E. Transfer of virus from mother to infant in childbirth Culture for Gonorrhea means all, except: A. Not requires selective media with antibiotics B. *Sensitive to oxygen and cold temperature C. Stable to oxygen and sensitive to cold temperature D. Sensitive to oxygen and stable to cold temperature E. All are correct Sweat glands are classified into: A. Anagen and Telogen B. *Eccrine and Apocrine C. Collagen and Apocrine D. Collagen and Telogen E. All are wrong Redness of the skin accompanied by inflammation is known as: A. Furuncle B. Follicle C. *Erythema D. Milia E. Hive The darkening of the skin due to excessive pigment in the skin is called: A. Impetigo B. *Hyperpigmentation C. Keratosis D. Wheal E. All are wrong Enlargement of the nose is known as: A. *Rhinophyma B. Hypertrophy C. Rubella D. Petechia E. Nodule Which of the following conditions refers to Hemangioma? A. Peeling of skin due to moisture B. A* harmless tumor consisting of a mass of blood vessels C. Blisters on the skin D. Patchy light brown spots on skin E. Patchy light re spots on skin Blisters (containing clear fluid) on the skin are called: A. *Bullae B. Barnacles C. Furuncles D. Carbuncles E. Nodule Athlete's Foot or Tinea Pedis is a: A. *Fungal infection B. Hair infection C. Scrotal infection D. Bacterial infection E. Viral infection Lack of melanin in the skin, hair, and eyes is called: A. Angioma 567. 568. 569. 570. 571. 572. 573. 574. B. *Albinism C. Urticaria D. Blepharitis E. Nevus Vitiligo is a condition in which, skin: A. Becomes allergic B. Form rashes C. *Loses its colour D. Itches E. Becomes infected All the following skin infections are bacterial infections except one: A. Eryspilas B. Impetigo C. Boils D. Ecthyma E. *Scabies What is the function of merkel cells A. Synthesize melanin B. *For immune reaction C. For transducers of fine touch D. All are correct E. All are wrong A person who has acne can have any of these blemishes, except: A. Blackheads B. Whiteheads C. Papules D. Pustules (what many people call pimples) E. *Hives A person who has acne can have any of these blemishes, except: A. Cysts B. Nodules C. *Hives D. Blackheads E. Whiteheads Guttate psoriasis is characterized by all, except: A. Small, red spots (usually on the trunk, arms, and legs but can appear on the scalp, face, and ears) B. Spots can show up all over the skin. C. Spots often appear after an illness, especially strep throat D. Spots may clear up in a few weeks or months without treatment E. *A circumscribed, fluid containing, elevated lesion of the skin Plaque psoriasis is characterized by all, except: A. Raised reddish plagues on the skin called plaque B. Plagues may be covered with a silvery scale C. Plagues can appear anywhere on the skin D. *Spots often appear after an illness, especially strep throat. E. Most plagues appear on the knees, elbows, lower back, and scalp Guttate psoriasis is characterized by all, except: A. *Plagues vary in size and can appear as separate patches or join together to cover a large area B. Small, red spots (usually on the trunk, arms, and legs but can appear on the scalp, face, and ears) 575. 576. 577. 578. 579. 580. 581. 582. C. Spots can show up all over the skin. D. Spots often appear after an illness, especially strep throat E. Spots may clear up in a few weeks or months without treatment Plaque psoriasis is characterized by all, except: A. *Spots may appear where the person had plaque psoriasis B. Raised reddish plagues on the skin called plaque C. Plague may be covered with a silvery scale D. Plague can appear anywhere on the skin E. Most plagues appear on the knees, elbows, lower back, and scalp Pustular psoriasis is characterized by all, except: A. Skin red, swollen, and dotted with pus-filled bumps B. Bumps usually appear only on the palms and soles C. *Most plagues appear on the knees, elbows, lower back, and scalp D. Soreness and pain where the bumps appear E. Pus-filled bumps will dry, and leave behind brown dots and/or scale on the skin. Inverse psoriasis means presence of lesions in all places, except: A. Armpits B. Around the groin C. *Elbows D. Genitals E. Buttocks Inverse psoriasis means presence of lesions in all places, except: A. *Knees B. Armpits C. Around the groin D. Genitals E. Buttocks Erythrodermic psoriasis is also called: A. *Exfoliative psoriasis B. Flexural psoriasis C. Intertriginous psoriasis D. Plaque psoriasis E. Guttate psoriasis Erythrodermic psoriasis is characterized by all, except: A. Skin looks like it is burned B. Most (or all) of the skin on the body turns bright red C. Body cannot maintain its normal temperature of 98.6° F. Person gets very hot or very cold D. Heart beats too fast E. *Raised reddish patches on the skin called plaque Erythrodermic psoriasis is characterized by all, except: A. Intense itching B. Intense pain C. *Chard chancre D. Skin looks like it is burned. E. Most (or all) of the skin on the body turns bright red Inverse psoriasis is also called: A. Exfoliative psoriasis B. Erythrodermic psoriasis C. *Intertriginous psoriasis D. Plaque psoriasis E. Guttate psoriasis 583. Inverse psoriasis is also called: A. *Flexural psoriasis B. Exfoliative psoriasis C. Erythrodermic psoriasis D. Plaque psoriasis E. Guttate psoriasis 584. Plaque psoriasis is also called: A. Flexural psoriasis B. Exfoliative psoriasis C. *Psoriasis vulgaris D. Pustular psoriasis E. Guttate psoriasis 585. What lesions many people call pimples? A. Blackheads B. Whiteheads C. Papules D. *Pustules E. Cysts 586. Types of rosacea are all, except: A. Erythematotelangiectatic rosacea B. *Late congenital rosacea C. Papulopustular rosacea D. Phymatous rosacea E. Ocular rosacea 587. Signs of tinea versicolor are all, except: A. The spots are lighter than the surrounding skin. B. *Skin red, swollen, and dotted with pus-filled bumps C. The color of the spots can be white, pink, salmon, red, tan, or brown D. The spots can appear anywhere on the body E. Spots can be dry and scaly 588. Signs of tinea versicolor are all, except: A. Skin may itch where the spots appear B. Spots become more noticeable as the skin tans. The yeast prevents the skin from tanning C. Spots grow slowly D. As the yeast grows, the spots can combine and form patches of lighter (or darker) skin E. *Skin red, swollen, and dotted with pus-filled bumps 589. The most common signs of hives are all, except: A. Slightly raised, pink or red swellings on the skin B. Welts that occur alone or in a group, or connect over a large area C. Skin swelling that subsides D. Skin swelling goes away within 24 hours at one spot E. *Blackheads 590. The most common signs of hives are all, except: A. *Whiteheads B. Slightly raised, pink or red swellings on the skin C. Welts that occur alone or in a group, or connect over a large area D. Skin swelling that subsides E. Skin swelling goes away within 24 hours at one spot 591. Mouth (oral lichen planus) means all, except: A. Patches of tiny white dots and lines that can look like lace 592. 593. 594. 595. 596. 597. 598. 599. B. Redness and swelling C. Peeling on the gums D. Painful sores (can hurt or burn) E. *Skin looks like it is burned Nails lichen planus means all, except: A. Ridges or grooves on the nails B. Splitting or thinning C. Temporary loss of nails D. Permanent loss of nails E. *“Oil drops” Scalp (lichen planopilaris) means al, except: A. Redness and irritation B. Tiny bumps C. *Scars appear quickly D. Thinning hair or patches of hair loss E. Scars appear slowly Scabies in children means all, except: A. The scabies rash can cover most of the body B. Even a child’s palms, soles, and scalp can be infested with mites C. The rash often appears on the palms D. *Widespread soft chancre E. The rash often appears on the soles Crusted scabies means all, except: A. Is a severe form of scabies B. *The rash often appears on the palms C. Crusted scabies develops in people who have a weak immune system D. Crusted scabies develops when the person’s body cannot develop any resistance to the mites E. A common sign of crusted scabies is widespread crusts on the skin Shingles also called: A. *Herpes zoster B. Herpes labialis C. Cytomegalovirus D. Chicken pox E. All are wrong Signs and symptoms of Shingles are all, except: A. Rash B. Blisters C. Pain D. Flu-like symptoms E. *Hives “Mother patch” is a large patch characterized for: A. *Pityriasis rosea B. Tinea versicolor C. Shingle D. Lichen planus E. Exfoliative psoriasis Which of the following is an extracutaneous manifestation of psoriasis? A. Lymphadenopathy B. *Arthritis C. Schizophrenia D. Eczema E. Gottron's nodules 600. Large flat hyperpigmented lesion is an example of a: A. *Macule B. Plaque C. Cyst D. Bulla E. Nodule 601. Small fluid-filled lesion on an erythematous base is a: A. Bulla B. *Vesicle C. Papule D. Macule E. Cyst 602. A raised itchy large lesion that when you came back in the room from looking it up was GONE! It is a: A. *Hive B. Wheal C. Patch D. Plaque E. Nodule 603. The slide you’ve been waiting for and don’t deny it! This fellow has an itchy heel which he keeps rubbing. This has caused the skin to thicken and the skin lines to accentuate. This is a secondary skin lesion. It is: A. Excoriation B. A scar C. Atrophy D. *Lichenification E. Vesicle 604. It is a thickened heaped up lesion whereas if you palpate it feels thin, slightly indented and there is an absence of skin lines. What are they respectively? A. *Keloid and atrophy B. Scar and atrophy C. Scar and lichenification D. Keloid and lichenification E. All are wrong 605. What is the difference between HIV and AIDS? A. HIV is a virus and AIDS is a bacterial disease B. There is no difference between HIV and AIDS C. *HIV is the virus that causes AIDS D. All are wrong E. HIV is a virus and AIDS is a parasitogenic disease 606. HIV can make a person ill because: A. It makes a person lose weight very suddenly B. It reduces the body's core temperature C. *It attacks the immune system D. All are correct E. All are wrong 607. HIV is believed to have evolved from a similar virus found in which animal? A. Baboon B. *Chimpanzee C. Elephant D. Guinea pig E. Cats 608. Which of these drugs is most commonly used on its own to reduce mother-to-child HIV transmission? A. Aspirin B. Tenofovir C. Paracetamol D. *Nevirapine E. All are wrong 609. Which normally rare cancer is often associated with AIDS? A. Squamous Cell Carcinoma B. Mesothelioma C. *Kaposi's Sarcoma D. All are correct E. All are wrong 610. What is the medical term for a condition, known as “hives”? A. Impetigo B. *Urticaria C. Bulla D. Patch E. Papule 611. How does urticaria usually manifest itself on one’s skin? A. *With pink weal’s with pale center B. With red and scaly skin plaque C. With green round dots on the skin D. With narrow skin scratches resembling letter “Z” E. All are wrong 612. Urticaria wheals are known to be able to vanish on their own at one part of the body and appear later on another. How do you think: how long do individual wheals usually last? A. *Between 1 and 24 hours B. Between 10 and 60 minutes C. Between 1 and 3 days D. Between 1 and 3 weeks E. Between 1 and 3 months 613. It is known that hives can be either acute or chronic. Which of the following situations represent a case of chronic hives? A. Hives appear in response to certain medication B. Hives do not respond to topical treatment C. Hives affect more than 50 % of skin surface D. Hives last more than 6 weeks E. *All are right 614. What are the most common triggers of short-termed or acute urticaria? A. Infections B. Drugs and foots C. Pollen and dust D. Insect bites E. *All the mentioned 615. It is known that even cold or hot weather may cause hives outbreak. What other “specific” factors may trigger urticaria? A. *Touching the skin of predisposed person B. Watching certain TV shows C. Doing certain types of jobs, like preparing a monthly report D. None of the above E. All the mentioned 616. Statistics says that about 80% of all hives cases are idiopathic. What does this mean? A. It means the disorder is difficult to cured B. It means the disorder cannot be properly diagnosed C. *It means no exact cause of the disorder can be identified D. It means the disorder is not contagious E. All are right 617. What body substance is said to be the major participant in the process of hives development? A. *Histamine B. Serotonin C. Blood plasma D. Adrenaline E. All the mentioned 618. How often should one take long-acting antihistamines, as Zyrtec, Allegra, Hismanal, in order to relieve the symptoms of hives? A. Every 3-6 hours B. Every 6-12 hours C. *Every 12-24 hours D. Every 24-48 hours E. All are wrong 619. What side effect, associated with antihistamines use, is considered to be the most bothersome? A. *Drowsiness B. Headache C. Sexual dysfunction D. Weight again E. All the mentioned 620. Psoriasis can also cause inflammation of the joints, which is known as: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Erythema nodosum C. *Psoriatic arthritis D. Cellulitis E. All are wrong 621. A non-contagious rash of thick plaques and silvery scales usually affects the scalp, elbows, knees, and lower back. is known as: A. *Psoriasis B. Tinea infection C. Pituriasis versicolor D. All are correct E. All are wrong 622. Small, painful, fluid-filled blisters on the mouth or nose, cold sores are caused by the: A. Type 2 herpes simplex virus B. *Type 1 herpes simplex virus C. Varicella Zoster virus D. Cytomegalovirus E. All are correct 623. Blackhead or open comedones often seen on the: A. Face B. Chest C. Back D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 624. A whitehead or closed comedones often seen on the: A. Face B. Chest C. Back D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 625. Which of the following is the most common adverse reaction to transdermal drug delivery systems? A. Allergic contact dermatitis B. Anaphylaxis C. *Irritant contact dermatitis D. Urticaria E. Viral superinfection 626. Acantholysis is seen in: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Darier’s disease C. Pemphigus foliaceus D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 627. Syphilis is also called as the: A. Silent disease B. Silent killer C. *The great imitator D. Contagious disease E. All are wrong 628. Which is the first symptom that is manifested by this disease? A. *A sore called "chancre" B. Fever C. Swollen lymph nodesd D. Pain in the affected area E. All are wrong 629. The painless sore called "chancre": A. Is round, firm, and small ulcer B. Is found in the penis, the vagina or the rectum C. Disappears within a few weeks regardless of whether treatment is obtained D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 630. What are some of the symptoms that are manifest in the secondary phase of syphilis? A. Flu-like symptoms B. Whole-body rash C. Patchy hair loss D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 631. Which of the diseases listed is NOT an STD: A. Ectoparasitic infection B. *Hand-foot-mouth disease C. Urethritis D. Chancroid E. Scabies 632. Which of the following is a possible symptom of an STD? A. Bumps, sores, or warts near the mouth, anus, or vagina B. Painful urination C. Painful sex D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 633. The bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis can cause: A. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) and orchitis B. Epididymitis and urethritis C. Chlamydia D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 634. Where, in the skin, are the cells which divide to form new cells? A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum lucidum C. *Stratum basale D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum 635. What eventually happens to the cells of the epidermis? A. *They die and flake off B. They are reabsorbed into the skin C. They remain on the surface of the skin D. All are correct E. All are wrong 636. Name the structures in the dermis which produce oil? A. Pigment cells B. Hair follicles C. *Sebaceous glands D. Sweat glands E. All are wrong 637. Which material is the main component of surface skin cells? A. *A type of protein called keratin B. A type of protein called albumen C. A type of lipid called trans-fatty acid D. All are correct E. All are wrong 638. What kind of substance is secreted by the sebaceous glands? A. Sweat or perspiration B. A milky substance consisting of mineralised water C. *An oily substance called sebum D. A milky substance consisting of fat E. All are wrong 639. What are fingernails and toenails made of? A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Sheets of cartilage D. *Dead skin cells containing keratin E. Minerals 640. Which layer of the epidermis consists of cells that are undergoing active cell reproduction and eventually migrate to the stratum corneum layer to be sloughed off? A. *Stratum basale B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum lucidum D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum 641. When we look at our fingers, we can see fingerprints. Which of the following layers of skin are we looking at in order to see the fingerprints? A. *Ppapillary layer of the dermis B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum lucidum D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum 642. Which of the following layers is the thickest of the cutaneous layer? A. Ppapillary layer of the dermis B. Stratum corneum of the epidermis C. Stratum lucidum of the epidermis D. Stratum granulosum of the epidermis E. *Reticular layer of the dermis 643. When we give a patient an injection of medication, many times we place the needle earest the location of major blood vessels in the skin. This needle is referred to as a “hypodermic eedle” because it's of the right length to enter the: A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. *Hypodermis D. All are correct E. All are wrong 644. Which is the correct sequence of epidermal layers of thick skin, deep to superficial? A. Stratum spinosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum basale, stratum granulosum B. Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum C. *Stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale D. Stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum lucidum E. Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale 645. Which is the correct sequence of epidermal layers of thick skin, superficial to deep? A. Stratum spinosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum basale, stratum granulosum B. Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum C. Stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale D. Stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum lucidum E. *Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale 646. Which of the following are NOT derivatives of the epidermis? A. Hair and hair follicles B. Sebaceous glands C. Sweat glands D. *Dermal papillae E. Nails 647. Which area of the skin contains the most blood vessels? A. Stratum basale 648. 649. 650. 651. 652. 653. 654. 655. B. Epidermis C. Reticular layer D. Papillary layer E. Hypodermis ANSWER D Which of the following cells is part of the immune system? A. Merkel cell B. Melanocyte C. Keratinocyte D. Merkel cell E. *Langerhans' cell Which of the following thick skin strata is the thickest? A. Stratum basale B. *Stratum corneum C. Stratum lucidum D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum Which of the following strata is absent in epidermis? A. Stratum corneum B. *Stratum basale C. Reticular layer D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum spinosum Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. *Production of discharges B. Protection and insulation C. Preventing unnecessary water loss D. Excretion E. Regulation of body temperature Seborrhea is caused by A. Overactive sweat glands B. *Overactive oil glands C. Overactive mammary glands D. Overactive ceruminous glands E. All are wrong How is genital herpes treated? A. *With medication B. With radiation C. With surgery D. All are correct E. All are wrong How is genital herpes diagnosed? A. *Physical exam B. X-ray C. Ultrasound D. All are correct E. All are wrong How many types of herpes simplex virus are there? A. One B. *Two C. Three D. Four 656. 657. 658. 659. 660. 661. 662. 663. 664. E. Five What should a pregnant woman with HSV do to avoid passing the virus on to her baby? A. Stay in close contact with her obstetrician during pregnancy B. Be prepared to have a cesarean delivery if an outbreak occurs at the time of labor C. Take an antibiotic D. *A and B E. B and C The most common type of psoriasis is: A. *Plaque psoriasis B. Guttate psoriasis C. Erythrodermic psoriasis D. Pustular psoriasis E. All are wrong What plays a major role in psoriasis? A. The digestive system B. The circulatory system C. *The immune system D. The nervous system E. All are wrong What type of psoriasis is the most common form? A. Pustular B. *Plaque C. Guttate D. Inverse E. All are wrong HIV is an abbreviation for: A. Human immune virus B. Human immunodeficiency virus C. Humanoid immunodeficiency virus D. *Humanus immunocompromisation virus For what infections people with HIV and AIDS are largely prone to: A. Systemic infections B. *Opportunistic infections C. Superficial infections D. Hospital-acquired infections E. All are wrong Which is not considered a common method of transmission for HIV? A. Blood B. Genital secretions C. Breast milk D. *Urine E. All are wrong Stage 3 of HIV infection is referred to as: A. Immunocompromised B. *AIDS C. Progressive AIDS D. Remission E. All are wrong People with HIV and AIDS are largely prone to: A. *Opportunistic infections B. Systemic infections C. Superficial infections 665. 666. 667. 668. 669. 670. 671. 672. 673. D. Hospital-acquired infections E. All are wrong Signs and symptoms of shingles are generally: A. Burning pain and sensitive skin B. Oozing blisters that crust over C. Pain without blisters D. *All are correct E. All are wrong What is the most common complication of shingles? A. *Nerve pain B. Joint pain C. Back pain D. Neck pain E. All are wrong Medical prescription treatments that combat shingles are called: A. *Antiviral medications (antivirals) B. Antiherpetic medications (antiherpetics) C. Antizoster medications (antizosters) D. Antivaricella medications (antivaricellas) E. All are wrong The shingles vaccine is available for people: A. Of any age B. Ages 13 to 55 C. *Over the age of 60 D. Babies under 2 years of age E. All are wrong A shingles outbreak typically lasts: A. One to two weeks B. One to five weeks C. *Three to four weeks D. Five to six weeks E. All are wrong In what part of the body does the Varicella zoster virus (VZV) settle? A. In cranial nerves B. *In nerve roots and ganglia C. In the sciatic nerve D. In the digestive tract E. All are wrong What can happen in the body to cause or reactivate shingles? A. Emotional stress B. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) C. Cancer and chemotherapy D. *All are correct E. All are wrong Most doctors reach a diagnosis of shingles by which method? A. Visual diagnosis B. Laboratory analysis of blister fluid C. Wasserman reaction D. *Correct answer A and B E. Correct answer B and C In general, the cure for shingles is: A. The shingles vaccine 674. 675. 676. 677. 678. 679. 680. 681. B. Zovirax, Valtrex, or Famvir as antiviral medications C. Allowing the illness to run its course D. *There is no cure for shingles E. All are wrong How does a shingle normally appear on the body? A. *On one side of the back, chest, face, and/or legs B. On both sides of the back, chest, face, and/or legs C. Mainly on the chest or back D. All over the face and body E. All are wrong What is believed to be one of the possible rosacea causes? A. *Demodex folliculorum B. Propionibacterium acnes C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. All are correct Due to what process does facial skin become red resulting in rosacea development? A. Aneurysm B. *Vasodilation C. Erection D. Constipation E. All are correct What is not a complication of the untreated later stages of rosacea? A. Sebaceous hyperplasia B. Teleangiectasia C. Rhinophyma D. *Trigeminal neuralgia E. All are correct What is ocular rosacea? A. *It is a disease that affects eyelids and skin B. It is type of rosacea , which looks like red circles on the skin C. It is rosacea combined with acne D. It is conjunctivitis and rosacea combined E. All are wrong What class of living organisms do fungi belong to? A. Plants B. Animals C. Viruses D. *Fungi form their own separate class E. Bacteria What part of human body is most vulnerable for fungi? A. *Skin B. Brain C. Heart D. Stomach E. Liver What does a medical term “dermatophytosis” mean? A. Specific type of fungi B. *Fungal skin infection C. Anti-fungal medication D. The process of fungi reproduction E. All are wrong What are the key features of athlete’s foot? A. The infection usually affects the skin between toes B. The infection causes whitening and scaling of the skin C. The infection is very contagious D. *All the mentioned is true for the athlete’s foot E. All are wrong 683. What part of human body does jock itch usually affect? A. *Groin area B. Feet C. Armpits D. Scalp E. Palms 684. Who are at greater risks to develop jock itch? A. Men B. People wearing tight underwear C. People who sweat a lot D. Obese people E. *All are correct 685. Why is the fungal skin infection “tinea corporis” commonly called “ringworm”? A. Because it is caused by worms B. Because it is caused by fungi of round shape C. *Because it causes round ring-like lesions on the skin D. Because it is easier to pronounce E. All are wrong 686. How do fungi affect human nails? A. Fungi make nails yellow or discolored B. Fungi make mails thicker C. Fungi make nails deformed D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 687. What factors contribute to the development of fungal infections, including nail infections? A. *Warmth and moisture B. Cold and dryness C. Sun light and wind D. Smoking and drinking E. All are correct 688. What is the name for a class of medications, commonly used for the treatment of fungal skin infections? A. Antibiotics B. Analgesics C. *Antifungal D. Antidepressants E. Antivirus 689. What can one do to prevent fungal skin infections? A. Dry skin after bathing B. Wear loose underwear and clothing C. Avoid sharing towels or hair brushes D. Avoid tight shoes E. *All the above mentioned 690. Mark the true statement: A. *Rosacea is a treatable disorder 682. B. Rosacea is a curable condition C. Rosacea is a contagious disease D. Rosacea is a mental disorder E. All are wrong 691. Define which group of people is more likely to develop rosacea: A. Children B. Adults C. *Older people D. It does not depend on the age E. Children and adults 692. What is the most significant rosacea symptom? A. Pimples B. Shortness of breath C. Sweating D. *Red face E. All are wrong 693. What part of the body cannot be affected with rosacea? A. *Legs B. Chest C. Neck D. Back E. All are wrong 694. What are clinical features of athlete’s foot? A. The infection usually affects the skin between toes B. The infection causes whitening and scaling of the skin C. All are wrong D. The infection is very contagious E. *All the mentioned is true for the athlete’s foot 695. What are the main signs and symptoms of shingles? A. Burning pain and sensitive skin B. Oozing blisters that crust over C. Pain without blisters D. *All are correct E. All are wrong 696. Sebaceous glands secreted: A. Sweat B. A milky substance consisting of mineralised water C. *An oily substance called sebum D. A milky substance consisting of fat E. All are wrong 697. Pimples are also called: A. Blackheads B. Whiteheads C. Papules D. *Pustules E. Cysts 698. Patient with acne can have any of these skin lesions, except: A. Cysts B. Nodules C. *Hives D. Blackheads E. Whiteheads 699. Baby 4 years old has erosion on the lip. What primary skin lesion was previously? A. Nodule B. Papule C. Urticaria D. *Vesicle E. Macule 700. During prophylactic assessment of kindergarten children 2 cases of pediculosis were diagnosed. What drug we must use for their treatment? A. *Nittiphor B. АРРІВО C. Chloramine D. Chlorophos E. Neopin 701. 8 year old girl diagnose is scabies. What lab test we must use for diagnosis of Sarcoptes scabiei? A Prick test B Diascopy C Dark-field microscopy D *Skin scraping E Skin biopsy 702. 40 year old male patient presents with follicular comedones with or without inflammatory papules, pustules, and nodules. Most likely diagnosis is: A Seborrheic dermatitis B Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C Rosacea D *Acne vulgaris E Atopic dermatitis 703. 44 year old female patient suffered from folliculitis for 10 years. Possible causative agent of this can be all, except: A Shaving B *Hypovitaminosis C Staphylococcus aureus D Chemical irritation E Skin injury Situatinal tasks 1. Patient 23 years old has scar on the left leg. What primary skin lesion was previously? A Crust B Lichenification C *Ulcer D Erosion E Vegetation 2. Patient 18 years old has scar on the left leg. What primary skin lesion was previously? A Crust B Lichenification C *Nodule D Erosion E Vegetation 3. Patient 29 years old has hypo pigmentation on the left leg. What primary skin lesion was previously? A Nodule B Lichenification C Ulcer D *Papule E Vegetation 4. Patient 20 years old has crusts on the left forearm. What primary skin lesion was previously? A Nodule B Papule C Urticaria D *Vesicle E Macule 5. Patient 10 years old has yellow-honey crusts on the right forearm. What primary skin lesion was previously? A Nodule B Papule C Urticaria D Macule E *Pustule 6. Patient 29 years old has hyper pigmentation on the left leg. Its characterized for all skin lesions, except: A *Urtica B Nodule C Plaque D Ulcer E Vesicle 7. Patient 24 years old has itching, more severe at night. Upon examination: on the skin of glands mummer, abdomen, on the edges of the fingers, toes or sides of the hands and feet little papules, hemorrhage crusts. Excoriations are absent. Most likely diagnosis is: A Eczema B *Scabies C Pediculosis D Allergic dermatitis E Urticaria 8. Patient 6 years old, during 2 weeks, has skin lesions connected with hard itching, more severe at night. Upon examination: in the interdigital webs forearm little red papules, hemorrhage crusts, excoriations. Most likely diagnosis is: A Eczema B Atopic dermatitis C Allergic dermatitis D *Scabies E Pediculosis 9. 57 year old female patient use corticosteroids for 2 years. Which of the following is a possible adverse side effect of chronic use of topical steroid medications? A Striae B *All are correct C Atrophy of the skin D Folliculitis E Ectasias 10. Mother of 8-month baby complaints are: presence of skin lesions and itching more severe at night. Upon examination: on the palms and soles – little vesicles. On the skin of face, neck, trunk – little vesicles, which lie near each other, inflamated papules, pustules, crusts, excoriations. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Scabies B Dermatitis C Pediculosis D Atopic dermatitis E Syphilitic pemphigus 11. 36 year old female patient diagnose is scabies. What lab test we must use for diagnosis of Sarcoptes scabiei? A Wasserman reaction B Prick test C *Skin scraping D Tzank smear E Skin biopsy 12. Patent 17 years old complaints are: itching more severe at night. Upon examination: on the skin of the palms and soles – little vesicles, red papules, hemorrhage crusts, excoriations; erythema, papules and ectyma on the genital organs. Most likely diagnosis is: A Pediculosis B Syphilis C *Scabies D Candidal infection E Contact dermatitis 13. Women 26 years old complaints are: itching more severe at night. Upon examination: on the skin of the palms and soles – little vesicles, red papules, hemorrhage crusts, excoriations. Ardy symptom is positive. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Scabies B Pediculosis C Contact dermatitis D Spread pyoderma E Allergic dermatitis 14. Women 35 years old complaints are: itching of the head. Trip by train, from anamnesis. Upon examination: purulent crusts, excoriations on the skin of the head; great plaques closely connected with hair follicle. Most likely diagnosis is: A Pyoderma of the scalp B Seborrhea dermatitis C Tinea capitis D *Pediculosis E Neurodermitis 15. Women 45 years old complaints are erythematic skin lesions on the face, connected with itching, which increase after washing of the face. Upon examination: little papules and zone of scales on the erythematic base on the skin of the face. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Demodecosis, erythematic and squamosis form B Acne vulgaris C Demodecosis, papule form D Seborrhea dermatitis E Contact dermatitis 16. Upon examination: on the skin of the face pustules and nodules based on the erythema, connected with scaling. Laboratory: scabies mite during scrubbing of the beard zone. Put correct diagnose, please. A Demodecosis, papule and pustules form B Acne vulgaris C Demodecosis, papule form D Seborrhea dermatitis E *Scabies 17. Women 50 years old complaints are: erythema of the face, itching. Upon examination: erythema and scaling. Laboratory: demodex folliculorum during scrubbing of the beard zone. Put correct diagnose, please. A Demodecosis, papule and pustules form B Acne vulgaris C Allergic dermatitis D Seborrhea dermatitis E *Demodecosis, erythematic and squamosis form 18. Patient has well defined 2-Cm localized hair loss in the posterior scalp. This condition is most likely: A Telogium effluvium B Anagen effluvium C Traction alopecia D Traumatic alopecia E *Alopecia areata 19. Patient 23 years old has of impetigo with itching, more severe at night. What is the diagnose? A Dermatitis B Psoriasis C Eczema D *Scabies E Tinea 20. Patient 37 years old has hard itching, more severe at night. Upon examination: little vesicles, inflammative papules, excoriations, on the trunk, interdigital space of the palms. Most likely diagnosis is: A. Urtica B. *Scabies C. Dermatitis D. Eczema E. Pituriais versicilor 21. 67 year old female patient presents with nocturnal pruritus, red macules on nape of neck and scalp. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Pediculosis Capitis B Dermatitis C Tinea capitis D Psoriasis E Pediculus humanus 22. 18 year old female patient presents with open and closed comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts of varying severity, found on face, neck, shoulders, and upper trunk. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Acne vulgaris B Atopic dermatitis C Seborrheic dermatitis D Systemic Lupus Erythematosus E Rosacea 23. 45 year old female patient presents with flushing and persistent central facial erythema with telangiectasia. Most likely diagnosis is: A Scabies B Acne vulgaris C Atopic dermatitis D Seborrheic dermatitis E *Rosacea 24. 40 year old male patient presents with central facial erythema with transient papules and pustules. Most likely diagnosis is: A Seborrheic dermatitis B Eczema C *Rosacea D Acne vulgaris E Atopic dermatitis 25. 38 year old female patient presents painful, tender, erythematous papule with central pustule single lesions in the beard area. Most likely diagnosis is: A Insect bites B Scabies C Rosacea D Tinea E *Folliculitis 26. 25 year old female patient suffered from folliculitis for 5 years. Possible causative agent of this can be all, except: A Staphylococcus aureus B Chemical irritation C Friction D *Scabies mite E Perspiration 27. 64 year old female patient suffered from obesity for 10 years. Upon examination: recurrent boils on the axillae areas. Most likely diagnosis is: A Cellulitis B *Hidradenitis suppurativa C Pilonidal cysts D Bacterial folliculitis E Squamous cell carcinoma 28. 56 year old male patient suffered from Hidradenitis Suppurativa for 6 month. Possible methods of treatment includes all, except: A Incision and drainage B Antibiotics C Isotretinoin D *Antiviral drugs E Corticosteroids 29. 44 year old male patient diagnose is scabies. What lab test we must use for diagnosis of Sarcoptes scabiei? A Prick test B *Skin Scraping C Tzank smear D Balzer test E Skin biopsy 30. 45 year old female patient presents with central facial erythema with transient papules and pustules. Those symptoms can be aggravated by: A Wine and caffeine B Exercise C Topical steroid D Anxiety E *All are correct 31. 56 year old female patient diagnose is scabies. What lab test we must use for diagnosis of Sarcoptes scabiei? A *Oil preparation B KOH prep C Wood’s light D Skin biopsy E Tzanck prep 32. Skin lesions appeared 5 days ago. Skin assessment: little inflammatory erythematous pustules. Except this, erosions, this appeared after pustules breakdown, crusts. About what disease we can thing? A Eczema B *Impetigo vulgaris C Herpes simplex D Contact dermatitis E Candidiasis 33. Boy 5 years old, during 5 days have little inflammatory erythematous pustules, erosions, which appeared after pustules breakdown, crusts. About what dermatosis we can thing? A *Іmpetigo B Dermatitis herpetiphormic C Pemphigus vulgaris D Eczema E Herpes zoster 34. Two children from one family have yellow-honey crusts, on the face, amount of which rapidly increase. About what disease we can thing? A Dermatitis B *Impetigo C Tinea D Furuncle E Candidiasis 35. What ointment we must prescribe for patient with impetigo? A Herpevir B Prednizolon C Clotrimazole D *Tetracycline E Synaphlan 36. What drugs we must prescribe for patient with furuncle? A Corticosteroids B Antiinflammative drugs C Antifungal drugs D *Antibiotics E Vitamins 37. Boy 16 years old has carbuncle. What type of infection it is? A *Bacterial B Fungal C Viral D Parasitogenic E All are wrong 38. Women 24 years old have eythrasma. What type of infection it is? A *Bacterial B Fungal C Viral D All are correct E All are wrong 39. Old women 75 years old have ecthyma. What type of infection it is? A *Bacterial B Fungal C Viral D Parasitogenic E All are wrong 40. Patient has lichen planus. What we must use for topical treatment? A Cream B Aerosol C *Ointment D Lead water E Mixed drugs 41. Patient 6 years old complaints are: red plaques covered with scales on the pressing zones. About what disease we can thing? A Dermatitis B Eczema C Tinea D *Psoriasis E Lichen planus 42. What type of drugs we must prescribe for patients with psoriatic plaques? A Paste B *Ointment C Lead water D Cream E Mixed drugs 43. Patient has red, flat, umbilicated, pearly colored. About what disease we can thing? A Psoriasis B Dermatitis herpetiphormic C Tinea D *Lichen planus E Eczema 44. Patient 21 year old has zone of lichenification on the hair, surrounded by papules, excoriations. Except this, itching. Put diagnose. A *Lichen planus B Dermatitis C Eczema D Psoriasis E Syphilis 45. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin Koebner’s phehomenon. For what disease it is characterized? A *Psoriasis B Scabies C Pituriasis rosea D Tumor E Acne vulgaris 46. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin ”Herald patch”. For what disease it is characterized? A Psoriasis B *Pituriasis rosea C Pituriasis lichenoid chronic D Acne vulgaris E Acne vulgaris 47. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin “Woronow ring”. For what disease it is characterized? A Licnen planus B Pyoderma C Scabies D *Psoriasis E Syphilis 48. Patient 45 year old has psoriasis. What type of the disease it is? A Sexually transmitted disease B Virus disease C Fungal disease D *Papulosquamous disease E Pyoderma 49. Young man 38 years old have ltitle numerous zones of alopecia with incomplete hair loss (“moth eaten”). For what disease it is characterised? A Psoriasis B Tinea capitis C *Syphilitic alopecia D Partial alopecia E Discoid LE 50. 23 year old female patient presents with sharply-defined but irregular brown, scaly patches in the groin. For what disease it is characterised? A Tinea of the groin B Eczema C Dermatitis D *Erythrasma E Candidiasis 51. 5 year old boy suffered from this disease for 5 days. Upon examination: thin-walled vesicle on erythematous base, that soon ruptures & the exuding serum dries to form yellowishbrown (honey-color) crusts. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Impetigo B Pemphigus vulgaris C Eczema D Herpes zoster E Herpetiform dermatitis 52. 28 year old female patient presents with raised areas of inflamed skin covered with silvery white scaly skin on the extensor surfaces, back, sacrum, hairline, knees, elbows. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Psoriasis vulgaris B Eczema C Allergic dermatitis D Atopic dermatitis E Guttate psoriasis 53. 45 year old male patient presents with nail pitting, onycholysis of distal nail bed and “oil drops”. Most likely diagnosis is: A Eczema B Lichen planus C Onychomycosis D *Nail psoriasis E All are wrong 54. 68 year old male patient presents with vesicles on soles of hands & feet, painful rather than itchy. Patient suffered from this disease for 25 years. Most likely diagnosis is: A Contact dermatitis B *Palmoplantar psoriasis C Eczema D Allergic dermatitis E Tinea of the palms and soles 55. 47 year old male patient presents with smooth inflamed patches in skin folds of skin and under the breasts. Most likely diagnosis is: A Psoriasis vulgaris B Pustular psoriasis C Guttate psoriasis D Erythrodermic psoriasis E *Flexural psoriasis 56. 58 year old female patient presents with smooth inflamed patches in skin folds of skin and under the breasts. Most likely diagnosis is: A Erythrodermic psoriasis B Psoriasis vulgaris C Pustular psoriasis D Guttate psoriasis E *Flexural psoriasis 57. 34 year old female patient presents with plaques covered with silvery white scaly skin on the extensor surfaces, back, sacrum, hairline, knees, and elbows. When the plaques are scraped, one can see pinpoint bleeding from the skin below. This sign is: A *Auspitz's sign B Bulzer test C Prick test D Tzanck test E All are wrong 58. 49 year old male patient presents with plaques covered with silvery white scaly skin on the extensor surfaces, back, sacrum, hairline, knees, and elbows. Auspitz's sign is positive. Most likely diagnosis is: A Tinea of the skin B Secondary syphilitic C Eczema D Allergic dermatitis E *Psoriasis 59. 63 year old female patient presents with plaques covered with silvery white scaly skin on the extensor surfaces, back, sacrum, hairline, knees, and elbows. Koebner’s phenomenon is positive. Most likely diagnosis is: A Tinea of the skin B *Psoriasis C Secondary syphilitic D Eczema E Allergic dermatitis 60. 68 year old female patient presents with reddish-purple, flat-topped bumps that may be very itchy and thinning and surface roughnesses of the nail plate with longitudinal idges. Most likely diagnosis is: A Tinea of the skin B Psoriasis C *Lichen planus D Eczema E Allergic dermatitis 61. 45 year old male patient presents with involves the mucous membranes of the mouth and vulvovaginal area and reddish-purple, flat-topped bumps. Most likely diagnosis is: A Candidiasis B Primary syphilis C Secondary syphilis D *Lichen planus E Pemphigus vulgaris 62. Patient 20 years old has tinea pedis. What type of ointment we can prescribe prophylactically? A Antivirus ointment B Antibacterial ointment C *Antifungal ointment D Corticosteroids E Vitamin 63. Baby 6 years old has tinea capitis (inflammative-purulent form).What is source of infection in this case? A Cow B Pigeon C Horse D *Cat E Rabbit 64. Patient 35 years old has such complaints: well – demarcated inflammative papules with elevate board, scales in the groins. Hard itching is present. This condition is most likely: A Dermatitis B Erythrasma C Eczema D *Tinea of the groin E Fixed erythema 65. What type of the drug we can prescribe 45 years patient with onychomycosis? A *Antifungal B Antivirus C Antiinflammative D Antibacterial E Corticosteroids 66. Patient 20 years old has pain vesicles on the palms, appearance of which connected with visit of swimming – pool. Clinically: little confluence vesicles, erosions with part of epidermis. This condition is most likely: A Dermatitis B Eczema C Pemphigus D *Tinea of the pedis E Psorasis 67. What type of ointment we must prescribe 25 years female with tinea corporis? A *Antifungal B Antivirus C Antibacterial D Antiinflammative E Corticosteroids 68. During 3 month patient has changing of the color of the nails. During pressing – pus. Most likely diagnosis is: A Onychomycosis B Pannaricium C Impetigo D *Candidal paronychia E Chronic eczema 69. 28 year old female patient presents with paronychia. What type of drug we must prescribe for this patient? A Antibacterial B Antiinflammative C *Antifungal D Corticosteroids E Antiinflammative 70. 46year old male patient presents with Candida paronychia. What type of drug we must prescribe for this patient? A Antibacterial B Antivirus C Corticosteroids D *Antifungal E Antiinflammative 71. On the upper part of the thorax patient has well-demarcated, different in color macules 1-1,5 sm. in dm. Scales are present on the surface of these lesions. Balzer test is positive. This condition is most likely: A Psoriasis B Dermatitis C *Pituriasis versicolor D Syphilitic roseola E Eczema 72. 32 years patient presents with a large amount of non-inflammative maculae’s with hidden scales on the surface. Subjective sensations are absent. This condition is most likely: A Psoriasis B Dermatitis C Eczema D Tinea of the skin E *Pituriasis versicolor 73. 57 years patient presents with candidal vulvovaginatis. What drug we must prescribe? A Herpevir B Prednisilon C Clotrimazole D *Fluconasol E Synaphlan 74. 34 years patient presents with favus. What kind of infection it is? A Bacterial B *Fungal C Viral D Parasitogenic E All are wrong 75. Young woman 24 years old have pityriasis versicolor. What kind of infection it is? A Bacterial B *Fungal C Viral D Parasitogenic E All are wrong 76. 34 years patient presents with infiltrative-purulent form of tinea capitis. What type of drugs we can use? A Ointment B Cream C Paste D *Water-lead E All are correct 77. 27 years patient presents with eczema. What we must use for topical treatment? A Paste B Ointment C *Lead water D Cream E Mixed drugs 78. 43 years patient presents with atopic dermatitis. What type of ointment we must prescribe for this patient? A Antivirus ointment B Antibacterial ointment C Antifungal ointment D *Corticosteroids E Vitamins 79. 43 years patient presents with acute contact dermatitis. What type of ointment we must prescribe for patient in this case? A Antifungal ointment B Antibacterial ointment C Antivirus ointment D Antiinflammative type E *Corticosteroids 80. 45 years patient presents with eczema. What type of medicine for topical treatment we must prescribe for this patient? A Cream B *Lead water C Ointment D Aerosol E Vitamins 81. Patient 31 years old, during 1 year has skin lesions on the palms which connected with hard itching. Upon examination: symmetrical erythema with little vesicles, erosions, weeping, surrounded by inflammative papules, crusts. This condition is most likely: A Herpes simplex B Scabies C *Eczema D Atopic dermatitis E Dermatitis 82. Patient 67 years old has severe itching, which he connected with allergy. What drug we must prescribe? A Lamizile B *Phencarolum C Delagil D Metronidazole E Doxycyclini hydrochloridum 83. In case of acute vesicular tinea pedis of 34 years old patient specimens for potassium hydroxide examination should be taken from: A Under the vesicle B Root of the vesicle C *Both are correct (A and B) D Both are wrong (A and B) E All are correct 84. 23 year old female patient presents with worsening pain on her toenails during regular jogging. Upon exam, yellowish discolored lifted nails with distal sub-ungal hyperkeratosis involving all the nails on her right foot. In addition, scaling in between the toes was also noted. Name the disease: A Psoriasis B *Onychomycosis / Tinea Pedis C Lichen planus D Eczema E All are wrong 85. 45 year old female patient presents with pain with a vesicular eruption followed by scabbing and skin scarring in the region of the coetaneous distribution of the ophthalmic maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Zoster ophthalmicus B Herpes zoster C Herpes simplex D Chicken pox E Herpetiform dermatitis 86. 27 year old female patient presents with clusters and groups of vesicles on erythematous base. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Pemphigus Erythematosus B Pemphigus Vegetans C Pemphigus Foliaceus D Pemphigus Vulgaris E Herpes Simplex Viruses 87. 47 year old male patient presents with erosions in gingiva with small striations at the periphery of the lesion. On the forearms: purple, polygonal flat-topped papules. Most likely diagnosis is: A Pemphigus Vulgaris B *Erosive Lichen Planus C Pemphigus Foliaceus D Pemphigus Erythematosus E Bullous lichen Planus 88. 49 year old female patient suffered from Pemphigus Vulgaris for 8 years. Diet in case of Pemphigus vulgaris means restricted on hard foods that may traumatize oral epithelium mechanically: A Nuts B Chips C Hard vegetables D *All are correct E All are wrong 89. 33 year old female patient presents with erosions in buccal mucosa with small striations at the periphery of the lesion. On the trunk: purple, polygonal flat-topped papules. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Erosive Lichen Planus B Pemphigus Vulgaris C Pemphigus Foliaceus D Pemphigus Erythematosus E Bullous lichen Planus 90. 45 year old female patient presents with painful shallow ulcer in the buccal mucosa. Previously: bulla, which rupture. On the trunk: purple, polygonal flat-topped papules. Most likely diagnosis is: A *Bullous lichen Planus B Erosive Lichen Planus C Pemphigus Foliaceus D Pemphigus Erythematosus E Dermatitis Herpetiformis 91. 38 year old male patient presents with white areas that ulcerate in the mouth. On the forearms: purple, polygonal flat-topped papules. Most likely diagnosis is: A Pemphigus Vegetans B Pemphigus Foliaceus C Pemphigus Erythematosus D *Bullous lichen Planus E Dermatitis Herpetiformis 92. 48 year old female patient presents with numerous flaccid bulla on the normal skin of the trunk. The eruption is symmetrical. Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Name the disease: A Bullous lichen Planus B *Pemphigus Vulgaris C Erosive Lichen Planus D Impetigo E Both are wrong 93. 35 year old male patient diagnose - HSV infection. Therapy of this disease include all, except: A Acyclovir B Valacyclovir C Famciclovir D H1 anti-histamines E *Fluconazole 94. 59 year old male patient presents with numerous irregular in shape flaccid bulla on the normal skin of the trunk. The eruption is symmetrical. In the mucous membranes of the oral cavity painful erosions. Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Name the disease: A Bullous lichen Planus B Erosive Lichen Planus C *Pemphigus Vulgaris D Impetigo E All are wrong 95. 47 year old female patient suffered from this disease for 25 years. Upon examination: symmetrical numerous irregular in shape flaccid bulla on the normal skin of the trunk. In the mucous membranes of the oral cavity painful erosions. Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Name the disease: A Bullous lichen Planus B *Pemphigus Vulgaris C Erosive Lichen Planus D Impetigo E All are wrong 96. 54 year old male patient suffered from this disease for 28 years. Upon examination: painful erosions in the mucous membranes of the oral cavity. On the normal skin of the trunk symmetrical numerous irregular in shape flaccid bulla. Nikolsky’s sign is positive. This condition is most likely: A Bullous lichen Planus B *Pemphigus Vulgaris C Erosive Lichen Planus D Impetigo E Tinea corporis 97. 58 year old female patient suffered from Pemphigus Vulgaris for 38 years. What type of disease is it? A Viral disease B *Autoimmune disease C Bacterial disease D Sexually transmitted disease E Papulosquamosis disease 98. 47 year old male patient diagnosed Pemphigus Vulgaris. To improve this diagnose it is necessary to: A Take skin biopsy for histology B Take serum for indirect immunofluorescence C Make Tzanck smear D *All are correct E All are wrong 99. 29 year old female patient diagnose - HSV infection. What drug we can prescribe? A Acyclovir B Valacyclovir C Famciclovir D *All are correct E All are wrong 100. 47 year old female patient diagnose - HSV infection. Therapy of HSV infection include all, except: A Acyclovir B H2 anti-histamines C Valacyclovir D *Itraconazole E Famciclovir 101. 46 year old male patient suffered from Pemphigus Vulgaris for 8 years. Diet in case of Pemphigus vulgaris means restricted on: A Orange juice B Spicy foods C Tomatoes D All are wrong E *All are correct 102. Objective assessment of a patient with a skin complaint (special examination technique) include: A Diascopy B *All are correct C Skin-surface microscopy D Wood’s light E All are wrong 103. In dermatology we can use: A *All are correct B Routine tests C Special tests D Skin Biopsy E All are wrong 104. Special tests in dermatology means all, except: A Skin scrapings B Patch test C *Blood analysis D Tzank smear E Electron microscopy 105. 32 year old female patient presents with thick painless ulcer on glens penis covered with black crust. Not far from it, one lymphatic node without pain. Most likely diagnosis is: A Ectyma B Impetigo C Furuncle D Carbuncle E *Syphilis 106. 28 year old male patient presents with little scar on the glens penis. From anamnesis, presence of painless ulcer on the same place, which heal without treatment. Not far from previous ulcer remains one thick mobile lymphatic node without pain. Most likely diagnosis is: A Herpes virus B Impetigo C *Syphilis D Gonococal infection E Furuncle 107. 26 year old male received course of treatment against little wound on the glens penis. One week later, after recovering, on the skin of thorax and abdomen red maculae’s 0,5 sm in dm, without any subjective sensation appeared.. Name the disease: A Pituriasis versicolor B Lichen planus C *Syphilis D Psoriasis E Dermatitis 108. 28 years old female patient presents with papules on the vulvae lips 1 sм in dm., thick with smooth surface, tendency to confluent, without subjective sensation. Name the disease: A Herpes infection B Condiloma accuminata C *Syphilitic condiloma lata D Candidiasis E Chlamidiosis 109. 43 year old male presents with numerous papules 0.5 sm in dm on the palms and soles, without subjective sensations, which are didn’t confluent, not scaling. Name the disease: A Psoriasis B Warts C *Syphilis D Tinea E Lichen planus 110. 32 years old male presents with painless thick ulcer on glens penis, 1 х 1,5 sm, covered with black crust. Not far from it, one lymphatic node without pain. Most likely diagnosis is: A Impetigo B Furuncle C Ectyma D *Syphilis E Carbuncle 111. 24 years old female patient presents with chard chancre. It is clinical symptom of: A *Primary syphilis B Secondary syphilis C Congenital syphilis D Gonococcal infection E Late syphilis 112. 46 years old female patient presents with chard chancre. This symptom begins as: A A single papule B Well defined papule C Painful papule D All are correct E *All are correct, except “painful papule” 113. Patient 29 years old diagnose – primary syphilis. What are the main clinical symptoms of this disease? A Hard chancre B Polyadenitis C Roseola D Regional lymphadenitis E *Hard chancre, regional lymphadenitis 114. Patient 24 years old has syphilis. What type of immunity will remain after it? A Congenital B Gain C Non-sterility D Infective E *Non-sterility, infective 115. Patient 24 years old has syphilis. To diagnose treponema pallidum in dark-field microscopy, we must take smear from: A Hard chancre B Erosions and ulcers from genital organs C Anorectic zone D Oral cavity E *All are correct 116. Patient 37 years old has syphilis. Drugs of choice in syphilis treatment are: A Coticosteroids B *Penicillin C Antiviral drugs D Antihistamins E Antiinflammatine drugs 117. 28 years old young man has symptoms of syphilis. To precede Wassermann’s reaction, we must take: A Patient urine B Patient saliva C *Patient serum D Patient sweat E Patient feces 118. 43 year old male presents with numerous zones of alopecia with incomplete hair loss (“moth eaten”). Its characterized for: A Psoriasis B Tinea capitis C *Syphilis D Partial alopecia E Discoid LE 119. What is the main danger reaction for 34 years old patient, who treated syphilis with penicillin? A Urticaria B Fever C Anaphylactic shock D *Jarish-Herxheimer reaction E Allergic dermatitis 120. 24 year old male presents with syphilis. What kind of infection it is? A Fungal B Viral C Parasitogenic D *Bacterial E All are wrong 121. 36 year old male presents with button-like, well demarcated painless ulcer on axilla zone. This patient most likely has: A Hydradenitis B *Primary syphilis C Furuncle D Carbuncle E Ecthyma 122. 25 year old male presents with generalized papulosquamous body rash and positive Wassermann reaction. This patient most likely has: A Psoriais B Lichen planus C *Secondary syphilis D Allergic dermatitis E Eczema 123. 44 years old male presents with numerous zone of alopecia and positive Wassermann reaction. This patient most likely has: A Tinea capitis B Discoid LE C *Syphilis D Psoriasis E Lichen planus 124. 35 years old male presents with numerous plantar rash and positive Wassermann reaction. This patient most likely has: A Warts B Primary syphilis C Psoriais D *Secondary syphilis E Lichen planus 125. 28 years old male present with hard chancre on glens penis. Complications of this skin lesion can be all, except: A Gangrene B Phimosis C Paraphimosis D Phagedenism E *Accessory infection of Bartholin’s glands 126. Patient 39 years old diagnose – primary syphilis. The mode of transmission of this disease can be all, except: A Sexual B *Toilet seats C Kissing D Sexual perversion E Accidental inoculation 127. 22 years old female present with hard chancre on the lips. The mode of transmission of syphilis can be all, except: A Accidental inoculation B Through contaminated blood C *Daily activities D All are correct E All are wrong 128. 42 years old male present with numerous papules on the trunk. Wassermann reaction is positive. Syphilitic papules are characterized by all, except: A Copper-red in color B Thickness C *Presence of acute inflammation D Absence of subjective sensations E Absence of acute inflammation 129. 65 years old male present with numerous papules on the palms and soles. Wassermann reaction is positive. Syphilitic papules are characterized by: A Copper-red in color B Thickness C Absence of acute inflammation D Absence of subjective sensations E *All are correct 130. 39 years old female diagnose - “Venera necklace”. These lesions are: A Erosion in late syphilis B Affection of hair in secondary syphilis C Affection of nails in secondary syphilis D *Combination of hyperpigmentation and depigmentation in secondary syphilis E Nodules in secondary syphilis 131. 23 year old female patient presents with chlamydial urethritis. What drug we must prescribe? A. Biseptol B. *Doxycyclini hydrochloridium C. Metronidazole D. Dexamethasonum E. Indomethacin 132. 19 years old patient has discharges from urethra during 3 weeks. What type of bacteria can cause this urethritis? A. *Chlamydia B. Pneumococcus C. Salmonella D. Yersinia E. All are wrong 133. 20 years old patient present with urethral discharges during 2 weeks. What type of bacteria can cause this urethritis? A. Streptococcus B. Pneumococcus C. Salmonella D. Yersinia E. *Chlamydia 134. 35 years old patient present with urethral discharges, caused by chlamydia during 3 weeks. What type of drug we must prescribe for this patient? A Corticosteroids B Antiinflammative drugs C Antifungal drugs D *Antibiotics E Vitamins 135. 18 years old patient present with itching, disorders in sexual function during, sometimes slight discharges from urethra in the morning. What type of bacteria can cause this urethritis? A. *All are correct B. Mycoplasma C. Trichomonada D. Chlamydia E. Gonococcus 136. 21 years old patient present with discharges from urethra, pain during emiction during 3 days after sexual contact. Upon examination: enlargement, edema of glens penis. Presence of yellow-greenish purulent discharges. Name the disease: A. *Acute gonococci urethritis B. Trichomoniasis C. Chlamydia infection D. Genital herpes E. Syphilis 137. 20 years old patient present with discharges from urethra during 3 weeks. What type of bacteria can cause this urethritis? A. *Gonococcus B. Pneumococcus C. Salmonella D. Yersinia E. Diphtgeria 138. 34 years old patient diagnose is Hutchinson’s triad. It is means: A Hutchinson’s teeth B VIII nerve deafness C Thickness of the part of clavicle D Syphilitic interstitial keratitis E *All are right, except thickness of the part of clavicle 139. 28 years old patient present with rhagades, which are cracks or fissures in the skin around the mouth. This condition is most likely: A Primary syphilis B Secondary syphilis C *Congenital syphilis D Late syphilis E All are wrong 140. 1-week-old infant boy has syphilitic pemphigus. It is characterized for: A Primary syphilis B Late congenital syphilis C *Early congenital syphilis D Secondary syphilis E Primary and secondary syphilis 141. 2 years old patient present syphilitic chorioretinitis. Assessment of the eye ground of this patient shows specific symptom: A “Herald patch” B “Christmas tree” C *“Salt -and -pepper” D “Moth eaten” E “Snail-track” 142. 3 years old female patient present syphilitic chorioretinitis. It is characterized for: A *Early congenital syphilis B Primary syphilis C Late congenital syphilis D Secondary syphilis E Primary and secondary syphilis 143. Fetus present with Pneumonia Alba. It is characterized for: A *Early congenital syphilis B Primary syphilis C Secondary syphilis D Late congenital syphilis E Tertiary syphilis 144. Assessment of newborn placenta show: the chorionic villi are enlarged, and contain dense laminated connective tissue, and the capillaries distributed throughout the villi are compressed by this connective tissue proliferation. Such a photomicrograph revealing cytoarchitectural changes of the placenta seen in: A Primary syphilis B *Early congenital syphilis C Secondary syphilis D Late congenital syphilis E Tertiary syphilis 145. 2-week-old infant boy has hepatosplenomegaly. The infant kept his upper extremities in a flail-like position because of painful periostitis. It is caused by: A Secondary relapse syphilis B Neurosyphilis C Primary syphilis D *Congenital syphilis E Secondary syphilis 146. 1-week-old infant girl has perianal excoriation with hepatosplenomegaly is characterized for: A *Congenital syphilis B Neurosyphilis C Tertiary syphilis D Primary syphilis E Secondary syphilis 147. 2-month-old infant boy has nasal discharges (snuffles). They are the earliest sign of: A Primary syphilis B Candidiasis C *Congenital syphilis D Pemphigus Vulgaris E Pempgigus Erythematosus 148. 7-year-old girl present with Condyloma latum. It is characterized for: A Primary syphilis B *Early congenital syphilis C Neurosyphilis D Late congenital syphilis E Tertiary syphilis 149. 9-year-old boy present with Condyloma latum (congenital syphilis).It is caused by: A *Bacteria B Virus C Mite D Dermatophyte E All are wrong 150. 10-year-old boy present with perforated hard palate. It is characterized for: A *Syphilis B Eczema C Candidiasis D Lochen planus E Herpes simplex type 1 151. 25 years old female patient present Bartholin’s Abscess. Possible causative agent of this disease is: A Mite B Herpes simplex C Candidal infection D *Gonorrhea infections E Chlamydia infection 152. 4-days-old boy present with tense bulla with a thick base on the on the palms and soles. Name the disease: A Pempgigus Erythematosus B *Syphilitic pemphigus C Pemphigus Vegetans D Pemphigus Foliaceus E Pemphigus Vulgaris 153. 1- month-old girl present with erosive papules on genital organs. This condition is most likely: A Candidiasis B Herpes C *Congenital syphilis D Impetigo E Dermatitis 154. 21 years old male patient present with grouped burning, painful vesicles on the glens penis during 4 days with inflammative base. Name the disease: A Hard chancre B Iimpetigo C *Herpes simplex type 2 D Dermatitis E Genital warts 155. Doctor consult 29 years old male patient. Upon examination: on presence of painful erosions and grouped vesicles on the glens penis. This condition is most likely: A *Genital herpes B Secondary syphilis C Primary syphilis D Scabies E Chlamydia infection 156. Patient 30 years old has mucocutaneus candidiasis (vulvovaginatis, stomatitis, paronychii) for many years. Symptoms of other diseases are absent. What can be causative agent of this disease? A Hypovitaminosis B Local infection C *AIDS D Diabetes mellitus E Hypothyroidism 157. Patient 29 years old has bacillary angiomatosis. What another disease can be present in this case? A Hypovitaminosis B Local infection C *AIDS D Diabetes mellitus E Syphilis 158. Patient 28 years old has herpes simplex virus for 2 years which regress with ulcer and scar. What can be causative agent of this disease? A Chronic pneumonia B Diabetes mellitus C Local infection D *AIDS E Non-rational therapy 159. Patient 25 years old has mucocutaneus candidiasis (vulvovaginatis, stomatitis, paronychii) for many years. Symptoms of other diseases are absent. What can be causative agent of this disease? A *AIDS B Non-rational therapy C Hypovitaminosis D Local infection E Diabetes mellitus 160. Patient 40 years old has recurrent herpes zoster infection on the same place. What can be causative agent of this disease? A Diabetes mellitus B *AIDS C Hypovitaminosis D Chronic candidiasis E Local infection 161. Patient 30 years old has mucocutaneus candidiasis (vulvovaginatis, stomatitis, paronychii) for many years. Symptoms of other diseases are absent. What can be causative agent of this disease? A Hypovitaminosis B Local infection C Hypothyroidism D *AIDS E Diabetes mellitus 162. Patient 29 years old has bacillary angiomatosis. What another disease can be present in this case? A Hypovitaminosis B Local infection C Diabetes mellitus D Syphilis E *AIDS 163. Patient 28 years old has herpes simplex virus for 2 years which regress with ulcer and scar. What can be causative agent of this disease? A Chronic pneumonia B Diabetes mellitus C *AIDS D Local infection E Non-rational therapy 164. Patient 25 years old has mucocutaneus candidiasis (vulvovaginatis, stomatitis, paronychii) for many years. Symptoms of other diseases are absent. What can be causative agent of this disease? A Non-rational therapy B Hypovitaminosis C Local infection D *AIDS E Diabetes mellitus 165. Patient 40 years old has recurrent herpes zoster infection on the same place. What can be causative agent of this disease? A Diabetes mellitus B Hypovitaminosis C *AIDS D Chronic candidiasis E Local infection 166. 4 years child has scratches a lot! There is a family history of both asthma and hay fever. What medication should be used? A Triamcinalone 0.1% ointment twice B Lidex ointment (fluocinonide 0.05%) twice daily C *Hydrocortisone 1% ointment twice daily D Temovate ointment (clobetasol 0.05%) twice daily E All are wrong 167. 5 month child was tended by a pregnant woman on the day he broke out with the eruption, and she was very worried about risk to her fetus. Disease and advice: A Roseola, and no risk to the fetus B Rubella and risk is significant during about the first 5 months of gestation; check fetal date of conception, and then serum rubella antibody titers of the mother if appropriate, etc. C *Erythema infectiosum, and the child has stopped shedding virus by the time the eruption occurs, i.e., no risk to fetus D Erythema infectiosum, and the fetus should be followed carefully because of parvovirus attack of the red cell line, and subsequent possible in utero severe anemia, congestive heart failure, and even death E All are wrong 168. 25 year old woman has severe acne and is probably best treated with “Accutane” at: A *1 mg/kg/day for 3-5 months B 2 mg/kg/day for 3-5 months C 3 mg/kg/day for 3-5 months D 10 mg/kg/day for 3-5 months E All are wrong 169. The 36 years old men present with “Boils” on his penis, which broke down to form ulcers. Prescribe a possible treatment, please. A *Antibiotics B Delagil C Cyclosporinee D Dexamethasonum E Indomethacin 170. The 24 years old men present with “Boils” on left leg, which broke down to form ulcers. Prescribe a possible treatment, please. A Phencarolum B Delagil C *Antibiotics D Dexamethasonum E Indomethacin 171. 25 years old woman presented on a bank holiday after noticing pale patches on her trunk following a holiday in Spain. She has no other symptoms. A fine superficial scale was seen when the surface was lightly scraped with a fingernail. What is the diagnosis? A Seborrheic dermatitis B Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C Rosacea D Acne vulgaris E *Pituriais versicilor 177 . 18 years old woman presented on a bank holiday after noticing pale patches on her trunk following a holiday in Spain. She has no other symptoms. A fine superficial scale was seen when the surface was lightly scraped with a fingernail. What is the cause? A Streptococcus B Pneumococcus C Salmonella D Yersinia E *Piturosporum orbiculare 178 .18 years old woman presented on a bank holiday after noticing pale patches on her trunk following a holiday in Spain. She has no other symptoms. A fine superficial scale was seen when the surface was lightly scraped with a fingernail. What is the cause? A *Malassezi furfur B Pneumococcus C Yersinia D Salmonella E Streptococcus 179 38 years old woman presented on a bank holiday after noticing pale patches on her trunk following a holiday in Spain. She has no other symptoms. A fine superficial scale was seen when the surface was lightly scraped with a fingernail. What is characteristic appearance? A *Slightly scaly light brown or pink patches on light colored skin B Slightly scaly papules on light colored skin C Slightly scaly nodules on light colored skin D Slightly scaly papules and nodules on light colored skin E Slightly scaly light brown or pink patches and nodules on light colored skin 180 26 years old woman presented on a bank holiday after noticing pale patches on her trunk following a holiday in Spain. She has no other symptoms. A fine superficial scale was seen when the surface was lightly scraped with a fingernail. What test could help? A Prick test B Skin Scraping C Tzank smear D *Balzer test E Skin biopsy 181 Middle aged woman had suffered from psoriasis since the age of 19. This time the soles of her feet and palms of her hands were affected by the rash, which was painful and at the times caused a burning sensation. What is the likely diagnosis? A *Pustular psoriasis B Exfoliative psoriasis C Flexural psoriasis D Intertriginous psoriasis E Plaque psoriasis 182 45 years old woman suffered from pustular psoriasis since the age of 21. This time the soles of her feet and palms of her hands were affected by the rash, which was painful and at the times caused a burning sensation. What is the differential diagnosis? A Fungal infection B Contact dermatitis C Eczema D *All are correct E All are wrong 183 20 years old woman suffered from Hidradenitis Suppurativa. What treatment does this patient need? A Corticosteroids B *Surgery and antibiotics C Antifungal drugs D Antibiotics E Vitamins 184 28 years old woman suffered from Hidradenitis Suppurativa. What are characteristic features of this condition? A Sinus formation B Abscesses C Scarring of the deep tissue D *All are correct E All are wrong 185 25 years old woman suffered from pustular psoriasis since the age of 17. Which of the following medications can WORSEN psoriasis? A Topical steroids B Methotrexate C Cyclosporin D *Beta-blockers E All are wrong 186 On a routine physical, you find that this healthy young man has an asymptomatic rash on his back. There is scale when scratched. He has no travel history. A scraping of the scale is shown. What is the most appropriate treatment? A No treatment is necessary as this is a normal variation in darkly pigmented individuals B *Initiate treatment for tinea versicolor C Initiate treatment for vitiligo D No treatment is necessary as this is most consistent with acne scarring E Initiate treatment for tinea corporis 187 Patient 19 years old presents to you with acne. Which of the following points in her history could BEST help you in your diagnosis and management? A Chocolate and milk in her diet B *Excessive coffee drinking C Hirsutism and irregular menses D Poor hygiene E Lack of exercise 188 25 years old man was evaluated for a red indurate ulcerated plaque on the mid penile shaft following a week of painless inguinal adenopathy. Three weeks later he developed a widespread papulosquamous eruption on the trunk and extremities including the palms and soles. Condylomata lata lesions were noted on the scrotum. His serological tests for syphilis were positive. What is the likely diagnosis? A Primary syphilis B *Secondary syphilis C Early congenital syphilis D Late congenital syphilis E All are wrong 189 35-year-old man had a 2 year history of symmetric large red scaly patches on the scalp, face, postauricular areas, chest and upper back. What is the likely diagnosis? A *Dermatitis, seborrheic B Psoriasis, plaque C Lupus erythematosus, discoid D Granuloma annulare E Keratosis follicularis 190 47 years old woman complained of a generalized progressive pruritic papulopustular eruption with burrows on the wrists, web spaces of the feet and hands, elbows and knees. She had a close friend with a similar eruption and itching. What is the diagnosis? A Urticaria pigmentosa B Chicken pox C *Scabies D Eczema (dermatitis, atopic) E Contact dermatitis 191 22 years old woman was evaluated for a diffuse scaly papular eruption involving her chest, abdomen and back. A potassium hydroxide preparation demonstrated spores and pseudohyphae typical of Malassezi furfur. What is the diagnosis? A Pityriasis rosea B Burn, sun C *Lichen planus D Tnea versicolor E Folliculitis, eosinophilic 192 3 year old girl developed an itchy painful vesicular eruption in a dermatomal pattern. She had a history of varicella at 6 months of age. What is the diagnosis? A Roseola B Pityriasis rosea C *Herpes zoster D Psoriasis, guttate E Eczema (dermatitis, atopic) 193 70-year-old man presented with a 2 month history of diffuse pruritic symmetric violaceous lichenoid papules affecting his hands and feet. Note the longitudinal ridging and dystrophy of his finger and toe nails. What is the diagnosis? A *Lichen planus B Tinea pedis C Paronychia, acute D Psoriasis, erythrodermic E Pityriasis rosea 194 20-year-old man complained of generalized pruritus. Burrows were noted on his wrists, elbows, and the web spaces of his hands. Please select the correct diagnosis: A *Scabies B Eczema (dermatitis, atopic) C Contact dermatitis D Lichen planus E Tinea pedis 195 Symmetric linear papules and pustules covered 3 months infants’ chest and abdomen. His parents were itching, but their rash was eczematous without intact burrows. Scraping from several papules on the infant revealed viable female mites. Please select the correct diagnosis: A Tinea corporis B *Scabies C Dermatitis, contact allergic D Lichen planus E Eczema 196 This 65-year-pold man developed a cluster of itchy vesicles on his upper lip and nose after recovering from an upper respiratory tract infection. The rash cleared without treatment within a week. Please select the correct diagnosis: A Eczema herpeticum B *Herpes simplex virus infection C Tinea corporis D Dermatitis, atopic E Impetigo, bullous 197 A 58-year-old woman complained of painful bleeding ulcers in her mouth following the rupture of collapsed bullae. A skin biopsy with immunofluorescence confirmed the clinical suspicion of pemphigus vulgaris. What is the diagnosis? A Lichen planus B Impetigo, bullous C *Pemphigus vulgaris D Varicella E Cheilitis 198 45-year-old man had an itchy red scaly eruption which continued to spread despite treatment with a topical steroid for 1 month. The lesions resolved within 2 weeks of initiating oral griseofulvin. What is the diagnosis? A Erythrasma B *Tinea cruris C Eczema D Pityriasis rosea E Dermatitis, seborrheic 199 20-year-old man complained of generalized pruritus. Burrows were noted on his wrists, elbows, and the web spaces of his hands. Please select the correct diagnosis: A *Scabies B Psoriasis C Dermatitis herpetiformis D Lichen planus E Eczema 200 38-year-old man developed a painless ulcer on the distal shaft of the penis. The lesion cleared with oral doxycycline. The incidental pearly penile papules present at the base of the glans. What is the diagnosis? A Herpes simplex virus infection B Candidiasis C *Syphilis, primary D Condiloma acuminate E Wart, anogenital «Test questions to figures» 1. ?Based on the photo (Fig. 1), choose diagnosis: A. Psoriasis nummular B. Microsporia of the skin C. Tinea barber D. * Impetigo vulgaris E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 2. Clinical types of the disease on (Fig. 1) are all, except: A. Impetiginous perleche (angular stomatitis) B. Annular impetigo C. Acute diffuse impetigo D. Bullous impetigo E. * Impetigo of the bones 3. Predisposing factors of the disease on (Fig. 1) are all, except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. * Stress C. Chrohic infections D. Diminished of immunity E. Hypovitaminosis 4. Based on the photo (Fig. 2), choose diagnosis: A. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa B. Psoriasis nummular C. Dermatophitia of the skin D. * Ecthyma E. Microsporia of the skin 5. The main clinical symptom of the disease on (Fig. 2) is: A. * A small blister with a red border that may be filled with pus B. Nodule C. Maculae D. Hive E. Burrow 6. What type of infection is disease (Fig. 2)? A. Tinea infection B. * Bacterial infection C. Viral infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Parasitogenic infection 7. Based on the photo (Fig. 3), choose diagnosis: A. Erythema nudosum B. Psoriasis nummular C. Dermatophitia of the skin D. * Carbuncle E. Allergic contact dermatitis 8. This disease (Fig. 3) means: A. * Large deep ulcer B. Large deep fissure C. Large deep papule D. Large deep pustule E. Large deep erosion 9. For what type of infection the disease on (Fig. 3) belong? A. Fungal B. * Bacterial C. Viral D. Parasitogenic E. Sexually transmitted 10. The disease on (Fig. 3) is an infection involving: A. Subcutaneous tissue around several hair follicles B. * Subcutaneous tissue around one hair follicle C. Subcutaneous tissue around sweat gland D. Subcutaneous tissue around sebaceous gland E. Sebaceous gland 11. Based on the photo (Fig. 4), choose diagnosis: A. Plaques psoriasis B. Seborrheal dermatitis C. Scabies D. * Sycosis vulgaris E. Infiltrativepurulent trychophitia of the skin 12. What type of skin lesions are most characterized for the disease on (Fig. 4)? A. Vesicles B. * Infiltration with pustule on the surface C. Scars D. Maculae’s E. Papules 13. The disease on photo (Fig. 4) is a: A. * Piogenic infection of the whole hair follicles B. Viral infection of the whole hair follicles C. Piogenic infection of the upper part of the hair follicles D. Viral infection of the upper part of the hair follicles E. Sexually transmitted disease 14. Based on the photo (Fig. 5), choose diagnosis: A. Exudative psoriasis B. Tinea of the skin C. Contact dermatitis D. * Annular impetigo E. Pemphigus vulgaris 15. What type of skin lesions are most characterized for the disease on photo (Fig. 5)? A. Vesicles B. * Yellowbrown crusts, erosions C. Ulcers D. Maculae’s E. Papules 16. Lab. diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig. 5) means all, except: A. Skin biopsy B. Skin swab C. Pus swab D. Nasal/skin swab E. * Balzer test 17. Based on the photo (Fig. 6), choose diagnosis: A. Psoriasis nummular B. Tinea of the pulms C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. * Bullous impetigo E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 18. What type of skin lesions are most characterized for the disease on photo (Fig. 6)? A. Vesicles B. * Yellowhoney crusts, erosions C. Ulcers D. Maculae’s E. Papules 19. The disease on photo (Fig. 6) is characterized by the rapid progression of: A. * Vesicles to flaccid bullae B. Macule or patch C. Papule or plaque D. Papule or nodule E. Excoriation or lichenification 20. For what type of infection the disease on (Fig. 6) belong? A. Fungal B. * Bacterial C. Viral D. Parasitogenic E. Sexually transmitted 21. Based on the photo (Fig. 7), choose diagnosis: A. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa B. Lichen planus C. Infiltrativepurulent trychophitia of the skin D. * Chronic ulcerativevegitans pyoderma E. Pemphigus vulgaris 22. Based on the photo (Fig. 8), choose diagnosis: A. Eczema B. Sycosis vulgaris C. Dermatitis D. * Hidradenitis purulent E. Exudative psoriasis 23. Such multiple violaceous indurated sinus tracts, nodules, and ulcers with purulent and necrotic drainage photo (Fig. 8) are characterized for: A. * Hidradenitis purulent B. Eczema C. Sycosis vulgaris D. Dermatitis E. Exudative psoriasis 24. What kind of infection is the disease on photo (Fig. 8)? A. Fungal B. Viral C. * Bacterial D. Parasitogenic E. All are wrong 25. Causative agent of the disease on photo (Fig. 9) is: A. Mite B. * Corynebacterium minutissimum C. Staphylococcal aureus D. Streptococcal agent E. All are correct 26. Skin lesions of the disease on photo (Fig. 9) are: A. Papules B. * Macula’s C. Erosions D. Crusts E. Pustules 27. Based on the photo (Fig. 9), choose diagnosis: A. Exudative psoriasis B. Hidradenitis purulent C. Pituriasis versicolor D. * Erythrasma E. Toxicodermia 28. Based on the photo (Fig. 10) chooses diagnosis: A. Pituriasis versicolor B. Scabies C. Exudative psoriasis D. * Erythrasma E. Zhiber’s pink lichen 29. Skin lesions of the disease on photo (Fig. 10) are: A. Papules B. * Macula’s C. Erosions D. Crusts E. Pustules 30. Causative agents of the disease on photo (Fig. 10) are: A. Mite B. * Corynebacterium minutissimum C. Staphylococcal aureus D. Streptococcal agent E. All are correct 31. Based on the photo (Fig. 11) chooses diagnosis: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. * Impetigo vulgaris C. Tinea of the skin D. Eczema E. Dermatitis 32. What secondary skin lesions are most characterized for the disease on photo (Fig. 11)? A. Vesicles B. * Erosions, yellowhoneybrown crusts C. Ulcers D. Scales E. Papules 33. The disease on photo (Fig. 11) is: A. Very superficial viral infection of the skin B. * Very superficial bacterial infection of the skin C. Very superficial fungal infection of the skin D. Very superficial parasitic infection of the skin E. Deep bacterial infection of the skin 34. Serpentine burrow, characterized for the disease on photo (Fig. 12), localized in: A. Stratum granulosum B. Sratum spinosum C. Srratum lucidum D. * Stratum corneum E. Stratum basale 35. Definitive diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig. 12) is made by direct visualization of the: A. Mite B. Eggs C. * Mite, eggs D. Free fluid E. All are correct 36. Based on the photo (Fig. 12) chooses diagnosis: A. Exudative psoriasis B. Tinea of the skin C. Impetigo vulgaris D. * Scabies E. Eczema 37. Based on the photo (Fig. 13) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis of the scalp B. Tinea capitis C. Atopic dermatitis D. * Impetigo of the hair E. Seborrheal dermatitis 38. The main characteristic primary skin lesion for the disease on photo (Fig. 13) is: A. * Pustule B. Papule C. Erosion D. Scale E. Maculae 39. The disease on photo (Fig. 13) is a type of: A. Viral infection B. Tinea infection C. Sexually transmitted disease D. * Bacterial infection E. Parasitogenic disease 40. Based on the photo (Fig. 14) chooses diagnosis: A. Plague psoriasis B. Seborrheal dermatitis C. Impetigo D. * Scabies E. Eczema 41. The best method diagnosing of the disease on photo (Fig. 14) is: A. Wasserman reaction B. Tzank smear C. Darkfield microscopy D. * Direct visualization E. Diascopy 42. Definitive diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig. 14) is made by direct visualization of the: A. Mite B. Eggs C. * Mite, eggs D. Free fluid E. All are correct 43. Based on the photo (Fig. 15) chooses diagnosis: A. * Ecthyma vulgaris B. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa C. Nummular psoriasis D. Erythema nudossum E. Microsporia of the skin 44. What type of infection is of the disease on photo (Fig. 15)? A. Fungal B. Viral C. * Bacterial D. Parasitogenic E. Sexually transmitted 45. Based on the photo (Fig. 16) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis of the scalp B. Tinea capitis C. * Impetigo vulgaris D. Seborrheal dermatitis E. Eczema 46. This type of the disease on photo (Fig. 16) is a superficial skin infection that manifests as: A. Nodules B. Ulcers C. * Honeycolored crust D. Clusters of patches E. Clusters of maculae’s 47. Based on the photo (Fig. 17) chooses diagnosis: A. Ringle impetigo B. Exudative psoriasis C. Tinea corporis D. * Scabies, complicated by pyoderma E. Contact dermatitis 48. What type of infection is of the disease on photo (Fig. 17)? A. Fungal B. Viral C. Bacterial D. * Parasitogenic E. Sexually transmitted 49. Which of the following methods should be undertaken for diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig. 17)? A. Prick test B. * “Burrowink test” C. Tzanck test D. Balzer test E. Wood’s light 50. Based on the photo (Fig. 18) chooses diagnosis: A. * Bullous impetigo B. Tinea corporis C. Eczema D. Pemphigus vulgaris E. Dermatitis 51. The disease on photo (Fig. 18) is a superficial skin infection that manifests as: A. Nodules B. Ulcers C. * Bulla, honeycolored crust D. Clusters of patches E. Clusters of maculae’s 52. Based on the photo (Fig. 19) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis B. Sycosis vulgaris C. Dermatitis D. * Scabies. Ardy symptom E. Atopic dermatitis 53. This Ardy symptom on photo (Fig. 19) is characterized for: A. Psoriasis B. Sycosis vulgaris C. Dermatitis D. * Scabies E. Atopic dermatitis 54. Based on the photo (Fig. 20) chooses diagnosis: A. * Scabies B. Exudative psoriasis C. Lichen planus D. Erythrasma E. Eczema 55. Definitive diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig. 20) is made by direct visualization of the: A. Free fluid B. Mite C. Eggs D. * Mite, eggs E. All are correct 56. Based on the photo (Fig. 21) chooses diagnosis: A. Guttate psoriasis B. Contact dermatitis C. Eczema D. * Scabies E. Lichen planus 57. Definitive diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig. 21) is made by direct visualization of the: A. Free fluid B. Mite C. Eggs D. * Mite, eggs E. All are correct 58. Which of the following methods should be undertaken for diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig. 21)? A. Prick test B. * “Burrowink test” C. Tzanck test D. Balzer test E. Wood’s light 59. Which of the following methods should be undertaken for diagnosis of the disease on photo (Fig.21)? A. Wasserman reaction B. Tzanck test C. Woods light D. V.D.R.L. E. * “Burrowinktest” 60. Based on the photo (Fig. 22) chooses diagnosis: A. * Impetigo vulgaris B. Nummular dermatitis C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. Eczema E. Tinea barber 61. What type of infection is of the disease on photo (Fig. 22)? A. Fungal B. * Bacterial C. Viral D. Parasitogenic E. All are wrong 62. The main characteristic primary skin lesion for the disease on photo (Fig. 22) is: A. * Pustule B. Papule C. Erosion D. Scale E. Maculae 63. The main characteristic secondary skin lesion for the disease on photo (Fig.22) is: A. Papule B. Vesicle C. Patch D. Plaque E. * Yellow crusts 64. Based on the photo (Fig. 23) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular dermatitis B. Sycosis vulgaris C. Eczema D. * Rhinitis impetigo’s E. Tinea barber 65. What type of infection is of the disease on photo (Fig. 23)? A. Fungal B. Viral C. Parasitogenic D. * Bacterial E. Sexually transmitted disease 66. Based on the photo (Fig. 24) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular dermatitis B. Tinea barber C. Eczema D. * Furuncle E. Pemphigus vegetans 67. What type of infection is of the disease on photo (Fig. 24)? A. Sexually transmitted B. Fungal C. Viral D. Parasitogenic E. * Bacterial 68. Causative agent of the disease on photo (Fig. 24) is: A. Pubic lice B. Treponema pallidum C. Scabies mite D. Herpes virus infection E. * Staphylococcus aureus 69. Based on the photo (Fig. 25) chooses diagnosis: A. Molluscum contagiosum B. * Post scabies skin lymphoplasia C. Guttate psoriasis D. Tinea corporis E. Lichen planus 70. Based on the photo (Fig. 27) chooses diagnosis: A. * Furuncle B. Infiltrativepurulent tinea corporis C. Erythema nudossum D. Pustule psoriasis E. Eczema 71. The disease from photo (Fig. 26) is: A. Viral infection B. Fungal infection C. * Bacterial infection D. Parasitogenic infection E. Sexually transmitted 72. The disease from photo (Fig. 26) is formed by: A. Tender maculae’s or pustules caused by staphylococcal infection B. Tender nodules or patch caused by staphylococcal infection C. Tender maculae’s or plagues caused by staphylococcal infection D. * Tender nodules or pustules caused by staphylococcal infection E. Tender nodules or erosions caused by staphylococcal infection 73. Causative agent of the disease on photo (Fig. 26) is: A. Pubic lice B. * Staphylococcus aureus C. Treponema pallidum D. Scabies mite E. Herpes virus infection 74. Based on the photo (Fig. 27) chooses diagnosis: A. Scabies B. Chancreform pyoderma C. Tinea corporis D. Post scabies skin lymphoplasia E. *Furunculosis 75. Based on the photo (Fig. 28) chooses diagnosis: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Tinea corporis C. Vasculitis hemorrhagic D. *Piodermia E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 76. Based on the photo (Fig. 29) chooses diagnosis: A. Pustular psoriasis B. Lichen planus C. Congenital keratoderma of the pedis D. * Tinea pedis, dishydrotic form E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 77. Predisposing factors of the disease on photo (Fig. 29) are: A. Occlusive foot wear B. Hyperhidrosis of soles C. Sharing of wash places D. Presence of tinea unguium E. * All are correct 78. The disease from photo (Fig. 29) is: A. Viral infection B. * Fungal infection C. Bacterial infection D. Parasitogenic infection E. Sexually transmitted 79. Based on the photo (Fig. 30) chooses diagnosis: A. Osteal follicululitis B. Eczema C. Carbuncle D. * Infiltrativepurulent trichophytosis of the hair E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 80. The disease from photo (Fig. 30) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Bacterial infection D. Parasitogenic infection E. Sexually transmitted 81. Based on the photo (Fig. 31) chooses diagnosis: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Tinea corporis C. * Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis D. Vasculitis hemorrhagic E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 82. Causative agent of the disease on photo (Fig. 31) is: A. Pubic lice B. * Candida albicans C. Treponema pallidum D. Scabies mite E. Herpes virus infection 83. Based on the photo (Fig. 32) chooses diagnosis: A. Exudative psoriasis B. * Vulva and vagina candidiasis C. Eczema D. Lichen planus of mucous membranes E. Leukoplakia of mucous membranes 84. Causative agent of the disease on photo (Fig. 32) is: A. Pubic lice B. * Candida albicans C. Treponema pallidum D. Scabies mite E. Herpes virus infection 85. What type of ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease on photo (Fig. 33)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. Corticosteroid D. With salicylic acid E. * Antifungal 86. Typical skin lesion of the disease on photo (Fig. 33) is: A. * Annular or arcuate plaque B. Ulcer C. Crust D. Burrow E. All are correct 87. Based on the photo (Fig. 33) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis B. Eczema C. Lichen planus D. Warts E. * Tinea manuum 88. Based on the photo (Fig. 34) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular psoriasis B. * Rubrophytosis of the manuum C. Eczema D. Impetigo vulgaris E. Dermatitis 89. The disease from photo (Fig. 34) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Bacterial infection D. Parasitogenic infection E. Sexually transmitted 90. Based on the photo (Fig. 35) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular psoriasis B. * Interdigital candidiasis C. Eczema D. Impetigo vulgaris E. Dermatitis 91. The disease from photo (Fig. 35) is: A. Bacterial infection B. * Fungal infection C. Viral infection D. Parasitogenic infection E. Sexually transmitted infection 92. What secondary skin lesions are most characterized for the disease on photo (Fig. 36)? A. Vesicles B. * Erosions C. Ulcers D. Maculae’s E. Papules 93. Based on the photo (Fig. 37) chooses diagnosis: A. Nail psoriasis B. Lichen planus of the nails C. Onychodystrophy of the nails D. * Onychomycosis, hypertrophic type E. Congenital keratoderma 94. The disease from photo (Fig. 37) is: A. Bacterial infection B. * Fungal infection C. Viral infection D. Parasitogenic infection E. Sexually transmitted infection 95. Based on the photo (Fig. 38) chooses diagnosis: A. Osteal follicululitis B. * Infiltrativepurulent trichophytosis of the skin C. Microsporia of the skin D. Tinea cruris E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 96. The disease from photo (Fig. 38) is: A. Parasitogenic infection B. Bacterial infection C. Sexually transmitted infection D. * Fungal infection E. Viral infection 97. Based on the photo (Fig. 39) chooses diagnosis: A. Eczema B. Toxicodermia C. Dermatitis D. * Rubrophytia manuum E. Atopic dermatitis 98. The disease from photo (Fig. 39) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. Bacterial infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. * Fungal infection 99. Based on the photo (Fig. 40) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis of palms and soles B. Lichen planus C. Congenital keratoderma D. * Tinea pedis, hyperceratotic form E. Bullous epidermolysis 100. The disease from photo (Fig. 40) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. Bacterial infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. * Fungal infection 101. Based on the photo (Fig. 41) chooses diagnosis: A. * Tinea B. Nummular dermatitis C. Eczema D. Impetigo vulgaris E. Exudative psoriasis 102. What type of ointment you must prescribe for this patient with disease from photo (Fig. 41)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. * Antifungal D. Corticosteroid E. With salicylic acid 103. The disease from photo (Fig. 41) is: A. Sexually transmitted infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Bacterial infection E. * Fungal infection 104. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 41)? A. Acyclovir B. Kremgen C. Mifungar D. * Econazole E. Latycort 105. What type of ointment you must prescribe for this patient with disease from photo (Fig. 42)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. * Antifungal D. Corticosteroid E. With salicylic acid 106. Based on the photo (Fig. 42) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular dermatitis B. Eczema C. Impetigo vulgaris D. Psoriasis E. * Tinea manuum 107. The disease from photo (Fig. 42) is: A. Parasitogenic infection B. Sexually transmitted infection C. * Fungal infection D. Viral infection E. Bacterial infection 108. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 43)? A. Kremgen B. Acyclovir C. Herpevir D. * Pimaphucort E. Betasalyc 109. Causative agent of the disease on photo (Fig. 43) is: A. Pubic lice B. * Candida albicans C. Treponema pallidum D. Scabies mite E. Herpes virus infection 110. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 44)? A. Acyclovir B. Kremgen C. * Mifungar D. Pimafucort E. Latycort 111. The disease from photo (Fig. 44) is: A. Parasitogenic infection B. Sexually transmitted infection C. * Fungal infection D. Viral infection E. Bacterial infection 112. The disease from photo (Fig. 44) is: A. Parasitogenic infection B. Sexually transmitted infection C. * Fungal infection D. Viral infection E. Bacterial infection 113. Based on the photo (Fig. 45) chooses diagnosis: A. * Rubrophytosis of cruris B. Exudative psoriasis C. Seborrheal dermatitis D. Eczema E. Pituriasis versicolor 114. The disease from photo (Fig. 45) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. Sexually transmitted infection D. * Fungal infection E. Bacterial infection 115. What type of ointment you must prescribe for this patient with disease from photo (Fig. 45)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. * Antifungal D. Corticosteroid E. With salicylic acid 116. Based on the photo (Fig. 46) chooses diagnosis: A. Exudative psoriasis B. Seborrheal dermatitis C. * Rubrophytosis corporis D. Eczema E. Pituriasis versicolor 117. The disease from photo (Fig. 46) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. Sexually transmitted infection D. * Fungal infection E. Bacterial infection 118. What type of ointment you must prescribe for this patient with disease from photo (Fig. 46)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. * Antifungal D. Corticosteroid E. With salicylic acid 119. Based on the photo (Fig. 47) chooses diagnosis: A. * Tinea pedis, intertrigenous form B. Eczema C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. Congenital keratoderma E. Tinea pedis, hyperceratotic form 120. Predisposing factors of disease from photo (Fig. 47) are: A. Occlusive foot wear B. Hyperhidrosis of soles C. Sharing of wash places D. Presence of tinea unguium E. * All are correct 121. The disease from photo (Fig. 47) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. Sexually transmitted infection D. Viral infection E. Bacterial infection 122. Based on the photo (Fig. 48) chooses diagnosis: A. Eczema B. * Onychomycosis, normotrophic variant C. Nail psoriasis D. Nail lichen planus E. Congenital keratoderma 123. Disease from the photo (Fig. 48) can be: A. Normotrophic B. Hypertrophic C. Atrophic D. All are wrong E. * All are correct 124. The disease from photo (Fig. 48) is: A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. * Fungal infection 125. What symptom is characterized for nails color for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 49)? A. Bolter symptom B. Oil drops C. Mouth eaten D. Snail track E. * All are wrong 126. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 49)? A. Acyclovir B. Kremgen C. Mifungar D. * Econazole E. Latycort 127. The disease from photo (Fig. 49) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. Sexually transmitted infection D. * Fungal infection E. Bacterial infection 128. Based on the photo (Fig. 50) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular psoriasis B. Scabies C. * Folliculonodular rubrophytosis D. Microsporia of the skin E. Osteal follicululitis 129. The disease from photo (Fig. 50) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. Sexually transmitted infection D. * Fungal infection E. Bacterial infection 130. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 50)? A. Acyclovir B. Kremgen C. * Mifungar D. Prednisolon E. Betasalyc 131. Based on the photo (Fig. 51) chooses diagnosis: A. Exudative psoriasis B. * Anthropophilic microsporia C. Contact dermatitis D. Bullous impetigo E. Pemphigus vulgaris 132. The disease from photo (Fig. 51) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 133. What type of ointment you must prescribe for this patient with disease from photo (Fig. 51)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. * Antifungal D. Corticosteroid E. With salicylic acid 134. What symptom is characterized for this disease from photo (Fig. 51)? A. “Mouth eaten” B. * All are wrong C. “Woronow ring” D. “Koebner phenomenon” E. “Bolter symptom” 135. The causative agent of the disease from photo (Fig. 51) is: A. Epidermophyton B. Malassezia furfur C. * Microsporum D. Trichophyton E. All are wrong 136. Based on the photo (Fig. 52) chooses diagnosis: A. Nail lichen planus B. Nail psoriasis C. * Onychomycosis, atrophic variant D. Eczema E. Congenital keratoderma 137. Disease from the photo (Fig. 52) can be: A. Normotrophic B. Hypertrophic C. Atrophic D. All are wrong E. * All are correct 138. How many types of the disease from photo (Fig. 52) you know? A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. * 3 E. 2 139. The disease from photo (Fig. 52) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 140. Based on the photo (Fig. 53) chooses diagnosis: A. Osteal follicululitis B. * Infiltrativepurulent trichophytosis of the scalp C. Limited neurodermatitis D. Carbuncle E. Favus 141. The disease from photo (Fig. 53) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. * Fungal infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 142. What symptom is characterized for this disease from photo (Fig. 53)? A. “Mouth eaten” B. All are wrong C. “Woronow ring” D. “Koebner phenomenon” E. * “Bolter symptom” 143. Based on the photo (Fig. 54) chooses diagnosis: A. Nail psoriasis B. Nail lichen planus C. * Candidal paronychia D. Congenital keratoderma E. Eczema 144. The disease from photo (Fig. 54) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 145. Causative agent of the disease on photo (Fig. 54) is: A. Pubic lice B. * Candida albicans C. Treponema pallidum D. Scabies mite E. Herpes virus infection 146. Based on the photo (Fig. 55) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis B. * Zoophilic microsporia C. Contact dermatitis D. Bullous impetigo E. Lichen planus 147. This “Stamp symptom” from photo (Fig. 55) is characterized for: A. Trichophytia B. Dermatophytia C. Rubrophitia D. Syphilis E. * Zoophilic microsporia 148. What type of ointment you must prescribe for this patient with disease from photo (Fig. 55)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. * Antifungal D. Corticosteroid E. With salicylic acid 149. The disease from photo (Fig. 56) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 150. What type of ointment you must prescribe for this patient with disease from photo (Fig. 56)? A. Antibiotic B. Viral C. * Antifungal D. Corticosteroid E. With salicylic acid 151. Based on the photo (Fig. 57) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis B. * Tinea capitis C. Primary Syphilis D. Bullous impetigo E. Lichen planus 152. Based on the photo (Fig. 57) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular psoriasis B. * Superficial tinea capitis C. Favus D. Impetigo vulgaris E. Pemphigus erythematous 153. Based on the photo (Fig. 57) chooses diagnosis: A. Osteal follicululitis B. * Tinea capitis C. Limited neurodermatitis D. Carbuncle E. Favus 154. Based on the photo (Fig. 58) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis B. * Tinea C. Impetigo bullous D. Pemphigus erythematous E. Wart 155. The disease from photo (Fig. 58) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 156. Based on the photo (Fig. 59) chooses diagnosis: A. Nail lichen planus B. * Onychomycosis, hypertrophic variant C. Nail psoriasis D. Eczema E. Congenital keratoderma 157. The disease from photo (Fig. 59) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 158. Based on the photo (Fig. 60) chooses diagnosis: A. Nail lichen planus B. Nail psoriasis C. Eczema D. Congenital keratoderma E. * Onychomycosis, atrophic variant 159. The disease from photo (Fig. 60) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 160. How many types of the disease from photo (Fig. 60) you know? A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. * 3 E. 2 161. Based on the photo (Fig. 61) chooses diagnosis: A. Geographical psoriasis B. Scabies C. * Pituriasis versicolor D. Rubrophytosis corporis E. Dermatitis 162. The disease from photo (Fig. 61) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 163. The main complaints of patients with the disease from the photo (Fig. 61) include: A. Severe pain B. * Asymptomatic C. Hard itch D. Enlargement of lymphatic nodes E. Fever 164. Based on the photo (Fig. 62) chooses diagnosis: A. Nummular dermatitis B. Eczema C. Erythrasma D. * Tinea cruris E. Exudative psoriasis 165. The disease from photo (Fig. 62) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 166. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 62)? A. Acyclovir B. Kremgen C. Mifungar D. * Econazole E. Latycort 167. What orally drug must take patient with disease from photo (Fig. 63)? A. * Orungal B. Dexamethazone C. Valtrex D. Phencarol E. Azitromycine 168. Based on the photo (Fig. 64) chooses diagnosis: A. Osteal follicululitis B. Sycosis vulgaris C. Dermatitis D. * Infiltrativepurulent trichophytosis of the beard zone E. Tuberculosis cutis colliquvativa 169. The disease from photo (Fig. 64) is: A. Viral infection B. * Fungal infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 170. Based on the photo (Fig. 65) chooses diagnosis: A. Rubrophytosis corporis B. * Zoophilic micrisporia C. Contact dermatitis D. Bullous impetigo E. Lichen planus 171. What symptom is characterized for this disease from photo (Fig. 65)? A. “Mouth eaten” B. * “Stamp symptom” C. “Woronow ring” D. “Koebner phenomenon” E. “Bolter symptom” 172. The disease from photo (Fig. 65) is: A. Viral infection B. * Fungal infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 173. Based on the photo (Fig. 66) chooses diagnosis: A. * Pituriasis versicolor B. Contact dermatitis C. Syphilis D. Impetigo vulgaris E. Lichen planus 174. The disease from photo (Fig. 66) is: A. Viral infection B. * Fungal infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 175. The clinical picture of the disease from photo (Fig. 66) is: A. Well demarcated, indurate plaque B. Flaccid bulla C. * Macula D. Nodule E. Ulcer 176. The disease from photo (Fig. 66) is: A. Viral infection B. * Fungal infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 177. Based on the photo (Fig. 67) chooses diagnosis: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. * Candidiasis of the groin C. Tinea of the groin D. Erythrasma E. Dermatitis 178. The disease from photo (Fig. 67) is: A. Parasitogenic infection B. Viral infection C. * Fungal infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 179. Based on the photo (Fig. 68) chooses diagnosis: A. * Tinea capitis B. Osteal follicululitis C. Limited neurodermitis D. Carbuncle E. Pemphigus erythematous 180. The disease from photo (Fig. 68) is: A. Parasitogenic infection B. Viral infection C. * Fungal infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 181. Based on the photo (Fig. 69) chooses diagnosis: A. Psoriasis of the scalp B. Contact dermatitis C. Eczema D. * Tinea capitis E. Seborrheal dermatitis 182. The disease from photo (Fig. 69) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 183. Based on the photo (Fig. 70) chooses diagnosis: A. Toxicodermia B. Scabies C. * Pituriasis versicolor D. Rubrophytosis corporis E. Dermatitis 184. The disease from photo (Fig. 70) is: A. * Fungal infection B. Viral infection C. Parasitogenic infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 185. Skin lesions of the disease from photo (Fig. 70) are: A. Nodules B. Fissures C. * Macula's D. Erosions E. Excoriations 186. The main complaints of patients with the disease from the photo (Fig. 70) include: A. Severe pain B. * Asymptomatic C. Hard itch D. Enlargement of lymphatic nodes E. Fever 187. Based on the photo (Fig. 71) chooses diagnosis: A. Pustular psoriasis B. * Rubrophytia of the face C. Atopic dermatitis D. Impetigo vulgaris E. Contact dermatitis 188. The disease from photo (Fig. 71) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. * Fungal infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 189. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 73)? A. * Lamycon B. Acyclovir C. Carboderm D. Zovirax E. Spregal 190. What ointment you must prescribe for the patient with disease from photo (Fig. 74)? A. Orungal B. Dexamethazone C. Valtrex D. * Nizoral E. Azitromycine 191. Based on the photo (Fig. 75) chooses diagnosis: A. Exudative psoriasis B. * Tinea cruris C. Eczema D. Erythrasma E. Contact dermatitis 192. The disease from photo (Fig. 75) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. * Fungal infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 193. Based on the photo (Fig. 76) chooses diagnosis: A. Contact dermatitis B. * Pituriasis versicolor C. Atopic dermatitis D. Toxicodermia E. Syphilis 194. The disease from photo (Fig. 76) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. * Fungal infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection 195. What is the disease on the photo (Fig. 76)? A. Syphilis B. Contact dermatitis C. * Pituriasis versicolor D. Atopic dermatitis E. Toxicodermia 196. Treatment of the disease from the photo (Fig. 76) includes: A. * Itraconazole B. H1 antihistamines C. Leukotriene blockers D. H2 antihistamines E. Steroids 197. The main complaints of patients with the disease from the photo (Fig. 76) include: A. Severe pain B. * Asymptomatic C. Hard itch D. Enlargement of lymphatic nodes E. Fever 198. The sites of choice of the disease from the photo (Fig. 76) are: A. Upper part of the trunk B. Upper parts of the arms C. Neck D. Forehead and cheeks E. * All are correct 199. The disease from photo (Fig. 76) is: A. Viral infection B. Parasitogenic infection C. * Fungal infection D. Sexually transmitted infection E. Bacterial infection
