Download Answer all the questions (100) on scantron cards. Please return

Answer all the questions (100) on scantron cards. Please return scantron cards and
Question sheet. Time allowed: 2 hours.
1. Who proved that that microorganisms cause disease?
a. Redi
b. Leeuwenhoek c. Koch d. Hooke
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Lister------------------------------ Septic Surgery
Koch---------------------------------Spontaneous generation theory
Pasteur----------------------------- Proof of Biogenesis
Van Leeuwenhoek-----------------Microscope
3. This microscope amplifies differences in refractive index to create contrast and
make unstained cells more readily visible.
a. Transmission Electron Microscope
c. Phase Contrast Microscope
b. Scanning Electron Microscope
d. Interference Microscope
In light Microscopy…
Light passes through a specimen then through a series of magnifying lenses
An electron beam produces the magnified image
A sharp metallic probe causes electrons to tunnel between the probe and a
conductive surface.
d. A tip bends in response to even the slightest force between it & the sample.
4.
a.
b.
c.
5. In this microscope, mirrors scan a laser beam across successive regions and
planes of a specimen. From that information, a computer construct an image
a. Confocal Microscope
b. Transmission electron microscope
c. Atomic force microscope
d. Scanning electron Microscope
6. In this microscope, a beam of electrons scans back & forth over the surface of a
specimen.
a. Confocal microscope
c. Atomic Force Microscope
b. Transmission Electron Microscope
d. Scanning Electron Microscope
7. All the following are true about Archae except
a. The Archae have the same shape, size and appearance as the bacteria
b. Like the bacteria, the Archae multiply by binary fission
c. The Archae have peptidoglycan as part of their cell wall
d. Like the bacteria, the Archae move primarily by means of flagella.
8.
Which cellular structure is important in classifying a bacterial species as
Gram-positive or Gram-negative?
a. Flagella b. cell wall c. Cilia
d. Glycocalyx
9. Which of the following is not associated with prokaryotic organisms?
a. cell wall b. flagella c. Glycocalyx d. Nuclear membrane
10. Nucleoids are associated with…
a. Prokaryotes b. Eukaryotes c. Prions d. Viruses
11. Which of the following are eukaryotes?
1. algae 2. Viruses 3. bacteria 4. Protozoa
a. 1,2
b. 2,4
c. 1,3
d. 1,4
12. A capsule enables these bacteria to adhere to specific surfaces or thwart innate
defense systems that otherwise protect against infection. Which of the following
bacteria possess a capsule?
a. Streptococcus mutans c. a and b
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. none of the above
13. The role of RNA in protein synthesis is
a. To deliver anticodons to the ribosome and attach them to the correct amino acids
thereby aligning codons for assembly into protein.
b. To deliver codon to the amino acids thereby aligning ribosomes for assembly into
protein.
c. To deliver ribosomes to the amino acids, thereby aligning anticodon for assembly
into proteins.
d. None of the above….
14. Lysozyme, an enzyme found in many body fluids
a. Breaks the bond that maintains the structural integrity of the glycan chain, the
backbone of the peptidoglycan molecule
b. Breaks the bond that maintains the structural integrity of the peptide chain, the
backbone of the peptidoglycan molecule
c. Prevents the cross linking of adjacent glycan chains
15. Endotoxins are associated with
a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteria c. Plasma cell d. None of the
above
16. Which of the following stains is used to detect Mycoplasma species?
a. acid-fast stain b. Gram stain c. ALL of the above d. None of the above
17. A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called a
a. Viroid b. prion c. virion d. phage
18. The Polio Virus is a?
a. RNA virus b. DNA Virus c. Retrovirus d. NONE of the above
19. Which of the following is a retrovirus?
a. Chicken Pox Virus b. Polio Virus c. Herpes simplex virus d. HIV
20. Capsids are composed of
a. DNA b. RNA c. Proteins d. Polysaccharides
21. All phages must have the ability to
1. Have their nucleic acid enter the host cell
2. Multiply in the absence of living bacteria
3. Have their nucleic acid replicate in the host cell
4. Kill the host cell
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 1,4 D. do ALL of the above
22. The agent that contains no nucleic acid is a
a. Virus b. Prion c. Viroid d. Bacterium
23. A viroid is?
a. Provirus b. An infectious protein c. A non-enveloped infectious piece of RNA
b. d. A capsid without nucleic acid
24. Algal blooms of dinoflagellates are commonly known as
a. diplomonad b. Kinetoplastids c. viruses d. Red tides
25. In which of the following groups would you find members producing some the
most potent non-protein poison known?
a. Protozoa b. Algae c. Helminthes d. Fungi
26. All members of this group are single-celled
a. Protozoa b. Algae c. Helminths d. Fungi
27. All the following are protozoa of medical importance except
a. taxoplasma b. Giardia c. Schistosoma d. Plasmodium
28. Branched tubular filaments with crosswalls found in fungi are
a. Septae hyphae b. Aseptae hyphae c. dimorphic mycelia d. NONE of the above
29. All fungi have----- in their cell wall
a. Cellulose b. Pectin c. Peptidoglycan d. chitin
30. Mosquitoes are the insect that transmit the Flavivirus responsible for
a. Scabies b. Yellow Fever c. Malaria d. Equine Encephalitis
31. Which of the following infectious agents cause typhus?
a. togavirus b. Flavivirus c. Yersinia pestis d. Rickettsia Prowazekii
32. Sarcoptes scabies, the infectious agent causing scabies is caused by
a. Ticks b. Fleas c. Mites d. Lice
33. The mosquito Anopheles is a
a. Biological vector b. Transcendent Vector c. Mechanical vector d. NONE of the
above
34. Which of the following helminthes would cause fever, swelling of upper eyelids,
muscle soreness?
a. Schistosoma Mansoni b. Ascaris Lumbricoides c. Trichenella spiralis
d. Taenia Solium
35. Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of hookworm disease?
a. Anal Itching, irritability, nervousness, poor sleep
b. Skin Rash at site of penetration, cough, abdominal pains, weight loss
c. Fever, swelling of lymph glands, genitals, and extremities
d. Anemia, weakness, fatigue, physical & intellectual disability in children
36. Which of the following organism is likely to be transmitted via contaminated
pork?
a. Taenia Saginata b. Taenia Solium c. Enterobius vermicularis d. Ascaris
lumbricoides
37. Which of the following best describes the disinfection of cafeteria plates?
a. Pasteurization b. Sterilization c. Antiseptic d. Sanitization
38. Solutions of chlorine are widely used to
a. Disinfect innate objects, drinking water and waste water
b. Degerm skin in preparation for procedure that break intact skin
c. Prevent eye infection in newborn
d. To preserve food
39. This disinfectant is highly effective against S. aureus but it’s use is limited
because it can cause neurological damage.
a. Quats b. formalin c. Hexachlorophene d. Silver nitrate
40. Physical control of microorganisms encompasses all the following except
a. Heat Treatment b. radiation c. Biguanides d. Filtration
41. Decontamination is the
a. Treatment used to reduce the number of disease causing microbes to a level that is
considered safe to handle
b. Chemical used to destroy many microorganisms & viruses
c. Process that eliminates most of all disease causing microorganisms and virus’ in a
product
d. Process of inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in products to delay spoilage
42. Unlike a disinfectant. An antiseptic
a. Sanitizes an object rather than sterilize them
b. Is non-toxic enough to be used on human skin
c. Destroy all microorganisms
d. Require heat to be effective
43. High concentration of salt & sugar in food
a. Are useful in preserving the food
b. Tend to draw water out of the cell
c. Tend to force water into a cell, causing plasmolysis
d. A and B
44. The C5a peptidase enzyme of Streptococcus pyogenes breaks down C5a,
resulting in:
a. Lysis of phagocytes
b. Lack of opsonization of streptococcus cells
c. Decreased accumulation of phagocytes
d. Lysis of streptococcus cells
45. All the following are true of A- B toxins, except
a. The portion A is an enzyme
b. The B portion is responsible for the toxic properties
c. They are exotoxins
d. The B portion binds to host cells and allows the toxin to enter the cell
46. Superantigens are
a. Endotoxins that link MHC class II protein to the plasma membrane
b. Endotoxins that attach to the outside of MHC class I proteins
c. Exotoxins that attach to the outside of MHC class II proteins
d. NONE of the above
47. Successful pathogens have the ability to carry out a number of steps essential for
their virulence and their survival, these include:
a. Transmission of the causative agent to a susceptible host and adherence of the
agent to a target tissue
b. Damage to the host by the activities of toxins or other mechanisms
c. Exit from the host and survived long enough for steps to occur
d. ALL of the above
48. The activation of the Complement System leads to?
a. inflammation b. opsonization c. Lysis of foreign cell d. ALL of the above
49. Toll like receptors are
a. low molecular weight proteins made by certain cells as a mechanism to
communicate with other cells
b. Surface receptors that enable certain cells to “see” molecules that signify the
presence of microorganisms or virus’
c. Proteins that circulate constantly in the blood and the fluid that bathes tissues
d. None of the above
50. Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
a. neutrophils b. lymphocytes c. erythrocytes d. eosinophils
51. The most important function of this group of glycoprotein called……. Is to
prepare cells in the vicinity of a virally infected cell to cease protein synthesis in
the event they become infected with a virus themselves
a. Interleukins b. antibodies c. tumor necrosis factors d. Interferons
52. Which markers are found on all nucleated cells
a. MHC class I molecules b. MHC class II molecules c. CD4 d. CD8
53. Which of the following are examples of an antigen presenting cells (APCs)?
1. Macrophages 2. neutrophils 3. dendritic cells 4. T cells
a. 1, 2 b. 1,3 c. 1,4 d. ALL of the above
54. Which of the following is not a granulocyte
a. Eosinophil b. Basophil c. Macrophage d. neutrophil
55. The immune system normally discriminates between ______ antigens
a. B & T cells b. Self and non-self c. humoral and cell-mediated d. NONE of the
above
56. Glycoproteins molecules, also called immunoglobulins, are
a. immune complex b. antigens c. antibodies d. None of the above
57. All antibody molecules
a. Consist of heavy & light polypeptide chains
b. Can fix complement
c. Can cross the placenta of the fetus
d. May be secreted unto mucus membranes
58. The antibody response is often called the humoral response because
a. The antibodies are found cell-free in blood and other body fluids that used to be
called humor
b. Of the involvement of T Cells
c. The antigen-producing cells provide the stimuli required for the activation of T
cells
d. Of all of the above reasons
59. Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer?
a. IgD b. lgA c. IgM d. IgG
60. All the following are true of IgE except
a. IgE attaches to most cells basophils
b. Antigens react with cell-bound IgE to release granules content such as histamine
c. IgE is involve in many allergic reactions
d. IgE act as an antigen receptor on B cells
61. Almost all antibodies in a newborn is are
a. The result of infection b. Self made c. IgM d. The result of passive immunity
62. Attenuated agents are
a. Dead Virus’ b. Toxins c. Weakened live organisms d. Parts of organisms
63. Toxoids are used in vaccines against
a. HIV B. Diphtheria c. Polio d. Herpes simplex type I
64. A positive tuberculin skin test
a. Does not necessarily mean that person has tuberculosis
b. Indicates that person has been infected by M tuberculosis at some point in the past
c. Answers (a) and (b) are correct
d. Answers (a) and (b) are false
65. The immunoglobulin class that mediates type I hypersensitivity is
a. IgG b. IgA c. IgE d. IgM and IgG
66. A deficiency of both B cells and T cells is most likely
a. A secondary immunodeficiency b. An induced immunodeficiency c. A primary
immunodeficiency d. ALL of the above
67. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example of
a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
68. All of the following are autoimmune diseases, except
a. Rheumatoid Arthritis b. Serum Sickness c. Systemic Lupus d. autoimmune
hemolytic anema
69. Newly emerging diseases
a. may be due to changing lifestyles b. may reflect microbial evolution
c. may reflect a breakdown in sanitation/ social order
d. A, B, and C
70. Morbidity is
a. Most often expressed as a rate of illness in a given population at risk
b. Most often expressed as a rate of death in a given population at risk
c. A phenomenon that occurs when a critical concentration of immune hosts
prevents the spread of an infectious agent
d. Calculated as the number of causes of illness in a given period of time divided by
the population at risk
71. Diseases that can be transmitted from one host to another are known as
a. Contagious diseases b. Communicable diseases c. non-communicable diseases d.
A and B
72. All the following pathogens have an environmental reservoir except
a. Clostridium botulinum b. Clostridium tetani c. Legionella pneumophila d.
Campylobacter jejuni
73. The target (s) of sulfonamide is/ are
a. Folic Acid Synthesis b. Cytoplasmic membrane proteins c. RNA polymerase d.
Gyrase
74. All the following interfere with the function of ribosome, except
a. tetracyclines b. Chloramphenicol c. aminoglycosides d. Fluoroquinolones
75. Penicillin ….
A. Is most effective against Mycoplasma
B. Is most effective against Gram-negative bacteria
C. Is most effective against Gram-positive bacteria
D. Functions in cytoplasm of cell
76. An ___________________ is considered a minor genetic change responsible for
the seasonal flu
a. Antigenic drift
b. Antigenic shift
c. Osmosis
d. Crossing over
77. Which of the following is not a mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance?
a. drug enters cell and efflux pumps injects it in the cytoplasm
b. drug enters the cell but efflux pumps ejects it
c. Porin proteins prevent entry to the cell
d. Drug cannot bind targets
78. Which of the following is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola) than
German measles (Rubella)?
a. It causes only a mild illness b. It causes birth defects c. Koplik spots are present
b. Human beings are the only natural host
79. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by
a. Candida albicans b. Borrelia Burgdorferi c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Rickettsia Rickettsii
80. Lyme disease is characterized by
a. Erythma migrans
b. massive diarrhea
c. ulceration of the liver
d. none of the above
81. Which of the following conditions is not caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
a. impetigo b. Toxic shock syndrome c. cholera d. hair follicle infections
82. The main effects Staphylococcus protein A is to
a. Interfere with Phagocytosis b. enhance the attachment of the Fc portion of
antibody to Phagocytes c. Kill red blood cells d. coagulate plasma
83. Which of the following is responsible for the wide spread epidemics that are
characteristic of influenza A viruses?
a. antigenic shift & antigenic drift b. spelunker’s agent c. gastritis agent
d. NONE of the above
84. Cocciodiodomycosis is ….
a. Also called “Valley fever” b. A bacterial infection of the lung c. (a) & (b)
d. NONE of the Above
85. All of the following are infections of the lower respiratory system, except
a. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome b. Whooping cough c. Streptococcal
pharyngitis d. Mycoplasmal pneumonia
86. Which of the following is not a factor for the virulence of Streptococcus pyogenes?
a. Protein F b. Protein A c. Hyaluronic Acid d. C5a peptidase
87. All the following are false about Klebsiella pneumonia, except
a. It causes death to tissue and rapid formation of lung abscesses
b. It usually does not require hospitalization
c. Penicillin is ineffective for treatment
d. It is the leading cause of pneumonia in college students
88. All of the following are true about Helicobacter pylori, except
a. It is a bacteria with sheathed flagella
b. It is a ciliated protozoa
c. It produces a powerful urease
d. It has an important role in the causation of stomach ulcers
89. Dental carries is caused principally by
a. Streptococcus agalactiae b. Streptococcus equi c. Streptococcus mutans d.
NONE of the above
90. All of the following are true about diphtheria, except
a. The causative organism typically invades the blood stream
b. Immunization with a toxoid prevents the disease
c. A membrane that forms in the throat can cause suffocation
d. An A-B toxin is formed
91. Mumps is
a. An acute viral disease illness that preferentially attacks glands such as Parotids
b. An acute bacterial illness that preferentially attacks glands such as the parotids
c. An acute protozoan illness that preferentially attacks glands such as the parotids
d. None of the above
92. All of the following are protozoan diseases of the lower alimentary system, except
a. Ascariasis b. Cyclosporiasis c. Cryptosporidiosis d. Giardiasis
93. Giardiasis is
a. A disease resulting from a flagellated protozoa
b. A disease resulting from a ciliated protozoa
c. A disease resulting from non-mobile protozoa
d. NONE of the above
94. All the following are non-venereal genital diseases, except
a. Bacterial Vaginosis b. Staphylococcal Toxic shock syndrome c. Vulvovaginal
candidiassis d. Trichomoniasis
95. All the following are bacterial diseases of the genitourinary tract, except
a. Chlamydia b. Chancroid c. trichomoniasis d. Syphilis
96. Which of the following is not a manifestation of secondary syphilis?
a. Hard Chancre b. Aches, pain, sore throats c. Runny nose and watery eyes d. rash
that includes palms & soles
97. All the following are true about cystitis, except
a. a bladder infection
b. It is common among otherwise healthy women
c. It is caused in 80-90 % cases by Serratia species
d. It is common nosocomial infection
98. Which of the following is true about HIV?
a. The virus can attack a variety of cells, but most critically the T-Helper
Cells
b. The virus attaches on cells that possess the CD4 antigen
c. Following the entry of the virus, a DNA copy is made using reverse
transcriptase
d. ALL of the above statements are true about HIV
99. Which of the following is false about lepromatous leprosy?
a. It is rarely contagious
b. It is used by an acid fast bacterium
c. It is caused by Mycobacterium leprae
d. The bacteria can readily be transmitted to others
100. The plasmodium life cycle is complex. In the human host, sporozoites, the
infectious form injected by the mosquito, are carried by the blood stream to
a. Liver b. the spleen c. The Erythrocytes d. The Lung