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Nicolae Testemitsanu State University of Medicine and Pharmacy Department of Topographic Anatomy and Operative Surgery 192, Stefan cel Mare Blvd Chisinau, MD-2004 Republic of Moldova Tel.: 37322-205209 Tel/fax: 37322-295384 To: year 2, semester 4 TESTS Course in Topographical Anatomy Upper limb Infraclavicular region 1. Boundaries of the infraclavicular region are: Inferior border of the major pectoral muscle Edge of the sternum Anterior border of the deltoid muscle Clavicle The III rib 2. Pus gathering in the deep subpectoral space may spread immediately to: Coracohumeral ligament Entire axillary cavity Superficial subpectoral space Toracoacromial artery All the answers are correct 3. Deep subpectoral space is located between: Pectoral fascia Major pectoral muscle Clavipectoral fascia Minor pectoral muscle Deep lamina of the clavipectoral fascia 4. Incision on the posterior margin of deltoid muscle can impair the abduction of the arm because of injury of the: Brachial plexus Suprascapular nerves and the long head of the triceps muscle Axillary nerve Musculocutaneous nerve Radial nerve 5. In the fracture of the surgical neck of the humeral bone the following can be injured: Long head of the brachial biceps muscle Circumflex posterior humeral artery Axillary nerve Radial nerve Median nerve 6. Posterior wall of the axillary cavity is made of: Pectoral major and minor muscles Subscapular muscle Teres major and minor muscles Latissimus dorsi muscle Long head of the brachial triceps muscle 7. Through the quadrilateral foramen of the posterior wall of the axillary cavity passes: Axillary artery Subscapular nerve Circumflex scapular artery Axillary nerve Circumflex posterior humeral artery 8. Through the trilateral foramen of the posterior wall of the axillary cavity passes: Subscapular artery Subscapular nerve Circumflex scapular artery Circumflex posterior humeral artery and axillary nerve Toracodorsal artery 9. In the clavipectoral triangle the syntopy of the neurovascular bundle regarding the axillary artery is: Medially – the cephalic vein Medially - axillary vein Laterally – brachial plexus Medially – the medial fascicle of the brachial plexus Laterally – the lateral fascicle of the brachial plexus 10. In the pectoral triangle the following branches start from the axillary artery: Superior thoracic artery Thoracoacromial artery Lateral thoracic artery Circumflex posterior humeral artery Circumflex scapular artery 11. In the subpectoral triangle the following branches start from the axillary artery: Lateral thoracic artery Circumflex anterior humeral artery Circumflex posterior humeral artery Subscapular artery Thoracoacromial artery 12. Collateral circulation will be more efficient if the ligature of the axillary artery will be placed: Distally to the circumflex humeral posterior artery Proximally to the lateral thoracic artery Proximally to the subscapular artery Distally to the subscapular artery The ligature is not allowed 13. Critical area of the main arterial trunk of the upper limb is between: Anterior circumflex humeral artery Toracoacromial artery Posterior circumflex humeral artery Subscapular artery Deep brachial artery 14. Scapular arterial anastomosis is made mainly by: Scapular branch of the thoracodorsal artery Subscapular artery Scapular circumflex artery Suprascapular artery Descending branch of transversa colli artery 15. Dislocation of the humerus occures mostly when there is a lack or subdevelopment of: Coracohumeral ligament Coracoacromial ligament Tendon of the long head of the brachial biceps musle Medial glenohumeral ligament Superior glenohumeral ligament 16. Next muscles are attached to the scapula and its epiphyses: Pectoral major Supraspinal, infraspinal Trapezius, rhomboid, subscapular, serratus anterior, teres minor and major Pectoral minor, long head brachial biceps, long head of the brachial triceps Levator scapulae, omohyoid, deltoid, coracobrachial 17. Foramen quadrilaterum is delimited by: M. coracobrahialis M. subscapularis and teres minor M. terez major Surgical neck of the humeral bone Long head of m. triceps brachii 18. Trilateral orifice is delimited by: M. coracobrahialis M. subscapularis and teres minor M. teres major Surgical neck of the humeral bone Long head of m. triceps brachii 19. Projection of a. axillaris is at the line: On the inferior border of m. pectoralis major Between processus coracoideus of the medial epicondyle of the humerus Between anterior and middle third of axillary fossa Between middle and posterior third of axillary fossa On the midway between m. pectoralis major and m. latissimus dorsi 20. External rotation in the shoulder joint is provided by: M. supraspinosus M. infraspinosus 2 M. teres minor M. subscapularis M. teres major 21. Internal rotation in the shoulder joint is provided by: M. supraspinosus M. infraspinosus M. teres minor M. subscapularis M. teres major 22. Proximal third of the anterior fascial lodge of the brachial region contains: M. triceps brachii, n. radialis M. biceps brachii, m. coracobrachialis, m. brachialis A., v. brachialis, n. medianus, n. musculocutaneus N. ulnaris M. teres minor 23. Middle third of the posterior fascial lodge of the brachial region contains: M. triceps brachii N. radialis A. profunda brachii N. musculocutaneus A. collateralis ulnaris superior 24. Determine which of the statements are true: N. radialis can be injured at fracture of the humerus in the middle third N. radialis passes through canalis humeromuscularis Ligature of the a. brachialis is better to be performed proximally to a. profunda brachii N. ulnaris in the inferior third of the brachial region is situated in the posterior fascial lodge N. radialis ramifies in the middle third of the forearm 25. Distal third of the anterior fascial lodge of the brachial region contains: M. coracobrachialis, n. radialis, v. basilica Long head of m. biceps brachii, n. cutaneus brachialis lateralis M. biceps brachii, m. brachialis, a. and v. brachialis, a. collateralis ulnaris inferior N. medianus, n. musculocutaneus N. cutaneus brachii medialis, n. cutaneus antebrachii medialis 26. Arterial net of the elbow joint region is formed by anastomoses between: A. brachialis and a. ulnaris A. radialis and a. ulnaris A. collateralis ulnaris superior and a. recurrens ulnaris posterior A. collateralis radialis and a. recurens radialis A. collateralis ulnaris inferior and a. recurens ulnaris anterior 27. Syntopy of the main brachial neurovascular bundle in the middle third is: N. ulnaris lies in the sheath of the brachial bundle A. brachialis is surrounded by two brachial veins N. medianus lies anteriorly or sometimes posteriorly to the a. brachialis N. medianus lies medially to the brachial artery V. basilica lies into the sheath of the brachial bundle 28. Syntopy of the main brachial neurovascular bundle in the inferior third is: N. ulnaris lies in the sheath of the brachial bundle A. brachialis is surrounded by two brachial veins N. medianus lies anteriorly or sometimes posteriorly to the a. brachialis N. medianus lies medially to the brachial artery V. basilica lies into the sheath of the brachial bundle 29. Through canalis humeromuscularis passes: N. axilaris A. circumflexa humeri posterioar N. musculocutanateus N. radialis A. profunda brachii 30. Fracture of the humeral bone proximally to the insertion of m. deltoideus results in that the: Proximal fragment is externally rotated under the action of m. infraspinatus and teres minor Proximal fragment is displaced laterally under the action of m. supraspinatus Proximal fragment is displaced medially under the action of mm. teres and pectoralis major Distal fragment is displaced laterally and superiorly under the action of m. deltoideus Distal fragment is displaced medially under the action of m. biceps brachialis 31. Fracture of the humeral bone distally to the insertion of m. deltoideus results in that the: Proximal fragment is externally rotated under the action of m. infraspinatus and teres minor Proximal fragment is displaced antero-laterally under the action of m. deltoideus Proximal fragment is displaced medially under the action of m. teres major and pectoralis major Distal fragment is displaced laterally and superiorly under the action of m. deltoideus Distal fragment is displaced posterior and medially under the action of m. biceps and triceps 3 32. From the medial epicondyle of the humerus begin the following muscles: M. pronator teres, m. palmaris longus M. flexor carpi radialis, m. flexor carpi ulnaris Flexor digitorum superficialis M. flexor digitorum profundus M. flexor pollicis longus 33. From the lateral epicondyle of the humerus begin the following muscles: M. extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis M. extensor digitorum, m. extensor carpi ulnaris M. supinator, m. anconeus M. abductor policis longus M. extensor policis longus 34. In the groove formed by the medial humeral epicondyle and olecranon are situated: N. ulnaris A. collateralis ulnaris superioar A. collateralis ulnaris inferioar A. recurens ulnaris anterioar A. profunda brachii 35. What passes through the supinator canal? Radial nerve Deep branch of the radial nerve together with the radial collateral artery Deep branch of the radial nerve Posterior interosseous nerve of the forearm Radial artery 36. Projection of the ulnar neurovascular bundle on the forearm is the line that connects: Tendon of m. biceps brachii Processus styloideus of the ulna Medial epicondyle of the humerus Pisiform bone Olecranon 37. Adipose space of Paron-Pirogov on the forearm is delimited by: Deep flexor of the fingers Long flexor of the policis Superficial flexor of the fingers Interosseous membrane Pronator quadratus 38. Neurovascular bundle of the posterior region of the forearm is formed by: Posterior branch of n. interosseous Deep branch of the radial nerve Posterior interosseous artery and two interosseous veins Radial artery Posterior artery of the forearm 39. What is the manifestation of the supinatory canal syndrome: Diminished skin sensibility of the anterior-lateral region of the forearm Diminished skin sensibility of the posterior region of the forearm Diminished force of extension of the hand and fingers Inability to flex the hand and fingers Ischemia of the tissues of the posterior region of the forearm 40. Projection of the radial neurovascular bundle on the forearm is the line between: Tendon of biceps brachii muscle Middle of the cubital fold Styloid process of the radius Lateral epicondyl of the humerus Scaphoid bone 41. Line of projection of the median nerve on the forearm connects: Tendon of the biceps brachii muscle Middle of the cubital fossa Middle point between the styloid processes of radius and ulna Medial epicondyl of the humerus It is middle between the tendon of the m. flexor carpi radialis and m. palmaris longus 42. Projection of the radial nerve in the brachial region is the line that connects: Posterior margin of the deltoid muscle Inferior third of the lateral bicipital groove Greater tubercle of the humerus Lateral epicondyl of the humerus Inferior third of the medial bicipital groove 43. Projection of the brachial artery is the line that connects: Great tubercle of the humeral bone Medial epicondyl of the humeral bone Coracoid process 4 It corresponds to the medial bicipital groove (sulcus bicipitalis medialis) Middle between the medial epicondyl of the humerus and tendon of the biceps muscle 44. In the mesothenar fascial lodge can be found: Tendons of the superficial flexor and deep of the fingers muscles Ulnar nerve Median nerve and superficial arterial palmar arch Subaponeurotic cellular space, subtendinous cellular space Tendon of flexor policis muscle 45. Indicate possible ways of spreading of the pus from the subaponeurotic space of the mesothenar fascial compartment: Along neurovascular bundles of the finger to the subcutaneous finger tissue Along the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and artery into subtendineous space On the way of the carpal canal to the forearm Along the lumbrical muscles to dorsal region of the hand Along the deep palmer arch to dorsal part of the hand 46. Carpal canal contains: Ulnar nerve Superficial branch of the radial nerve Tendons of the superficial and deep flexor muscles of fingers Tendon of the long flexor muscle of the thumb Median nerve 47. Median nerve compression syndrome in the carpal canal is determined by: Localization of the nerve between dense fibrous structures with low stretchability Total lesion of the median nerve Limitrophe localization of the pisiform bone Thickening of the carpal volar ligament Thickness of the median nerve 48. Carpi-ulnar canal (of Guyon) contains: Tendon of the flexor carpi ulnar muscle Ulnar artery and vein Ulnar nerve Tendon of the m. flexor digiti minimi All answers are true 49. Carpi-radial canal contains: Radial artery and vein Radial nerve Tendon of the flexor carpi radial muscle Medial nerve Superficial branch of the radial nerve 50. Ulnar synovial bursa contains the tendons of: Superficial flexor of the fingers Carpi radial flexor Deep flexor of the fingers Long flexor of the thumb Carpi ulnar flexor 51. Articular line of the metacarpophalangeal joint is distal from the prominence of the metacarpal bone head at a distance of: 2 mm 4 mm 6 mm 8 mm 10 mm 52. Articular line of the proximal interphalangeal joint is distal from the prominence of the phalanx head at a distance of: 2 mm 4 mm 6 mm 8 mm 10 mm 56. Articular line of the distal interphalangeal joint is distal from the prominence of the phalanx head at a distance of: 2 mm 4 mm 6 mm 8 mm 10 mm 57. Surgical approach to the popliteal artery is more convenient via the following access: Posterior popliteal Medial, through fossa of Jobert Lateral access Transarticular Ttransligamentar 58. To find the deep peroneal nerve in the middle third of lower leg, it is necessary to open the following fascial compartment: 5 Anterior Posterior Lateral Do not open any compartments because the nerve is localized anteriorly to tibia Open all compartments because the nerve is orientated obliquely 59. In examination of hand is found edema and pains on touching in “anatomic snuffbox”. It is supposed a fracture of: Trapezium bone Scaphoid bone Trapezoid bone Lunate bone Pisiform bone 60. What is the possible cause of necrosis of tendons in tendosynovitis? Narrowing of the finger arteries Compression of the mesotenon with the liquid stored in the synovial sheath Compression of tendon Compression of the finger muscles No answer is true 61. Pus from synovial sheath of the little finger may spread to: Subcutaneous fatty tissue of the distal phalanx Paron-Pirogov cellular space through mesothenar compartment and carpal canal Mesothenar compartment Dorsal region of the hand along with the lumbrical muscles Dorsal region of the forearm 62. Tendon of the m. flexor digitorum profundus is inserted on: Base of middle phalanx Base of distal phalanx Tuberosity of the distal phalanx Middle part of the medial phalanx Proximal border of the nail 63. N. musculocutaneus in the middle third of the brachial region is situated between: Coracobrachial muscle Brachial muscle Brachioradial muscle Triceps muscle Biceps brachial muscle 64. N. ulnaris, in the superior third of the brachial region, is situated: Medially and posterior to the median nerve Laterally to the brachial artery Medially to the brachial artery Posteriorlly to v. basilica Medially to v. basilica 65. Ulnar nerve in the inferior third of the brachial region is situated: Medially and anterior to the brachial artery Between medial humeral epicondyle and olecranon In triceps brachial muscle compartment Between brachial muscle and biceps brachial muscle In biceps brachial muscle compartment 66. Supinatorius canal is delimited by: Radial annular ligament Supinator muscle Brachioradial muscle Middle part of the diaphysis of the radial bone Neck of the radial bone 67. On the crest of greater tubercle of humerus are inserted: M. subscapularis M. supraspinatus M. latissimus dorsi M. teres major M. pectoralis major 68. On the crest of lesser tubercle of humerus are inserted: M. subscapular M. supraspinatus M. infraspinatus M. latissimus dorsi M. teres major 69. Radial artery in the superior third of the forearm is situated between: M. brachioradialis M. pronator teres M. flexor carpi radialis M. flexor digitorum superficialis 6 M. supinator 70. N. medianus in the middle third of the forearm is situated between: M. flexor digitorum superficialis M. flexor digitorum profundus M. palmaris longus M. flexor carpi ulnaris M. flexor carpi radialis Lower Limb 1. Anterior part of the proximal third of the thigh contains: M. sartorius, m. tensor fascia latae A, v., n. femoralis, M. adductor longus M. quadriceps femoris M. articularis genus 2. Identify the structures placed in the middle third of the posterior part of the thigh: M. gracilis M. semimembranosus, m. semitendinosus M. biceps femoris N. sciaticus, a. perforantes, descendents ramus of a. circumflexae femoris lateralis M. pectineus, adductor magnus 3. Identify the structures placed in the medial (internal) part of the thigh: M. adductor brevis, m. pectineus M. adductor longus M. adductor magnus M. gracilis M. sartorius 4. Identify which of the statements are correct: Lacuna musculorum is delimitated from the vascular one by the arcus iliopectineus Falciform margin delimitates the hiatus saphenus Obturator artery is a branch of internal iliaca artery that forms “corona mortis” Saphenus nerve goes out through the anterior foramen of Hunter’s canal Vena saphena magna ends in the femoral vein 5. Arterial net of the hip joint region is formed by the following arteries: A. glutea superior with ascending branch of a. circumflexae femoris lateralis A. glutea inferior with ascending branch of a. circumflexae femoris lateralis A. glutea superior with obturator artery A. obturatoria with a. circumflexae femoris lateralis A. obturatoria with a. circumflexae femoris medialis 6. Through the adductor canal (Hunter) passes the following structures: Fmoral artery Hernial sac of femoral hernia Femoral nerve Femoral vein Saphenus nerve 7. Through the femoral canal passes the following structures: Femoral artery Sac of femoral hernia Femoral nerve Femoral vein Saphenus nerve 8. Distal fragment in the fracture of the femoral bone in the inferior third usually is displaced: Medial Lateral Posterior, under the action of m. gastrocnemius Medial and anterior, under the action of m. quadriceps of the femur and m. sartorius Laterally and anterior 9. In case of femoral neck fracture the lower limb is in the following position: Rotated internally Rotated externally Bended in the hip and knee joint In abduction No determined position 10. Sides of femoral triangle of Scarp are: Inguinal ligament M. adductor longus M. vastus lateralis M. sartorius M. gracilis 7 11. Subinguinal muscular gap (lacuna musculorum) contains: Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve A., v. femoralis M. iliopsoas N. femoralis N. cutaneus femoris lateralis 12. In the subinguinal vascular gap (lacuna vasorum) are: N. cutaneus femoris lateralis M. iliopsos N. femoralis A., v. femoralis Femoral branch of the n. genitofemuralis 13. “Corona mortis” is: A. pudenda externa from femoral artery A. femoralis A. obturatoria from internal iliac artery A. obturatoria accessoria from the inferior epigastric artery A. iliaca externa 14. Superficial branches of the femoral artery: A. pudenda interna A. epigastrica inferior A. pudenda externa A. circumflexa ilium superficialis A. epigatrica superficialis 15. Through the infra-piriform orifice passes the following structures: A., v., n. gluteus inferior A. ischiadicus and n. cutaneus femoris posterior N. cutaneus femoris lateralis A., v. pudenda interna and n. pudendus A., v., n. pudendis externa 16. Pudendal Alcock’s canal contains: A., v., n. obturatoria A., v., n. pudenda A., v. pudenda interni N. pudendus A., v., n. gluteus inferior 17. Which of the arterial collaterals are anatomicaly and functionally sufficient: Area of a. poplitea distribution (represented by the arterial net of the knee) Intersystem collaterals of deep femoral and internal iliac arteries Intersystem collaterals of femoral artery branches Intersystem collaterals between deep femoral and external iliac arteries No answer is correct 18. Syntopy of popliteal neurovascular buddle from the posterior to anterior: N. tibialis, v. poplitea, a. poplitea A. poplitea, n. ischiadicus, v. poplitea N. ischiadicus, a. poplitea, v. poplitea V. poplitea, n. ischiadicus, a. poplitea No answer is correct 19. Frequent cause of the medial meniscus lesion is: O-shape of the medial meniscus Increased size of the medial condyle Increased size of the lateral condyle Joining of the meniscus to the tibial collateral ligament Another cause 20. Bursas of the anterior region of the knee are the following: B. prepatellaris subcutanea, subfascialis and subtendinea B. infrapatellaris superficialis B. infrapatellaris profunda B. suprapatellaris B. poplitea 21. Which of the following statements are correct? Femoral condyles are of the same size Internal femoral condyle is 2-7 mm higher than external one Internal femoral condyle is 2-7 mm lower than the external one Shape of the medial meniscus is “O” All answers are wrong 22. Which of the following statements are correct? Internal tibial plateau is more hollow and lower with 2-3 mm than the external one Iternal tibial plateau is at the same level as the external one 8 External tibial plateau is more hollow and lower with 2-3 mm than the internal one Ligamentum fibulare does not connect with the joint capsule No answer is correct 23. Which of the following statement is correct? Popliteal artery is situated lateral to popliteal vein Popliteal vein is situated lateral to the tibial nerve Popliteal artery is situated medially and deeper to popliteal vein and tibial nerve Popliteal artery is situated lateral to the peroneal nerve All are incorrect 24. We can obtain a maximum relaxation of ligaments in knee articulation in case of: Maximal flexion of the articulation Maximal extension of the articulation Semi-flexion Internal rotation It is impossible to obtain a simultaneous relaxation of ligaments 25. Anterior fascial sheath of the lower leg region, at the level of proximal third contains: Tibial artery and vein and the deep peroneal nerve Short and long peroneal muscles Tibial anterior muscle M. extensor digitorum longus Common peroneal nerve 26. Identify structures present at the level of middle third of the lower leg in the posterior fascial sheath: M. peroneus longus M. soleus, m. gastrocnemius, Mm. flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, n. tibialis, a. and v. tibialis posterior Mm. tibialis posterior, plantaris longus, the peroneal artery and vein M. anconeus 27. Identify structures present at the level of medial third of the lower leg in the lateral fascial sheath: M. peroneus longus Superficial peroneal nerve M. peroneus brevis Peroneal artery and vein Deep peroneal nerve 28. Which of the following statements are correct? Superior musculoperoneal canal is formed by the neck of fibula and m. peroneus longus Inferior musculoperoneal canal is formed by neck of fibula and m. peroneus brevis Inferior musculoperoneal canal contains the peroneal artery and vein Superior musculoperoneal canal contains the common peroneal nerve Inferior musculoperoneal canal is formed by fibula and the long peroneal muscle 29. Injury of the peroneal nerve compromises (leads to): Dorsal flexion of the foot Extension of the toes Flexion of the foot and the flexion of toes Disturb the sensibility of the anterior portion of the lower leg and the foot Blood supply of the lower leg 30. Injury of the tibial nerve compromises (leads to): Dorsal flexion of the foot and the extension of toes Plantar flexion of the foot Flexion of toes Dorsal flexion of the foot and the flexion of toes Blood supply of the lower leg 31. The medial malleolar canal contains the following structures: Tendon of the posterior tibial muscle Tendons of m. flexor digitorum longus and m. flexor hallucis longus Achilles tendon Posterior tibial artery and vein, and tibial nerve Tendon of m. soleus 32. Projection of the dorsal neurovascular bundle of the foot is drawn between: Head of the I metatarsal bone Head of the II metatarsal bone Interdigital space II Middle of the bimalleolar distance Inter-digital space I 33. Joint of Chopart is formed by: Head of metatarsal bones Base of proximal phalanx Cuboid bone Astragalus (talus) and calcaneus Navicular bone 9 34. Tarsometatarsal joint of Lisfranc is formed by: Head of metatarsal bones Base of proximal phalanx Cuboid and three cuneiform bones Base of metatarsal bones Astragalus (talus) and calcaneus 35. Identify the wrong statements: Arterial trunks can be pressed at the proximal third of the hip and in popliteal fossa Pseudoartrhoses of distal third of tibia are determined by the insufficient blood supply Superficial and deep venous system of the lower leg connects via communicating veins Small saphenous vein confluence with the femoral vein in the distal third of the hip Sural nerve is a motor nerve 36. Projection of the femoral artery is the line that connects: Middle of the inguinal ligament Medial epicondyle of the femoral bone Proximal edge of patella Anterior superior iliac spine Distal edge of patella 37. Projection of the sciatic nerve is the line that connects: Ischial tuberosity Middle of the popliteal fossa Middle of the distance between greater trochanter and the ischial tuberosity Medial border of the tibial head Lateral border of the tibial head 38. Projection of the anterior tibial artery is the line that connects: Middle of the distance between the head of the fibula and the tibial tuberosity Middle of the bimalleolar distance Medial malleolus Tibial tuberosity Head of fibula 39. Projection of the posterior tibial artery is the line that connects: Middle of the distance between the head of the fibula and the tibial tuberosity Medial border of the tibia Middle of the distance between Achilles tendon and the medial malleolus 1cm posteriorly from the medial boarder of tibia Medial malleolus 40. Which of the muscles have their insertion on the greater trochanter? M. piriformis M. gluteus maximus M. gluteus minimus M. quadratus femoris M. iliopsoas 41. Between which two structures is placed a. dorsalis pedis? Tendon of the tibial anterior muscle Tendon of m. extensor hallucis longus M. extensor hallucis brevis M. extensor digitorum longus M. extensor digitorum brevis 42. Blood supply of the hip joint is provided by the following: Internal pudendal artery Ascending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery Acetabular branch of the obturator artery Inferior gluteal artery Medial circumflex femoral artery 43. What structures form the ankle joint? Tibia Fibula Astragalus (talus) Calcaneus Navicular bone 44. The content of the femoral canal is: Femoral vein V. saphena magna Hernial sac Loose connective tissue Lymph nodes 45. Which of the two ligaments force the anterior portion of the knee joint? Colateral fibular ligament Patellar ligament Colateral tibial ligament Anterior and posterior cruciform ligament 10 Medial and lateral patellar retinacules 46. Deep peroneus nerve is located in the inferior third of the lower leg between: Interosseus membrane Anterior tibial muscle Extensor hallucis longus Extensor digitorum Peroneus longus muscle 47. External rotation of the lower leg is determined by: M. biceps femoris Mm. semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus M. vastus medialis Medial part of the patellar ligament M. vastus lateralis 48. Internal rotation of the shank is determined by? Biceps muscle of the femur Mm. semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus M. vastus medialis Medial part of the patellar ligament M.vastus lateralis 49. A. tibialis posterior and n. tibialis are localized in the middle third of the lower leg between: M. soleus M. gastrocnemius M. tibialis posterior M. flexor hallucis longus M. flexor digitorum longus 50. Femoral nerve is situated in the superior third of the thigh between: Iliac muscle Iliopsoas muscle Femoral vein Femoral artery Sartorius muscle Head 1. Posterior auricular nerve is a branch of: N. trigemenus N. facialis N. trochlearis N. oculomotorius N. zigomaticus 2. Sides of the Chipaut’s triangle of trepanation for mastoidotomy are: A line traced from spina suprameatum to the tip of mastoid process Facial canal A line continuing the zygomatic arch on the mastoid process Sigmoid sinus Anterior border of mastoid crest 3. Superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into: Sinus sagittalis superior Sinus cavernosus Sinus sagittalis inferior Sinus petrosus superior Sinus transversalis 4. What structures pass through the superior orbital fissure? N. maxillaris Nn. oculomotorius and ophtalmicus N. trochlearis and n. abducens Superior ophthalmic vein N. zygomaticus 5. What passes through oval foramen? N. maxilaris Meningeal accessory branch of middle meningeal artery N. mandibularis N. accesorius N. zigomaticus 6. Venous drainage from the cavernous sinus is immediately to: Superior petrosal sinus Transverse sinus Inferior petrosal sinus Venous plexus of the carotid canal Sigmoid sinus 11 7. Great cerebral vein of Galen drains into: Sagittal sinus Sinuses of the base of the skull Straight sinus Transverse sinus Occipital sinus 8. At the intersection of anterior vertical and inferior horizontal lines of cranio-cerebral scheme of Kronleine-Brusova is projected: Central cerebral sulcus Trunk of middle meningeal artery Anterior cerebral artery Internal carotid artery Lateral cerebral sulcus 9. Facial artery arises from: External carotid artery Internal carotid artery Basilar artery Common carotid artery Maxillary artery 10. Angular artery anastomoses with: Ophthalmic artery Dorsal artery of the nose Parotid arterial branches Posterior auricular artery Superficial temporal artery 11. What passes into mandibular foramen? Mental artery Inferior alveolar artery and vein Superior alveolar artery Artery of inferior lip Inferior alveolar nerve 12. Purulent processes from the superior region of the face can spread mainly toward: Cavernous sinus Sagittal inferior sinus Transverse sinus Superior petrosal sinus Straight sinus 13. Infection from the infra-orbital region in the facial vein thrombosis can spread towards: Sigmoid sinus External jugular vein Cavernous sinus Inferior and superior petrosal sinuses Deep region of the face 14. Innervation of the face skin is done by: N. facialis N. trigeminus, terminal branches N. glossopharyngeus N. auricularis magnus, anterior branch N. petrosus major 15. What arises from the facial canal of the petrous part of the temporal bone? N. facialis N. petrosus major N. frontalis N. stapedius N. chorda tympani 16. Facial nerve passes through: Foramen rotundum Foramen spinosum Carotid canal Facial canal Stylomastoid foramen 17. Indicate the terminal branches of the facial nerve: Temporal branches Zygomatic and buccal branches Marginal mandibular and cervical branches Pharyngeal branches Posterior auricular nerve 18. Where is situated the trigeminal ganglion? On the posterior surface of the pyramid of the temporal bone In the carotid canal of the pyramid of the temporal bone 12 In the region of the small wings of the sphenoid bone In the region of the big wings of the sphenoid bone In the depression of the anterior wall of the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone 19. What regions are innervated by the maxillary nerve? Temporal region Lateral surface of the nose and cheek Superior lip Mucous layer of the nasal septum Mucous layer of the frontal sinus and inferior lip 20. What branches start from the maxillary nerve in the pterygopalatine fossa? Zygomatic nerve Lachrymal nerve Alveolar superior posterior branches Infraorbital nerve Deep petrosal nerve 21. What structures are innervated by the mandibular nerve? Mylohyoidian muscle Maseter muscle Venter posterior of m. digastricus Venter anterior of m. digastricus M. digastricus in the whole 22. What structures accompanies the auriculotemporal nerve? Middle meningeal artery Internal acoustic meatus Superficial temporal vein Superficial temporal artery Lateral pterygoid muscle 23. Where is localized the lingual nerve? In the interpterygoid space In the temporopterygoid space In the submucous space of the buccal floor Under the mucous layer of the tongue Under the mucous layer of the tongue frenulum 24. Lingual nerve is intersected by: Submandibular ganglion Submandibular duct Sublingual gland duct Parotid gland duct Nervus chordae tympani 25. Through what orifices the orbit communicates with the cranial cavity? Superior orbital fissure Inferior orbital fissure Optic canal Sphenoidal sinus Anterior and posterior ethmoidal foraminas 26. Ophthalmic vein drains into: Pterygoidian venous plexus Internal jugular vein Cavernous sinus Sagittal superior sinus Superior petrosus sinus 27. Lymph from the region of lips drains into: Submandibular lymph nodes Buccinator lymph nodes Retroauricular lymph nodes Submental lymph nodes Supraclavicular lymph nodes 28. What muscle is considered as the diaphragm of the oral cavity? Genioglossus Hyoglossus Mylohyoideus Geniohyoideus Palatoglossus 29. Blood supply of tongue is provided mainly by: Lingual artery Descending palatinal artery Ascending palatinal artery Pharyngeal ascending artery Sphenopalatinal artery 13 30. Lymph from the tongue draines into: Submental lymph nodes Submandibular lymph nodes Retropharyngean lymph nodes Mastoidian lymph nodes Deep cervical lymph nodes 31. Indicate the motor nerve for the tongue muscles: Mandibular nerve Hypoglossal nerve Glossopharyngian nerve Intermedius nerve Superior laryngeal nerve Neck 1. Choose the correct answer concerning the limits between neck and head: Inferior edge of the mandibule, tip of the mastoid process, superior nuchal line, external occipital protuberance Horizontal plane which passes through inferior edge of the mandibule Frontal plane which passes through transverse processes of cervical vertebrae Horizontal plane which passes at the level of C7 and sternal notch Horizontal plane which passes through sternal notch and superior edge of clavicle 2. Borders of the medial triangle of the neck: Edge of mandibula, sternocleidomastoid muscle, middle line of the neck Posterior belly of digastricus muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, middle line of the neck Edge of mandibula, sternocleidomastoid muscle, superior belly of omohyoid muscle Posterior belly of digastricus muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle Horizontal line which on the level of hyoid bone, middle line of the neck, trapezius muscle 3. Borders of the lateral triangle of the neck: Inferior edge of the mandibula, sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle Posterior belly of digastricus muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle Inferior edge of the mandibula, sternocleidomastoid muscle, omohyoid muscle Clavicle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle Horizontal line traced on the hyoid bone, sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle 4. Indicate the structures localized in the medial triangle of the neck: Common carotid artery Vagus nerve Internal jugular vein Medial supraclavicular nerves Anterior supraclavicular nerve 5. Indicate the structures localized in the lateral triangle of the neck: Subclavicular artery External carotid artery Subclavicular vein Brachial neural plexus Branches of the cervical plexus 6. Borders of the submandibular triangle: Inferior edge of mandible Anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle Superior belly of omohyoid muscle Both bellies of digastricus muscle Free edge of mylohyoid muscle 7. Borders of the carotid triangle Posterior belly of digastricus muscle Anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle Posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle Inferior edge of the mandible Superior belly of omohyoid muscle 8. Limits of the omotrapezoid triangle: Clavicle Trapezius muscle Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle Sternocleidomastoid muscle Posterior belly of digastricus muscle 9. What structures are situated in the suprasternal interaponeurotic space? Extern jugular veins Lymph nodes Anterior jugular veins Jugular venous arch Anterior supraclavicular nerves 10. Indicate the extension of the previsceral cervical space: 14 From the edge of mandible till manubrium sterni and clavicles From the edge of mandible till the hyoid bone From the hyoid bone till manubrium sterni From the superior edge of the thyroid cartilage till manubrium sterni and clavicles From the edge of the mandibula till the superior edge of the thyroid cartilage 11. Which celluloadipose spaces of the neck communicates with the anterior mediastinum? Suprasternal interaponeurotic space Previsceral cervical space Retrovisceral cervical space Retropharyngian space Paravascular space of the main neurovascular bundle of the neck 12. Borders of the infrahyoid region: Hyoid bone and the posterior belly of digastricus muscle Anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle Horizontal line traced on the level of thyroid cartilage Inferior edge of mandible Jugular notch of sternum and clavicles 13. Syntopy of the cervical portion of the trachea: Anteriorly – thyroid gland isthmus Anteriorly and bilaterally – thyroid gland lobes Posteriorly - esophagus At the level of jugular notch – common carotid arteries Internal carotid arteries 14. Indicate arteries that supply the thyroid gland: Superior thyroid arteries Inferior thyroid arteries Medium thyroid arteries Recurrent thyroid artery Ima thyroid artery 15. Lymphoepithelial pharyngeal ring is formed by: Pharyngeal tonsils Palatine tonsils Tubal tonsils Submandibular tonsils Lingual tonsils 16. Innervation of the cervical part of esophagus is provided by: N. vagus Glossopharyngeal nerve Cervical ganglia of the sympathetic trunk N. hypoglossus Recurrent nerves of the larynx 17. Indicate the possible levels of the common carotid artery bifurcation: Superior border of C5 Superior border of C6 Superior border of thyroid cartilage At the level of cricoid cartilage Inferior border of C4 18. Indicate differences between internal and external carotid arteries: External carotid artery is positioned anteriorly and medially to the internal carotid artery External carotid artery has branches but the internal carotid artery has no branches in the region of neck Internal carotid artery begins with a dilatation – carotid sinus Pressure of the external carotid artery in wound stops pulsation of the superficial temporal artery on zygomatic arch Internal carotid artery gives rise to the superior thyroid artery just at the bifurcation 19. Carotid reflexogenic zone is: At the level of hyoid bone At the level of superior border of thyroid gland In the region of manubrium sterni In the region of cricoid cartilage In the region of common carotid artery bifurcation 20. Indicate the walls of interscalenic space: Sternothyroid muscle Anterior scalene muscle Posterior scalene muscle Omohyoid muscle Medium scalene muscle 21. What veins participate in the formation of the jugular venous angle? Subclavicular vein Internal jugular vein Anterior jugular vein External jugular vein 15 Brachiocephalic vein 22. What structures are situated in the scalenovertebral triangle? A. subclavia, thyriocervical trunk, a. vertebralis Thoracic lymphatic duct Internal jugular vein Middle cervical ganglion of the sympathetic chain Inferior cervical ganglion of the sympathetic trunk 23. Arterial branches that arise from the subclavian artery in the scalenovertebral triangle: Vertebral artery Transverse cervical artery Suprascapulary artery Thyriocervical trunk Internal thoracic artery 24. Thoracic lymphatic duct drains into: Right subclavian artery Left internal jugular vein Right subclavicular vein Left external jugular vein Left jugular venous angle 25. Indicate the place of the superficial phlegmon of the neck: Submandibular space Subcutaneous fatty tissue Previsceral space Retrovisceral space Prevertebral space 26. Main routes of the inflamation spreading from the region of the neck are: Posterior mediastinum Abdominal cavity Retroperitoneal space Anterior mediastinum Pleural cavity 27. Main complications of abscesses and phlegmons of the neck are: Tracheal compression Esophagus compression Laryngeal edema Erosive venous and arterial hemorrhage Fat embolism 28. In which triangle is performed the ligature of the lingual artery? Lingual triangle of Pirogov Carotid Submandibular Lateral triangle of the neck Medial triangle of the neck 29. Borders of the omoclavicular triangle: Superior belly of the omohyoid muscle Sternocleidomastoidian muscle Clavicle Inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle Median line of the neck 30. Skeletotopy and holotopy of the anatomo-functional constrictions of the esophagus: At the level of the cricoid cartilage, C6 At the level of the jugular notch, Th2 At the level of the tracheal bifurcation, Th5 At the level of Th8, in front of the aorta At the level of passing through diaphragm, Th10 31. Syntopy and skeletotopy of the superior cervical ganglion of the sympathetic trunk, it is situated: Behind or in thickness (mass) of the prevertebral cervical fascia In front of the prevertebral cervical fascia Medially to the vagus nerve At the level of the transverse vertebral processes C2-3 At the level of the common carotid artery bifurcation 32. What is the syntopy of the stellate ganglion? Inferiorly – cupola of pleura Anteriorly – vertebral and subclavicular artery Vertebral nerve originates from it Medially – phrenic nerve Posteriorly - the long cervical muscle 33. Choose the structures that have sheath from the first superficial fascia of the neck: Sternocleidomastoid muscle Submandibular gland 16 Parotid gland Platysma Posterior belly of digastricus muscle Thorax 1. Thoracic cavity is delimited by: Ribs only Sternum and vertebral column only Ribs, sternum, vertebral column, intercostals muscles and diaphragm Intercostal muscles and diaphragm Clavicles and costal arch 2. What is the pleural cavity? Cavity that is delimited by the visceral and parietal pleura Space between lung and mediastinum Cavity between lugs, diaphragm and mediastinum Cavity delimited by the sheaths of the parietal pleura It is a part of the thoracic cavity where the magistral vessels pass 3. Which of the following sinuses of the pleural cavity is the deepest? Costodiaphragmatic sinus Costomediastinic sinus Diaphragmomediastinic sinus Costal sinus Mediastinal sinus 4. Which fascia forms the capsule for the mammary gland? Pectoral fascia Clavipectoral fascia Superficial fascia Transversal fascia Endocervical fascia 5. Which statements are correct conserning the lymphatic dranage from the mammary gland? There is superficial and deep lymphatic reflux Parasternal lymphatic nodes recieve lymph from the axillary lymph nodes Lymph node of Sorgius that lays at the edge of the pectoral major muscle is a sentinel node of the first step From the internal-superior quadrat the lymph reaches the epigastric ganglia Main collectors of lymph are the axillary lymph nodes 6. Which arteries vascularise the mammary gland? Internal thoracic artery Lateral thoracic artery Intercostal arteries Inferior thyroid artery Subclavian artery 7. Venous system of mammary gland is composed by: Superficial venous rete Deep venous rete Intercostal veins Subclavian veins Axillary veins 8. Mammary gland is innervated by: Branches of the II-VII intercostal nerves Branches of cervical plexus Branches of the brachial plexus Phrenic nerves Vagus nerves 9. The sheath of m. pectoralis minor is also called: Superficial fascia Pectoral fascia Endocervical fascia Clavipectoral fascia Axillary fascia 10. Envelope of which muscle is formed by the clavipectoral fascia? Major pectoral muscle Minor pectoral muscle Seratus anterior muscle Deltoid muscle Intercostal muscles 11. Superficial subpectoral space is placed: Behind the major pectoral muscle In front of the clavipectoral fascia and minor pectoral muscle Behind the fascia superficialis In front of deep fascia In the subcutaneous fatty tissue 17 12. Deep subpectoral space is placed: In front of the major pectoral muscle Behind the major pectoral muscle In front of the minor pectoral muscle Behind the minor pectoral muscle In front of the thoracic wall 13. Anterior intercostal arteries originate from: Internal thoracic arteries Lateral thoracic artery Subclavicular artery Axillary artery Thoracic aorta 14. Posterior intercostal arteries start from: Thoracic aorta Costo-cervical trunk Vertebral arteries Internal thoracic arteries Lateral thoracic arteries 15. Space between the sternal part and costal part of the diaphragm on the right side is named? Triangle of Pirogov Fissure of Larey Triangle of Morganye Triangle of Bohdalec Triangle of Ghesselbach 16. Space between the sternal part and costal part of the diaphragm on the left side is named? Triangle of Pirogov Fissure of Larey Triangle of Morganye Triangle of Bohdalec Triangle of Ghesselbach 17. Diaphragm is vascularized by: Lateral thoracic arteries Musculophrenic arteries Superior phrenic arteries Inferior phrenic arteries Axillary artery 18. Main respiratory muscle is: M. rectus abdominis M. obliqus abdominis externus M. obliqus abdominis internus Mm. intercostales Diaphragm 19. What is amastia? Increased volume of the mammary gland Underdeveloped mammary gland Many mammary glands Absence of the mammary gland None of the statements are true 20. What is polythelia? Presence of more than two mammary glands Lactation of the mammary glands The presence of many nipples on the so called “milk line” Presence of the accessory lobules of the mammary gland Absence of the nipple 21. All of the mentioned below refer to congenital anomalies of the heart besides: Persistence of the duct of Botallo Interatrial sept undevelopment Dextro-position of the heart Acquired mitral stenosis Interventricular septum underdevelopment 22. Azygos vein drains into: Right intercostal veins Left intercostal veins Esophageal veins Posterior bronchial veins Mediastinal veins 23. Sternum has the following components: Manubrium Neck 18 Body Tail Xiphoid process 24. In the intercostal spaces are situated: Muscles Arteries Veins Nerves Endothoracic fascia 25. Syntopy of the intercostal neurovascular bundle from superior to inferior: Artery, nerve, vein Nerve, vein, artery Vein, artery, nerve Vein, nerve, artery Artery, vein, nerve 26. What is the pulmonary ligament? Ligament that bind the right lung with the left lung Ligament between the pulmonary artery and vein Double fold of pleura extending from the pulmonary hilum toward diaphragm Duplication of the parietal pleura in which are placed the pulmonary vessels Ligament between the aortic arch and the pulmonary artery 27. At what rib is the inferior border of the right lung? At V rib – on the medioclavicular line At X rib – on the anterior axillar line At X rib – on the scapular line At XI rib – on the paravertebral line At IX rib – on the posterior middle line 28. Inferior vena cava drains into: Right ventricle Left ventricle Right atrium Left atrium No answers are correct 29. Syntopy of the right pulmonary root components from superior to inferior: Artery, bronchus, vein Bronchus, vein, artery Vein, artery, bronchus Bronchus, artery, vein Artery, vein, bronchus 30. What passes above the left bronchus? Arch of aorta Left recurrent laryngeal nerve Left phrenic nerve Hemiazygos vein Left pulmonary vein 31. What branches originate from the arch of aorta from right to left? Right common carotid artery Left common carotid artery Arterial brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, left subclavicular artery Left subclavicular artery Left common subclavicular artery 32. What nerve crosses the arch of aorta from anterior? Right phrenic nerve Right vagus nerve Left phrenic nerve Left splanchnic nerve Left vagus nerve 33. Where is situated the arterial canal of Botallo? Between aorta and superior vena cava Between inferior vena cava and aorta Between pulmonary artery and arch of aorta Between the right auricle and superior vena cava Between the left common carotid artery and subclavian artery 34. At what level right and left recurrent laryngeal nerves start? Right – at the level of right subclavian artery Left – at the level of left brachiocephalic trunk Left – at the level of aortic arch Right – at the level of trachea bifurcation Left and right – at the level of IV cervical vertebra 35. Where does the right phrenic nerve superiorly to the pulmonary hilum pass? 19 Between aorta and superior vena cava Between the superior vena cava and right common carotid artery Between superior vena cava and mediastinal pleura Between the brachiocephalic truk and superior vena cava Anteriourly to the arch of aorta 36. What passes along the phrenic nerves in mediastinum? Pulmonary artery Coronary arteries of the heart Superior epigastric artery Pericardiophrenic artery Internal thoracic artery 37. Between the trachea and manubrium sterni are placed: Superior vena cava and brachicephalic veins Thymus Sympathetic trunk Left vagus and left phrenic nerves Arch of aorta, brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery 38. What passes posteriorly to the right bronchus? Azygos vein and right vagus nerve Right pulmonary artery Right pulmonary vein Sympathetic trunk Inferior vena cava 39. What criteria correspond to the pulmonary arteries? Deliver oxygenated blood to the heart Deliver oxygenated blood to the lung Deliver unoxygenated blood from the the heart to the lung Are parallel to the bronchi Vascularise the pulmonary parenchim 40. Anterior mediastinum contains: Thymus Ascending aorta and arch of aorta Magistral veins Lymphatic thoracic duct and sympthetic trunks Heart 41. Posterior mediastinum contains the following, except: Esophagus Descending aorta Thoracic lymphatic duct Arch of aorta Azygos and hemiazygos veins 42. Posterior mediastinum contains: Azygos and hemiazygos veins and sympathetic trunks Thoracic lymphatic duct, thoracic aorta Esophagus and vagus nerves Pulmonary arteries and veins Inferior vena cava and portal vein 43. Deviation of esophagus in the thoracic part (at the level of thoracic vertebra II-V): To left To right Posterior Anterior Localized strictly on the lateral side of the vertebral column 44. Esophagus intersect aorta from the anterior on the level of vertebra: Th3 Th5 Th6 Th7 Th8 45. Venous reflux from the esophagus is to: Vena cava inferior Vena cava superior Azygos and hemiazygos veins Left gastric vein Portal vein 46. Lymphatic thoracic duct passes through: Esophageal opening of the diaphragm Aortal opening of the diaphragm Costo-lumbar triangle of the diaphragm Inferior vena cava opening 20 Vena azygos opening 47. Which organ lesion is a criterion for a thoraco-abdominal trauma? Lung Liver Spleen Diaphragm Heart and pericardium 48. Which nerve can be damaged during the ligature of the duct of Bottalo? Phrenicus nerve Vagus nerve Intercostal nerve Sympathetic neural trunk Left recurrent laryngeal nerve 49. Which tissues are damaged in a perforating thoracic wound? Skin and muscles Integument’s injury and fracture of a rib Lung injury with bronchus rupture Integument’s injury and rupture of the parietal pleura External haemorrhage with intercostal artery injury Abdomen Antero-lateral abdominal wall Cavity of the abdomen 1. Which wall’s resistance is lowered in case of direct inguinal hernias? Posterior Anterior Superior Inferior All walls 2. Congenital inguinal hernia can be: Through sliding Direct Strangulated Oblique Through sliding and direct 3. What is the position of hernial sac regarding spermatic cord in oblique inguinal hernia? Spermatic cord is positioned lateral to the hernial sac and it remains intact In small hernia components of the spermatic cord are positioned medial to the hernial sac In large hernia components of the spermatic cord are spreading on the surface of hernial sac Hernial sac passes inside of the spermatic cord, within its coverings Interrelation of the hernial sac with spermatic cord is not of great surgical significance 4. What is the position of hernial sac concerning the spermatic cord at direct inguinal hernia? Spermatic cord is positioned lateral to the hernial sac and it remains intact In small hernia components of the spermatic cord are positioned medial to the hernial sac In large hernia components of the spermatic cord are spreading on the surface of hernial sac Hernial sac passes inside of the spermatic cord, within its coverings Interrelation of the hernial sac with spermatic cord is not of great surgical significance 5. What kind of hernia has the testicle presented in the hernial sac? Congenital Direct Oblique inguinal Femoral Through sliding 6. What is the cause of congenital inguinal hernia appearance? Tension of abdominal press muscle Increase of intra-abdominal pressure The persisting processus vaginalis peritonei Cryptorchidism Inguinal space dilatation 7. Where is the localization of intercostal arteries on the anterior abdominal wall? Between intern oblique muscle and transverse Between extern oblique muscle and intern Between aponeurosis of the intern and extern oblique muscles Between subcutaneous tissue and external oblique muscle Between rectal abdominal muscle 8. What nerves innervate the inguinal region? Iliohipogastric nerve Ilioinguinal nerve 21 Genitofemural nerve Subcostal nerves All are correct 9. Where is the inferior epigastric artery localized? Between the internal oblique and transverse muscles Between the transverse muscles and peritoneum Between the transverse fascia and peritoneum behind the rectus muscle Between the aponeuroses of the external and internal oblique muscles Into subcutaneous fatty tissue 10. What are the structures that form the external orifice of the inguinal canal? External abdominal oblique muscle and pubic symphysis Internal abdominal oblique muscle and pubic tubercle Splitting of the aponeurosis of external oblique muscle Inguinal ligament Superficial fascia and pubic tubercle 11. What vessel forms the “corona mortis”? Obturator artery Inferior epigastric artery Obturator branch of the inferior epigastric artery Femoral artery Obturator vein 12. In which type of hernia repair “corona mortis”can be affected? Oblique inguinal hernia Strangulated direct inguinal hernia Strangulated femoral hernia Obturator hernia Strangulated oblique inguinal hernia 13. What fossa on the inner surface of the abdominal wall corresponds to the internal orifice of the inguinal canal? Medial inguinal fossa Supravesicular fossa Lateral inguinal fossa Femoral fossa Umbilical fossa 14. What structure forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal in patients with hernia? Superficial fascia External abdominal oblique muscle Transverse abdominal muscle Aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominal muscle Inguinal ligament 15. What structure forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal? Transverse fascia Interior margin of external oblique muscle Jimbernat’s ligament Inguinal ligament Iliac bone crest 16. What structure forms the inferior wall of the inguinal canal? Transverse fascia Interior margin of external oblique muscles Jimbernat’s ligament Inguinal ligament Margin of iliac bone 17. What separates the lateral inguinal fossa from the medial one, on the inner surface of the abdominal wall? Median umbilical fold Medial umbilical fold Lateral umbilical fold produced by inferior epigastric artery Umbilical artery Obturator artery 18. What inguinal fossa is implicated in descending of testicle? Medial Lateral Supravesicular Lateral and medial Lumbar triangle (of Petit) 19. Which nerves passes through the external orifice of the inguinal canal? Iliohypogastric nerve Ilioinguinal and subcostal nerve Ilioinguinal nerve and genital branch of genitofemural nerve Obturator nerve and external spermatic nerve Ilioinguinal nerve and external spermatic nerve 22 20. Connections between portal vein of liver and veins of the anterior abdominal wall are provided by: Paraumbilical veins Testicular veins Inferior epigastric veins Superior epigastric veins Intercostal veins 21. Which veins form the portal vein of liver? Vv. gastrica sinistra and mesenterica superior Vv. mesenterica inferior and renalis Vv. mesenterica inferior, testicular (ovarian) sinistra Vv. mesenterica superioris, inferioris and lienalis Vv. renalis and mesenterica superior 22. Where issituated the portal vein of liver? Into bursa omentalis In retroperitoneal space In front of the head of pancreas Behind the head of pancreas Behind the stomach 23. Portal vein of liver crosses which part of the duodenum: Superior Descending Inferior horizontal Ascending Do not pass behind the duodenum 24. Common bile duct is situated with regard to portal vein of liver: In front Behind To the right To the left Above 25. The portal vein passes on the left of: Right gastroepiploic artery Left gastroepiploic artery Left gastric artery Hepatic proper artery Hepatic common artery 26. The hepatoduodenal ligament starts from? From the left hepatic lobe From the right hepatic lobe From the quadrate lobe From the hepatic hilum From the caudate lobe of the liver 27. The content of hepatoduodenal ligament is: A. hepatica comunis, bile duct, a. lienalis Bile duct, v. porta, a. hepatica propria A. gastrica sinistra, vv. hepatica, bile duct A. hepatica comunis, a. gastrica dextra, a. lienalis V. porta, a. lienalis, bile duct 28. Which structures contribute to the formation of the hepatoduodenal ligament? Fascia endoabdominalis and transversus Parietal peritoneum Two sheaths of the visceral peritoneum Transversal fascia and aponeurosis of transverse abdominal muscle Transversal fascia and visceral peritoneum 29. Which part of the omental foramen does hepatoduodenal ligament forms? Anterior Posterior Superior Inferior Medial 30. Lesser omentum is supplied with blood by: A. hepatica propria, a.lienalis A. lienalis, aa.gastrici brevis A. hepatica propria, a. colica media A. hepatica propria, a.gastroduodenalis A. gastrica sinistra, a.gastrica dextra 31. A. gastrica sinistra originates from: A. mesenterica superior A. mesenterica inferior Truncus arteriosus celiacus 23 A. lienalis A. hepatica comunis 32. A. gastrica dextra originates from: Truncus celiacus A. hepatica comunis A. hepatica propria A. lienalis Abdominal aorta 33. Main trunk of the a. gastrica sinistra situates into: Hepatogastricum ligament Frenicocolicum ligament Superior gastropancreaticum ligament Gastrocolicum ligament Hepatoduodenalis ligament 34. Anterior wall of the omental bursa is composed by: Lesser omentum and spline Lesser omentum and spline, stomach, lobuus caudatus of liver Hepatogastric ligament, anterior gastric wall Right hepatic lobe, lesser omentum Lesser omentum, posterior gastric wall and gastrocolic ligament 35. Omental foramen forms a communication between: Superior and inferior “storeys” of abdominal cavity Abdominal cavity and retroperitoneal space Subhepatic recess and omental bursa Abdominal cavity and the cavity of small (true) pelvis Abdominal cavity and posterior mediastinum 36. Blood supply of the greater curvature of stomach is provided by: A. mesenterica superior A. gastroepiploica dextra A. lienalis A. gastroepiploica sinistra A. mesenterica inferior 37. A. gastroepiploica sinistra originates from: A. gastrica sinistra A. gastrica dextra A. lienalis A. mezenterica superioris A. hepatica propria 38. By which nerves go along the abdominal portion of the esophagus? N. splanhnici N. diafragmalis N. recurens Nn. vagus dexter et sinister Inferior intercostal nerves 39. Veins of the esophagus flow into: V. porta V. azigos, hemiazigos V. gastrica sinistra V. cava inferior V. mezenterica superioris 40. Where is situated the motor branch of vagus, the nerve of Latarget? Near the greater curvature of stomach In the lesser omentum parallel to lesser curvature of stomach Near the fundus of stomach Along the duodenum Along the gastrolienal ligament 41. Hepatopancreatic ampulla opens into: Horizontal inferior portion of the duodenum Descending portion of the duodenum On the greater duodenal papilla Pancreatic duct Omental bursa 42. Pancreatic duct opens into: Horizontal inferior portion of the duodenum Descending portion of the duodenum On the greater duodenal papilla Hepatopancreatic ampulla Omental bursa 43. Pancreas is placed: 24 In hepatic bursa In the inferior floor of the peritoneal cavity In retroperitoneal space In duodenojejunal recess Into the cavity of omental bursa 44. Behind the pancreas are placed the following vessels: A. gastrica sinistra A. gastroepiploica dextra Vv. mesenterica superior, lienalis and mesenterica inferior V. porta, v. cava inferior A. mesenterica superior and aorta 45. Interrelation of the spleen with peritoneum is: Retroperitoneal Intraperitoneal It is not covered by peritoneum Mesoperitoneal Partially covered by peritoneum 46. Route of spleen artery is: Along the posterior margin of the pancreas Along the inferior margin of the pancreas Along the superior margin of the pancreas Through the pancreatic parenchyma It has no attachment with the pancreas 47. Which vessels start from the lienal artery? A. gastrica sinistra A. gastrica dextra A. gastroepiploica sinistra Aa. gastrici brevis A. hepatica propria and gastroepiploica dextra 48. What is the interrelation of the gallbladder with peritoneum? Intraperitoneal Retroperitoneal Mesoperitoneal In peritoneal cavity Posterior to the peritoneum 49. In hepatoduodenal ligament are localized the following ducts: Left and right hepatic ducts Cystic duct Bile duct Pancreatic duct Accessory pancreatic duct 50. Blood drainages from the liver to: V. cava inferior V. cava superior V. lienalis V. mesenterica superior V. gastrica dextra 51. Right mesenteric sinus is delimited by: Mesentery of sigmoid colon Root of the transverse mesocolon Ascending colon Vermiform appendix Root of the mesentery of the small intestine 52. Which portions of the large intestine are situated intraperitoneal? Transverse colon Ascending colon Vermiform appendix Descending colon Sigmoid colon and superior portion of the rectum 53. Right part of the large intestine is supplied with blood by the branches of: A. lienalis A. gastroepiploica A. mesenterica inferior A. mesenterica superior A. apendicularis 54. Predict routes for pus spreading in perforating appendicitis: Omental bursa Right mesenterial sinus Hepatic bursa Pregastric bursa 25 Cavity of pelvis 55. Which muscles compose the anterolateral abdominal wall? Rectus abdominis and pyramidal muscles Transverse abdominal muscle External oblique abdominal muscles Internal oblique abdominal muscles Iliopsoas muscle 56. From which vessel originates superficial epigastric artery? A. femuralis A. iliaca externa A. iliaca interna A. femuralis profunda A. obturatoria 57. Blood supply of the anterolateral abdominal wall is provided by: A. epigastrica superior, a. epigastrica inferior A. epigastrica superficialis, aa. intercostalis A. gastrica sinistra, a. mesenterica superior A. pudenda interna, a. mesenterica inferior Aa. lumbales 58. Innervation of the abdominal wall is provided by: Nn. intercostalis N. iliohypogastricum N. pudendus N. femoralis N. ilioinguinalis 59. Inferior epigastric artery originates from: A. femuralis A. iliaca interna A. iliaca externa A. obturatoria A. femuralis profunda 60. Oblique inguinal hernia passes through: Inguinal lateral fossa Inguinal medial fossa Supravesical fossa Obturator foramen External inguinal foramen 61. Preperitoneal adipose tissue communicates immediately with: Parametral tissue Prevesical tissue Paranefral tissue Retroperitoneal tissue Pararectal tissue 62. Rectus abdominis muscle is covered behind and inferiorly to the arcuate line of Douglas by: Parietal peritoneum Parietal peritoneum and aponeurosis of transverse abdomonal muscle Transversal fascia Parietal pelvic fascia Aponeurosis of transverse abdomonal muscle 63. Portal vein of liver is situated in: Hepatogastric ligament Gastropancreatic ligament Hepatoduodenal ligament Gastrocolic ligament Gastrolienal ligament 64. Hepatoduodenal ligament goes to? Descending part of duodenum Ascending part of duodenum Superior part of duodenum Lesser curvature of the stomach Omental bursa 65. Hepatoduodenal ligament is a part of: Greater omentum Lesser omentum Epiploon Duodenorenale ligament Hepatogastric ligament 66. Lesser omentum is divided into the following ligaments: Gastrocolic, hepatogastric, gastrolienal 26 Gastrolienal, inghinal, lacunar Hepatoduodenal, hepatogastric, frenicogastric Hepatogastric, gastropancreatic Gastrolienal, pectinal 67. Posterior wall of the omental bursa is formed by: Spleen Left hepatic lobe Parietal peritoneum which covers pancreas, duodenum and left lumbar part of diaphragm Visceral peritoneum Hepatic caudate lobe 68. What structures form the superior wall of the omental bursa? Diaphragm Inferior surface of the caudate lobe Posterior wall of the stomach Posterior part of the left hepatic lobe Inferior part of the duodenum 69. Which structures delimitate the omental foramen? Inferiorly – duodenum Superiorly – hepatic caudate lobe Anteriorly – hepatoduodenal ligament Posteriorly – parietal peritoneum which covers inferior vena cava Laterally – stomach 70. Right gastroepiploic artery originates from: Lienal artery Superior mesenteric artery Gastroduodenal artery Inferior mesenteric artery Left gastric artery 71. What is the relationship between the stomach and peritoneum? Retroperitoneal Intraperitoneal Mesoperitoneal Posterior wall is retroperitoneal Anterior wall is mesoperitoneal 72. Abdominal portion of the esophagus can be situated: Retroperitoneal Intraperitoneal Mesoperitoneal In posterior mediastinum In anterior mediastinum 73. Bile duct drains into: Small intestine Hepatopancreatic ampulla Descending part of duodenum Transverse colon Superior part of duodenum 74. The following parts of duodenum are situated retroperitoneal: Superior part Descending part Inferior horizontal part Ascending part All duodenum 75. What structures cross the horizontal inferior part of duodenum just left to the duodenojejunal flexure? Pancreas Inferior mesenteric vein Superior mesenteric artery and vein Lienal vein Lienal artery 76. What veins join the portal vein of liver with inferior cava vein? Left gastric vein, esophageal veins, azygos and hemiazygos Superior rectal vein, medial rectal veins, and internal iliac vein Paraumbilical veins, inferior epigastric vein, external iliac vein Superior epigastric vein and internal thoracic vein All are incorrect 77. What structures are localized posterior to the pancreatic tail? Left kidney, left suprarenal gland, left renal vessels Mesenteric vessels, aorta Inferior mesenteric artery, lienal vessels Celiac trunk Celiac plexus 27 78. Common hepatic duct is formed through joining of: Cystic and left hepatic ducts Cystic and right hepatic ducts Right and left hepatic ducts Left hepatic and bile ducts Bile duct and pancreatic ducts 79. Bile duct is formed by joining: Cystic and common hepatic ducts Cystic and right hepatic ducts Right and left hepatic ducts Left hepatic and coledochus ducts Coledochus and pancreatic ducts 80. Gallbladder is situated on the following surface of the liver: Posterior Anterior Diaphragmal Visceral Medial 81. Cyctic artery begins from? Common hepatic artery Proper hepatic artery Lienal artery Right hepatic artery Left gastric artery 82. Superior storey (level) of abdomen is delimited from inferior storey (level) by: Lesser omentum Greater omentum Transverse colon Root of mesenterium of transverse colon Small intestine 83. Arteries of small intestine are localized: Retroperitoneal Into transverse mesocolon Between two mesenterial leaves of small intestine Mesoperitoneal In the root of transverse mesocolon 84. Appendicular artery passes: Retroperitoneal Within small intestine mesenterium Within appendiculat mesenterium On the posterior surface of the cecum Between cecum bands 85. What nerves form celiac plexus? Greater and lasser splanchnic nerves Vagus and phrenic nerves Hepatic plexus Lumbar plexus Intercostal and subcostal nerves Spine Region 1. Indicate the physiological curves of the vertebral column directed anterior in sagittal plane: Cervical curvature – lordosis Thoracic curvature – lordosis Lumbar curvature – chiphosis Sacral curvature – chiphosis Lumbar curvature – lordosis 2. Which ligaments fix the vertebral bodies along the vertebral column? Interspinal ligaments of vertebrae Anterior longitudinal ligament Posterior longitudinal ligament Ligamenta flava Transversal ligaments 3. Determine the right sequence (order) of the medulla’s sheaths: Pia matter, arachnoid, dura matter Dura matter, arachnoid, pia matter Arachnoid, dura matter, pia matter Arachnoid, pia matter, dura matter Dura matter, pia matter, arachnoid 28 4. Determine which of the following represents kyphosis: Curvature of the vertebral column segment with posterior convexity Curvature of the vertebral column with anterior convexity Curvature of the vertebral column with lateral convexity Curvature of the vertebral column with medial convexity Vertebral column without curvatures 5. Determine which of the following statements represents scoliosis? Curvature of the vertebral column with posterior convexity Curvature of the vertebral column with anterior convexity Curvature of the vertebral column with lateral convexity Curvature of the vertebral column with medial convexity Vertebral column without curvatures 6. Determine which of the following statements represents lordosis? Curvature of the vertebral column with convexity posteriourly Curvature of the vertebral column with convexity anteriourly Curvature of the vertebral column with convexity lateraly Curvature of the vertebral column with convexity medialy Vertebral column without curvatures 7. Ureter passes in the retroperitoneal space: Behind the lumbar arteries and veins Behind the testicular or ovarian vessels In front of the genitofemural nerve Immediately behind and closely attached to the parietal peritoneum Lateral to the psoas muscle 8. Indicate the incorrect determination of the vertebral column’s curvatures Cervical curvature with the convexity in anterior - lordosis Thoracic curvature with the convexity in posterior - kyphosis Lumbar curvature with the convexity in anterior - kyphosis Sacral curvature with the convexity in posterior - lordosis Lumbar curvature with the convexity in anterior - lordosis 9. Which arteries do not participate in the supply of cervical vertebras? Vertebral arteries Ascending cervical arteries Deep cervical arteries External carotid artery Internal carotid artery 10. Which arteries participate in the supply of thoracic vertebras? Internal thoracic artery Intercostal arteries Vertebral arteries Transverse arteries of the neck Superficial cervical arteries 11. What is the length of the spinal cord in adults? From the arch of the atlas till T12 vertebra -38-40 cm From the arch of the atlas till L1 vertebra - 40-42 cm From the arch of the atlas till L2 vertebra - 42-45 cm From the arch of the atlas till L3 vertebra - 45-47 cm From the arch of the atlas till L5 vertebra - 47-50 cm 12. At what intervertebral level can be done the lumbar puncture in adults? Between spinous processes of L1-2 vertebras Between spinous processes of L3-4 vertebras Between spinous processes of L4-5 vertebras Between spinous processes of T11-12 vertebras It can not be done in the lumbar region 13. At what level can be done the lumbar puncture in children? Between spinous processes of L1-2 vertebras Between spinous processes of L2-3 vertebras Between spinous processes of L3-4 vertebras Between spinous processes of L4-5 vertebras It can not be done in children 14. How many segments of the spinal cord are defined? There are 29 (C - 7, T - 11, L - 6, S - 4, C - 1) There are 30 (C - 8, T - 12, L - 5, S - 5) There are 31 (C - 8, T -12, L - 5, S - 5, C - 1) There are 32 (C - 10, T - 12, L - 5, S - 5) There are 33 (C - 9, T - 13, L - 6, S - 4, C -1) 15. Where is situated the spinal epidural space? Between spinal dura mater and spinal arachnoid Between the wall of vertebral canal and spinal dura mater Between arachnoid and spinal pia mater 29 Under dura mater Under pia mater 16. Where is situated the spinal subdural space? Under pia mater Under the arachnoid membrane Between dura mater and the arachnoid membrane Between dura mater and the wall of vertebral canal Between the arachnoid membrane and pia mater 17. Explain the term spondylolisthesis: Absence of a vertebra from a segment of the vertebral column Anterior displacement of the vertebral body Posterior displacement of the vertebral body Fissure in the vertebral arch No correct answer 18. What means the term spina bifida? Consolidation of the vertebral canal components Fissure in the body of a vertebra Fissure in the vertebral arch Fissure in the body and the arch of the vertebra The absence of the vertebral body processes 19. What means the term spinal hernia? Prolapse of the posterior longitudinal vertebral ligament Prolapse of the spine meninges with the content of the vertebral canal Prolapse of the anterior longitudinal vertebral ligament Congenital spine hernia Acquired hernia Lumbar region and Retroperitonial space 1. Boundaries of the lumbar region: Superior – inferior edge of XII rib Inferior – iliac crests and sacrum Medial – paravertebral line Medial – middle line Lateral – vertical line passing as a continuation of the middle axilary line toward iliac crest 2. Which structure forms the sheath of sacrospinal (erector spinae) muscle? Endoabdominal fascia Toracolombar aponeurosis (fascia) Quadrate fascia Renal fascia Psoatic fascia 3. Sides of inferior lumbar triangle of Petit: Inferior – iliac crest Medial – latissimus dorsi muscle Lateral – external oblique abdominal muscle Medial – internal oblique abdominal muscle Lateral – transverse abdominal muscle 4. What structures make up the bottom of inferior lumbar triangle of Petit: External abdominal oblique muscle Internal abdominal oblique muscle Transverse abdominal muscle Latissimus dorsi muscle Quadratus lumborum muscle 5. Sides of superior lombar triangle (or rhombus) of Lesgaft-Grynfeldt: Superior – serratus posterior inferior muscle and XII rib Inferior – internal oblique abdominal muscle Medial – erector spinae muscle Lateral – transverse abdominal muscle Anterior and inferior – transverse abdominal muscle 6. What is the bottom of superior lumbar triangle (or rhombus) of Lesgaft-Grynfeldt: Internal oblique abdominal muscle Aponeurosis of transverse abdominal muscle Quadrarus lumborum muscle Psoas muscle Latissimus dorsi muscle 7. Which structures pierce the bottom of superior lumbar triangle (or rhombus) of Lesgaft-Grynfeldt? Ilioinginal and iliohypogastric nerves Superficial circumphlex iliac artery and vein Inferior phrenic artery and vein Subcostal artery, vein and nerve 30 Lumbar artery and vein 8. Possible routs of pus and hematomas spreading from proper retroperitoneal space: In hepatic bursa In omental bursa In prevesical celluloadipose space In subdiaphragmal celluloadipose space In parietal pelvic celluloadipose space 9. What celluloadipose space is delimited by the leaves of splitting retroperitoneal fascia? Paracolon space Paranephral space Proper retroperitoneal space Preperitoneal space No space is delimited 10. What anatomical structures are situated in paranephral celluloadipose space? Kidneys and ureters Aorta and inferior vena cava Suprarenal gland Neural plexuses Pancreas 11. What anatomical structures are situated in paracolonic celluloadipose space? Sigmoid colon Pancreas Doudenum Aorta Inferior vena cava 12. Kidney projection on the anterolateral abdominal wall is: In epigastric and hypochondriac right and left regions In mesogastric and lateral abdominal regions In epigastric region In hypogastric region In umbilical region 13. Renal hilum projection on the anterior abdominal wall is: On the intersection of rectus abdomini muscle with costal arch 10 cm below the intersection of rectus abdomini muscle with costal arch On the level of costal arch and xiphoid process On the level of umbilicus On the level of apex of xiphoid process 14. Renal hilum projection on posterior abdominal wall is: On the intersection of lateral edges of erector spinae muscle with XII rib 10 cm below the intersection of lateral edges of erector spinae muscle with XII rib On the intersection of erector spinae muscle with XI rib On the intersection of erector spinae muscle with X rib On the intersection of erector spinae muscle with IX rib 15. Interrelation between structures of renal hilum from anterior to posterior: Artery, vein, ureter Vein, artery, ureter Artery, ureter, vein Ureter, artery, vein Vein, ureter, artery 16. Right kidney has interrelation with the following limitrophe organs: Liver and descending part of duodenum Root of transverse mesocolon Aorta Lesser omentum Stomach 17. Left kidney has interrelation with the following limitrophe organs: Tail of pancreas Spleen Roor of transverse mesocolon Lesser omentum and liver Sigmoid colon 18. Where is situated suprarenal gland? In paranephral space In paracolon In retroperitoneal space In the splitting of prerenal fascia In retrorenal fascia 19. Right suprarenal gland has interrelation with the following limitrophe structures: Liver 31 Diaphragm Aorta Inferior vena cava Right colic flexure 20. Left suprarenal gland has interrelation with the following limitrophe structures: Pancreas Omental bursa Inferior vena cava Aorta Transverse colon 21. Projection of the ureter on anterior abdominal wall: On lateral edge of the rectus abdomini muscles On medial edge of the rectus abdomini muscles 6 cm lateral to the lateral edge of rectus abdomini muscle 6 cm medial to the medial edge of rectus abdomini muscle On linea alba 22. Projection of ureter on posterior abdominal wall: Parallel to the tips of spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae Parallel to the tips of transversal processes of lumbar vertebrae On scapular lines On posterior axillary lines On midaxillary lines 23. Which vessels cross ureters and pass anteriorly to them on the level of terminal line of pelvis? Right ureter crosses right common iliac artery Right ureter crosses right external iliac artery Left ureter crosses left common iliac artery Left ureter crosses external iliac artery Right ureter crosses internal iliac artery 24. Abdominal aorta has interrelation with the following limitrophe organs: Pancreas Inferior vena cava Sympathetic trunck Lienal vein Descending colon 25. Which of the following are visceral branches of abdominal aorta? Celiac trunk Renal arteries Intercostal arteries Lumbar arteries Diaphragmatic arteries 26. Which of the following are parietal branches of abdominal aorta? Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries Lumbar arteries Median sacral artery Testicular (ovarien) arteries Suprarenal arteries 27. What anatomical structures cross inferior vena cava from posterior? Right renal artery Left renal artery Right lumbar arteries Left testicular (ovarien) artery Superior phrenic artery 28. Which of the following are visceral branches of the inferior vena cava? Lumbar veins Hepatic veins Superior mesenteric vein Inferior mesenteric vein Median sacral vein 29. Which of the following are parietal branches of inferior vena cava? Inferior phrenic veins Testicular (ovaric) veins Right middle suprarenal vein Superior phrenic veins Lumbar veins 30. Which neural plexus in the retroperitoneal space is larger and perilous (dangerous)? Renal plexus Abdominal aortic plexus Superior mesenteric plexus Inferior mesenteric plexus Celiac plexus 32 31. Possible immediate diffusion of the pus and hematomas from the paranephral celluloadipose space: In the opposite paranephral space In the prevesical space In the parapleural space In the paraureteral space In proper retroperitoneal space 32. Possible immediate diffusion of pus and hematomas from the paracolic celluloadipose space: In the paranephral space In the proper retroperitoneal space To the root of small intestine mesentery Behind the ascending and descending colon To the root of transverse colon mesentery along the pancreas and duodenum 33. Which group of muscles is localized in the medial part of the lumbar region? Transverse abdominal, greater psoas, external oblique abdominal Erector spinae; lesser and greater psoas Erector spinae, lesser and greater psoas, quadratus lumborum, serraturs inferior posterior Internal oblique abdominal, erector spinae, greater dorsal muscle Serratus inferior posterior, erector spinae, qudratus lumborum, external oblique abdominal 34. Which group of muscles is localized in the lateral part of the lumbar region? Latissimus dorsi, transverse abdominal, internal oblique abdominal, quadratus lumborum Latissimus dorsi, oblique internal and external abdominal, transverse abdominal External oblique abdominal, internal oblique abdominal, quadratus lumborum, erector spinae Latissimus dorsi, erector spinae, transverse abdominal, external oblique abdominal Internal and external oblique abdominal, latissimus dorsi, serratus posterior inferior, greater psoas 35. Which nerves have connections with the celiac neural plexus? Lumbar plexus Splanchnic nerves Subcostal and intercostal nerves Vagus and diaphragmal nerves Sympathetic trunk 36. Where is situated the celiac plexus? Around the celiac arterial trunk on the anterior surface of aorta Around the superior mesenteric artery On the posterior surface of aorta Posterior to the tail of pancreas Around the pancreas 37. Where is situated the renal nervous plexus? Around the renal artery Around the kidney On the anterior surface of the kidney On the posterior surface of the kidney Around the renal pelvis 38. How many narrowings has the ureter in the retroperitoneal region? One Two Three Four Five 39. How many equal parts of the ureter are considered? None Two Three Four Five 40. Where is situated the femoral nerve? Between the greater psoas and quadratus lumborum muscles Between iliac and greater psoas muscles Between the greater and lesser psoas Between quadratus lumborum and its fascia No correct answer 41. Where is situated the genitofemoral nerve? Protrudes the fascia projecting on the anterior surface of the greater psoas muscle On the posterior surface of the greater psoas Between greater psoas and quadratus lumborum muscles Between greater psoas and iliac muscles Between transverse fascia and the parietal peritoneum Pelvis 33 1. Innominated line of the pelvic inlet is delimited by: Superior branches of pubic bones Superior border of pubic symphysis Sacrotuberous and acrospinous ligaments and sacrum Inferior border of pubic symphysis, ischial bones and coccyx Promontory 2. Internal walls of the pelvis are covered by the next muscles: Obturator external Piriformis Gemellus superior and inferior Gluteus minor and iliopsoas Obturator internal 3. Exit from the pelvic cavity is closed by: Gluteus major and medius Bulbocavernosus Transversus perinei profundus Obturator externus Levator ani 4. Greater sciatic foramen is delimitated by: Sacrotuberal ligament Sacrospinal ligament Lesser sciatic notch Greater sciatic notch Sacrum 5. Lesser sciatic foramen is delimitated by: Sacrotuberal ligament Sacrospinal ligament Lesser sciatic notch Greater sciatic notch Sacrum 6. Piriform muscle originates from: Posterior superior iliac spine Iliac wings Coccyx Anterior surface of sacrum Anterior superior iliac spine 7. Levator ani muscle originates from: Terminal line of pelvis Margins of cocyx Tendinous arch of pelvic fascia Schiatic bones Sacrospinal ligament 8. Superior corner of Michaels’ lumbar rhombus is at: Spinous process of L5 Tip of coccyx Posterior superior iliac spine Posterior inferior iliac spine Anterior superior iliac spines 9. Gluteal superior nerve is coming out from pelvis through: Greater sciatic foramen Lesser sciatic foramen Obturator foramen Suprapiriform foramen Infrapiriform foramen 10. Visceral pelvic muscles are: Sphincter ani externus Obturator internal muscle Obturator external muscle Levator ani muscle Deep transverse perineal muscle 11. Pelvic fascia is a continuation of: Fascia lata Obturator fascia Transverse aponeurosis Endoabdominal fascia Retroperitoneal fascia 12. In the anterior compartment of subperitoneal storey (level) of pelvis in male are the following: Urinary bladder Prostate Seminal vesicles 34 Rectum Ampulla of ductus deferens 13. In the anterior compartment of the subperitoneal storey (level) of pelvis in female are the followeing: Uterus Greater vestibular gland of Bartholini Ampulla of rectum Urinary bladder Vagina 14. What is situated behind the peritoneo-perineal fascia of Denonvilliers in female? Vagina Posterior fornix of vagina Rectum Cardinal ligaments of uterus Lumbar plexus 15. Tendinous arch of pelvic fascia is between: Ischial tuberosities Inferior margin of pubic symphysis and ischial spine Superior margin of pubic symphysis and ischial tuberosity Inferior margin of pubic symphysis and sacrum Ischial spines 16. Urogenital organs in pelvis are separated from rectum by: Capsule of prostate of Retzius-Pirogov Capsule of rectum of Amussat Obturator fascia Peritoneo-perineal fascia of Denonvilliers Cenrum tendineum perinei 17. Lateral pelvic celluloadipose spaces of pelvis in male contain: Common iliac vessels External iliac vessels Spermatic duct Internal iliac vessels, neural plexuses Ureters 18. Purulence of the lateral celluloadipose space of pelvis can spread to the gluteal region through: Suprapiriform foremen Infrapiriform foramen Pudendal (Alcock’s) canal Obturator canal Along the round ligament of uterus 19. Purulence of the lateral celluloadipose space of pelvis can spread to the medial fascial sheath of the thigh: Along the femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve Along the lateral femural cutaneous nerve Through the Alcock’s canal Through the obturator canal Along the round ligament of uterus 20. Parametral cellular space is localized between: Layers of the broad ligament of uterus Around the cervix uteri Transverse perineal muscles In the rectouterine pouch of Douglas In the vesicouterine pouch 21. Purulence of parametral celluloadipose space can spread immediately to: Anterior region of the thigh Gluteal region Retroperitonial space Retrorectal space Lateral pelvic celluloadipose space 22. In the parametrium are the following: Uterine arteries Ureters Sacral plexus Venous and nervous uterine plexuses Vagina 23. Pelvic region is divided in storeys: One - pelvic Two - peritoneal and extraperitoneal Three - peritoneal, subperitoneal and subcutaneous Four - peritoneal anterior and posterior, subperitonel and extraperitoneal Is separated in layers but not in storeys 24. Peritoneal storey of pelvis is localized: 35 Between wings of the iliac bones Between pelvic diaphragm and peritoneum Between peritoneum and fascia of Denonvilliers Between urogenital diaphragm and peritoneum It is the superior part of the pelvic cavity where organs are covered by peritoneum 25. Indicate the folds and excavations of the peritoneal pelvic storey in female: Transverse vesical fold Rectouterine and vesicouterine excavations Rectovesical folds Vesicouterine folds Sacrouterine folds 26. Indicate the folds and excavations of the peritoneal pelvic storey in male: Transverse vesical fold Rectouterine and vesicouterine excavations Rectovesical folds Vesicouterine folds Rectovesical excavation 27. Subperitoneal storey of the pelvis is delimited by: Iliac wings Fascia that covers levator ani and walls of pelvis Fascia of Denonvilliers Bottom of the peritoneal sac Pelvic organs 28. Specify what is localized in the subperitoneal storey of the pelvis: Inferior epigastric artery and vein All pelvic organs except ovaries Lumbar plexus Internal iliac artery and vein Sacral plexus 29. Subcutaneous pelvic storey is localized between: Iliac wings and skin Above the pelvic diaphragm Anal and urogenital diaphragms are above and skin is beneath Layers of urogenital diaphragm Under the skin at margin of the sphincter ani externus muscle only 30. Ischiorectal fossa is delimited by: Pubic bone Rectum Sphincter ani externus muscle Levator ani muscle Ischial bone together with inferior part of the obturator internal muscle 31. The position of the internal iliac vein with relation to the internal iliac artery is: Medial and posterior Lateral Posterior only Superior Anterior 32. Indicate venous plexuses that can be found in female as well as in male pelvis: Around the urinary bladder Around the rectum Along the cardinal ligament Around the vagina Around the prostate 33. Pelvic portocaval anastomosis, it is a connection between: Superior rectal vein Inferior rectal veins Middle rectal veins Venous plexus around the urinary bladder In pelvis there are no portocaval anastomoses 34. Where is localized sacral plexus? On the obturator internal muscle On the obturator external muscle On the gemelli muscles On the piriform muscle On the anterior surface of the sacrum 35. Sacral plexus is formed by the anterior branches of the spinal nerves: L2-3 L4-5 S1-2-3-4 S5 36 N. gluteus superior and inferior, femoralis cutaneus posterior, ischiadicus 36. Where is localized the sympathetic trunk in pelvis? On the obturator internal muscle Medial to the anterior sacral foramens On the gemelli muscles On the piriform muscle Lateral to the anterior sacral foramens 37. Sympathetic innervation of the pelvic organs is provided by: Sacral plexus Lumbar plexus Sympathetic trunk Right and left hypogastric plexuses Celiac plexus 38. Parasympathetic innervation of the pelvic organs is provided by: Pelvic splanchnic nerves Lumbar plexus Sympathetic trunk Right and left hypogastric plexuses Coccygeal plexus 39. Parietal lymph nodes of the pelvis are placed mostly along: Common iliac artery External iliac arteries On the surface of obturator internal muscle Anterior surface of the sacrum Posterior surface of the sacrum 40. Lymph draines from the external genital organs to lymph nodes that are situated: Along the common iliac artery Nearby the inguinal ligament On the anterior surface of sacrum Along the external iliac artery Along the obturator artery 41. Lymph draines from the rectum to lymph nodes that are situated: Along the common iliac artery Along the internal iliac artery On the anterior surface of sacrum Along the external iliac artery Along the obturator artery 42. Lymph draines from the internal genital organs to lymph nodes that are situated: Along the common iliac artery Along the internal iliac artery On the anterior surface of sacrum Along the external iliac artery Along the obturator artery 43. Pudendal (Alcock’s) canal is delimited by: Ischial tuberosity and obturator membrane Splitting of the obturator fascial beneath the insertion of levator ani muscle Obturator membrane and obturator internal muscle Ischial tuberosity and obturator internal muscle Sacrospinous and obturator internal muscle 44. Pudendal (Alcock’s) canal contains: Obturator artery, vein, and nerve Pudendal nerve Pudendal internal artery and vein Gluteus inferior artery, vein and nerve Pudendal external artery and vein 45. How many cellular spaces are considered in front of the urinary bladder? One - prevesical Two - prevesical and preperitoneal Three - prevesical, preperitoneal, paravesical Four - prevesical, preperitoneal, paravesical and retrovesical Five - prevesical, preperitoneal, paravesical, retrovesical and preurethral 46. Which cellular space is localized at the sides of the urinary bladder? Paravesical Preperitoneal Retropubic Paraprostatic or parametric There is no cellular space on sides of urinary bladder 47. What is situated in front of the lower third of rectum in female’s pelvis? Posterior wall of vagina 37 Urinary bladder Cervix uteri Posterior fornix of vagina Uterus 48. How many arteries provide the vascularization of rectum? One Two Three Four Five 49. Rectum is divided, concerning anatomo-topographical structure, in to how many parts: One Two Three Four Five 50. The largest portion of rectum is: Ampullar part Rectosigmoid part Anal part Sigmoid part Transverse part 51. What is situated in front of the rectum in men? Urinary bladder and ureters Urethra Prostate Ampullae of ductus deferens Seminal vesicles 52. How many curves forms rectum in sagittal plane? One - sacral One - perineal Two - sacral superior and perineal inferior Three - sacral superior, coccygeal middle and perineal inferior Rectum does not form any curves 53. Indicate the sphincters of the rectum: External Internal Tertiary Longitudinal Intermediate 54. Which of the following statements are correct? Peritoneum covers the posterior fornix of vagina Longitudinal axe of the uterus is bended anteriorly Position of the body of the uterus to its neck is that of anteflexion Peritoneum reaches the anterior fornix of vagina Uterus has no mesenterium 55. What within anatomical structure is situated the mesenterium of the uterine tube and ovary? Round ligament of uterus Cardinal ligaments Sacropubic ligaments Broad ligament of uterus Parietal pelvic celluloadipose space 56. The uterine tube is located: In the round ligament of uterus Along the cardinal ligament of uterus On the inferior border of the sacropubic ligament On the superior edge of the broad ligament of uterus In the parietal pelvic celluloadipose space 57. What ligaments stabilize the position of uterus? Round ligaments of uterus Proper ligaments of ovary Sacrouterine ligaments Suspensory ligaments of ovary Cardinal ligaments of uterus 57. Uterine tube is divided into the following parts: Uterine part Isthmus of uterine tube Intermediar part Ampulla and infundibulum of uterine tube Ovarian part 38 58. How many ligaments the ovary has? One Two Three Four It has no ligaments 59. Indicate the ligaments related to the ovary: Suspensory, infundibulopelvic ligament Proper ligament Round ligament Cardinal ligament Broad ligament 60. How many proper ligaments the ovary has? One Two Three Four It has no proper ligaments 61. Innervation of the uterus is provided by? Vesical plexus Sacral plexus Lumbar plexus Rectal plexus Uterovaginal plexus 62. Ovary in the pelvis is located: On the round ligament of uterus Between the leaves of broad ligament of uterus On the ampulla of the uterine tube On the anterior leaf of the broad ligament of uterus At the bifurcation of the common iliac artery 63. What structures does the suspensory ligament of ovary contain? Cardinal ligament Ovarian vein Ovarian artery Tubular artery and vein Uterine artery and vein 64. Pathway of the cardinal ligament of the uterus is: Along the uterine vessels Through the mesosalpinx Through the mesovarium Along the ovarian artery Along the posterior wall of the vagina 65. What parts does the fornix of the vagina include? Anterior Posterior Left Right It does not have any parts 66. Indicate the borders of the perineum: Anterior - branches of pubic and ischial bones Posterior - sacrum Posterior – tip of coccyx Lateral - ischial tuberosities Lateral - obturator membranes 67. Where can be determined the tendinous center of the perineum? From the pubic symphysis to the sacrum On the middle point that connects ischial tuberosities anteriorly to anus Between the ureters and the vagina Between the rectum and the vagina where the rectouterine excavation is located Middle point of the innominate line 68. Urogenital diaphragm is considered as: Levator ani muscle Superficial transverse muscle of the perineum and superficial fascia Superficial and deep transverse muscles of the perineum Deep transverse perineal muscle Pelvic fascias 69. Where do the bulbourethral glands open? In the cavernous part of the urethra In the membranous part of the urethra 39 In the proximal part of the urethra Prostatic part of the urethra Into the seminal vesicles 70. What structures pass through the pudendal (Alckok’s) canal? Ilioinguinal nerve Pudendal nerve Internal pudendal artery and vein Genitofemoral nerve Dorsal nerve of penis 71. What structures pass through the urogenital diaphragm in female? Ducts of greater vestibular (Bartholin’s) glands Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve Urethra Vagina Round ligament of the uterus 72. What structures pass through the urogenital diaphragm in male? Seminal ducts Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve Urethra Obturator artery when occur as “crown of death” Spermatic cord 73. Junctions of the greater lips of pudendum are called: Anterior labial commissure Hymenal caruncles Points of junction Posterior labial commissure Linea aspera 74. Vagina passes through the following muscles: Between bulbocavernous Through ischiocavernous Between obturator internal muscles Through deep transverse perineal Through levator ani muscle 75. Which of the following statements is not correct? Perineal body is the portion that is located between pubic symphysis and anus Perineal body, it is the tendinous center of the perineum Rupture of the tendinous center of the perineum favoures the prolapse of the pelvic organs Prolapse of the pelvic organs can be accompanied by visceral disturbances and strangury Innervation of the perineum is provided only by the pudendal nerve 76. Innervation of skin in the region of perineum is accomplished in women by: Genitofemoral nerve Ilioinguinal nerve Iliohypogastric nerve Pudental nerve Cutaneous femoris posterior nerve 77. Where the lymph drains from the superficial layers of the perineum? Into lymph vessels along the obturator artery Iliac lymph nodes Parasacral lymph vessels Inguinal lymph nodes Lumbar lymph nodes 78. By the vaginal palpation the following structures are usually examined: Uterus and cervix uteri Urinary bladder Uterine tubes Ovaries Rectum 79. What anatomical structures and pathologies can be found through rectal palpation in women? Uterus Urinary bladder Uterine tubes and ovaries Vagina Tail of the pancreas 80. Penis is formed by: One cavernous body Two cavernous bodies One spongy body Two spongy bodies Three cavernous bodies 40 81. How many segments can be distinguished in a man’s urethra? One Two Three Four Five 82. What segments can be distinguished in a man’s urethra? Prostatic part Membranous part Spongy part Terminal part Vesical part 83. How many segments can be distinguished in a woman’s urethra? One Two Three Four Five 84. Indicate with which structures does the inferior wall of the urinary bladder come in contact in men? Prostate Spermatic duct and seminal vesicles Anterior wall of the rectum Coccyx Pubic symphysis 85 Indicate with which structures does the posterior wall of the urinary bladder come in contact in men? Prostate Ampullas of ductus deferens and seminal vesicles Anterior wall of the rectum Coccyx Ureters 86. Indicate with which structures does the inferior wall of the urinary bladder come in contact in women? Venous plexus Ductus deferens Anterior wall of the rectum Anterior wall of the vagina and the uterus Pubic symphysis 87. Involuntary sphincter of the urinary bladder is located in the: Terminal, intramural part of ureters Membranous part of urethra Initial part of urethra Spongy part of urethra All of the sphincters of the urinary bladder are voluntary 88. The voluntary sphincter of the urinary bladder is located in the: Terminal, intramural part of ureters Membranous part of urethra Initial part of urethra Spongy part of urethra All of the sphincters of the urinary bladder are voluntary 89. Afferent lymphatic circulation from the urinary bladder is accomplished by the: Iliac and hypogastric lymph vessels Lymph nodes situated at the bifurcation of the common iliac artery Sacral and paraaortal lymph nodes Inguinal lymph ganglions Directly into the thoracic lymphatic duct 90. Which one of the following statements is wrong? Length of the pelvic part of the ureter is of 15-16cm Pelvic part of the ureter is divided into the rectal and visceral portions At the level of the terminal line the left ureter crosses the left common iliac artery At the level of the terminal line the right ureter crosses the right common iliac artery In front of the initial part of the ureter on the right is located the ileum, on the left the intersigmoid recess 91. Where does the ureter form its first cross with the uterine artery? On the lateral pelvic wall, at the level of initial part of internal iliac artery, being located superficially to the artery On the lateral pelvic wall, at the level of initial part of internal iliac artery, being located deeper to the artery At the level of cervix uteri, being located deeper to the uterine artery At the level of cervix uteri, being located superficially to the uterine artery At the entrance of pelvis, being located lateral to the uterine artery 92. Where does the ureter form its second cross with the uterine artery? On the lateral pelvic wall, at the level of initial part of internal iliac artery, being located superficial to the artery On the lateral pelvic wall, at the level of initial part of internal iliac artery, being located deeper to the artery At the level of cervix uteri, being located deeper to the uterine artery 41 At the level of cervix uteri, being located superficially to the uterine artery At the entrance of pelvis, being located lateral to the uterine artery 93. Which of the statements involves the description of the prostate? It is a glandular organ with the shape of a chestnut In its structure can be distinguished the apex, base, anterior and posterior parts, two lateral and one middle lobes It is surrounded by a dense fascial sheath (capsule of Retzius-Pirogov) Gland is separated from the urinary bladder by celluloadipose tissue Prostate venous plexus is located outside of the prostate capsule 94. Lymph of prostate drains into: Iliac lymph nodes Lumbar lymph nodes and of the bifurcation of the common iliac artery Sacral lymph nodes Inguinal lymph nodes Directly into the thoracic lymph duct 95. Which of the statements describes correctly the location of the seminal vesicles? It is a glandular organ with the shape of a chestnut They are situated in the pelvis upper to the prostate They are close to the posterior wall of the urinary bladder They are located between two structures: ampulla of ductus deferens is medially and ureter is laterally They are situated inside of the prostate capsule 96. Lymph of the vagina drains into: Iliac lymph nodes Lumbar lymph nodes Sacral lymph nodes Inguinal lymph nodes Directly into thoracic lymph duct 97. Innervation of the vagina is provided by: Sacral plexus Lumbar plexus Ovarian plexus Inferior vesical plexus Uterovaginal plexus 98. Which muscles are inserted in the tendinous center of the perineum in women? Bulbospongiosus Sphincter ani externus, levator ani Sphincter ani internus Transversus perinei profundus and superficialis Ischiocavernosus 99. Round ligaments of uterus end in: Labium minus pudendi Pubic symphesis Anterior wall of the vagina Labium majus pudendi Aponeurosis of external oblique abdominal muscle 100. What opens in the prostatic portion of the urethra? Ductus deferens Seminal vesicules Duct of bulbourethral glands Ureters Ejaculatory duct 101. What structures are placed in the broad ligament of uterus? Mesentery of uterine tube Cardinal ligaments of uterus Round ligament of uterus Sacral plexus Hemorrhoid venous plexus 42
